Police Chief Inspector

ARMANDO ANGELES SANTIAGO (Ret.)

Licensed Criminologist (LC)

CRIMINAL DETECTION AND

INVESTIGATION (CDI)
 ORDER OF PRESENTATION
FUNDAMENTAL OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION
 TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT
INVESTIGATION
SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION
ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION
DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL
FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION
FUNDAMENTALS OF
CRIMINAL
INVESTIGATION
1. The word investigation is taken from the
Latin word “vestigare” which means to:
 
A. To prove
B. To track
C. To prosecute
D. To determine
2. The following are the phases of criminal
investigation, except
 
A. The criminal is located, traced or
arrested
B. The fact or evidence to prove his guilt
is gathered for trial
C. The criminal is identified
D. None of the above
3. The following are the phases of criminal investigation:

I. The criminal is located, traced or arrested

II. The fact or evidence to prove his guilt is gathered for
trial
III. The criminal is identified
Which among the following is the chronological
arrangement of these phases?
 
A. I, II, III
B. II, I, III
C. III, I, II
D. III, II, I
4. Criminal investigation is considered as
___ because it is not only governed by luck,
felicity and intuition, but also by rigid rules.
 
A. Art
B. Process
C. Science
D. Art and Science
5. What kind of investigation is the official
inquiry made by the police on the facts and
circumstances surrounding the death of the
person which is expected to be criminal or
unlawful?
 
A. Homicide Investigation
B. Property Crime Investigation
C. Crime of Chastity
D. Crimes against Person Investigation
6. Upon arrival at the crime scene, what
should the investigator do first?
 
A. record time/date of arrival at the crime
scene
B. Secure the crime scene by installing
the crime scene tape or police line
C. Determine the assailant through
inquiry
D. Conduct preliminary search of items
7. Intent to kill is presumed if death results
from the unjustified act. If death does not
result from the unlawful act, intent to kill is
essential to prove attempted or frustrated
homicide, otherwise the crime may be –
 
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Physical Injuries
D. Infanticide
8. As a rule in crime scene search, do not
touch, alter or removing anything at the
crime scene until the evidence has been
processed. This is –
 
A. Mandatory
B. Temporary
C. Prerogative
D. Exclusive
9. Bitoy was lawfully arrested without a
warrant for a crime of Homicide. The proper
procedure that the prosecutor must take is -
 
A. Preliminary Investigation
B. Inquest
C. Probe
D. All of the above
10. It is one among the potential sources of
information which is a chronological and
step by step account of an incident that
transpired in a given place, time and date.

A. Police report
B. Police record
C. intelligence data base
D. All of the above
11. In the past, the legislative branch of the
government conducted several inquiries in aid of
legislation like the alleged involvement of Sen.
De Lima in the drug trade. What type of
investigation did the legislative branch
undertake?
 
A. Preliminary Investigation
B. Inquest
C. Inquisition
D. Probe
12. Darwin is a registered criminologist and
as part of his doctorate course in criminology
he made a careful and patient investigation
regarding the causes of child abuse. What
type of investigation did Darwin conducted?
 
A. Formal Investigation
B. Research
C. Investigative Reporting
D. Probe
13. MVanie is an employee of ABS-CBN and
her main duty is to investigate upon
controversial matters that aim to attract viewers
as well as to get to the roots of the problem.
What type of investigation did Vanie conducted?
 
A. Formal Investigation
B. Research
C. Investigative Reporting
D. Probe
14. Of the following requisites of interview,
which among the following is should
instinctively induce confidence by the strength
of his character so that the subject trust him and
tends to seek his assistance by confiding him?

a. Forcefulness of personality
b. Breadth of interest
c. Establish rapport
d. Both A and C
15. PO1 Maria was the first to respond to a
call that a killing was perpetrated. As a first
responder, upon arriving at the crime scene,
what should PO1 Maria do?
 
A. Verify if the victim is already dead
B. Identify the victim
C. Search the crime scene for the
weapons used
D. Call an ambulance
16. SPO4 Marlon made a sketch in the crime
scene, where no scale or proportion are
involved and everything is merely
approximate. The kind of sketch made by
SPO4 Marlon is –
 
A. Rough Sketch
B. Semi-finished sketch
C. Final Sketch
D. Sketch of scene only
17. Under the standard composition of the
SOCO Team, which among the following is
not a SOCO member –
 
A. Team Leader
B. Intelligence Personnel
C. Photographer and photographic log
recorder
D. Sketcher
18. All investigators in any police unit must
be a graduate of a prescribed investigation
course with a rank of at least –
 
A. PO1
B. PO2
C. PO3
D. SPO1
19. PO2 Jason responded to a killing incident.
Upon arrival, he saw the victim lying on the
ground bleeding to death. In order to take dying
declaration, PO2 Jason should ask the following
except –
 
A. Ano ang pangalan at address mo?
B. Kilala mo ba ang gumawa nito?
C. Kailan nangyari ito?
D. Sa pakiramdam mo ba ay ikakamatay mo
ang tinamo mong sugat?
21. Can DNA be used to determine the time
the suspect was at the crime scene?

A. Oftentimes
B. No
C. Yes
D. It depends
20. In the collection of DNA sources, a
cigarette was found at the crime scene. What
possible sample can be taken from the
cigarette?
 
A. Tobacco Component
B. Saliva
C. Tar component
D. All of the above
22. Under the Criminal Investigation
Manual, the police personnel should
photograph the scene a __________ pattern
before altering the body’s position or any
other evidence within the scene?
 
A. Clockwise
B. Counter clockwise
C. Reverse Clockwise
D. Any of the above
23. In the process of making a sketch, critical
measurements, such as skid marks, should be
checked by ___ investigators?
 
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 3
24. It refers to a comprehensive inquiry of a crime
by conducting systematic procedure of various
investigative methodologies which involves
recovery of physical and testimonial evidence for
the purpose of identifying the witnesses, and
arrest of perpetrators for prosecution?
 
A. Crime Scene Investigation (CSI)
B. Scene of the Crime Operation (SOCO)
C. Crime Scene Search
D. Criminal investigator
25. It refers to a forensic procedure performed by
the trained personnel of the PNP Crime Lab SOCO
Team through scientific methods of investigation for
the purpose of preserving the crème scene, gathering
information, documentation, collection, and
examination of all physical and other forensic
evidence?
 
A. Crime Scene Investigation (CSI)
B. Scene of the Crime Operation (SOCO)
C. Crime Scene Search
D. Criminal investigator
27. In criminal investigation, when we say
“corpus delicti” it pertains to the body of the
crime. In legal practice, corpus delicti means:
 
A. None of these
B. Proof that the crime was committed
C. Body of the victim
D. Weapon used by the suspect
28. Which of the following is the MOST
important duty and obligation of police
officers conducting investigation?
 
A. Preserve the crime scene
B. Suspect
C. Arrest
D. Identify the suspect
29. After the conduct of the CSI, the IOC or
the COP shall turnover the crime scene to the
following, except?
 
A. The owner of the property
B. Scene of the Crime Operation (SOCO)
Team Leader
C. If the crime scene is a public place, to
any local person in authority
D. All of the above
30. Identification based on the examination
of teeth is valuable in as much as the teeth
are probably the most durable part of the
human body. This domain is under the field
of –
 
A. Forensic Entomology
B. Forensic Odontology
C. Forensic Anthropometry
D. Forensic Chemistry
31. Under the 2010 PNP Operational
Procedures Manual, which among these
crimes should have a separate police blotter?
 
A. Violation of RA 9262
B. Violation of RA 9344
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
32. When one says, “isolate the crime scene”
or “preserve the scene”, it simply means
what?
 
A. Videotape the area
B. Sketch the area
C. Do not touch or move anything
D. Cordon the area
33. This is a term which literally means
verbal description.
 
A. portrait parle
B. chain of custody
C. modus operandi
D. rogue’s gallery
34. In crimes against property, as police prober,
your primary duty in the CS is to look for
physical evidence that would link the suspect to
the crime that includes bringing to the Police
Station the recovered possible traces of evidence
like?
 
A. Wine
B. Condom
C. Cigarette butts
D. Hamburger
34. During interview of subject, is it
advisable to handcuff him?
 
A. Yes
B. No
C. Seldom
D. None of the above
35. Crime Scene Processing consists of the
following, EXCEPT:
 
A. documentation of the scene
B. examination and evaluation of the
scene
C. prosecuting the accused
D. recovering evidence
36. Under the 2010 PNP Operational
Procedures Manual, the Investigator-on-case
shall have the following duties, except -
 
A. Mandatory Briefing
B. Personal Collection of Evidence
C. Initiation of Preliminary Survey
D. Conduct of Interview
37. In case of bombing incidents, what
specialized unit of the PNP should declare
the area secure before the SOCO team enters
the said area?
 
