RGO Presentation

 1.
) A branch of psychology that deals with the

psychological knowledge and practice used in helping a
person with a behavioral disorder to find better coping and
adjustment.
 A. Psychopathology
 B. Clinical Psychology
 C. Abnormal Psychology
 D. Psychiatry
 Psychopathology – The scientific study of mental disorders.
 Clinical Psychology – Applied branch of psychology that

seeks to understand, assess, and treat psychological
conditions in a clinical setting
 Abnormal Psychology - the branch of psychology that

studies unusual patterns of behavior, emotion and thought
which may or may not indicate an underlying condition.
 2.) This is the reference point in determining abnormal
behavior where abnormality is seen when an individual
violates cultural practices.
 A. Abnormality as Norm Violation

 B. Abnormality as Statistical Rarity
 C. Abnormality as Maladaptive Behavior
 D. Abnormality as Personal Discomfort
 Criteria for determining Abnormal Behavior:
1. Abnormality as Norm Violation
2. Abnormality as Statistical Rarity
3. Abnormality as Personal Discomfort
4. Abnormality as Deviation from an Ideal

 3.) It is a term used to refer to the likelihood of the
presence of another disorder alongside another mental
disorder.
 A. Comorbidity
 B. Covalence
 C. Copresence
 D. Coexistence
 4.) This perspective is mostly concerned with individuals’
childhood experiences and unconscious behaviors.
 A. Humanistic-Existentialist Perspective
 B. Neuroscientific Perspective
 C. Clinical Perspective
 D. Psychodynamic Perspective
 Perspectives in viewing abnormality:
a. Psychoanalytic Perspective
b. Humanistic-Existentialist Perspective
c. Behavioral Perspective
d. Neuroscience Perspective
e. Medical Perspective
f. Spiritistic Perspective
 5.) This model states that people inherit the tendency of
having a mental disorder and that the environment triggers
the prevalence of said mental disorder.
 A. Psychodynamic Model
 B. Delirium Congruence Model
 C. Diathesis-Stress Model
 D. Behavioral Model
 6.) This perspective sees abnormal behavior as a result of
improper learning or improper associations with previous
experiences.
 A. Neuroscience Perspective
 B. Diagnostic Perspective
 C. Psychodynamic Perspective
 D. Behavioral Perspective
 7.) This is the axis in the multiaxial model which covers
medical conditions that may affect an individual’s mental
condition.
 A. Axis I
 B. Axis II
 C. Axis III
 D. Axis IV
 Multiaxial System in the DSM-IV and DSM-IV-TR
Axis I – Mental Disorders (Developmental, Psychoses,

Anxiety Disorders, etc.)
Axis II – Personality Disorders and Mental Retardation
Axis III – Related Medical Conditions
Axis IV – Psychosocial Factors
Axis V – GAF Scale (General Assessment of Functioning)
 Two main sources of information about mental disorders:
 A. DSM-IV-TR and DSM-V (Diagnostic and Statistical

Manual)
 B. ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases)

 8.) These are the observable characteristics and behaviors
of an individual.
 A. Genotype
 B. Physiotype
 C. Phenotype
 D. Personatype
 Genotype – Genetic makeup of an individual
 Phenotype – Observable characteristics

 9.) A politician is having anxiety attacks related to her elected
position as senator of the Republic of the Philippines. This is
influenced by the people’s trust and expectations of her as an
elected official. The people’s expectation of her is contained in
what axis in the multiaxial model of the DSM IV-TR?
 A. Axis I
 B. Axis II
 C. Axis III
 D. Axis IV
 10.) It is an action that a person feels compelled to repeat
again and again in order to alleviate anxiety.
 A. Obsession
 B. Compulsion
 C. Hallucination
 D. Reactions
 11.) It is a method done during prehistoric times where a
“witch doctor” or “shaman” bores a hole in the skull of an
individual in order to release the “evil spirits” inhabiting
the individual.
 A. Exorcism
 B. Trephination
 C. Redrum
 D. Sacrificial Ceremony
 12.) Characterized by extreme fear of contracting a disease
or acquiring an organic dysfunction.
 A. Conversion Disorder
 B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
 C. Organic Obsession Disorder
 D. Hypochondriasis
 13.) The disease associated with a “traveling uterus” that
causes havoc inside the body of a woman, thereby causing
mental dysfunction.
 A. Malingering
 B. Hysteria
 C. Phrenitis
 D. La Belle Indifference
 14.) Melissa is having a hard time concentrating on her studies
because every time she sees a door being opened, she feels
compelled to close and open the door herself for exactly 4 times so
that she wouldn’t feel anxious anymore. She is having a hard time
interacting with her friends as a result and feels that this gnawing
feeling of unease is spreading to other aspects of her life. Melissa
most likely has which mental disorder?
 A. She has no mental disorder that can be diagnosed at present.

 B. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
 C. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
 D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
 15.) A type of study in Abnormal Psychology wherein
researchers check for behavioral patterns in the family
context.
 A. Contextual Research
 B. Q-Data
 C. Family Studies
 D. Adoption Studies
 16.) The following are symptoms that help determine the
presence of a personality disorder within an individual
EXCEPT:
 A. A peculiar capacity to get under the skin of others

 B. A reactive response to whatever happens in the
environment
 C. Maladaptive behaviors are mostly ego-syntonic
 D. None of the above
 17.) When an individual has complete lack of concern for other
people and does things only to benefit himself to the point of
becoming predatory, the personality disorder that the
individual has belongs to what cluster?
 A. Cluster A
 B. Cluster B
 C. Cluster C
 D. Cluster D
 Personality Disorders:
Cluster A: Odd or Eccentric Disorders (Paranoid, Schizoid,

Schizotypal)
Cluster B: Dramatic or Erratic Disorders (Antisocial, Borderline,

Histrionic, Narcissistic)
Cluster C: Anxious or Fearful Disorders (Avoidant, Dependent,

Obsessive-Compulsive)
 18.) Hans forgot everything in a specific timeframe
because of a very traumatic experience that happened
during that time. The type of amnesia that Hans
experienced is an example of:
 A. Generalized Amnesia
 B. Specific Amnesia
 C. Selective Amnesia
 D. Localized Amnesia
 Types of Amnesia:
1. Biogenic
2. Psychogenic
 Types of Amnesia (according to length of time):
1. Generalized
2. Localized
3. Specific
 19.) A necessary procedure done before conducting a
psychological intervention wherein the clinician must first
inform the client about the nature of the planned intervention
and afterwards ask the permission of the client to conduct said
intervention.
 A. Agreement
 B. Informed Consent
 C. Privacy
 D. Clinical Assessment
 20.) A mood state characterized by marked negative affect
and bodily symptoms of tension in which a person
apprehensively anticipates future danger or misfortune.
 A. Fear
 B. Apprehension
 C. Anxiety
 D. Anger
 21.) Ana falls down to her knees after seeing her ex-
boyfriend holding hands with another man. Ana starts to
have difficulty breathing and to lose sensation in her hands.
Ana is having a:
 A. Traumatic Epileptic Response

 B. Panic Attack
 C. Grand Mal Seizure
 D. Petite Mal Seizure
 22.) A brain circuit in the limbic system that responds to
threat signals by inhibiting activity and causing anxiety.
 A. Behavioral Inhibition System

