Avanti

- NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Test Code: SB-FT-42-16 Set A

INST RUCT IONS
1. T his paper has 9 0 questions.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Each question has four options, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
4. Each question carries 4 marks.
5. T he paper carries negative marking. 1 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.

Maximum T ime: 90 Minutes Total Marks: 360

Name:_____________________________ Roll Number:__________________

SECT ION I-BIOLOGY

Q1. Match the biological molecule listed under column I with their biological functions listed under
column II and select the answer which gives correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.
Column-I Column-II
(Biological molecules) (Functions)

I. G lycogen p. Hormone

II. G lobulin q. Biocatalyst

III. Steroids r. Antibody

IV. T hrombin s. Storage product

A) I - r; II - q; III - s; IV - p B) I - s; II - q; III - p; IV - r
C) I - q; II - s; III - r; IV - p D) I - s; II - r; III - p; IV - q

Q2. In virus-infected plants the meristematic tissues in both apical and axillary buds are free of virus
because
A) the dividing cells are virus resistant.
B) meristems have antiviral compounds.
C) the cell division of mersitems are faster than the rate of viral multiplication.
D) viruses cannot multiply within meristematic cells.

Q3. T he black pigment in the eye, which reduces the internal reflection, is located in ________.

A) retina B) iris C) sclerotic D) cornea

Q4. Which of the following is not the main function of lymph glands?
A) Producing RBC B) D estroying bacteria
C) Producing WBC D) Producing antibodies

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q5. T he number of glucose molecules required to produce AT P molecules under anaerobic

conditions by a yeast cell is ________.

A) B) C) D)

Q6. Inner lining of the kidney has _________.

A) nephrocyte B) podocyte C) choanocyte D) amoebocyte

Q7. T he sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a human being are
formed in
A) liver of human. B) RBCs of mosquito.
C) oocysts located on outer wall of midgut of D) intestine of human.
mosquito.

Q8. Which of the following is/are an angiospermic hydrophyte(s) ?

A) Hydrilla B) Vallisneria
C) Zizyphus D) Both A and B.

Q9. Which one of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A) G raves' disease B) Pernicious anaemia
C) Rheumatoid arthritis D) Insomnia

Q10. Match the animals given in column A with their location in column B and select the correct option
from the codes given below.
Column-A Column-B

i. D odo a. Africa

ii. Quagga b. Russia

iii. T hylacine c. Mauritius

iv. Steller's sea cow d. Australia

Select the correct match from the following:

A) i-a; ii-c; iii-b; iv-d B) i-d; ii-c; iii-a; iv-b
C) i-c; ii-a; iii-b; iv-d D) i-c; ii-a; iii-d; iv-b.

Q11. Which of the following situations correctly describe the similarity between an angiosperm egg and
a human egg?

i. Eggs of both are formed only once in a lifetime.

ii. Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are stationary.
iii. Both the angiosperm egg and human egg are motile.
iv. Syngamy in both results in the formation of zygote.

Select the correct answer from the options given below :

A) ii and iv B) iv only C) iii and iv D) i and iv.

Q12. Which of the following isotopes is most dangerous to Homo sapiens?

A) Phosphorus- B) Strontium-
C) Caesium- D) Iodine-

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q13. Which of the following is a merit in the Bentham and Hooker's system of classification?
A) T he position of gymnospermae in between dicots and monocots
B) Closely related families are placed apart
C) T he placement of family asteraceae in the beginning of gamopetalae
D) T he placement of order ranales in the beginning

Q14. Mendel found that the reciprocal crosses yielded identical results. From that he concluded that
A) there is independent assortment of trait.
B) sex plays a role in deciding the dominance of a trait.
C) there is no dominance of any trait.
D) sex has no influence on the dominance of traits.

Q15. If by radiation all nitrogenase enzyme are inactivated, then there will be no
A) fixation of nitrogen in legumes. B) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen.
C) conversion of nitrate to nitrite in legumes. D) conversion of ammonium to nitrate in soil.