A. Special Rescue Team of the BFP
B. EOD Team
C. Interim Disaster Victim Identification
Task Group
D. SWAT
38. POLICE INSP. Cardo’s unit was tasked
to implement a demolition order, which
among the following is not the duty the said
PNP unit –
 
A. Assist in the demolition of houses in a
peaceful manner
B. Maintenance of Peace and Order
C. Protection of life and property
D. Enforcement of laws and legal orders
39. IOC P/SINSP Leo, was reviewing the facts
at the crime scene and information from other
sources in order that he would be ready for the
questioning of the witness. What phase of
interview best describes the situation?
 
A. Preparation
B. Approach
C. Warming Up
D. Cognitive Interview
40. Maria witnessed a crime. During the
interview P/INSP Joe, the IOC, noticed that
Maria was prone to exaggerate and she added
irrelevant matters in her narration of events.
What type of witness best describes Maria?
 
A. Know-nothing Type
B. Honest Witness
C. Talkative Witness
D. Timid Witness
41. It is a technique in Interrogation whereby the
investigator, in his preliminary questions must
dig deep into the past troubles and unfortunate
events in the life of the suspect. Then, he makes
an offer of help, kindness and friendliness.
 
A. Pretense of Solid Evidence
B. kindness
C. Sympathetic Approach
D. Reverse Line Up
42. It is a technique in Interrogation whereby
the investigator selects the right moment to
shout a pertinent question in an apparent
righteous outrage.
 
A. Jolting
B. Mutt and Jeff or Sweet and Sour
Method
C. Line - up
D. friendliness
44. In using a witness, for purposes of
identifying the culprit, what method is not a
part of police standards of investigation
 
A. Verbal description
B. Photographic files
C. Solitary confinement
D. Artist assistance or composite sketches
45. In criminal investigation, if the area to be
searched is huge which requires several crew,
the appropriate method of search should be –
 
A. Strip Method
B. Spiral Method
C. Zone Method
D. Double strip Method
46. Which of the following need not be
proven in court because it is not considered
an element of crime but it becomes material
when the identity of the perpetrator is
unknown?
 
A. Intent
B. Opportunity
C. Motive
D. Instrumentality
47. POLICE INSP. Reyes and his team
conducted a police operation purposely to seal
off the probable exit points of fleeing suspects
from the crime scene to prevent escape. What
police operation did POLICE INSP. Reyes
conducted?
 
A. Net Drag Operation
B. Dragnet Operation
C. Fait Accompli
D. Functus Oficio
48. These are pieces of physical evidence
which link a person to a crime. The offender
may leave clues at the scene such as
fingerprints or foot impression.
 
A. Physical evidence
B. Associative evidence
C. Corpus Delicti Evidence
D. Tracing Evidence
49. When a crime remains unsolved, we can
most accurately conclude
 
A. the crime will be solved by hard work and
perseverance
B. there was some deficiency in the
investigation
C. the investigation may or may not have
been a success
D. all available information has been
uncovered
50. There are three tools of the police
investigator: information, interrogation and
instrumentation. Of these three, information
is deemed the most important simply because
it answers the questions
 
A. “What is malicious?”
B. “Was a weapon used?”
C. “Why did it happen?”
D. “Who did it?”
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT
AND ACCIDENT
INVESTIGATION
1. It is that occurrence in a sequence of events
which usually produces unintended injury,
death or property damage.

A.motor vehicle traffic accident

B.motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C.non-motor vehicle traffic accident
D.traffic accident
2. The effectiveness of a traffic law
enforcement is best measured by:

A. A reduction of traffic accidents and delays

B. An increase in traffic law enforcement
actions
C. A decrease in the ratio of convictions to
enforcement actions
D. Smooth flow of the traffic
3. Wholly a traffic law enforcers
responsibility where the traffic law enforcers
are required to take action at once to prevent
continued and future violations.

A.detection
B.apprehension
C. adjudication
D.prosecution
4. In all cases of traffic offense, intoxicated
driving or hit-and-run, it is the most
important to be done.

A.proving driving
B.physical evidence
C.identity of drivers
D.identity of vehicles
5. It would be most correct to state that a very
thorough investigation of traffic accidents, which
would probably include technical measurement and
procedures, should be undertaken precisely because:

A. For the purpose of obtaining evidence for court

presentation
B. For all traffic accidents regardless of the extent
of personal or property damage
C. Only when a person is killed in an accident
D. All of the above
6. The three principles that have been
emphasized as effective in the prevention of
traffic accidents are the following except
one:

A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Environment
7. Tony has a car with a plate number of TUV
648. He is mandated to register his motor
vehicle every year. What month of the year
should he register his motor vehicle?

A. June
B. August
C. January
D. Any month of the year
8. It is the greatest collapse or overlap in a
collision.

A.stopping
B.disengagement
C. maximum engagement
D.initial contact
9. It is the crowning jewel of traffic
management, an abstract architect of social
life and the unyielding master of man’s
destiny on the roadways.

A.traffic enforcement
B.traffic engineering
C.traffic education
D.traffic environment
10. It happens when under the influenced of
liquor wherein the muscles of the eyes
refuse to cooperate.

A.visual acuity
B.impaired reflexes
C.numbness
D.uncertainty
11. From among the following measures,
what is the most effective police campaign
directed at a parking regulations?

A.Written warning
B.Visual warning
C.Verbal warning
D.Traffic arrest
12. It is an event in the road which
characterizes the manner of occurrence of a
motor-vehicle traffic accident.

A.key event
B.traffic accident
C.crucial events
D.chain of events
13. The type enforcement action which does
not contemplate possible assessment of
penalty by the court.

A. Traffic warning
B. Traffic citation
C. Traffic Arrest
D. Traffic enforcement
14. Mark went to a full stop to an intersection, he
notice that there is a traffic sign, traffic light
and a pavement marking giving contradictory
commands. Which should be followed by Juan?

A.Traffic sign
B.Traffic light
C.Pavement marking
D.Traffic enforcer
14. In traffic accident investigation, it is
means failure to take proper care.

A.errors of commission
B.negligence
C.errors of omission
D.reckless imprudence
15. In signaling, what is being used to
supplement arm signals?

A. Reflectorized jacket
B. Whistle
C. Horn
D. Reflectorized gloves
16. This is wholly a traffic law enforcers’
responsibility and entails in looking for the
behavior of the traffic units.

A.detection
B.apprehension
C.adjudication
D.prosecution
17. It is any motor vehicle accident that
results injuries other than fatal to one of
more persons.

A.fatal
B.non-fatal
C.property damage
D.traffic accident
18. What is the validity of an international
driver’s license?

A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. None on the above
19. A driver can leave the scene of accident
without aiding the victim provided that the
following elements are present, EXCEPT:

A.if he is in imminent danger

B.if he reports the accident
C.if he summons a physician
D.if he wants to escape from his liability
20. A systematic examination of all the facts
relating to conditions, actions and physical
features associated with motor collision is
called:

A. Traffic engineering
B. Reckless driving
C. Traffic accident Investigation
D. Hit and run
21. John bought a new car for he will use it as his
transportation service from his home to his work
and vice versa. What is the most appropriate
kind of driver’s license he must acquire?

A. Non-professional
B. Professional
C. Student permit
D. Sub- professional
22. It is method of locating a spot in the area
by measurements from two of more
reference points.

A.measurements
B.determining skid marks
C.triangulation
D.accident investigation
23. Which of the following does not belong
to the key event which characterizes the
manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle
accident:

A. Hazardous condition of the road

B. Non collision on the road
C. Running of the road
D. Collision on the road
24. In making a U-turn, activate your signal
light at least how many feet before you will
start moving to the right side of the road?

A. 50
B. 70
C. 90
D. 100
25. It is a kind of traffic accident where a
person does not do something he or she
should have done.

A.errors of commission
B.negligence
C.errors of omission
D.reckless imprudence
26. It is means the steepness of a hill, and it
is important in the calculations of speed
from skid marks.

A.grade or slope
B.length of vehicle
C.going uphill
D.steep hill
27. These are the basic steps in traffic
accident investigation, EXCEPT:

A.goes to scene as quickly as possible

B.assesses the situation and call for
assistance
C.care to the injured and protect their
property.
D.inter-agency coordination linkages
28. It shall mean any motor vehicle with a trailer
having no front axle and so attached that part
of the trailer rests upon the motor vehicle and
a substantial part of the weight of the trailer
and of its load is borne by the motor vehicle.