 B. Fight/Flight System
 C. Generalized Biological Reaction System
 D. Anxious-Intensive Response System
 23.) Characterized by a persistent state of tension and
anxiety where the individual concerned has trouble
controlling his/her anxiety most of the time.
 A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
 B. Agoraphobia
 C. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
 D. Dysthymia
 24.) It is a fear of crowded spaces with the inability to
escape. It is also comorbid with social anxiety disorder.
 A. Trypophobia
 B. Agoraphobia
 C. Dysthymia
 D. Acrophobia
 Anxiety Disorders – Characterized by extreme anxiety,
usually triggered by specific events or situations.
 Types of Anxiety Disorders:
1. Panic Disorder – have “panic attacks” and are fearful of

future panic attacks
2. Phobias – Avoid certain situations or objects and
experience severe anxiety and panic when encountering
them
*Agoraphobia - Fear and avoidance of situations, people, or
places where it would be unsafe to have a panic attack.
3. Generalized Anxiety Disorder – Persistent anxious mood

4. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder – Fear and nightmares or
flashbacks of previous events
5. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder – Repeated ritualistic
actions or thoughts (compulsions) in order to neutralize
intrusive thoughts (obsessions)
6. Separation Anxiety Disorder – Excessive, enduring fear in

some children that harm will come to them or their
parents while they are apart.
7. Acute Stress Disorder – Severe reaction immediately
following a terrifying event, often including amnesia
about the event, emotional numbing, and derealizatin.
Many victims later develop posttraumatic stress disorder.
 Types of Phobias:
1. Blood-Injury-Injection Phobia – Unreasonable fear and

avoidance of exposure to blood, injury, or the possibility
of an injection.
2. Situational Phobia – Anxiety involving enclosed places

(for example, claustrophobia, or public transportation (for
example, fear of flying).
3. Natural Environment Phobia – Fear of situations or events

in nature, especially heights, storms, and water.
4. Animal Phobia – Unreasonable, enduring fear of animals

or insects that usually develops early in life.
 Dissociative Disorders - Characterized by detachment from
the self (depersonalization) and objective reality
(derealization).
 Types of Dissociative Disorders:
1. Dissociative Identity Disorder – Multiple personalities
2. Depersonalization – Feeling of being an outside observer of

one’s self
3. Dissociative Fugue – Characterized by flight and memory loss

 Types of Dissociative Disorders:
4. Dissociative Amnesia – Generalized memory loss
5. Dissociative Trance – Sudden changes in personality

accompanied by a “trance” or “possession”.
 Somatoform Disorders – Pathological concern of
individuals with the appearance or functioning of their
bodies
 Types of Somatoform Disorders:
1. Hypochondriasis – Severe anxiety over belief in having a

disease.
2. Somatization Disorder – Extreme long-lasting focus on

multiple physical symptoms.
3. Pain Disorder – Features true pain, but wherein

psychological factors affect onset, severity, or
maintenance.
4. Conversion Disorder – Real physical impairment (like

blindness, inability to walk, etc.) but with no organic
evidence present.
5. Factitious Disorder – Faking of physical or psychological

disorders for no apparent gain except sympathy and
attention
*Malingering – Deliberate faking of physical or

psychological disorder motivated by gain.
6. Body Dysmorphic Disorder – Excessive preoccupation

with an imagined defect in appearance
*Biofeedback – Use of psychological monitoring equipment
to make individuals aware of their own bodily functions with
the purpose of controlling them.
 25.) John is a 9-year old boy who is having a hard time disclosing
what he truly feels to his parents. He experiences discomfort when
being associated with the male gender. He prefers playing with dolls
and makeup and does not want to conform to cultural expectations of
males in the society. John might have which mental disorder?
 A. Transvestism
 B. Pedophilia
 C. Gender Dysphoria
 D. John cannot be diagnosed with a mental disorder because he is too
young.
 Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
 Gender Identity Disorder - Present when a person feels
trapped in a body that is the “wrong” sex, that does not
match his or her innate sense of personal identity.
 Sexual Disorders:
1. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder – excessive lack of

interest
2. Sexual Aversion Disorder – Extreme aversion to sex

3. Male Erectile Disorder – Male inability to have an

erection
4. Female Sexual Arousal Disorder – Female inability to

maintain adequate lubriaction
5. Female Orgasmic Disorder – Female inability to achieve

orgasms
6. Male Orgasmic Disorder – Male inability to achieve

orgasms
5. Premature Ejaculation – Ejaculating before desired time
6. Sexual Pain Disorders (Dyspareunia) – A recurring

genital pain in either males or females before, during, or
after sexual intercourse.
 Paraphilia – Characterized by sexual arousal that occurs
almost exclusively in the context of inappropriate objects
or individuals.
 Paraphilias:
1. Fetishism: Sexual attraction to nonliving objects
2. Voyeurism: Viewing an unsuspecting person undressing

or naked
 Paraphilias:
3. Exhibitionism: Exposing one’s genitals to unsuspecting

strangers
4. Transvestite fetishism: Wearing opposite-sex clothing

(cross-dressing)
 Paraphilias:
5. Frotteurism: Rubbing genitals to unsuspecting strangers
6. Sexual sadism: Inflicting pain or humiliation

 Paraphilias:
7. Sexual masochism: Experiencing pain or humiliation
8. Pedophilia: Strong sexual attraction to children
9. Incest: Sexual attraction to family member

 26.) The official name of Multiple Personality Disorder in
the DSM-V.
 A. Multiple Personality Disorder

 B. Dislocated Persona Disorder
 C. Dysthymic Disorder
 D. Dissociative Identity Disorder
 27.) An individual with this Personality Disorder tends to
stay away from other people because of their fear of
rejection or scrutiny.
 A. Dependent Personality Disorder

 B. Avoidant Personality Disorder
 C. Paranoid Personality Disorder
 D. Schizoid Personality Disorder
 28.) The most common drug available in the Philippines.
 A. Shabu
 B. Marijuana
 C. Amphetamines
 D. Caffeine
 29.) These are persistent beliefs that are simply contrary to
reality.
 A. Hallucinations
 B. Self-made Beliefs
 C. Paranoia
 D. Delusions
 Hallucinations – Imagined/Fake perceptions
 Delusions – False beliefs

 30.) This disorder is characterized by a persistent
depressive mood experienced over a 2-year period.
Functioning is impaired but only to a small degree.
 A. Dysthymia
 B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
 C. Major Depressive Disorder
 D. Bipolar Disorder
 Mood Disorders – characterized by experiencing one or two of
the following:
1. Mania – a frantic “high”, high self-confidence, energy, and

happiness
2. Depression – a devastating “low”, low energy, interest,
enjoyment.
 2 Major Types of Mood Disorders:
1. Depressive
2. Bipolar
 Depressive:
1. Major Depressive Disorder – extremely severe depression
2. Dysthymia – Long-term mild depression
3. Double Depression – Alternating between Major Depression

and Dysthymia
 Depressive:
Theories Related to Depressive Mood Disorders:
a. Learned Helplessness Theory of Depression
b. Depressive Cognitive Triad