Q16. According to Allen's Rule, the mammals from colder climates have
A) shorter ears and longer limbs. B) longer ears and shorter limbs.
C) longer ears and longer limbs. D) shorter ears and shorter limbs.

Q17. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?
A) G astric juice will be deficient in chymosin.
B) G astric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen.
C) In the absence of secretion, active pepsin is not formed.
D) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not
converted to trypsin.

Q18. Most widely used bioweapon is

A) Bacillus subtilis. B) Pseudomonas putida.
C) Bacillus anthracis. D) none of these.

Q19. Consider the following statements.

I. In a dicot root, the vascular bundles are collateral and endarch.

II. T he innermost layer of cortex in a dicot root is endodermis.
III. In a dicot root, the phloem masses are separated from the xylem by parenchymatous
cells that are known as the conjunctive tissue.

Of these statements given above

A) I is true; but II and III are false B) II is true; but I and III are false
C) I is false; but II and III are true D) III is false; but I and II are true.

Q20. Spadix is the inflorescence of ______.

A) rice B) banana C) Amaranthus D) Ficus

Q21. T he pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce
fruits throughout the year by the application of _______.
A) IAA, IBA B) NAA, 2,4-D
C) phenyl acetic acid D) cytokinin

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q22. In the tissues, high concentration of carbon dioxide

A) increases the affinity of haemoglobin to both oxygen and hydrogen.
B) increases the affinity of haemoglobin to oxygen but decreases its affinity to hydrogen.
C) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin to oxygen but increases its affinity to hydrogen.
D) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin to both oxygen and hydrogen.

Q23. T he 'thick' filament in muscles is polymerized protein of _________.

A) meromyosins B) actins C) troponins D) tropomyosins

Q24. Which of the following statements regarding cilia is not correct?

A) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet microtubules surrounding two singlet
microtubules.
B) AT P is not required for ciliary movements.
C) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages.
D) Microtubules of cilia are composed of tubulin.

Q25. Which one of the following does correctly match a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?
A) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum B) G onorrhoea - Entramoeba histolytica
C) Urethritis - Bacillus anthracis D) Softsore - Bacillus brevis

Q26. Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. Endothecium lies behind the epidermis.

b. Fusion of egg with male gamete is called apogamy.
c. Synergids are haploid.
d. T he point at which the funicle touches the ovule is raphe.

A) a and d only B) a and b only

C) a and d only D) a and c only

Q27. First polar body is formed at which stage of oogenesis?

A) First meiosis B) Second mitosis
C) First mitosis D) D ifferentiation

Q28. T he carboxylating enzyme present in the bundle sheath cells of maize leaves is ________.
A) PEP-carboxylase B) RuBP carboxylase
C) carbonic anhydrase D) hexokinase

Q29. Choose the mis-matched option.

A) Wind - Cannabis - Anemophily B) Water - Zoostera - Hydrophily
C) Insects - Salvia - Entomophily D) Birds - Adansonia - Ornithophily

Q30. Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of:

i.
ii.
iii.
iv.

A) ii only B) iii only C) ii and iv D) i and iii

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q31. Which of the following is true for 'parathormone'?

A) It increases blood calcium level and B) It decreases blood calcium level and
decreases calcium store of the bone. increases calcium store of the bone.
C) It increases blood glucose level and D) It decreases blood glucose level and
decreases calcium store of the bone. increases calcium store of the bone.

Q32. Pacemaker is _________.

A) SA-node B) SV-node C) AV-node D) VA-node

Q33. Out of petals of a flower bud, two are completely internal, two are completely external and the
remaining one has its margin at one end internal and external at the other. Which of the following
is this type of aestivation?

A) Imbricate B) Valvate C) Vexillary D) Quincuncial

Q34. In Bryophyllum, vegetative propagation is by ________.

A) roots B) leaves C) rhizomes D) runners

Q35. Pick out the correct statement.

i. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

ii. D own's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
iii. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal dominant gene disorder.
iv. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.
v. Sickle-cell anaemia is a -linked recessive gene disorder.