A. Truck
B. Passenger Truck
C. Specialized Vehicle
D. Articulated Vehicle
29. The five levels of traffic accident
investigation are: 1. Cause Analysis; 2. At-
Scene Investigation; 3. Reporting; 4. Technical
Preparation; and 5. Professional Reconstruction.
Among these, what is the last level?

A. 1 (one)
B. 2 (two)
C. 3 (three)
D. 4 (four)
 Five Levels of Activity in
Accident Investigation

1. Reporting- This stage involves basic data collection to identify

and classify a motor vehicle, traffic and persons, property and
planned movements involved.
2. At-Scene Investigation- This level involves all action taken by
the investigator at the scene of the crime or accident.
3. Technical Preparation- This involves delayed traffic accident
data collection and organization for study and interpretation.
4. Professional Reconstruction- This involves efforts to determine
from whatever information is available, how the accident happened.
5. Cause Analysis- This final level usually involves final analysis on
the causes of accident which are bases for the prevention of another
accident.
30. It consist of the entire road and vehicle
complex

A. enforcement system
B.road user system
C.traffic system
D.none of the above
31. It understands the unusual and
unexpected moment or condition that could
be taken as a sign of the accident to happen.

A.leaving the road

B.encroachment
C.initial contact
D.perception of hazard
32. A general principle of traffic accident
investigation is to:

A. Look for the key event that causes the accident

B. Regard any unfavorable factor, existing
immediately prior to the accident, as a cause
C. Consider violations as primary causes and any
factors as secondary causes
D. Consider road conditions as limiting
conditions rather as causes
33. It is any inherent characteristics of a
traffic way, vehicles, or a person making a
trip on a traffic way.

A.accident
B.violations
C.attribute
D.crucial events
34. Any circumstances contributing to a
result without which the results could have
not occurred.

A.factor
B.operational factor
C.simultaneous factor
D.sequential factor
35. Who is responsible of giving franchise to
public utility vehicles?

A. Land Transporting Franchising and

Regulatory Board
B. Land Transportation Franchising and
Regulatory Board
C. Land Transportation Franchising and
Regulation Board
D. Land Transportation Franchise and
Regulatory Board
36. MMDA is responsible in conducting traffic
and enforcing traffic within the locality of
Metro Manila. What is the meaning of MMDA?

A. Metro Manila Development Authority

B. Metropolitan Manila Development
Authority
C. Metropolitan Manila Developing Authority
D. None of the above
37. They are the important goals of traffic law
enforcement activities, EXCEPT:

A.to increase safety level

B.to ensure harmonious & comfortable
environment
C.to increase traffic efficiency
D.Obtain voluntary compliance, possible
movement of traffic consistent with safety and to
reduce losses fromaccident
38. While walking along SLEX, you notice a
car that has letter “S” as the first letter of its
license plates. What type of vehicle is that?

A. Public Utility Vehicle

B. Government Vehicle
C. Diplomatic Vehicle
D. Military Vehicle
39. It is that portion of traffic way which is
improved, designed to be used for travel
exclusive of the shoulder.

A.roadway
B.arteries
C.highway
D.thoroughfares
40. It is a cause of motor vehicle traffic
accident the driver’s non-compliance to
traffic laws, rules and regulations.

A. Operational Factors
B. Sequential Factors
C. Simultaneous Factors
D. Behavioral Factor
41. The movement of vehicle without
touching the ground from a place where its
forward velocity is suddenly stopped by an
object.

A.flip
B.skid marks
C.friction mark
D.tire marks
42. It is every device which is self-propelled
and every vehicle which is propelled by
electric power obtained from overhead
trolley wires, but not operated upon a rails.

A.vehicle
B.motor
C.motor vehicle
D.all of these
43. The process of giving training and
practice in the actual application of traffic
safety knowledge.

A. Traffic safety
B. Traffic education
C. Safety training
D. Safety education
44. These are not very often found at the
scene of the accident unless the victim was
dragged by the vehicle for some distance.

A.blood stains
B.tire print/foot prints
C.all of these
D.none of these
45. The number representing the resistance to
sliding of two surfaces in contact.

A.critical speed
B.co-efficient friction
C.radius of curve
D.reaction time
46. It refers as to behavior and habits,
attitudes and interest and personal
philosophy in life, and distinguishes a
particular driver from one another.

A.character
B.personality
C.thinking
D.congestion
47. It is a form of energy which causes the
body to rise in temperature, and can excite
emotionally.

A.heat
B.storm
C.fog
D.cold
49. It is one of the major causes of traffic
jams, and undue delay to take proper action
is invitation to traffic jams.

A.flooded area
B.head-on collisions
C.bridges collapse
D.landslide
50. It is very important physical evidence in
hit-and-run cases which may came from the
window or windshield of the motor vehicle.

A.glass
B.ornaments
C.paints
D.oil
SPECIAL CRIME
INVESTIGATION
1. Which of the following is not a procedure performed
during the initial investigation of bomb/ explosive
threat?

A. Clear the danger area of all occupants therein.

B. Get the services of an explosives expert.
C. Try to move the object, which may be connected
with the bomb or those acting as trigger
mechanism.
D. Establish an organized guard outside the danger
area.
E. Shut off power, gas and fuel lines leading to the
danger area
2. A bomb which makes no effort to conceal its nature,
such as sticks of dynamite tied or taped together, fitted
with a safety fuse and blasting cap; a short piece of pipe
loaded with an explosive substance capped at both ends
with a piece of safety fuse protruding from a hole through
one of the capped ends is called

A. Concealed Bomb
B. Open Type Bomb
C. Trigger bomb
D. Time Bomb
E. All of these
3. It pertains to one among the phases of special
crime investigation which serves as the foundation
for the case.

A. Preliminary Investigation
B. In-depth investigation
C. Concluding investigation
D. None of the above
4. The time of death of the victim needs to be ascertained
for the following reasons EXCEPT:

A. It could sustain the alibi of the accused.

B. It could be used in the police report.
C. It could aid the investigator in collecting physical
evidence.
D. It can be used as evidence which can corroborate
other evidences.
E. It could cumulate the coroners report.
5. The time of discovery of the dead body has legal
consequence in the sense that

A. It can prove the elements of corpus delicti.

B. It reckons the prescriptive period of the crime.
C. It allows the investigator to ascertain the time of
death and commission of the offense.
D. It can be utilized as evidence in court.
E. All of these
6. A person who testifies in court based on his
professional and scientific analysis of the offense
and its surrounding circumstances is called

A. Witness
B. Expert Witness
C. Professional Witness
D. Ordinary witness
E. Criminalist
7. The dropping of the temperature of the
body after death is termed as

A. Rigor Mortis
B. Livor Mortis
C. Lividity
D. Algor Mortis
E. Cadaveric Spasm
8. Rigor Mortis is detected in the body after.

A. 2-4 hours
B. 4-6 hours
C. 6-12 hours
D. 12-24 hours
E. within 24 hours
9. In cases of homicide the first action of the investigator
is to.

A. Report the incident to his superior for approval of

investigation.
B. Ascertain if victim is still alive. Record all first
impressions of the scene.
C. If the victim is alive, give first aid.
D. Record the time the call was received as well as the
time of arrival at the scene.
E. If the victim is alive and conscious, try to get a
dying declaration.
10. To ascertain that a substance is a
dangerous drug it is submitted to the

A. Forensic Toxicologist
B. Forensic Chemist
C. Investigator
D. SOCO
E. Forensic Expert
11. The SOCO is headed by a Team leader
with the rank of

A. Senior Police Officer IV

B. Sr. Inspector
C. Captain
D. Inspector
E. Superintendent
12. The bloodspots has the following uses in investigation
EXCEPT:

A. An aid in determining if the object or persons was in motion

when the blood spattered.
B. Possible for an expert to tell you how the crime was
committed as indicated by the blood spots.
C. Possible to trace every spot to its origin by observing its
characteristics.
D. Indicative of whether it was a result of a weapon striking a
victim, or it was thrown there from a weapon, or its was
created by some other weapon
E. Shows the position of the weapon before the crime occurred.
13. If the victim is a relative like spouse,
parents, child whether illegitimate or
legitimate, the killing is;

A. parricide
B. Murder
C. homicide
D. Suicide
E. infanticide
14. The victim is less than three days of age
the crime is;

A. homicide
B. parricide
C. murder
D. infanticide
E. uxoricide
15. The rights of a person under custodial
investigation is under

A. RA 7348
B. RA 7438
C. RA 7458
D. RA 7124
E. RA 7483
16. Protection of the crime scene is essential for the success of the
investigation. Which of the foregoing is NOT a mode of protecting
the crime scene?

