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- NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Test Code: SB-FT-44-16 Set A

1. T his paper has 9 0 questions.
2. All questions are compulsory.
3. Each question has four options, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
4. Each question carries 4 marks.
5. T he paper carries negative marking. 1 marks will be deducted for each wrong answer.

Maximum T ime: 90 Minutes Total Marks: 360

Name:_____________________________ Roll Number:__________________


Q1. T he biggest constraint of plant breeding is

A) availability of suitable vectors. B) infrastructure.
C) trained manpower. D) transfer of genes from unrelated sources.

Q2. Coronary heart disease is due to

A) streptococci bacteria.
B) inflammation of pericardium.
C) weakening of the heart valves.
D) insufficient blood supply to the heart muscles.

Q3. T he release of pancreatic juice from the pancreas in a mammal is stimulated by ________.
A) rennin B) enterokinase
C) trypsinogen D) choleocystokinin

Q4. In electron transport system (ET S), which of the following cytochrome reacts with oxygen?
A) B)
C) D)

Q5. T he spatial arrangement produced by the twisting and folding of the peptide chains in a protein is
referred to as its _________.
A) primary structure B) secondary structure
C) tertiary strcuture D) quaternary structure

Q6. T he common means of transmission of AID S is

A) unprotected sexual intercourse. B) blood transfusion.
C) placental transfer. D) all of these.

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q7. Width of D NA molecule in is _______.

A) B)
C) D)

Q8. Mottled chlorosis on the leaves occur due to the deficiency of _______.
A) zinc B) copper
C) potassium D) boron

Q9. Which of the following D NA sequences qualifies to be designated as a palindrome?

A) in one strand
B) in one strand

Q10. Casparian strip is made up of

A) lignin B) pectin
C) suberin D) cellulose

Q11. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of D NA that is
produced (in the host cells) as
A) both sense and anti-sense RNA. B) a particular hormone.
C) an antifeedant. D) a toxic protein.

Q12. Consider the following statements.

I. In prokaryotic cells, a special membranous structure formed by the extension of the

plasma membrane into the cell is known as polysome.
II. T he smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the major site for synthesis of glycoproteins.
III. RuBisCo is the most abundant proteins in the whole of biospshere.
IV. Mitochondria, chloroplalsts and peroxisomes are considered as part of endomembrane
Of the above statements.

A) III and IV are correct B) I and II are correct

C) II and III are correct D) I and IV are correct

Q13. G lomerular filtrate is

A) blood minus blood corpuscles and plasma protein.
B) blood minus corpuscles.
C) mixture of water, ammonia and corpuscles.
D) urine.

Q14. T he electron transport system present in the inner mitochondrial membrane complexes I and IV
have __________ respectively.
A) dehydrogenase and
B) and dehydrogenase
C) dehydrogenase and cytochrome oxidase complex
D) dehydrogenase and AT P synthase

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q15. G ene library refers to

A) D NA sequence information maintained in data bank.
B) D NA fragments maintained in agarose gel.
C) D NA fragments of a genome maintained by cloning in cultured cells.
D) photographs of D NA fragments printed in books.

Q16. Choose the correct statement from the following:

A) Cleistogamous flowers alway exhibit autogamy.
B) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit geitonogamy.
C) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy and geitonogamy.
D) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit autogamy.

Q17. Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?
A) T hyroid - hyperactivity in young children causes cretinism
B) T hymus - starts undergoing atrophy after puberty
C) parathyroid - secretes corticosterone which promotes movement of calcium ions from blood
into bones during calcification.
D) Pancreas - delta cells of the islets of Langerhans secrete a hormone which stimulates
glycolysis in liver.

Q18. Which one of the following statements with regards to embryonic development in humans is
A) Cleavage divisions bring about considerable increase in the mass of protoplasm
B) In the second cleavage division, one of the two blastomeres usually divided a little sooner
than the second.
C) With more cleavage divisions the resultant blastomeres become larger and larger.
D) Cleavage division results in a solid ball of cells called morula.

Q19. Identify the wrong statements.

A) In male grasshoppers, of the sperms have no sex chromosome.
B) Usually female birds produce two types of gametes based on sex chromosomes.
C) T he human males have one of their sex chromosomes much shorter than the other.
D) In domesticated fowls, the sex of the progeny depends on the type of sperm that fertilizes
the egg.

Q20. Match the following bacteria with the diseases and select the correct option.

Column I Column II

a. Treponema pallidum I. Plague

b. Yersinia pestis II. Anthrax

c. Bacillus anthracis III. Syphilis

d. Vibrio IV. Cholera

A) a - I, b - III, c - II, d - IV B) a - III, b - I, c - II, d - IV

C) a - II, b - III, c - I, d - IV D) a - IV, b - III, c - I, d - II

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q21. Plants die when overfertilised due to

A) damage to the wall of delicate root hairs. B) bulk absorption of ions.
C) dehydration by exosmosis. D) increased soil .