A) i, iii and v are correct B) i and iii are correct

C) ii and v are correct D) i, ii and iv are correct

Q36. A mixture containing D NA fragments, and , with molecular weights of

and , was subjected to agarose gel electrophoresis. T he positions of
these fragments from anode to cathode sides of the gel would be

A) B) C) D)

Q37. Pure line breed refers to

A) heterozygosity only. B) heterozygosity and linkage.
C) homozygosity only. D) homozygosity and self assortment.

Q38. An ecological pyramid of biomass is the representation of an ecosystem's

A) energy flow through each trophic level. B) population in each food web.
C) tissue organisation at each trophic level. D) all of the above.

Q39. In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous flower the arrangement of floral whorls on the
thalamus from the outermost to the innermost is
A) calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium. B) calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium.
C) gynoecium, androecium, corolla and calyx. D ) androecium, gynoecium, corolla and calyx.

Q40. Which of the following statements about breeding is wrong?

A) By inbreeding purelines cannot be evolved.
B) Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity.
C) Cross-breeding allows desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined.
D) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q41. Select the incorrect statement from the following.

A) T he montreal protocol is associated with the control of emission of ozone depleting
substances.
B) Methane and carbon dioxide are green house gases.
C) D obson units are used to measure oxygen content.
D) Use of incinerators is crucial for the disposal of hospital wastes.

Q42. Select the correct combination of labeling the molecules involved in the pathway of anaerobic
respiration in yeast.

A) A - Ethanol, B - , C - Acetaldehyde B) A - , B - Ethanol, C - Acetaldehyde

C) A - , B - Acetaldehyde, C - Ethanol D) A - Ethanol, B - Acetaldehyde, C -

Q43. Viruses can be considered as living because they

A) reproduce in host cells. B) respond to touch stimulus.
C) carry out metabolic activities. D) carry out anaerobic respiration.

Q44. Select the wrong statement.

A) VNT Rs belong to a class of mini-satellite D NA.
B) D NA sequencers work on the principle developed by Frederick Sanger.
C) HG P was coordinated by US D epartment of Energy and the National Institute of Health.
D) D NA fingerprinting involves identifying similarities in repetitive D NA.

Q45. One common example of simple reflex is

A) tying your shoe laces while talking to another person and not looking at them.
B) watering of mouth at the sight of a favourite food.
C) climbing up a stairs in dark without stumbling.
D) closing of eyes when strong light is flashed across them.

Q46. Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual
cycle?
A) Release of egg : day B) Endometrium regenerates
C) Implantation occurs D) Rise in progesterone level .

Q47. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following triplets
codes for valine?

A) GGG B) AAG C) G AA D) G UG

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q48. Consider the following statements with respect to photosynthesis.

i. T he first carbon dioxide acceptor in cycle is PG A.

ii. In plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during dark reaction is
iii. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of AT P.
iv. Oxygen which is liberated during photosynthesis comes from water.

Of the above statements

A) i and ii are correct B) i and iii are correct
C) iii and iv are correct D) ii and iii are correct

Q49. T he characteristic that is shared by urea, uric acid and ammonia is/are

I. T hey are nitrogenous wastes.

II. T hey all need very large amount of water for excretion.
III. T hey are all equally toxic.
IV. T hey are produced in the kidneys.

A) I, III and IV B) I only

C) I and III D) I and IV

Q50. AT P is synthesized in ________.

A) plasmalemma B) ion channels
C) particles D) all of these

Q51. Some of the steps involved in the production of humulin are given below. Select the correct
sequence.

i. Synthesis of gene (D NA) for human insulin artificially.

ii. Culturing recombinant E. coli in bioreactors.
iii. Purification of humulin.
iv. Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid.
v. Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E. coli.
vi. Extraction of recombinant gene products from E. coli.

A) ii, i, iv, iii, v, vi B) i, iii, v, vi, ii, iv.