A. Limiting the people present.

B. Putting one person in complete charge of the crime scene.
All officers should report to him and ask for orders.
C. Protecting footprints, fingerprints, blood stains, etc., from
injury by placing evidence tags on, or officer near, the
evidence to ensure that it will not be destroyed.
D. Allowing other investigator to enter the crime scene.
17. When the demand of the kidnapper is in
writing it is best to

A. Refer the letter to the fingerprint

technician for analysis.
B. Send the letter to the Questioned
Document Examiner for analysis
C. Allow the letter to be photographed and
examined.
D. All of these
E. None of these
18. If an agreement is reached during the negotiation with
the kidnapper the investigator should

A. Record the denomination and serial numbers of the

bills.
B. Designate a place for the delivery of the ransom,
which shall be on surveillance.
C. Coordinate with the victim’s family to ensure the
safety of their relative.
D. Follow kidnapper’s demand and instructions as to
time, place and manners should be strictly followed
and place the suspects under surveillance.
E. None of these.
19. Hair found in the crime scene is important
physical evidence. Which of the statements below is
essential in collecting such evidence?

A. use clean and nail polished fingers in

collecting such evidence
B. make sure to place it in a proper container and
label it properly
C. check if the hair has root and collect such
specimen
D. collect as many hair as possible
E. determine if the hair is genuine or not
20. The police officer who shall serve a warrant of
arrest shall perform the following activities
EXCEPT:

A. inform his name, rank and purpose for arrest

B. use instruments of restraint to gain custody
over the accused
C. interview the accused and ask him about his
participation to a crime
D. determine the identity of the person
E. determine the age of the offender.
21. The internet is good source of information
however the data gathered must first be

A. interpreted for proper understanding and

comprehension of facts
B. understood who is the original source
C. determined what is the motive of the sender
D. subjected to test to determine its reliability
E. release the information without any
verification.
22. Jun witnessed the brutal killing made by
unknown men. He went to the police and
provided facts about the physical features of
the suspects. Jun is considered as a/an.

A. informer
B. informant
C. expert witness
D. concerned citizen
E. consultant
23. For questions to be suitable to be asked
during police interview it should be

A. answerable by yes or no
B. open ended questions
C. misleading questions
D. close ended questions
E. leading questions
24. This is the legal capture of a person who
has intent to commit an offense

A. surveillance
B. tactical interrogation
C. arrest
D. undercover operation
E. entrapment
25. Entrapment operation is often applied in

A. collecting information from reluctant suspects

B. gathering data from innocent by standers
C. arresting criminals of various offenses such as
robbery, homicide etc.
D. apprehending those violators of drug laws
E. taking into custody those who are considered as
habitual delinquents
26. The questioning of person to divulge his
personal background and other related facts
is called

A. cognitive interview
B. objective interview
C. interview
D. subjective interview
E. background interview
27. The police officer will ask the opinion of
the subject. This type of interview conducted
is called

A. cognitive interview
B. objective interview
C. interview
D. subjective interview
E. background interview
29. The interviewer must be able to acquire facts
about the case. The rules in interview must be
followed, which of the following is a good way in
collecting facts about a case?

A. use leading questions

B. use the subjects own dialect
C. avoid being simple
D. encourage yes or no question
E. force the subject to answer all questions
30. The bases for removing the alarm on a
stolen vehicle can be done by

A. Recovery
B. Court Order
C. Termination of Investigation
D. Actual Possession of owner
E. All of these
31. Of the following methods in detecting
whether a vehicle is stolen or not, the least
reliable is

A. No license plate number

B. Sporting improvised plate.
C. If the vehicle appears to be abandoned
D. Sporting a fake license plate or
stickers
E. Having no sticker for the current year
32. If the police officers will ask Isnapi to
depict the height, built, and facial
appearance of the accused, what method
of criminal identification is used?

A. portrait parle
B. cartography
C. artist sketch
D. general photographic method
33.With the assistance of PO1 Balas the police
were able to draw the appearance of the suspect.
The description of Isnapi was instrumental in the
said act. The method used by the police is
called.

A. police line up
B. artist sketch
C. Gen. photographic method
D. rogues gallery
E. cartographic sketch
34. The person seen by Isnapi appears to
have no record with the police and other law
enforcement agencies, therefore the accused
would be termed

A. unknown fugitive
B. known fugitive
C. known criminal
D. suspected criminal
E. suspect
35. A term which means “assumption” or
“conclusion” is called

A. lead
B. evidence
C. trace
D. asset
36. The proof of facts from which, taken,
collectively, the existence of the particular
facts in dispute maybe inferred as a
necessary or probable consequence is termed

A. direct evidence.
B. tracing evidence.
C. associative evidence.
D. cumulative evidence
E. circumstantial evidence
37. What line unit of the PNP will be
responsible for the rescue of minors and
abused women?

A. Children and Women Desk

B. Women’s and Children’s Desk
C. Criminal Investigation and Detection
Group
D. NARCOM
E. Women’s and Children Protection desk
38. Investigators often bear the difficulties in interviewing
a child. Which of the following is not a problem during
the interview of a child.

A. Inability to communicate (comprehension)

B. Cooperative witness
C. Failure to recall the exact date, time, and place of
incident
D. Inconsistency on the account of victim during
investigation
E. All of these
39. In interviewing a rape what should we
avoid as investigators? Details about the
crime and the offender.

A. Being tact and emphatic in

questioning.
B. Asking her to demonstrate the details
about the offense.
C. Using leading questions.
D. Ask leading and misleading questions
40. As an investigator, the proper procedure in the
rescue are as follows EXCEPT;

A. Politely identify yourself

B. State the purpose of the rescue
C. Do not use unnecessary force in the conduct
of police/rescue operation
D. Search on the body of the victim and/ or
suspect can be done by any police officer
that responds to the incident
41. Where should a rape victim be brought
for questioning?

A. Local PNP unit

B. DSWD
C. DOLE
D. Parents house
E. DOJ
42. All of the following can file a case for and in
behalf of a rape victim EXCEPT:

A. Social workers of DSWD.

B. Representatives of a licensed child-caring
institution.
C. Offender.
D. At least three (3) responsible citizens of the
place where the violation occurred.
E. None of these
43. It is not always possible to fix the time and place
of an interview, but since memory is short, it is basic
that an interview with the witness and suspect(s)
should take place
as soon as possible after the commission of the
crime.

A. at a comfortable place preferably in a hotel

room
B. at the police station with their legal counsels
C. before filing of the case
D. after the processing of the crime scene.
44. The testimony of witnesses reduced in
writing while under oath is generally called

A. Admission
B. Information
C. Declaration
D. Deposition
E. Sworn Statement
45. The stage of criminal interview purposely
done to clarify information already gathered
or to gather additional facts about the case is
the:

A. initial interview
B. follow-up interview
C. interview
D. concluding interview
E. preliminary interview
46. The prosecutor is the proper authority to
subscribe in the

A. Affidavit
B. Joint affidavit
C. Complaint
D. Information
E. Trial Brief
47. The first step in arresting an offender is

A. show the warrant of arrest

B. inform the nature and cause of his
arrest
C. identify yourself as a law enforcer
D. give the Miranda warning
E. determine the age of the offender
48. The fundamentals responsibility of the officer in
charge of protecting the crime scene is

A. interrogating the witnesses

B. engaging in the search for traces left by the
criminal
C. removal of evidence which may prone important to
the case
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same
physical condition as it was left by the perpetrator
E. arresting the offender
49. Which of the following is NOT among
the rules to be observed in questioning a
suspect?

A. simplicity of the question

B. one question at a time
C. none of these
D. accepting implied answers
E. saving faces
50. The declaration made under a
consciousness of an impending death is
called

A. Res gestae
B. Declaration against interest
C. Dying declaration
D. Last will and testament
E. none of these
ORGANIZED CRIME
INVESTIGATION
1. It is something of value, either cash or a
commodity which can be converted to cash,
i.e., real property, personal property, stocks
and bonds, jewelry, and furniture.

A.assets
B.cash
C.net worth
D.properties
2. Are payments for consumables as part of
living or doing business, over a period of
time, i.e., food, gasoline, taxes, medical care,
entertainments, and travels, etc?

A.liabilities
B.debts
C.expenses
D.obligations
3. It refers to the base time period used to start
the indirect method of comparisons; it is the
initial “snapshot” of the subjects’ financial
condition; and it is the cornerstone upon which
all of the investigator’s assertions are bases.