 Depressive:
Possible Interventions for Depressive Mood Disorders:
a. Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
b. Cognitive Therapy
 Depressive:
Possible Interventions for Depressive Mood Disorders:
c. Interpersonal Psychotherapy (IPT)

 Depressive:
Suicidal Ideation – Serious thoughts about committing suicide
Suicidal Plans – Formulation of specific plans of killing oneself
Suicidal Attempts – Efforts made to kill oneself

 Bipolar:
1. Bipolar I: major depression and full mania
2. Bipolar II: major depression and mild mania (hypomania)
3. Cyclothymia: mild depression with mild mania

 31.) This refers to the construction of new words in order to
communicate the schizophrenic’s thoughts. These words
are completely based on the schizophrenic’s personal
experiences.
 A. Verbigeration
 B. Incoherence
 C. Echolalia
 D. Neologisms
 32.) This is a type of Schizophrenia characterized by
“waxy” behavior and posturing.
 A. Catatonic Schizophrenia
 B. Disorganized Schizophrenia
 C. Residual Schizophrenia
 D. Undifferentiated Schizophrenia
 Schizophrenia – Disruption in the perception of the world,
thought, speech, movement, and almost every other aspect
of daily functioning.
 Symptoms of Schizophrenia:
1. Delusions
2. Hallucinations
3. Disorganized Speech (echolalia, tangentiality, word salad,
neologisms, etc.)
4. Behavioral Problems
5. Withdrawal
 Types of Schizophrenia:
1. Paranoid – Delusions of grandeur and persecution
2. Disorganized – Disorganized speech and behavior
3. Catatonic – Immobility
 Types of Schizophrenia:
4. Residual – had at least one episode; has “leftover”

symptoms
5. Undifferentiated – Combination of the different types

 33.) The unreasonable fear of a specific object or situation
that markedly interferes with daily life functioning.
 A. Anxiety Disorders
 B. Specific Phobia
 C. Panic Disorders
 D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders
 34.) Excessive fear of situations or events in nature,
especially heights, storms, and water can be classified
under which type of phobia?
 A. Situational Phobia
 B. Natural Environment Phobia
 C. Danger Phobia
 D. Blood-Injury-Injection Phobia
 35.) A term related to the inability to change a particular
outcome of a certain situation because of previous
experiences.
 A. Learned Helplessness
 B. Agoraphobia
 C. Tardive Dyskinesia
 D. Catatonia
 36.) Acute: Sudden Onset; ______: Slow, Progressive Onset
 A. Intrepid
 B. Retarded
 C. Depressive
 D. Insidious
 37.) Involves having an IQ between 50 and 69.
 A. Severe Intellectual Disability

 B. Profound Intellectual Disability
 C. Mild Intellectual Disability
 D. Moderate Intellectual Disability
 38.) Which of the following isn’t a probable cause of mental
retardation?
 A. Trauma before or during birth

 B. Genetics
 C. Lead Poisoning
 D. Severe Traumatic Experiences
 Developmental Disorders – Disorders that appear early in
life to disrupt the normal course of development
 Types of Developmental Disorders:
1. Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) –

Inattentive, overactive, and impulsive behavior
2. Learning Disorders – Disorders wherein reading, math,

and written expression fall behind IQ age and education
3. Communication Disorders:
a. Stuttering – Disturbance in speech fluency
b. Expressive Language Disorders – Limited speech in all

situations
3. Communication Disorders:
c. Selective Mutism – Failure to speak in specific situations
d. Tic Disorders – Involuntary movements

4. Autistic Disorder – Severely impaired socialization skills

and restricted behavior, interests, and activities
5. Asperger’s Disorder – Impaired socialization skills and

restricted/unusual behaviors, but without language
delays
6. Rett’s Disorder – Mental retardation and deteriorating

motor skills after an apparently normal early
development
7. Childhood Disintegrative Disorder – Severe language,

adaptive behavior, and motor skill regression after 2-4
years of normal development
 Cognitive Disorders – Involves impairment in cognitive
function that develops much later in life
 Types of Cognitive Disorders:
1. Delirium – Impaired consciousness and cognition for

several hours or days
2. Amnestic Disorder – Permanent short-term memory loss

with inability to learn new or recall previously learned
information.
 Dementia – Gradual deterioration of brain functioning
 39.) A compulsion characterized by the excessive
collection of various, seemingly useless objects.
 A. Gathering
 B. Hoarding
 C. Bartering
 D. Collecting
 40.) Characterized by the presence of anxiety or “panic”
attacks comorbid with the avoidance of situations that may
induce these panic attacks.
 A. Panic Disorder with Agoraphobia

 B. Panic Disorder without Agoraphobia
 C. Social Anxiety Disorder
 D. Social Phobia
 41.) A type of delusion wherein an individual believes that
a person, usually a celebrity, has fallen in love with
him/her.
 A. Grandiose
 B. Persecutory
 C. Jealous
 D. Erotomanic
 42.) An excess of this neurotransmitter leads to
Schizophrenia.
 A. Serotonin
 B. Dopamine
 C. GABA
 D. Amygdala
 43.) This neurotransmitter is involved in emotional
regulation.
 A. Serotonin
 B. Dopamine
 C. GABA
 D. Glutamate
 44.) The condition attributed to individuals who suffer from
both Major Depressive Disorder and Dysthymic Disorder.
 A. Compound Depression
 B. Severe Mood Disorder
 C. Double Depression
 D. Excessive Emotional Dysfunction
 45.) Shara finds extreme pleasure in everything she does. She
makes up plans in her head to travel all over the world in 10
days and does not doubt for one second that she can do so. She
is most likely having a:
 A. Depressive Episode
 B. Hypomanic Episode
 C. Manic Episode
 D. Bipolar Episode
 46.) The major difference between bipolar I and bipolar II
disorders.
 A. The presence of a major depressive episode

 B. The presence of a hypomanic episode
 C. The presence of anxiety
 D. The presence of excessive fear
 47.) A culture-specific syndrome in Korea and Japan
described as having an intense fear of displeasing others
when it comes to their own functioning.
 A. Amuk
 B. Shenkui
 C. Taijin Kyofusho
 D. Shinbyeong
 48.) The preferred drug treatment for individuals with
bipolar disorders.
 A. Tricyclics
 B. SSRI
 C. Lithium
 D. MAO Inhibitors
 49.) A field of psychology involving the effects of mental
processes to physical health and how it can be changed to
improve a person’s chances of physical recovery.
 A. Sports Psychology
 B. Personal Psychology
 C. Positive Psychology
 D. Health Psychology
 50.) The General Adaptation Syndrome is a sequence of
reactions to sustained stress and was first described by:
 A. Sigmund Freud
 B. Martin Seligman
 C. Hans Selye
 D. Costa and McRae
 51.) Involves a rapid onset of cognitive deterioration
accompanied by confusion and disorientation.
 A. Delirium
 B. Dementia
 C. Alzheimer’s Disease
 D. Dementor
 52.) When drug addicts talk about “crack,” they are
referring to which drug?
 A. Meth
 B. Cocaine
 C. Marijuana
 D. PCP
 Substance-Related and Impulse-Control Disorders
 Substance-Related Disorders – Involve the abuse of
substances that alter the way people think, feel, and
behave.
 Substance-Related Disorders
Types of Drugs:
1. Depressants - Alcohol, Barbiturates, Sedatives
2. Stimulants – Amphetamines, Cocaine, Nicotine, Caffeine

Types of Drugs:
3. Opiates - Alcohol, Barbiturates, Sedatives
4. Hallucinogens – Marijuana, LSD, Ecstasy

Possible Interventions:
1. Psychosocial Treatment – Aversion Therapy, Alcoholics

Anonymous, Contingency Management, Rehabilitation
2. Biological Treatment – Agonist Substitution, Antagonist

Substitution, Aversive Treatments, etc.
 Impulse Control Disorders – Characterized by the inability
to resist acting on a drive or temptation.
 Types of Impulse-Control Disorders:
1. Intermittent Explosive Disorder – Acting on aggressive

impulses that result in assaults or destruction of property.
2. Kleptomania – Unable to resist the urge to steal.

