Air Law

Q1) The air traffic control unit has reported ‘radar contact’, what does that mean to
the pilot ?

A. The radar identified of the aircraft has been established

B. The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
C. Position reports may be omitted
D. The aircraft is subject to positive control
Q2) The criteria which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an
aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criteria):

A. +/- 300 ft
B. +/- 100 ft
C. +/- 200 ft
D. +/- 150 ft
Q3) You are outside controlled airspace on a VFR flight above 3000 ft. Your distance from
the cloud should be...

A. 1500 feet vertically & 1.5 km horizontally

B. 1000 feet vertically & 1.5 km horizontally
C. 500 feet vertically & 1.5 km horizontally
D. 2000 feet vertically & 1.5 km horizontally
Q4) What is the principle requirement for a signals area on an aerodrome

A. It may be visible from the air

B. It must be visible from the air
C. It must be clearly visible from all parts of the maneuvering area
D. It must be visible from the air & the ground
Q5) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL-

A. With a theoretical CPL examination plus a flight instructor rating

B. With a CPL
C. With a theoretical CPL examination
D. With a PPL plus ATPL examination
Q6) When a pilot raises his arms extended palms facing outwards and moves his hands
inwards to cross in front of the face this means ...

A. brakes released
B. insert chokes
C. brakes engaged
D. remove chokes
Q7) An object located beyond the 15 km radius of the aerodrome is normally considered to
be an obstacle in flight (en route obstacle) if they exceed …... in height.

A. 250m
B. 200m
C. 150m
D. 50m
Q8) The crew member certificate (CMC) will be accepted by each Contracting State for
identification purposes

A. None of the answers are correct

B. Together with a valid flight crew licence
C. Together with a valid passport
D. Together with a visa if required
Q9) In the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan,
the appropriate ATS unit has to be informed

A. if the estimate time is in error by more than 5 minutes

B. if it is an emergency
C. if it is a deviation from the track
D. If the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan
Q10) The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate
compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is

A. the Rome convention

B. the Paris convention
C. the Geneva convention
D. the seven states covention
Q11) At the start of a final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the
form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall
be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is?

A. 2 knots
B. 3 knots
C. 5 knots
D. 1 knot
Q12) During holding procedures, if for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the
procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:

A. advise ATC as early as possible

B. follow the radio communication failure procedure

C. execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the

performance of his aeroplane

D. remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the
prescribed holding
Q13) Below and at the transition altitude, the altimeter setting should be

A. 1200m
B. 150m
C. 600m
D. 900m
Q14) Altimeter setting procedures, the Transition Level

A. +/- 300 ft
B. +/- 100 ft
C. +/- 200 ft
D. +/- 150 ft
Q15)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q16)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q17)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q18)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q19)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q20)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q21)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q22)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q23)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q24)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q25)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q26)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q27)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q28)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q29)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q30)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q31)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q32)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q33)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q34)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q35)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q36)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q37)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q38)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q39)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q40)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q41)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q42)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q43)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
Q44)

A. X
B. X
C. X
D. X
End