A.beginning point B.starting point

C.commencing point
D.all of these
4. This method of proof is the simplest way
to conduct a financial investigation, and the
easiest to present to a prosecutor or court.

A.definite items methods B.

particular items methods
C.specific items methods
D.individual items methods
5. By following this to its final destination
provides the circumstantial evidence
necessary to identify all of the people
involved and convince the court of
culpability in the crime.

A.bank account trail

B.cash trail
C.check trail
D.money trail
6. This method of proof is the most
comprehensive and, therefore, the most difficult
to present for the prosecution and to prove to a
judge; and this method began early in the
criminal prosecutions of tax evasion cases.

A.net worth and personal expenditures

B.liabilities and net worth expenditures
C.concealed income expenditure D.assets,
liabilities and net worth
11. It is collected over time and put together
by an intelligence analyst to reveal newly
discovered patterns of organized crime
groups’ activities; and this can be collected
overtly and covertly.

A.intelligence B.data
C.information
D.all of these
12. It involves the accumulation of information
from subjects who are unaware that they are
being observed or overheard; and this type of
collection usually quite expensive in the
human and material resources requirements.

A.information collection B.overt

collection
C.direction of collection
D.covert collection
13. It is the cornerstone of successful organized
crime investigation owing to the fact that
organized crimes have become highly
sophisticated in protecting their operations, thus
requiring a greater effort on the part of law
enforcement.

A.tactical intelligence
B.reliable intelligence
C.positive intelligence D.truthful
intelligence
14. It is the heart of intelligence that uses the
methods of social science research, and
central to this approach is the formulation of
hypothesis from the information collected,
analyzed, valuated and tested.

A.intelligence operatives B.
undercover agents
C.intelligence analysts
D.operational analysts
15. This includes collection only of information
that is justified by reasonably suspected criminal
conduct; collation and analysis in a secure
environment; and dissemination only to those
with a clear need to receive the information.

A.basic protections
B.basic security
C.basic safeguards
D.security consciousness
17. It is an Italian-American criminal society
and offshoot of the Sicilian Mafia. It emerged
on the East Coast of the United States during
the late 19th century following waves of
Sicilian and Southern Italian emigration.

A.Russian Mafia
B.Italian-American Mafia
C.Japan’s Yakuza D.Chinese Triad
18. There are several named organized crime
groups in the local setting; however, these
groups are just categorized as __________
engaged in different criminal acts,

A.notorious criminals
B.syndicated crime
C.all of these
D.organized crime
19. It has been said the common denominator
among OCGs is the objective to acquire
__________ through their illicit activities. Thus,
denying the OCGs to enjoy the fruits of their
criminal act and serve as effective deterrence to
these groups.

A.dirty money
B.money and power
C.power and influence
D.sphere of influence
20. It must be recognized that many of them
have been evolving, and that no single
country, no matter how powerful it may be,
can single-handedly contain or neutralize.

A.ethnic organized crime groups

B.transnational criminal elements
C.Filipino organized crime
groups
D.Filipino syndicated crime groups
21. Organized crimes keep their __________,
and members confer by word of mouth.
Gangs sometimes become sufficiently
systematic to be called organized.

A.operations covert B.operations

clandestine
C.operations furtive
D.illegal operations secret
22. It is a status given to case when at least
one (1) person is arrested, charged with the
commission of the offense, and turned over to
the court for prosecution, whether following
an arrest or court summons was served.

A.unfounded
B.exceptional
C.closed by arrest
D.suspended
24. This is an act or an instance of following up, as
to further an end or review new developments of an
investigation earlier conducted; this involves
digging deeply of the facts of the case collected
during the conduct of preliminary investigation, and
may also includes conduct of survey on family trees
to establish connection with the criminal activities.

A.follow-up investigation
B.continuing investigation
C.concluding investigation D.any of these
26. An organized crime group has a
__________ with at least three permanent
ranks-not just a leader and followers-each
with authority over the level beneath.

A.integral power
B.vertical power
C.cultural power D.horizontal
power
27. This requires the transcripts, video, or audio
of any interrogations and the arranged
statements of any witnesses or others
interviewed or contacted along with an
evaluation of what they will testify to and what
they may not testify.

A.testimonial statement
B.results of interview
C.deposition of the case D.outcome of
interrogation
28. It is assumed by the members, and this
provides an important basis for attracting
qualified persons to the group, thus
perpetuating the group’s existence.

A.all of these
B.temporary
C.permanence
D.perpetual
29. An organized crime group will have a
certain functional positions filled by qualified
members; this person carries out difficult
assignments involving the use of violence,
including murder, in a rational manner.

A.money mover
B.enforcer
C.corrupter
D.fixer
30. An organized crime _________ is
maintained by violence, by the threat of
violence, or by corrupt relationships with law
enforcement officials.

A.monopoly
B.cartel
C.all of these
D.control
31. An organized crime group, like a
legitimate organization, has a set of rules and
regulations that members are expected to
follow; however, a _________ is not fired
but, more likely, fired upon.

A.talkative member B.incorrigible

member
C.novice member
D.rule violating member
32. Historically, organized crime evolves
with the hereunder phases of evolution. This
theory of evolution gives highlights the ways
they influenced the political and economic
sectors of society, EXCEPT:

A.parasitical phase
B.predatory phase
C.vertical phase
D.symbiotic phase
33. This is the results when numbers of people
are confronted by the contradiction between
goals and means and “become estranged from
a society that promises them in principles what
they are deprived of in reality.

A.strain
B.anomie
C.labeling
D.sub-culture
34. It can help explain why some persons
from disadvantaged groups become involved
in organized crime, but it fails to provide a
satisfying explanation for the continued
existence of traditional organized crime.

A.strain
B.differential opportunity
C.anomie
D.social disorganization
35. In a capitalist society socio-economic
differentials relegate some persons to an
environment wherein they experience a
compelling sense of strain—anomie—as well
as _________.

A.sub-culture
B.differential opportunity
C.anomie and strain
D.differential association
36. It refers to a source of patterning in
human conduct; it is the sum of patterns of
social relationship and shared meaning by
which people give order, and value to
common experiences.

A.norms
B.cultures
C.traditions
D.sub-cultures
38. It is defined as the procedure for
collecting, recording, organizing and
preserving all various information gathered
in an investigation.

A.investigation B.trial
preparation
C.case screening
D.case management
39. In administrative case designation as
considerations in case management, it means
that the case is assigned to an officer and
investigative efforts are active.

A.open investigation
B.continuing investigation
C.all of these
D.preliminary investigation
40. In administrative case designations as
considerations in case management, it means
that all available leads has been exhausted but
the case has not been brought to a conclusion
and investigative efforts may resume.

A.follow-up investigation
B.suspended investigation
C.initial investigation D.none of these
41. The objective of case screening is to
apply available manpower to those
investigations that have the best chance of
being successful; the written criteria should
specify how such is to be conducted, by
whom, and what criteria should be used.

A.solvability factor
B.initial investigation
C.modus operandi D.physical evidence
42. It can be defined as a pre-trial procedure
whereby the opposing litigants supply
information to each other that is necessary to
their positions at trial.   

A.plea bargaining
B.discovery
C.investigation D.pre-trial
conference
43. It is a term used to describe the
confiscation of assets, by the state, which are
either, i.e., the proceeds of crime or the
instrumentalities of crime, and more recently,
terrorism.

A.sequestration B.escheating
C.asset forfeiture
D.all of these
44. This doctrine allows courts to strip a
person of property if the property was
involved in a certain offense.

A.doctrine of guilty property

B.doctrine of silver platter
C.doctrine of plain view D.doctrine
of parens patriae
45. These are properties for which ownership
itself is a crime, e.g., illegal drugs, smuggled
goods, and any other properties subject of the
offense.

A.contraband
B.prohibited articles
C.illegal items
D.assets & net worth
46. These are properties that results from, or
can be traced back to illegal activity of those
properties stolen of embezzled.

A.property stolen or embezzled

B.proceeds of illegal activity

C.property subject of the offense

D.property used in committing crime

47. It is a sentencing option if the statute used
to convict the offender also provide for
forfeiture, and in some accounts, less
common mainly because of the burden of
proof in criminal cases, namely proof beyond
a reasonable doubt.