3. Pathological Gambling – Unable to resist urge to gamble,

has to gamble increasing amounts to feel the same.
4. Trichotillomania – Urge to pull out one’s own hair from

anywhere on the body.
5. Pyromania – Irresistible urge to start fires.

 53.) You have a student who is having trouble reading;
however, he is already 19 years old and fully educated, that
individual most likely has which learning disability?
 A. Dysgrafia
 B. Dyscalculia
 C. Dyssomnia
 D. Dyslexia
 54.) A woman comes to a police station in Baguio City asking for
assistance as to how or why she was able to arrive at that location
when she, in fact, has a life and a family in Manila. Upon further
investigation, it was revealed that she has had a very stressful life
back in Manila and didn’t come home one day. This individual most
likely experienced:
 A. Psychogenic Amnesia
 B. Dissociative Fugue
 C. Alzheimer’s Disease
 D. Dementia Praecox
 55.) The study of changes in abnormal behavior that occur
over time.
 A. Longitudinal Psychology
 B. Insidious Psychopathology
 C. Developmental Psychopathology
 D. Developmental Psychology
 56.) What happened to the multiaxial system in the DSM V?
 A. They added more axes to it.

 B. They modified the five axes to include a broader range of
classifications.
 C. They abolished the multiaxial system.
 D. They remade every axis into something completely
different.
 57.) You are walking down the park when an old man calls your
attention. He is wearing a long coat which he opens up to reveal
that he is completely naked on the inside. Upon seeing that you
weren’t surprised (because you’re used to seeing that), the old
man becomes aggressive and runs away. The old man is
probably an:
 A. Exhibitionist
 B. Voyeur
 C. Pedophile
 D. Necrophile
 58.) It is a paraphilia wherein a person enjoys rubbing
his/her genitalia on other people in crowded areas where
there is little to no escape.
 A. Exhibitionism
 B. Fetishism
 C. Voyeurism
 D. Frotteurism
 59.) A chemical substance that produces effects opposite
those of a particular neurotransmitter.
 A. Agonist
 B. Antagonist
 C. Reverse Antagonist
 D. Inverse Agonist
 60.) Characteristic of schizophrenics having loose verbal
and cognitive associations. This is seen in how they
frequently jump to unrelated topics during conversations.
 A. Tangentiality
 B. Tardive Dyskinesia
 C. Ataxia
 D. Echolalia
 61.) This is when the patients are aware of, or oriented to,
their identity, location, and time.
 A. Informed Consent
 B. Privacy
 C. Oriented Times Three
 D. Debriefed
 62.) A method of conditioning wherein right before an
orgasm, an individual thinks of a certain stimuli in order to
condition himself to be aroused by that stimuli.
 A. Paraphilia
 B. Fetishistic Learning
 C. Molding
 D. Orgasmic Reconditioning
 63.) Behavior change resulting from the person’s
expectation of change rather than from the experimental
manipulation itself.
 A. Placebo
 B. Papaverine
 C. Conditioned Response
 D. Mescaline
 64.) There was a huge fire in your hometown that killed 4
people. Upon further investigation, the police concluded that
the fire was set by an individual who revealed that he “can’t
force himself to stop doing it.” This individual is showing
symptoms of:
 A. Schizophrenia
 B. Pyromania
 C. Dysthymia
 D. Paraphilia
 65.) A psychiatrist says that chances for recovery from the
mental disorder is “slim” and that the person with the mental
disorder should expect to take more and more medications as
time goes by. This statement is what we call the doctor’s:
 A. Diagnosis
 B. Hypothesis
 C. Prognosis
 D. Prediction
 66.) The initial period before the active stage in
schizophrenia where the individual concerned is starting to
experience the initial symptoms of schizophrenia.
 A. Aura Phase
 B. Depression Stage
 C. Prodromal Stage
 D. Pre-active Stage
 67.) A psychiatrist made an error in his diagnosis. He stated in
his report that the client doesn’t have any mental disorders.
Months later, a psychologist was able to give a more accurate
assessment and concluded that the client does, in fact, have
generalized anxiety disorder. The psychiatrist’s error is an
example of:
 A. A false positive
 B. A true positive
 C. A true negative
 D. A false negative
 68.) Hypochondriasis, conversion disorder, and body
dysmorphic disorders are all examples of:
 A. Factitious Disorders
 B. Somatization Disorders
 C. Somatoform Disorders
 D. Anxiety Disorders
 69.) The more technical term for “sleepwalking.”
 A. Insomnia
 B. Dyssomnia
 C. Somnambulism
 D. Sleep Apnea
 Eating and Sleep Disorders
 Types of Eating Disorders:
1. Bulimia Nervosa – Out-of-control consumption of foods

with self-induced purging.
2. Anorexia Nervosa – Intense fear of obesity, perpetual

(unending) dissatisfaction with weight loss.
 Types of Eating Disorders:
3. Binge-Eating Disorder – Out-of-control consumption of

foods (like bulimia) but without self-induced purging
4. Obesity
 Types of Sleep Disorders:
a) Dyssomnias – Disturbances in the timing, amount, or

quality of sleep.
b) Parasomnias – Abnormal behaviors that occur during

sleep.
 Dyssomnias:
1. Primary Insomnia – Difficulty initiating sleep.
2. Narcolepsy – Sudden onset of sleep.

 Dyssomnias:
3. Primary Hypersomnia – Excessive sleeping.
4. Breathing-Related Sleep Disorder – Disturbed sleep or

fatigue caused by breathing problems (sleep apnea,
hypoventilation, etc.)
 Dyssomnias:
5. Circadian Rhythm Sleep Disorder – Inability to

synchronize sleep patterns with current pattern of day
and night.
 Parasomnias:
1. Nightmares – Occurs during REM
2. Sleep Terrors – Occur during non-REM (non-dreaming

sleep)
3. Sleepwalking (Somnambulism)
 70.) A patient begins abusing morphine 7 months after she has
a knee injury citing that she can’t handle the pain even though
repeated check-ups have shown that her knee is nearly fully
healed. This individual is experiencing symptoms of which
disorder?
 A. Somatization Disorder
 B. Chronic Pain Disorder
 C. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
 D. Factitious Disorder
 71.) The expectancy effect is demonstrated in which of the following situations?
 A. Cordi, believing that Xanor would not help his anxiety, drinks one anyway and
observes that it actually helps him handle his anxieties better.
 B. Ana, who was diagnosed with severe chronic depression, undergoes ECT and
experiences the positive effects firsthand.
 C. Joe, who has had a background in drinking lithium, believed it would help him
handle his bipolar tendencies. After drinking the pills for a month, he feels that he
has become healthier and much more capable. In truth, the pills he was taking are
placebo (fake) pills.
 D. Alyssa, knowing that Zoloft helps with depression, drinks it as prescribed by the
doctor. It eventually helped her cope with her depression much better.
 72.) The type of delusion featuring beliefs of inflated worth,
power, knowledge, identity, or a special relationship to a
deity or famous person.
 A. Erotomanic
 B. Grandiose
 C. Persecutory
 D. Narcissistic
 Types of Delusions:
1. Erotomanic Type: another person, usually of higher status,

is in love with the individual
2. Grandiose Type: inflated worth or identity
3. Jealous Type: the individual’s sexual partner is unfaithful