C) i, iv, v, ii, vi, iii D) iii, v, ii, i, vi, iv.

Q52. A probe, which is a molecule used to locate specific sequences in a mixture of D NA or RNA
molecules, could be
A) a single stranded RNA. B) a single stranded D NA.
C) either RNA or D NA. D) can be ss D NA but not ss RNA.

Q53. In a typical Mendelian cross which is dihybrid cross, one parent is homozygous for both dominant
traits and another parent is homozygous for both recessive traits. In the generation, both
parental combinations and recombinations appear. T he phenotypic ratio of parental combinations
to recombinations is

A) B) C) D)

Q54. T he type or epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small
bronchi are known as __________.
A) squamous epithelium B) columnar epithelium
C) ciliated epithelium D) cubical epithelium

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q55. Which one of the following pairs of geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our country?
A) Sunderbans and Rann of Kutch B) Eastern G hats and West Bengal
C) Eastern Himalaya and Western G hats D) Kerala and Punjab

Q56. Excretion in cockroach takes place by _________.

A) nephridium B) parotid gland
C) coxal glands D) malpighian tubules

Q57. Match the following list of bioactive substances and their roles.
Bioactive substance Role

i. Statin a. Removal of oil stains

ii. Cyclosporin A b. Removal of clots from blood vessels

iii. Streptokinase c. Lowering of blood cholesterol

iv. Lipase d. Immuno-suppressive agent

Select the correct match.

A) i-b; ii-c; iii-a; iv-d B) i-d; ii-b; iii-a; iv-c
C) i-d; ii-a; iii-d; iv-c D) i-c; ii-d; iii-b; iv-a.

Q58. In higher plants, continuity of cytoplasm from one cell to its neighboring cells is established
through _______.

A) apoplast B) chloroplast C) leucoplast D) symplast

Q59. If is in a respiratory metabolism, it would mean that

A) carbohydrates are used as respiratory substrate.
B) organic acids are used as respiratory substrate.
C) the oxidation of the respiratory substrate consumed more oxygen than the amount of
released.
D) the oxidation of the respiratory substrate consumed less oxygen than the amount of
released.

Q60. Which of the following statements on phytohormones and their actions are correct?

i. Cytokinins specially help in delaying senescence.

ii. Auxins are involved in regulating apical dominance.
iii. Ethylene is specially useful in inhibiting seed germination.
iv. G ibberellins are responsible for immature falling of leaves.

A) i and iii only B) i and iv only

C) i and ii only D) ii and iii only

Q61. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacterium present in the soil?

A) Nitrosomonas B) Rhizobium C) Azotobacter D) Pseudomonas

Q62. Which of the following characters is absent in all chordates?

A) D iaphragm B) Coelom
C) Pharyngeal gill clefts D) D orsal nerve cord

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q63. Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model for the structure of cell membrane, which one of the
following statements is correct with respect to the movement of lipids and proteins from one lipid
monolayer to the other (described as flipflop movement)?
A) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop B) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, protein
cannot.
C) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids cannot. D) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop.

Q64. G lisson's capsules are present in _______.

A) kidney B) liver C) stomach D) lung

Q65. Which of the following is the correct sequence of taxonomic categories?

A) Class - phylum - tribe - order - family - genus - species
B) D ivision - class - family - tribe - order - genus - species
C) D ivision - class - order - family - tribe - genus - species
D) Phylum - order - class - tribe - family - genus - species

Q66. Which of the following statement is without exception for sponges?

A) T hey all have calcareous spicules B) T hey have high regenerative power
C) T hey are found only in marine water D) T hey are all radially symmetric

Q67. What is the function of enterogastrone?

A) It regulates the flow of bile. B) It inhibits the secretion of gastric juice.
C) It stimulates the flow of pancreatic juice. D) It stimulates the secretion of digestive
juice in the stomach.

Q68. Select the false statement.