Q22. Which of the following is an edible fungi?

A) Mucor B) Pencillium
C) Rhizopus D) Agaricus

Q23. T ranspiration facilitates

A) electrolyte balance. B) absorption of water by roots.
C) opening of stomata. D) excretion of minerals.

Q24. In humans, sphincter of Oddi is associated with the opening of

A) hepatopancreatic ampulla. B) pyloric stomach.
C) oesophagus. D) common hepatic duct.

Q25. Insectivorous plants usually grow in soils which are deficient in

A) nitrogen/nitrate. B) water.
C) organic matter. D) Ca/Mg.

Q26. Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example of ________.

A) mutualism B) commensalism
C) parasitism D) amensalism

Q27. Select the correct sequence of stages of meiotic -I prophase.

A) Zygotene leptotene diplotene diakinesis pachytene
B) Leptotene zygotene Pachytene diplotene diakinesis
C) Leptotene diplotene pachytene diakinesis zygotene
D) D iakinesis diplotene pachytene zygotene laptotene

Q28. Stomata in angiosperms open and close due to

A) their genetic constitution. B) effect of hormone.
C) changes of turgor pressure in guard cells. D ) pressure of gases inside the leaves.

Q29. Vascular bundles where the phloem is found to be present on both sides of xylem is said to be
A) radial B) conjoint
C) collateral D) bicollateral

Q30. Which cells on grass leaves help in minimizing transpiration?

A) G uard cells B) Bulliform cells
C) G aseous excretory cells D) Endodermal cells.

Q31. Which of the following parts has a high density of organisms?

A) G rasslands B) Savannahs
C) D eciduous forests D) T ropical rain forests

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q32. Which of the following is mismatched?

A) Phaneros - visible B) Kryptos - Concealed
C) G ymno - Naked D) Beyon - Liverworts

Q33. Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of cyanobacteria?

A) T hey are multicellular B) T hey form colonies
C) T hey blooms in polluted water bodies D) T hey can fix atmospheric nitrogen

Q34. T he process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic
adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called
A) natural selection. B) convergent evolution.
C) non-random evolution. D) adaptive radiation.

Q35. What is vital capacity of our lungs?

A) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
B) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
D) Total lung capacity minus residual volume

Q36. Which one is the most important role of micro organism for the well being of humans?
A) Sewage treatment B) Production of methane
C) Biological control of plant disease D) Conversion of milk to curd

Q37. Match the excretory organs listed under column, I with the animals given under column II. Select
the answer which gives the correct combination of the two columns
Column I Column II
(Animals) (Excretory organ)

a. Nephridia I. Hydra

b. Malpighian rubules II. Leec

c. Protonephridia III. Shark

d. Kidneys IV. Roundworms

V. Cockroach

A) a - II; b - V; c - IV; d - III B) a - IV; b - II; c - I; d - V

C) a - V; b - II; c - IV; d - III D) a - II; b - IV; c - V; d - I

Q38. Synadactyly, prehensile tail and long protrusible tongue are the unique feature of ________.
A) rhesus monkey B) Archaeopterys
C) horse fish D) Chameleon

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q39. Read the statements regarding muscle proteins.

I. Actin is a thin filament and is made up of two F-actins.

II. T he complex protein, tropomyosin is distributed at regular intervals on the troponin.
III. Myosin is a thick filament which is also a polymerized protein.
IV. T he globular head of meromyosin consists of light meromyosin (LMM).
Of the above statements,

A) (I), (II) and (III) are correct B) (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
C) (I) and (III) are correct D) (II) and (IV) are correct.

Q40. All the following are included under in situ conservation except _________.
A) national park B) sanctuary
C) botanical garden D) biosphere reserve

Q41. D uring cyclic electron transport, which one of the following is produced?
A) AT P B) Erythrose
C) D) None of these

Q42. Which statement is incorrect?

A) Mast cells and basophils secrete histamine and heparin.
B) Mast cells are long lived, basophils are short lived.
C) Mast cells are smaller than basophils with a bilobed nucleus.
D) Mast cells are relatively sessile, basophils are mobile.

Q43. Which of the following is correct about Mendel's statement ?

A) characters, pair traits B) pair characters, traits
C) characters, traits D) pair characters, pair traits

Q44. Sporopollenin, a chemical substance is found in

A) intine of pollen grain. B) exine of pollen grain.
C) endothecium of anther. D) tapetum of anther.