 Types of Delusions:
4. Persecutory Type: the individual is being badly treated in

some way
5. Somatic Type: the individual has some physical defect or

general medical condition
6. Mixed Type: combination of the different types

 73.) Psychogenic Amnesia: Being raped as a child; Biogenic
Amnesia: _________
 A. Identity crisis
 B. Death of a spouse
 C. Being cheated on by a partner
 D. Having a car accident
 74.) A psychotherapist in your clinic gave in to temptation and had
sexual relations with one of her clients. Being the head psychologist,
the most appropriate thing to do would be to:
 A. Terminate the psychotherapist from your clinic.

 B. Assign the psychotherapist to a different client and find a different
psychotherapist to continue the sessions.
 C. Reprimand the psychotherapist and threaten her with termination
but otherwise allow her to continue her sessions with the client.
 D. Allow the psychotherapist to continue with the sessions but
terminate her from the clinic as soon as the sessions are over.
 75.) Altering of perception that causes people to
temporarily lose a sense of their own reality. “Out-of-body
experiences.”
 A. Dissociation
 B. Depersonalization
 D. Delusion
 76.) The cause or source of a disorder.
 A. Derivation
 B. Etiology
 C. Occurrence
 D. Prevalence
 77.) Who is most likely malingering among the following?
 A. A client asks for a psychological evaluation stating that her neighbors’ actions
towards her caused her to be deeply depressed. You discover that she actually has
no psychological symptoms after administering multiple psychological tests.
 B. When a client insists that there is nothing wrong with him even when the people
around him keep on making fun of him.
 C. A high school student goes to the guidance office and cries for two hours
straight saying that her father physically hurts her at home and that she can’t
handle it anymore.
 D. A father of four, while driving back home from work, makes a turn and isn’t
heard from again. Months later, he comes back and claims he does not remember
anything he did for the past few months.
 Malingering – Faking bad
 78.) A perceptual disturbance in which something is seen,
heard, or otherwise sensed although it is not actually
present.
 A. Delusion
 B. Trauma
 D. Poltergeist Activity
 79.) The condition wherein an individual is born with an
extra 21st chromosome. Individuals with this condition may
have intellectual disabilities.
 A. Autism
 B. Down Syndrome
 C. Mental Retardation
 D. Creudzfeldt-Jakob Disease
 80.) When a client of yours threatens to kill his brother because of a
misunderstanding they had the other day, the best thing to do would
be:
 A. Hold the client in the mental ward against his will to ensure the
safety of his brother.
 B. Inform the authorities and the brother of the client’s intention to
kill.
 C. Terminate the session and run away.
 D. Prescribe drugs that would ensure the client’s inability to do such
actions.
 81.) The legal concept pertaining to the inability of an
individual to fully appreciate the wrongfulness of his/her
actions.
 A. Tangentiality
 B. Insanity
 C. Delirium Tremens
 D. Jus Sanguinis
 82.) People during the ancient times believed that individuals
with mental disorders were being possessed by evil spirits and
thus used methods to get rid of these evil spirits from these
individuals. The people from the ancient times thus conformed
to which model of psychopathology?
 A. Ritualistic Model
 B. Victoria’s Angels Model
 C. Spiritistic Model
 D. Ancient Model
 83.) This is when a neuron reabsorbs a recently released
neurotransmitter.
 A. Reabsorption
 B. Reuptake
 C. Reaction
 D. Relapse
 84.) Echolalia: Imitation of the words of another individual;
__________: Imitation of the actions of another individual
 A. Echoataxia
 B. Echopraxia
 C. Dyslexia
 D. Dyssomnia
 85.) A form of mood disorder where the individuals only
experience alternating states of hypomania and dysthymia.
 A. Bipolar I
 B. Bipolar II
 C. Cyclothymia
 D. Seasonal Affective Disorder
 86.) Who are more likely to commit suicide?
 A. Women
 B. Men
 C. There are equal occurrences for both sexes.
 D. Current data gathered in the Philippines cannot answer
that question.
 87.) In gathering information about their clients, which of
the following strategies do clinical psychologists mostly
employ?
 A. Idiographic Strategy
 B. Nomothetic Strategy
 C. Experimental Strategy
 D. Research Strategy
 Nomothetic Data – Normative data; data of a whole
population (how they compare to each other)
 Idiographic Data – Individual data; specific data about an

individual
 88.) In Malaysia, a condition of mass hysteria or group
delusion in which people believe their genitals are
retracting into their bodies.
 A. Amuk
 B. Dakap
 C. Taijin Kyofusho
 D. Koro
 89.) The current approach being used in the study of
psychopathology taking into account all possible causes of
a mental disorder.
 A. Psychosocial Approach
 B. Diathesis-Stress Approach
 C. Biopsychosocial Approach
 D. Cognitive Approach
 90.) Electroconvulsive Therapy is most effective for
individuals with:
 A. Severe, chronic depression

 B. Severe, chronic mania
 C. Schizophrenia and doesn’t respond to biochemical
treatments
 D. Severe anxiety disorders
 91.) The type of hypertension triggered by psychological
stress.
 A. Physical Hypertension
 B. Psychological Hypertension
 C. Essential Hypertension
 D. Chronic Hypertension
 92.) The disorder where a normal-looking person is
obsessively preoccupied with an imagined defect on
his/her appearance.
 A. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
 B. Somatization Disorder
 C. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
 D. Dyslexia
 93.) When a person experiences only manic or only
depressive states, his/her mood disorder is characterized
as:
 A. Unipolar
 B. Bipolar
 C. Extreme
 D. Progressive
 94.) Mood disorder involving a cycling of episodes
corresponding to the seasons of the year.
 A. Mood Affective Disorder

 B. Seasonal Affective Disorder
 C. Renfield Syndrome
 D. Chronic Bipolar Syndrome
 95.) The condition in which the individual has both
schizophrenia and a mood disorder.
 A. Bipolar Disorder
 B. Undifferentiated Schizophrenia
 C. Hebephrenia
 D. Shizoaffective Disorder
 96.) This is the most common form of hallucination.
 A. Visual
 B. Olfactory
 C. Auditory
 D. Gustatory
 97.) Treatment approach that involves identifying and altering
negative thinking styles related to psychological disorders such
as depression and anxiety and replacing them with more
positive beliefs and attitudes—and, ultimately, more adaptive
behavior and coping styles.
 A. Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy

 B. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy
 C. Psychodynamic Therapy
 D. Behavior Modification
 98.) Combination of continued psychosocial treatment,
medication, or both designed to prevent relapse following
therapy.
 A. Maintenance Treatment
 B. Rehabilitation
 C. Psychotherapy
 D. Cognitive Therapy
 99.) A silly and immature emotionality, a characteristic of
some types of schizophrenia.
 A. Catatonia
 B. Schizoaffective Disorder
 C. Hebephrenia
 D. Scatologia
 100.) People’s irrational beliefs that other people are
seeking to do them harm.
 A. Delusion
 B. Paranoia
 C. Fear
 D. Anxiety
 1.) A set of related assumptions that allows scientists to use
logical deductive reasoning to formulate testable
hypotheses.
 A. Formula
 B. Corollary
 C. Theory
 D. Complexes
 2.) A classification of things according to their natural
relationships.
 A. Taxonomy
 B. Groupings
 C. Relationships
 D. Formulations
 3.) This is the term used to indicate the ability of a theory to
be confirmed or disconfirmed.
 A. Operational
 B. Falsifiable
 C. Discountable
 D. Coherent
 4.) “The simplest answer is usually the best answer” is a
statement related to which law?
 A. Law of Coherence
 B. Law of Simplicity
 C. Law of Parsimony
 D. The Parthenon Directive
 5.) As opposed to causality, ________ holds that behavior is
seen in terms of future goals or purposes.
 A. Future-orientation
 B. Teleology
 C. Anxiety
 D. Chronology
 6.) If a theory states that individuals have the ability to grow
into happy and healthy human beings, then that theory can
be classified as a/an ______ theory.
 A. Pessimistic
 B. Optimistic
 C. Biological
 D. Social
 7.) The two cornerstones of Freud’s theory.
 A. Sex and Anger

 B. Lust and Hunger
 C. Sex and Aggression
 D. Lust and Anger
 Psychoanalytic Theory (Freud)
- Focused on unconscious motives
- Two cornerstones: sex and aggression

 Three levels of mental life:
1. Unconscious – contains hidden, animalistic motives, drives,

urges
2. Preconscious – contains memories and anything the can be

easily brought to mind
3. Conscious - those mental elements in awareness at any given

point in time.
 Three provinces of the mind:
1. Id
- Pleasure-seeking
- No contact with reality
- Works according to the pleasure principle
- Completely unconscious
2. Ego
- Decision-making and executive branch of the mind
- Balances the needs of the id and the superego
- Works according to the reality principle
- Conscious, preconscious, and unconscious
3. Superego
- Represents the moral and ideal aspects of personality
- Has two subsystems, namely, the ego-ideal (which tells us what
to do) and the conscience (which tells us what not to do)
- Works according to the reality principle
- Preconscious, and unconscious
 All motivation can be traced to sexual and aggressive
drives.
 To protect itself against anxiety, the ego initiates various
defense mechanisms, the most basic of which is repression.
 Defense Mechanisms:
1. Repression – Forcing threatening feelings into the

unconscious
2. Reaction Formation – Forming reactions opposite of what is

expected
3. Displacement – Redirecting unacceptable urges to objects or

people
4. Fixation – Attachment of the libido onto an earlier, more

primitive stage of development
5. Regression – Reverting back to an earlier, safer stage of life
6. Projection – Attributing unacceptable urges to other objects

or people
7. Introjection – Incorporating another person’s positive

qualities into one’s ego
8. Sublimation – Redirecting urges into something more

socially-acceptable
 Freud’s Stages of Development:
1. O
2. A
3. PHA
4. LA
5. GE
 Freud’s Stages of Development:
1. Oral
2. Anal
3. Phallic
4. Latent
5. Genital
 8.) The idea that personality is mostly shaped during the
first years of childhood is a/an ______ notion.
 A. Socioanalytic
 B. Psychoanalytic
 C. Ecological
 D. Individualistic
 9.) This term generally refers to emotional instability.
 A. Emotionality
 B. Moodiness
 C. Conscientiousness
 D. Neuroticism
 10.) Memory is mostly associated with what level of mental
life according to Freud?
 A. Unconscious
 B. Preconscious
 C. Conscious
 D. Subliminal Consciousness
 11.) According to Freud, this part of our unconscious
originates from the experiences of our early ancestors that
have been passed on to us through hundreds of
generations of repetition.
 A. Phylogenetic Endowment
 B. Collective Unconscious
 C. Genetic Needs
 D. Genetic Unconscious
 12.) When an individual pushes an anxiety-filled memory
to his unconscious without him/her realizing it, this type of
defense mechanism is called:
 A. Sublimation
 B. Identification
 C. Denial
 D. Repression
 13.) This works based on the Reality Principle.
 A. Superego
 B. Ego
 C. Id
 D. Alter Ego
 14.) A person who gives in to his sexual urges and cheats
on his/her partner can be seen as:
 A. Ego-driven
 B. Id-dominated
 C. Superego-dominated
 D. A worthless human being
 15.) When a person feels inferior compared to others or is
always guilt-ridden with regards to his/her actions, Freud
would most likely say that the individual is:
 A. Ego-driven
 B. Id-dominated
 C. Superego-dominated
 D. Anxiety-ridden
 16.) Freud called this a felt, affective, unpleasant state
accompanied by a physical sensation that warns the person
against impending danger.
 A. Dysthymia
 B. Arrhythmia
 C. Fear
 D. Anxiety
 17.) This stems from the conflict between the ego and the
superego and is felt when one feels that he has broken
his/her values or principles.
 A. Realistic Anxiety
 B. Moral Anxiety
 C. Neurotic Anxiety
 D. Moralistic Antagonism
 18.) A defense mechanism associated with the reversion to
an earlier, more secure pattern of behavior.
 A. Reaction Formation
 B. Repression
 C. Identification
 D. Regression
 19.) When a child feels no ambivalence towards the pleasurable
object (in this case, the nipple) and their needs are usually
satisfied with a minimum of frustration and anxiety, they are in
this phase in the oral stage.
 A. Oral Receptive Phase

 B. Oral Aggressive Phase
 C. Oral Retentive Phase
 D. Oral Ambivalent Phase
 20.) According to Adler, this is the feeling of oneness with
the whole human race.
 A. Striving for Success

 B. Social Interest
 C. Organ Dialect
 D. Creative Power
 Individual Psychology (Adler)
- Focused on inferiority feelings
- Because of these inferiority feelings, people are motivated

to strive for superiority
 Important terminologies:
Inferiority Complex – occurs when an individual strives only

for personal gain and are motivated largely by feelings of
inferiority
Fictionalisms/ Fictions – People’s subjective perceptions of

reality
Organ Dialect – The idea that the physical state or the

organs of an individual say something about an individual
Gemeinschaftsgefühl – “Social Interest”, a feeling of oneness

with the whole of humanity
Creative Power – the power to control the direction of one’s

life
Teleology – The idea that people’s choices are determined

by their expectations of the future
Style of Life – A person’s way of living
Depreciation - The tendency to undervalue other people’s

achievements and to overvalue one’s own.
Accusation – To blame others

Self-accusation – Self-torture
Family Constellation – a person’s birth order, the gender of

their siblings and the age spread between them
 Tenets of Adlerian Theory:
1. The one dynamic force behind people’s behavior is the

striving for success or superiority.
2. People’s subjective perceptions shape their behavior and

personality.
3. Personality is unified and self-consistent.