A) Scientists who study and contribute to the classification of organisms are known as
systematists.
B) Carolus Linnaeus developed the first scientific system of naming species.
C) A five kingdom arrangement of organisms was introduced by R.H. Whittaker.
D) Phycomycetes are called club fungi because of a club shaped end of mycelium known as
basidium.

Q69. Which one of the four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of single uriniferous
tubule?
A) D istal convoluted tubule B) Collecting duct
C) Bowman's capsule D) Loop of Henle

Q70. Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated by _________.

A) thyroxine B) LH C) MSH D) testosterone

Q71. In a fertilized embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures respectively are
A) synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus.
B) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei.
C) antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus.
D) synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q72. Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments and stored food in the different
groups of algae and select the correct option.

I. In chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are
chlorophyll- and .
II. In phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll- and
.
III. In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are
chlorophyll- and phycoerythrin.

A) I is correct, but II and III are wrong. B) I and II are correct, but III is wrong.
C) I and III are correct, but II is wrong. D) II is correct, but I and III are wrong.

Q73. represents an equation used in

A) population genetics. B) mendelian genetics.
C) biometrics. D) molecular genetics.

Q74. Amniocentesis is a technique to

A) determine any disease in heart. B) determine any hereditary disease in the
embryo.
C) know about the disease of brain. D) grow cell on culture medium.

Q75. Biological concept of species is mainly based on

A) reproductive isolation. B) morphological features.
C) methods of reproduction. D) both B and C.

Q76. Which of the following is an opioid drug?

A) Heroin B) Cocaine C) Marijuana D) Hashish

Q77. Match the following and select the correct combination from the options given.
Column-I Column-II
(G roup protista) (Example)

a. Chrysophytes i. Paramecium

b. D inoflagellates ii. Euglena

c. Euglenoids iii. Gonyaulax

d. Protozoans iv. D iatoms

A) a - ii; b - iii; c - ii; d - iv B) a - iv; b - iii; c - ii; d - i

C) a - iv; b - ii; c - iii; d - i D) a - iii; b - iv; c - i; d -ii

Q78. Which of the following is a method of birth control?

A) IUD s B) G IFT C) HT F D) IVF-ET

Q79. T he intermediate zone lying between two adjacent communities is called ____________.

A) edge effect B) niche C) succession D) ecotone

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 Avanti - NEET Full syllabus Test 2 (Biology) - Set A

Q80. T he central dogma of protein synthesis is

A) B)
C) D)

Q81. Which of the following inhibits the photosynthesis by blocking PS-II?

A) D CMU B) CMU C) PAN D) All of these

Q82. T he synaptonemal complex is formed during which phase?

A) Pachytene B) D iplotene C) D iakinesis D) Zygotene

Q83. T he extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from __________.
A) trophoblast B) inner cell mass
C) formative cells D) follicle cells

Q84. Identify the order the plants will be showing alternate, opposite and whorled phyllotaxy
respectively.
A) China rose, Calotropis and Nerium B) China rose, Nerium, Calotropis
C) Nerium, China rose, Calotropis D) Nerium, Calotropis, China rose.

Q85. Haemoglobin is a type of _______.

A) carbohydrate B) respiratory pigment
C) vitamin D) skin pigment

Q86. Essential : non-essential amino acid is ________.

A) lysine : leucine B) methionine : tryptophan
C) valine : tyrosine D) alanine : cystine

Q87. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?

A) Collar bones - 3 pairs B) Salivary glands - 1 pair
C) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs D) Floating ribs - 2 pairs.

Q88. Colchicine is an inhibitory chemical, which

A) stops the functioning of centriole. B) prevents attaching of centromere with
rays.
C) prevents the spindle formation in mitosis. D) prevents the formation of equatorial plate.

Q89. Increase in concentration of toxicant at successive tropic levels is called

A) algal bloom. B) accelerated eutrophication.
C) biomagnification. D) cultural eutrophication.

Q90. G ene therapy involves

A) introduction of normal genes in cell. B) treating of defective genes with radiation.
C) eliminating defective and useless genes. D) replacement of defective genes by normal
ones.

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