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OUTLINE
CAPITAL STRUCTURE
NO TAXES TAXES BANKRUPTCY & OTHER COSTS TRADE-OFF THEORY PECKING ORDER HYPOTHESIS OTHER CONSIDERATIONS
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COMPONENT COSTS
WACC Again
Optimal Capital Structure - that mix of debt and equity which maximizes the value of the firm or minimizes the cost of capital
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Investors:
R = r + + RP
Securitys required return depends on risk of the securitys cash flows Cost of Capital => depends on risk of firms cash flows
ALL EQUITY FIRM: SECURITY RISK = FIRM RISK Ra = Re = WACC DEBT => EQUITY RISKIER (WHY?)
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GOOD:
SALES 100.00 COSTS 70.00 EBIT 30.00 INT 0.00 EBT 30.00 TAX 12.00 NI 18.00 ROE 18%
BAD:
SALES 82.50 COSTS 80.00 EBIT 2.50 INT 0.00 EBT 2.50 TAX 1.00 NI 1.50 ROE 1.5%
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Levered: A = 100: D = E = 50
GOOD:
SALES 100.00 COSTS 70.00 EBIT 30.00 INT 5.00 EBT 25.00 TAX 10.00 NI 15.00 ROE 30%
BAD:
SALES COSTS EBIT INT EBT TAX NI ROE 82.50 80.00 2.50 5.00 (2.50) (1.00) (1.50) (3%)
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Example:
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Cost of Capital is weighted average of cost of debt and the cost of equity (Why?) CAPITAL IS FUNGIBLE
GRAIN EXAMPLE
BATHTUB EXAMPLE
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Business Risk
Sales/Input Price Variability High operating leverage Technology Regulation Management depth/breadth Competition
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FINANCIAL RISK
The additional risk imposed on S/H from the use of debt financing.
Debt has a prior claim S/H must stand in line behind B/H
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BUT, Debt is Cheaper than Equity, so why doesnt WACC fall? WACC relates to the CIRCLE Simply repackaging same CF stream
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Re = Ra + (Ra - Rd)*D/E
No Taxes - Summary
Value of Firm is INDEPENDENT of financing - M&M I Re increases as D increases SUCH THAT WACC IS UNCHANGED - M&M II EPS increase is offset by Re increase
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TAXES
TAXES
Vl = Vu + PV (tax savings)
Value of levered Firm =
Value of unlevered + PV of tax advantage of debt Vl = EBIT(1-t)/Ra + Tc x D
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TAXES, cont.
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TRADE-OFF THEORY
PRACTICE: It is impossible to solve for precisely optimal capital structure FLAT BOTTOM BOAT - None and too much important; between doesnt matter
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Handout #1 - Notes
EBIT Unchanged - No effect on assets Payments to B/H & S/H continually increase Note that both Rd and Re increase EPS continually increases Share Price Maximized at 30% debt WACC Minimized at 30% debt
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Handout #2
Vu = 500; Vl = $670 E = 670 - 500 = 170 Re = .20 + (.20 - .10)(1 - .34)(500/170) = 39.41%
If management expects good prospects: will not want to share with new S/H will not want to sell undervalued shares expects adequate CFs to fund debt service ===> WILL ISSUE DEBT
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Negative reaction
Little or no reaction
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OTHER FACTORS
MANAGERIAL FLEXIBILTIY
DEBT COVENANTS CASH FLOW TAKEN FROM MGMT
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COST OF CAPITAL
COST OF CAPITAL
EXAMPLE:
Project A has IRR of 13% and is financed with 8% debt; Project B has IRR of 15% & financed with 16% equity. WACC is 12%. Which should you do?
Both!
==> Why?
COMPONENT COSTS
CCC, D (D = default)
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PREFERRED STOCK
Preferred is like a perpetuity Pp = D / Rp
==> Rp = D / Pp
Cost of preferred = Dividend Yield
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COMMON STOCK
Three Methods
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) Dividend Discount Model Risk Premium Method
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2 TYPES OF RISK:
SYSTEMATIC (Market-wide; GDP) NONSYSTEMATIC (Firm specific)
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Investors should only be rewarded for systematic risk, which is measured by Beta Beta => a measure of the volatility of the stock relative to the market
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BETA
Beta of Market = 1 Portfolio Beta = weighted average of all betas in the portfolio Where do we get Beta?
Regression analysis Beta of firm if publicly traded Beta from portfolio of similar firms Similar need not include financial risk
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Levered/Unlevered Beta
Levered/Unlevered Beta
Take Levered Beta from sample portfolio Unlever to find unlevered or asset beta, using D/E of sample portfolio Relever unlevered beta using D/E of firm Note: This is same process used to adjust Re to reflect additional financial risk.
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Recall: P0 = D1 / (R - g) Expected returns = required in equilibrium We can solve above for expected return:
R = D1/P0 + g
The trick is to estimate g (Forecasts; history; SGR)
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If new equity is issued, there are transaction costs. Not all proceeds go to firm. Let c = % of proceeds as transaction costs Then: R = D1/ [P0*(1-c)] + g
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WACC SUMMARY