A.asset forfeitureB.freezing of asset

C.sequestration
D.criminal forfeiture
48. These are the various forms of discovery in
connection with case management, and which
is relatively having importance with organized
crime investigations, to wit, EXCEPT:

A.more common forms is a deposition

B.discovery is interrogatory
C.involves the production of physical
evidence
D.formalized case management procedures
49. This encouraged citizens to report crimes;
the agency then responds; and this type of
law enforcement is used in dealing with
conventional crimes such as murder, rape,
robbery and theft or those crimes that are
likely to be discovered by or reported.

A.reactive law enforcement

B.crime prevention & control
C.eliminating opportunity D.none of these
50. This is the basic starting point of organized
crime investigation, by which the investigators
thoroughly examine to learn the structure of the
organization, the identity of its leaders and
membership.,

A.publicly available information

B.privately available information
C.need to know and compartmentation
D.police intelligence operations security
DRUG EDUCATION
& VICE CONTROL
1. Cannabis Sativa is commonly known as:

A. cocaine
B. marijuana
C. codeine D. LSD
2. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
of 2002 is?

A. R.A. 6425 B. P.D. 6425

C. P.D. 9165
D. R.A. 9165
3. When was the Dangerous Drug Law of
1972 was approved?

A. March 10, 1972

B. March 20, 1972
C. March 30, 1972
D. March 25, 1972
4. One of the following is not a narcotic

A. Synthetic Opiate
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Cocaine
5. Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a:

A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent D. Depressant
6. It pertains to drug which decrease body
function and nerve activities including but
not limited to sedatives and hypnotics. They
are referred to as downers.

a. Hallucinogens
b. Narcotics
c. Stimulants
d. Depressants
7. It pertains to the administration of drug
into the body and sometimes called as skin
popping.

a. Inhalation
b. Subcoteneous
c. Intramascular
d. intravenous
8. It is the condition of a person following
the administration of drugs on a periodic or
continuous basis.

a. Drug dependence
b. Drug habituation
c. Drug addiction
d. All of the above
9. It refers to the state of mind in which a
person has lost the power of self control in
respect of a drug.

A. Drug addiction
B. Drug toleration
C. Drug habituation
D. Drug experimentation
10. One way of acquiring drug addiction is
the repetitious engagement of drug use which
is known as:

A. Drug experimentation
B. Drug habituation
C. Drug toleration
D. Drug addiction
11. Which of the following pertains to a
learning situation acquired in Anti-Drug
Seminar Workshops, symposiums and lecture
forums?

A. Youth-Adult Communication
B. Broadcast Media
C. Drug Education
D. Interventions
12. The introduction of drugs into the deeper
layer of the skin by means of special electric
current is known as:

A. Topical Method
B. Injection Method
C. Iontophoresis
D. Oral Method
13. Which of the following medical use of
drugs can lower body temperature or fever
due to infection?

A. Decongestants
B. Laxatives
C. Expectorants
D. Antipyretics
14. The so called Golden Triangle is
composed of:

A. Cambodia-Thailand-Burma
B. Thailand-Laos-Myanmar
C. Indonesia-Malaysia-Laos
D. None of these
15. What country in the Middle East is
considered to be the biggest producer of
cannabis sativa?

A. Lebanon
B. Iraq
C. Kuwait D. None of
these
16. Pursuant to Republic Act No. 6425, the
dangerous drugs are classified as:

A. Narcotic-Stimulant- Hallucinogen

B. Natural-Synthetic-Artificial
C. Inhalants-Prohibited- Regulated

D. Barbiturates-Hypnotic- Amphetamines
17. The group of drugs that are considered to
be mind altering and give the general effect
of mood distortion are called:

A. Sedatives B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquilizers
18.The group of drugs that when introduced
into the system of the body can produce
mental alertness and wakefulness are
classified as?

A. Stimulant
B. Depressants
C. Speed
D. All of these
19. Refers to any liquid, solid or mixed
substances having the property of releasing
toxic vapors or fumes containing one or more
of the following chemical compounds

A. Hallucinogens
B. Volatile substances
C. Solvents
D. Depressants
20. It is a colorless, tasteless clear liquid. It
boils at 78.4 degrees Celsius. It has pleasant
odor and gives a burning sensation to the
mouth, esophagus and stomach. Like many
drugs, alcohol is toxic.

A. Cigarettes
B. Alcohol
C. Wine D. Gatorade
21. This is a feeling of well – being,
increased confidence, temporary relief from
fatigue, pain or depression.

A. Euphorbia B. Emporia
C. Euphoria
D. Phobia
22. In the early stage of intoxication they
may appeared with rapid loud talking and
burst of laughter later on may appear sleepy.
It is the symptoms/effect of the following.

a. Marijuana use
b. Narcotic use
c. Stimulant use
d. Depressant use
23. Also called OPIATES, which is medically
used to relieve pain.

A. Analgesic B. Narcotics
C. Pain reliever
D. Barbiturates
23. A place where any dangerous drug and or
controlled precursor and essential chemical is
administered, delivered, stored for illegal
purposes, distributed, sold or used in any
form.

A. Laboratory B. Clandestine

C. Den, Dive, Resort

D. Hideout
24. It is a cluster of characteristic resctions and behavior of
varying intensity depending on the amount of the drug taken and
the length of time used which ensue upon abrupt cessation of a
drug upon the body which has physical dependence.

a. Withdrawal symptom
b. Drug dependence symptom
c. Both of these
d. None of these
25. The penalty for the illegal possession of 5
grams of opium is?

A. Life sentence to death

B. 20 years and 1 day to life
imprisonment
C. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
D. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
26. The object of this is to take away the
drugs from the person through market denial
operations and prevention of diversion of
these drugs to the illicit markets, this is
known as?

A. Demand reduction
B. Supply reduction
C. Alternative
D. Diversion
27. The test used for opium drug is?

A. Nitric acid test

B. Marquis test
C. Symones test
D. Cobalt test
28. A persons who drinks at parties and
social affairs. Intake of alcohol may be once
a week or occasionally reaches three or four
times per week, uses beverages to release
inhibitions and tensions is known as
A. Regular drinker
B. Frequent drinker
C. Alcoholic Dependent
D. Occasional drinker
29. These drugs are also called psychedelics,
these are drugs that affect sensation thinking,
self-awareness and emotion. They cause
hallucinations in the users. They cause
changes of sensation, distortion of
perceptions, illusion and delusion. Ex.
Marijuana, Mescaline and LSD.

A. Inhalants
B. Hallucinogens
C. Solvents D. Stimulants
30. These are drugs produced by clandestine
laboratories including those drugs that are
controlled by law because they are used in
the medical practice.

A. Natural drugs
B. Over the counter drugs
C. Prohibited drugs
D. Synthetic drugs
31. Republic Act No. 6425 known as the
Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972 was
promulgated in:

A. March 20, 1972

B. March 30, 1972
C. December 30, 1972
D. January 1, 1972
32. In large drug doses, which of the
following drugs can cause respiratory
depression, coma and death due to
respiratory arrest?

A. Stimulants B.
Hallucinogens
C. Depressants
D. Inhalants
33. Physically, when the drug addict’s life
evolved entirely in drug using and misses to
take meals or loss appetite, the user
eventually develops:

A. Skin infections
B. Body rashes
C. Cancer
D. Malnutrition
34. Ugoy, 19 years old a demented person
was hired as runner by Bungo in his drug
trade activity. Which of the following is the
proper penalty of Bungo?

a. Life imprisonment to death.

b. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years.
c. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years.
d. 20 years and 1 day to life
imprisonnment.
35. What is called “food trip” in the lingo of
the drug addicts?

A. Gluttony
B. Anger
C. Greed D. Lustfulness
36. It refers to the state of the mind in which
a person has lost the power of self control in
respect of a drug.

A. Drug addiction
B. Drug toleration
C. Drug Habituation
D. Drug Experimentation
37. The psychological desire to repeat the use
of drugs intermittently or continuously is
commonly known as?

A. Addiction
B. Habituation
C. Potency D. Toleration
38. The long-term danger of ecstasy when
abused is?

A. Brain damage due to damage of

serotine neurons
B. Increase in heart rate
C. Blurred vision
D. Involuntary teeth-clenching
39. Chinoy, a tourist from China was arrested
at NAIA in possession of 1.5 grams of shabu.
Which among the following is the imposable
penalties for such offense.

a. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years.

b. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years.
c. life imprisonment to death
d. any of the above at the discretion of the
trial judge
40. Preparation for the distribution of illicit
drug after cultivation and harvest is usually
made in?