4. The value of all human activity must be seen from the

viewpoint of social interest.
5. The self-consistent personality structure develops into a

person’s style of life.
6. Style of life is molded by people’s creative power.

 External Factors in Maladjustment:
1. Exaggerated Physical Deficiencies
2. Pampered Style of Life
3. Neglected Style of Life

 Safeguarding Tendencies – Adler’s version of Freud’s
defense mechanisms
 Safeguarding Tendencies:
1. Excuses – Expressed through “yes, but…” and “if only…”

sentences
2. Aggression – Depreciation, Accusation, Self-accusation
3. Withdrawal – evading or moving away from other people

 21.) The first tenet of Adlerian theory, in which he reduced all
motivation to a single drive, is:
 A. People’s subjective perceptions shape their behavior and

personality
 B. Aggression is the dynamic behind all motivation.
 C. The one dynamic force behind people’s behavior is the
striving for success or superiority.
 D. The value of all human activity must be seen from the
viewpoint of social interest.
 22.) According to Adler, this is the people’s ability to freely
shape their behavior and create their own personality.
 A. Social Interest
 B. Gemeinschaftsgefuhl
 C. Style of Life
 23.) When a person strives for superiority with little or no
concern for others and his/her goals are personal and largely
motivated by exaggerated feelings of inadequacy, this indicates
the presence of:
 A. Self-centeredness
 B. Anxiety
 C. Inferiority Complex
 D. Superiority Complex
 24.) According to Adler, these are people’s subjective
perceptions of reality or their expectations for the future.
 A. Fictions
 B. Finalisms
 C. Inferiorities
 D. What If’s
 25.) When a man has a broken leg and is observed to be unable
to walk anymore, it’s as if the man is calling out “This is my
deformity. I cannot do manual labor.” This statement is an
example of Adler’s:
 A. Unconscious
 B. Teleology
 C. Organ Dialect
 D. Fictional Finalism
 26.). A person’s innately consistent traits and attitudes
towards his/her environment is what Adler calls that
person’s:
 A. Feelings of Inferiority
 B. Style of Life
 C. Social Interest
 D. Innate Striving Force
 27.) This, according to Adler, contributes to maladjustment
because it results in the individual having weak social interest
and expecting others to look after them, overprotect them, and
satisfy their needs.
 A. Exaggerated Physical Deficiencies

 B. Neglected Style of Life
 C. Safeguarding Tendencies
 D. Pampered Style of Life
 28.) This is Adler’s version of Freud’s Defense Mechanisms
 A. Dynamisms
 B. Complexes
 D. Neglect
 29.) This is a contributing factor to maladjustment wherein
a child feels that he/she is unloved and unwanted.
 A. Exaggerated Physical Deficiencies

 B. Neglected Style of Life
 D. Pampered Style of Life
 30.) The tendency to undervalue other people’s
achievements and to overvalue one’s own.
 A. Depreciation
 B. Accusation
 C. Aggression
 D. Superiority Complex
 31.) A form of withdrawal wherein one psychologically
reverts to a more secure period of life. It is similar to
Freud’s concept of regression.
 A. Standing Still
 B. Fixation
 C. Moving Backward
 D. Hesitating
 32.) Unlike Freud, Adler believed that _______ and not
________ influence many men and women to
overemphasize the importance of being manly.
 A. Cultural Practices; Anatomy

 B. Anatomy; Cultural Practices
 C. Cultural Practices, Social Practices
 D. Social Practices, Cultural Practices
 33.) Adler always asked a person’s birth order, the gender
of their siblings and age spread before therapy. He called
this the person’s:
 A. Family Structure
 B. Family Constellation
 C. Early Recollections
 D. Societal Information
 34.) The positive traits of the ______ child is that he/she
tends to be realistically ambitious.
 A. Second
 B. Only
 C. Oldest
 D. Youngest
 35.) According to Jung, this level of the psyche contains all
the repressed infantile memories and impulses of the
individual.
 A. Id
 B. Collective Unconscious
 C. Conscious
 D. Personal Unconscious
 Analytical Psychology (Jung)
- Focused on mysticism and balance

 Levels of the Psyche:
1. Conscious – Everything that is currently in a person’s perception
2. Personal Unconscious - all repressed, forgotten, or subliminally

perceived experiences of one particular individual.
3. Collective Unconscious – the collective past of the human race;

unlearned tendencies
 Causality vs. Teleology
 Archetypes – ancient images/ideas derived from the
collective unconscious
 The Archetypes:
1. Persona – The side that people show to the world.

 The Archetypes:
2. Anima – The feminine side of men and responsible for

many of their irrational moods and feelings
 The Archetypes:
3. Animus - The masculine side of women, is responsible for

irrational thinking and illogical opinions in women.
 The Archetypes:
4. Shadow – The “dark side” of personality; things we would

not like the world to see
 The Archetypes:
5. Great Mother – Archetype of fertility and destruction

 The Archetypes:
6. Wise Old Man - The intelligent but deceptive voice of

accumulated experience.
 The Archetypes:
7. Hero – Archetype of a person that conquers an evil foe but

who also has a tragic flaw.
 The Archetypes:
8. Self – Archetype of completeness, wholeness and

perfection
 Two Attitudes:
1. Introversion
2. Extraversion
 Four Functions:
1. Thinking
2. Feeling
3. Sensation
4. Intuition
 The two attitudes and four functions can combine to form 8 basic
types of personality:
 Introverted/Extraverted Thinking
 Introverted/Extraverted Feeling
 Introverted/Extraverted Sensing
 Introverted/Extraverted Intuiting
 36.) An emotionally toned conglomeration of associated
ideas in the Personal Unconscious.
 A. Images
 B. Archetypes
 C. Hierarchies
 D. Complexes
 37.) In Analytical Psychology, this is the side of personality
that people show to the world.
 A. Archetype
 B. Conscious
 C. Persona
 D. Anima
 38.) Jung believed that all humans are psychologically
_________ which is why he used the terms Anima and
Animus when talking about personality.
 A. Heterosexual
 B. Homosexual
 C. Bisexual
 D. Asexual
 39.) This is the archetype associated with fertility and
nourishment.
 A. Wise Old Man

 B. Anima
 C. Animus
 D. Great Mother
 40.) Men must first feel comfortable with their _______
before they can become acquainted with their anima.
 A. Wise Old Man

 B. Shadow
 C. Animus
 D. Collective Unconscious
 41.) The archetype which is represented in mythology and
legends as a powerful person, sometimes part god, who
fights against great odds to conquer or vanquish evil.
 A. Wise Old Man

 B. Great Mother
 C. Anima
 D. Hero
 42.) It is represented by the Mandala and includes both the
conscious and unconscious aspects of personality as a
whole.
 A. Self
 B. Archetype
 C. Complex
 D. Shadow
 43.) In order to achieve self-realizations according to Jung,
adaptation to the outside world is required. This process is
called ________.
 A. Regression
 B. Progression
 C. Attitudes
 D. Traits
 44.) In Jung’s Psychological types, this is the attitude
distinguished by the turning outward of psychic energy.
 A. Influence
 B. Introversion
 C. Extraversion
 D. Sensing
 45.) There are ___ attitudes and ____ personality functions
according to Jung.
 A. One; Two
 B. Three; Three
 C. One; Four
 D. Two; Four
 46.) Art critics base their value judgments primarily on
subjective feelings and perceptions rather than objective
facts. These people can thus be classified as:
 A. Introverted Feeling
 B. Extraverted Feeling
 C. Introverted Sensing
 D. Extraverted Sensing
 47.) Jung related this to “seeing around corners”.
 A. Knowledge
 B. Sensing
 C. Feeling
 D. Intuition
 48.) According to Jung, youth should be a period of:
 A. Accepting that things cannot be changed.