Q45. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born form certain diseases is _______.
A) type B) type
C) type D) type

Q46. T he historic convention on Biological D iversity held in Rio-de-Janeiro in 1992 is known as

A) CIT IES convention B) T he earth summit
C) G -16 summit D) MAB programme

Q47. Insectivorous plants usually live in

A) soil rich in trace elements. B) soil deficient in sugars.
C) water rich soil. D) soil deficient in nitrogenous compounds.

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q48. Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the
events in a proper sequence.
- Secretion of G rowth of corpus luteum, G rowth of the follicle and oogenesis,
Ovulation, Sudden increase in the levels of
A) B)
C) D)

Q49. T he helicotrema is the communicating link between the

A) sacculus and cochlea. B) tympanic and vestibular canals.
C) vestibular and median canals. D) sacculus and utriculus.

Q50. secretes which of the following hormone?

A) Mineralocortiocoids B) G lucocorticoids
C) Both A and B D) None of these


In the above question letter and denote

A) rennin and respectively B) and rennin respectively

C) rennin, and respectively D) renin and respectively

Q52. In a grassland ecosystem, if the number of primary producers is approximately million plants the
number of top carnivore (in million) which may be supported by it may be _______.
A) B)
C) D)

Q53. Sterilization techniques are generally fool-proof methods of contraception with least side effects.
Yet, this is the last option for couples because

I. it is almost irreversible.
II. of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive.
III. it is surgical procedure.
IV. of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country.
Choose the correct option.

A) (I) and (III) B) (II) and (III)

C) (II) and (IV) D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q54. Match the causative organisms with their diseases.

a. Haemophilus influenzae I. Malignant malaria

b. Entamoeba histolytica II. Elephantiasis

c. Plasmodium falciparum III. Pneumonia

d. Wuchereria bancrofti IV. T yphoid

e. Salmonella typhi V. Amoebiasis

A) a - I, b - V, c - III, d - II, e - IV B) a - III, b - V, c - I, d - II, e - IV

C) a - V, b - I, c - III, d - IV, e - II D) a - I, b - III, c - II, d - V, e - IV

Q55. Corm is a modification of ________.

A) root B) leaf
C) stem D) bud

Q56. Which is used in molecular genetic engineering?

A) Tomato B) Tobacco
C) Carrot D) Arabidopsis

Q57. G enus represents

A) an individual plant or animals.
B) a collection of plants or animals.
C) group of closely related species of plants or animals.
D) none of the above.

Q58. Which one of the following plant is commonly used as green manure?
A) Crotolaria juncea B) Dalbergia
C) Cassia D) Acacia

Q59. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and
independent. T his proposition was based on the
A) results of generation of a cross.
B) observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting
characters shows only one character without any blending.
C) self pollination of offsprings.
D) cross pollination of parental generations.

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q60. In the given diagram of a leg of cockroach parts have been indicated by
alphabets. Select the answer in which these alphabets have been
correctly matched with the parts which they indicate.

A) A-Coxa, B-T ibia, C-Tarsus, D -Femur, E-T rochanter

B) A-Coxa, B-Femur, C-T rochanter, D -Tarsus, E-T ibia
C) A-Coxa, B-Tarsus, C-Femur, D -T ibia, E-T rochanter
D) A-Coxa, B-T rochanter, C-Femur, D -T ibia, E-Tarsus

Q61. Plasmids are

A) extra chromosomal D NA which can self replicate.
B) D NA carrying genetic sequence, without expressing it.
C) integrated within host D NA without replication ability.
D) none of these.

Q62. Which one of the following is a dehiscent fruit?

A) Caryopsis B) Simple samara
C) Nut D) Capsule

Q63. Which of the following is not the function of oral contraceptive pills?
A) Inhibition of ovulation
B) Alteration of uterine endometrium making it unsuitable for unplantation
C) Inhibiting the motility and secretory activity of oviduct
D) Stimulating ovulation

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q64. In the diagram of the lateral view of the human

brain, parts are indicated by alphabets. Select
the answer in which these alphabets have been
correctly matched with the parts which they





Q65. T he layer of cells outside the phloem is found to be present on both sides of xylem is said to be
A) cambium B) pericycle
C) endodermis D) radicle

Q66. T he RER in the cell synthesized a protein which

would be later used in building the plasma
membrane. But it is observed that the proteins in
the membrane is slightly different from the
protein made in the RER. T he protein was
probably modified in another cell organelle.
Identify the organelle in the given diagram.

A) B B) C
C) D D) A

Q67. Nuclear power stations even with adequate radiation safety measures generate
A) thermal pollution of water bodies. B) thermal pollution of soil.
C) noise pollution. D) all of the above.

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q68. D uring Meselson and Stahl's experiments, heavy D NA molecule was distinguished from normal
D NA by centrifugation in _________.
A) gradient B)
C) D) gradient

Q69. T he Calvin cycle proceeds in three stages,

I. Reduction, during which carbohydrate is formed at the expense of the photochemically

made AT P and NAD PH.
II. Regeneration, during which the carbon dioxide acceptor ribulose- , bisphosphate is
III. Carboxylation, during which carbon dioxide combines with ribulose - bisphosphate.
Identify the correct sequence.