A. Iran B. Pakistan
C. China
D. Turkey
41. Which of the following law is called the
“Dangerous Drug Law of 1972?

A. R.A. 6452
B. R.A. 6425
C. R.A. 9165
D. P.D. 9165
42. Nipon Hai, a Mexican National through
the used of his diplomatic passport entered the
Philippines via Clark International Airport.
Confiscated from him a controlled precursor.
What is the proper penalty against him?

a. 6 months and 1 day to six years

b. None. Being a diplomats he enjoys
immunity from suit
c. Life imprisonment to death
d. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
43. Expectorant drug ease the expulsion of
the mucus and phlegm from the lungs and the
throat, what about sedatives and
tranquilizers?

A. Drugs necessary for normal growth

B. Calm and quiet the nerves and relieves

anxiety
C. Combat allergic reactions
D. Control infectious
44. What is the term used to described the
intoxicating effect of a drug in the lingo of
the drug users?

A. Stoned
B. Rush
C. High
D. Trip
45. Hundreds of pure chemicals have been
developed from plants and put into pills,
capsules or liquid medicines. The Process of
preparation, production or compounding of
this drug is called?

A. Cultivation
B. Experimentation
C. Manufacture
D. Chemical Synthesis
46. When drug evidence is transferred from
one investigator to another, the process of
evidence transfer is called:

A. Chain of evidence transfer

B. Chain of custody
C. Evidence gathering
D. Evidence protection
47. The substance known as “the miracle
drug” refers to:

A. Morphine
B. Cocaine
C. Heroine
D. Codeine
48. The burning of a small quantity of the
suspected substance and determining the
odor or smell having similar to burnt banana
leaves or has a sweetish odor is a field test
that can reveal the drug as:

A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca leaves D. Peyote
cactus
49. What is called “food trip” in the lingo of
drug addicts?

A. Gluttony
B. Anger
C. Greed D. Lustfulness
50. One of the coverage on the Rules of
Narcotic Operations is Buy-bust Operation.
Buy-bust operation is a form of:

A. Search and Seizure Operation

B. Entrapment
C. Surveillance
D. Casing Operations
FIRE TECHNOLOGY
AND ARSON
INVESTIGATION
1. It refers to a building unseafe in case of
fire because it will burn easily or because
it lacks adequate exits or fire escapes.

a. Fire trap
b. Fire hazard
c. Fire door
d. Fire alarm
2. A hot glowing body of ignited gas that is
generated by something on fire.

A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
3. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal
of land or property.

A. Conflagration
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
4. Means on fire or very hot or bright.

A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
5. The rapid chemical combination of a
substance with oxygen involving the
production of heat and light.

A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
6. The quality of being hot or high
temperature at which fuel will continue to
burn for at least 5 seconds after ignition by
an open flame.

A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
7. The natural agent that stimulates sight and
makes things visible.

A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Light
D. Smoke
8. Is one of the 4 fundamentals states of
matter, the other being solid, liquid and gas.

A. Flame
B. Plasma
C. Light
D. Smoke
9. The minimum temperature at which any
material gives off vapor in sufficient
concentration to form an ignitable mixture
with air.

A. Flash point
B. Fire point
C. Ignition temperature
D. Boiling point
10. Is the temperature at which fuel will
continue to burn for at least five seconds
after ignition by an open flame.

A. Flash point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
11. The following are variables on behavior
of fire EXCEPT;

A. Slope
B. fuel
C. aspect
D. Weather
E. gravity
12. It is used to describe the magnitude,
direction and intensity of fire spread.

a. Behavior of fire
b. nature of fire
c. phases of fire
d. all of the above
13. A fire which uses a flammable liquid as
fuel is classified as:

A. Class A fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fires D. Class D
fires
14. It refers to any liquid having a flash point
of 37.8 C or 100 F.

A. Combustible liquid
B. Corrosive liquid
C. Flammable liquid
D. Al of the above
15. Which among the following a descriptive
of any substance that ignites spontaneously
when exposed to air

A. pyrophoric
B. oxidizing agent
C. Combustible materials
D. flammable solid
16. This term describes the transfer of heat
through gas or vacuum in a similar way to
light.

a. Radiation
b. incipient
c. conduction
d. convection
17. Instrument used to open/close fire
hydrants.

A. Sprinkler
B. Fire pump
C. Fire Hose
D. Hydrant key
18. Product of an incomplete combustion.

A. Soot
B. Charring
C. Ashes
D. All of these
19. Which among the following is vested
with authority to assess the fire code taxes,
fees and fines?

A. BFP
B. DILG
C. Local Government Unit D. All
of these
20. A finely powdered substance which when
mixed with all in the proper proportion and
ignited will cause an explosion.

A. Dust @
B. Fire lane
C. Fire trap
D. Fire hazard
22. Heat transfer by direct contact from one
body to another.

A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Fission
23. A re-quisite to grant permit/licensed by
local government for any particular
establishment.

A. Fire service
B. Fire safety inspection
C. Fire drill
D. Fire protection assembly
24. Designed to prevent the spread of fire,
having a fire resistance rating not less that
four hours with structural stability to remain
standing even if the adjacent construction
collapse under fire condition.

A. Post wall
B. Fire trap
C. Fire wall
D. Fire wood
25. An enclosed vertical passage that extends
from the floor to floor as well as from the
base to the top of the building.

A. Standpipe system
B. Sprinkler system
C. Vertical shaft
D. Flashpoint
26. One of the following is exempted from
paying 0.01% of the assessed valued of the
building.

A. School
B. Department stores
C. Hospitals
D. Single family dwelling
27. The use of more electrical devices that
draw or consume electrical current beyond
the designed capacity of the existing
electrical system.

A. Overloading
B. Jumper
C. Wire tapping
D. Arcing
28. The burning of low grade heavy oils or
resinous tarry materials with sufficient air
forms lamp black commonly known as:

A. Black bone
B. Used petroleum
C. Soot
D. Black iron
29. Any act that would remove or neutralized
a fire hazard.

A. Abatement
B. Combustion
C. Allotment
D. Distillation
30. Refers to the preparation and gathering of
materials to start a fire.

A. Plants
B. Accelerants
C. Trailers
D. Wick
31. It is the result of slow oxidation of a
combustible material.

A. Spontaneous heating
B. Combustible gases
C. Combustible dust
D. None of these
32. Most common reason of arson cases.

A. Revenge
B. Profit
C. Competition
D. Anger
33. Usually comes in the form of
combustible liquid which is contrivance to
hasten the start of fire.

A. Accelerant
B. Plants
C. Trailer
D. Wick
34. A device used by arsonist to spread the
fire within the room or throughout the
structure.

A. Accelerant
B. Plants
C. Trailer
D. Wick
35. Most common of accidental fires is
related to:

A. Smoking
B. Arcing
C. Sparking
D. Overloading
36. A form of static electricity or an electrical
current of great magnitude producing
tremendous amperage and voltage, it is the
most common cause of providential fire.

A. Rays of the sun

B. Spontaneous heating
C. Arcing
D. Lightning
37. Which of the following is commonly
used in fire resistance materials?

A. Asbestos
B. Diamond
C. Asphalt
D. Cotton
38. Color of smoke produced accompanied
by red flames indicates the burning of what
materials?

A. Rubber
B. Nitrogen products
C. Asphalt singles
D. Chlorine
39. Known as ignition heat, it refers to any
contrivance to start a fire.

A. Fuel
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Neon
40. Malicious and willful burning of a
building defined in the case of Ong Chat Lay
60 P 788.

A. Arson
B. Providential fire
C. Accidental fire
D. None of the foregoing
41. In this phase of the fire the maximum
heat and its destructive capabilities are
developed.

A. Initial phase
B. Incipient phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
42. When potassium is used as a combustible
material what would be the visible color of
the flame?

A. Purple
B. Violet
C. Lavander
D. Any of the three
43. Color of the smoke produced when
nitrogen product is combustible materials
being burned while bright red flame are
visible.

A. Black smoke
B. Heavy brown smoke
C. White smoke
D. Greenish smoke
44. Phase whereby the fire can no longer
support the flame and carbon monoxide
builds up in volume.

A. Incipient phase
B. Initial phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
45. During this fire phase, the burnt inverted
cone pattern or fingerprint of fire is
developed.

A. Incipient phase
B. Initial phase
C. Free burning phase
D. Smoldering phase
46. Primary component of wood

A. Fiber
B. Cellulose
C. Carbon
D. Pulp
47. Fire caused by human error and
negligence.

A. Providential fire
B. Intentional fire
C. Accidental fires
D. Incendiarism
48. It pertains to an element of fire
tetrahedron which under proper conditions
will release gases including oxygen and
crucial to the sustainment of fire.

a. Chemical reaction
b. Oxidizing agent
c. Heat
d. Reducing agent
49. Colors of luminous flames.