A) B)
C) D)

Q70. In 1953, S.L. Miller created primitive earth conditions in the laboratory and gave experimental
evidence for origin of first form of life from pre-existing non-living organic molecules. T he
primitive earth conditions created include:
A) low temperature, volcanic storms, atmosphere rich in oxygen.
B) low temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere.
C) high temperature, volcanic storms, non-reducing atmosphere.
D) high temperature, volcanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing etc.

Q71. G out is a disease that affects the joints and leads to arthritis. It is associated with an abnormality
of ______ metabolism.
A) pyrimidine B) purine
C) fat D) protein

Q72. T he respiratory centre in the brain is stimulated by

A) concentration in venous blood. B) concentration in arterial blood.
C) concentration in arterial blood. D) concentration in venous blood.

Q73. In the textbook you came across, T hree Mile Island and Chernobyl disasters associated with
accidental leakage of radioactive wastes. In India, we had Bhopal gas tragedy. It is associated
with which of the following?
A) B) Methyl Iso-Cyanate
C) D) Methyl Cyanate

Q74. Which of the following is a post fertilisation event in flowering plants?

A) T ransfer of pollen grains B) Embryo development
C) Formation of flower D) Formation of pollen grains

Q75. Which one of the following options shows correct matching pair?
A) Man - ureotelic B) Bird - ammonotelic
C) Fish - urecotelic D) Frog - uricotelic

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q76. T he phenomenon wherein the ovary develops into a fruit without fertilisation is called __________.
A) parthenocarpy B) apomixis
C) asexual reproduction D) sexual reproduction

Q77. Non-flowering plants are called

A) cryptogams B) phanerogams
C) gymnosperms D) both A and C

Q78. Which of the following is an ecosystem service provided by a natural ecosystem?

A) Cycling of nutrients B) Prevention of soil erosion
C) Pollutant absorption and reduction of the D) All of the above.
threat of global warming

Q79. Match the type of animal tissues listed under column -I with the location given under column -II.
Select the answer which gives the correct combination of the two column.
Column I Column II
(T issues) (Location)

a. Simple columnar I. Wall of heart epithelium

b. Cardiac muscle
II. Bone joints

c. Adipose tissue
III. Inner lining of stomach and intestine

d. Hyaline IV. Below the skin in the abdomen, buttocks,thighs and

cartilage breast

V. D iaphragm

A) a - III; b - I; c - V; d - IV B) a - III; b - V; c - II; d - IV

C) a - I; b - III; c - IV; d - V D) a - III; b - I; c - IV; d - II

Q80. T he pyrimidine base which confers additional stability to D NA over RNA is _________.
A) adenine B) guanine
C) cytosine D) thymine

Q81. Amoeba and yeast reproduce asexually by fission and budding respectively, because they are
A) microscopic organisms. B) heterotrophic organisms.
C) unicellular organisms. D) none of these.

Q82. Sperm's acrosome has

A) hyaluronic acid and acrosin. B) hyaluronic acid and fertilizin.
C) hyaluronidase and acrosin. D) fertilizin and acrosin.

Q83. Photorespiration is otherwise called as ________.

A) cycle B) cycle
C) cycle D) cycle

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Avanti - NEET Full Syllabus Test 4 (Biology) - Set A

Q84. Photoperiodism in plants is governed by _________.

A) gibberellins B) florigen
C) phytochromes D) cytochrome

Q85. Which of the following hormones does not contain a polypeptide?

A) Insulin B) Antidiuretic hormone
C) Prostaglandin D) Oxytocin

Q86. Consumption of which one of the following foods can prevent the kind of blindness associated with
vitamin 'A' deficiency?
A) 'Flavr Savr' tomato B) Canolla
C) G olden rice D) Bt Brinjal

Q87. High milk yielding varieties of cows are obtained by

A) use of surrogate mothers. B) super ovulation.
C) artificial insemination. D) all of the above.

Q88. Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II is equational division due to

A) pairing of homologous chromosomes. B) crossing over.
C) separation of chromatids. D) disjunction of homologous chromosomes.

Q89. T he given figure shows an angiogram of the

coronary blood vessel. Which one of the
following statements correctly describes, what is
being done?

A) It is coronary artery which has a cancerous growth that is being removed.

B) It is coronary artery which is blocked by a plaque and the same is being cracked.
C) It is coronary vein in which the defective valves are being opened.
D) It is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood fluke) that is being removed.

Q90. T he "Eyes" of the potato tuber are ________.

A) root buds B) flower buds
C) shoot buds D) axillary buds

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