A. Orange-red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Red
50. A combination of three elements namely
fuel, heat and oxygen.

A. Fire
B. Origin fire
C. Fire triangle
D. All of the foregoing
The End…
Thank you
& God bless Us! 
 CRIMINOLOGY MOCK
BOARD EXAM REVIEWER
(Compiled Reviewer)
This reviewer is for sharing of knowledge
purposes only.
1. Can a Non-Criminologist become a
Criminologist?
- Yes
2. Ecstacy is also known as?
- MDMA (Methylmethamphetamine)
3. The act of willfully and maliciously setting
fire to a house, building, or other
property:
- Arson
4. What is the reason why 2013 National
Election was postponed in Zamboanga?
- Due to the attack/siege by Moro National
Liberation Front (MNLF)
5. Days of termination or completion of
Preliminary Investigation?
- 69 days
6. The penalty of possession of less that 5
grams of illegal drugs?
- Imprisonment of twelve (12) years and
one (1) day to twenty (20) years.
7. If consul was arrested for possession of
illegal drugs in abroad, what would be the
effect of being consul to his case?
- It makes heavier or aggravating
8. In the event the complainant doesn’t
longer want to continue the filing of his case,
what should be done by the investigator do?
- He should convince the complainant
9. Where to get permission when PDEA
agents will conduct drug operations in water?
- Either of the following: Coast Guard
( Under DOTC), Phil Navy, PNP
MARITIME
10. Can a machine copy of Driver’s License
allowed driver to drive a mot0r vehicle?
- No
11. It serves the implementing arm of the
Board, shall be responsible for the efficient
and effective law enforcement of all the
provisions on any dangerous drug and/or
controlled precursor and essential chemical?
- Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
12. Year that PDEA goal for DRUG FREE
PHILIPPINES?
- 2020
13. The largest Muslim population in a
country is:
- Indonesia (Found in South East Asia)
14. Less than 10 million of property gutted
by fire, where to get fire clearance?
- Municipal Fire Marshall
15. In DNA, this is substance whose composition
had been passed on from parents to their children:
- Cell
16. What does “MO” means in organized crime?
- Modus Operandi
17. Public Officer who shall agree to perform an
act constituting a crime, in connection with the
performance of his official duties, in consideration
of any offer, promise, gift or present:
- Direct Bribery
19. Public who shall accept gifts offered to
him by reason of his office:
- Indirect Bribery
20. Any person who shall have made the
offer or promise or given the gifts or present:
- Corruption of public officials
21. What is the administrative penalty law of
enforcer who failed to attend drug hearing?
- Dismissal from the service
22. For Muslin, Jihad means:
- Holy War
23. In arson, what does FIR means?
- Fire Investigation Report
24. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002
is also known as:
- RA 9165
25. When PDEA agents arrested a person for illegal
drugs where they should turn-over him?
- No need to turn-over to the law enforcement
agencies, as the law on drugs mandated them to
prosecute the said violator.
26. MILF organized syndicate is?
- Pentagon
27. The common reason in arson case is?
- Insurance
28. Is Marijuana addictive or not addictive?
- Addictive
29. Reason or purpose for investigator to use
cell phone at the crime scene?
- To call assistance (Used only when
necessary)
30. When a person flame a house without
knowing there is a person inside, the crime is?
- Arson
31. When a person wanted to confess but
retreated, because it was already midnight,
then the following morning he changed mind
and no longer interested to confess, what
would be the recourse/action of the
investigator?
- Convince the person to cooperate
32. Under RA 9165, to be considered drug
syndicate, it requires how many number of
people?
-2
33. The required quantity of saliva for DNA is?
- 1 table spoon
34. The people who will assist PDEA agents
to confiscate the items of person before placing
him in jail.
- Jail Personnel
35. The Policy-making and strategy-
formulating body in the planning and
formulation of policies and programs on drug
prevention and control of RA 9165 is?
- Dangerous Drug Board (DDB)
36. Color of magnesium when burned?
- White lights/Bright white lights/flame
37. A substance that is used to intensify a
fire?
-Accelerants
38. Test used to determine if person was
drunk?
- Romberg Test
39. When overtaking a motor vehicle, the
driver should pass at?
- Left side
40. What is the crime committed when a person
maliciously burned his motor vehicle?
- Arson
41. An analytical test using a device, tool or
equipment with a different chemical or physical
and confirm the result of the screening test?
- Confirmatory test
42. The one who an authority to keep evidence
is?
- Evidence Custodian
43. An Electronic Commerce Law is also
known as?
- RA 8792
44. Is a state of collapse due to deficiency of
oxygen or No oxygen supply in the tissues
and particularly the brain.
- Asphyxia
45. In investigation crime of arson, the
prober should primary look for?
- Origin Of fire
46. Under RA 9165, also known as
Dangerous Drug Act 2002, the punishment of
drug trafficking is?
- Life Imprisonment
47. Cannabis Sativa Lima is also known as?
- Marijuana/Indian hemp
48. When fire occurred in closed area the
direction of fire is:
- Vertical
49. Failure or inability think ahead:
- Lack of Foresight
50. Is the process of devising a method or
course of action, arranging the means or
steps towards the attainment of
organizational goals.
- Planning
51. Botanical name of Marijuana:
- Cannabis Sativa Lima
52. If the crime Arson was employed by the
offender as a means to kill a person, the
crime committed is.
- Murder
53. Is there a such Arson with homicide?
- None
54. There is no special complex crime of
Arson with Homicide. What matters in
resolving cases involving Arson is the
- criminal intent of the offender.
55. Calculated use of violence as fear,
intimidation or coercion, or threat of such
violence to attain goals that are political,
religious and ideological in nature:
- Terrorism
56. Criminalistics subject is:
- Technological
57. Most commonly abuse drug in the
Philippines:
- Shabu
58. Penalty of government official or
employee if found guilty for violating the
provisions of new drugs law:
- Maximum penalty
59. Most important of motive of setting fire:
- Profit
60. Quantum of proof required in
administrative offense is:
- Substantial Evidence
61. Most Devastating when exploded by
terrorist:
- Pandacan oil depot
62. First to do with evidence:
- Photograph it immediately
63. Al Queda means:
- Base
64. Method of reproduction of footprints is
called:
- Moulage
65. Terrorism committed through use of
cyberspace or computer resources:
- Cyberterrorism
66. Sketch made at the crime scene:
- Rough Sketch
67. Days required to settle your case to avoid
suspension or revocation of your license:
- 15
68. Primary duty arson prober:
- Probe conflagration and be an instrument
of justice
69. After occurrence of fire, one of first thing
to do is to look for is:
- Origin fire
70. E-commerce Act 2000:
- RA 8792
71. Anti Money Laundering Act 2001:
- RA 9160
72. In taking close-up shots or photographs of
fire marks and in order to get thread design
and tire width, you have to place beside
marks:
- Tape measure
73. Questioning a person suspected of having
committed an offense of a person who is
reluctant to make full disclosure pertinent
information his possession to the investigator:
- Interrogation
74. Any accident involving a motor vehicle
in motion that results in injury, death or
damage to property.
- Traffic Accident
75. Under what department is the department
of fire protection:
- DILG
76. What is the term of a word with the same
sound but different in meaning?
- Homonym
77. A proof that is issued by the Land
Transportation Office (LTO) authorizing an
individual to operate an automobile in a public
highway:
- Drivers License
78. This police report is initiated during the
conduct of the investigation:
- Initial Interview
79. Photographs are valuable in crime
investigation for it provides:
- Testimony
80. The court process requiring a person to
bring documents in court for presentation:
- Subpoena duces tecum
81. Where is the symptoms of the use of
amphetamines?
- Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
82. In forgery simulating method, the best
equipment to use in detecting it is the:
- High powered microsope
83. Laboratory test used to determine
whether the blood is human or not:
- Precipitin test

85. It is the safest type of body search:

- Wall search
86. Criminal Investigation is not only a
science but also an:
- Art
87. Refers to the breaking of pieces on the
surface of concrete, brick or cement due to
intense heat:
- Spalling
88. In a good police report said: “Don’t beat
around the bush” means “direct to the
point” which in turn means?
- Go straight to the point
89. How many bones that an adult person has?
- 206
90. What must a police officer do upon
arrival of a killing incident?
- Evacuate the victims to the nearest
hospital
91. A motor vehicle which can accommodate
more than 9 passengers is:
- Articulated
92. If the accused refuses to plead in
arraignment. What plea should you rendered?
- Plea of not guilty
THE END!!!

Thank you &

God bless! 
A.A.S