 B. Seeing the truths of the world.
 C. Increased activity.
 D. To cling to the consciousness of childhood.
 49.) When a friend of yours wants to go back to her high
school life; always reminiscing her previous fame and
happiness, Jung would call this desire as the:
 A. Obermann Principle
 B. Stanley Principle
 C. Liberal Principle
 D. Conservative Principle
 50.) This is a method of psychological testing wherein you
present the client with a single word and ask them to
answer with the first word that comes to their mind.
 A. Word Presentation Test

 B. Powerpoint Presentation Test
 C. Word Association Test
 D. Stimuli Reactiveness Test
 51.) Freud focused on the first 4 to 6 ______ of the life of an
individual while Melanie Klein focused on the first 4 to 6
_______.
 A. Weeks; Months
 B. Years; Months
 C. Months; Years
 D. Months; Weeks
 Object Relations Theory
- Focused on the infant’s relationship with “objects”
 Ways to Reduce Anxiety:
a. Introjection – “Taking in” of the object
b. Projection – Attributing the qualities of an object to

another object
 Ways to Reduce Anxiety:
c. Splitting – The identification of an object into two: the

good object and the bad object
d. Projective Identification – Taking in an object, projecting

it outwards, then taking it back in again.
 Internalizations – Taking in the external world and
arranging it into a meaningful psychological framework
 Positions – Ways of dealing with both internal and external
objects.
 Types of Positions:
1. Paranoid-Schizoid Position
2. Depressive Position
 Types of Internalizations:
a. Ego – One’s sense of self
b. Superego – Moral self; much more harsh than Freud’s

 Types of Internalizations:
c. Oedipal Complex – Love for the father figure

 Object Relations Theory Offshoots:
Mary Ainsworth – Attachment Styles; Strange Situation

 Attachment Styles according to Ainsworth:
1. Secure Attachment
2. Anxious-Resistant Attachment
3. Anxious-Avoidant Attachment
 Post-Freudian Theory: Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial
Development
 Characterized by conflicts between Syntonic (Harmonious)
and Dystonic (Disruptive) elements
 Characterized by conflicts between Syntonic (Harmonious)
and Dystonic (Disruptive) elements
 This is called the interaction of opposites
 Important Terminologies:
1. Ego Strength
2. Core Pathology
 Erikson’s Stages of Psychosocial Development:
 Karen Horney: Psychoanalytic Social Theory
 The impact of a culture of competitiveness according to
Karen Horney leads to feelings of isolation
Basic Hostility – Born out of childhood neglect
Basic Anxiety – a feeling of being isolated and helpless in a

world conceived as potentially hostile
Protective Devices/Mechanisms – Ways of dealing with Basic

Anxiety
 Types of Protective Devices or Defense Mechanisms:
1. Affection
2. Submissiveness
 Types of Protective Devices or Defense Mechanisms:
3. Power, Prestige, or Possession

- Power: Tendency to dominate others
- Prestige: Tendency to humiliate others
- Possession: Tendency to deprive others
 Karen Horney also identified ten (10) neurotic needs.
 She grouped these neurotic needs into three (3) neurotic
trends:
 Neurotic Trends:
1. Moving Against People
2. Moving Towards People
3. Moving Away From People

 Neurotic Trends:
M – Moving
A – Against
T – Towards
A – Away
 Harry Stack Sullivan: Interpersonal Theory
 Sullivan saw personality as an energy system (much like
Freud and Jung)
 Energy can exist in two forms:
1. Tensions (Potentiality for action)
2. Energy Transformations (The actions done to reduce

tension)
Has two types:
a. Needs – Physiological Imbalance
b. Anxiety – More vague; no direct way of reducing

tension)
tension)
- Grouped into Dynamisms (typical behavior patterns)

 Types of Dynamisms:
1. Malevolence
2. Intimacy
 Types of Dynamisms:
3. Lust
4. Self-System
 Personifications – A person’s image of themselves and
others
 Types of Personifications:
1. Bad-Mother; Good-Mother
2. Bad-Me; Good-Me; Not-Me

 Types of Personifications:
3. Eidetic Personifications (Imagined Persons/Traits)

 52.) Psychic representations of unconscious Id instincts in
Object Relations Theory.
 A. Objects
 B. Positions
 C. Phantasies
 D. Defense Mechanisms
 53.) When an infant fantasizes taking into his/her body the
experiences he/she had as a way of identifying with it, the
infant is doing ________.
 A. Splitting
 B. Introjection
 C. Projective Identification
 D. Projection
 54.) When you run away from your best self, and you fear
success in the things that you do, you are being affected by
what Maslow would call the:
 A. Jonah Complex
 B. Inferiority Complex
 C. Successful Retreat
 D. Hill Complex
 55.) When an individual prioritizes esteem needs before
love and belongingness, you can say that the person has
this condition.
 A. Expressive Incompleteness
 B. Reversed Hierarchy of Needs
 C. Improper Priorities
 D. Abnormal Reactions
 56.) Self-actualizers have the following characteristic/s:
 A. Acceptance of self, others, and nature

 B. A more efficient perception of reality
 C. Spontaneity and naturalness
 D. All of the above
 57.) According to Maslow’s theory, these are behaviors that
are motivated toward the satisfaction of basic needs.
 A. Expressive Behavior
 B. A Type Behavior
 C. Physiological Reactions
 D. Coping Behaviors
 58.) When a need is not satisfied and it leads to pathology
as a result, that need is said to be:
 A. Instinctoid
 B. Diagnostic
 C. Abnormal
 D. Differential
 59.) This is the tendency for all matter to evolve from
simple to more complex forms.
 A. Actualization Tendency
 B. Formative Tendency
 C. Completion Tendency
 D. Congruence Tendency
 Carl Rogers: Person-Centered Theory
 Focused on the internal and personal experiences of
individuals; hence it is “Person-Centered”
 Has two basic assumptions:
1. Formative Tendency – Tendency for all matter to evolve

from simpler to more complex forms
 Has two basic assumptions:
2. Actualizing Tendency – Tendency within all humans to

move towards the fulfillment of potentials
1. Self-Actualization – The fulfillment of potentials as

perceived by the person himself
2. Self-Concept – All of a person’s subjective ideas about

himself/herself
3. Ideal Self – Everything a person wants to be

4. Organismic Self – What a person objectively is

 Barriers to Psychological Health:
1. Conditions of Worth
2. Incongruence
 Barriers to Psychological Health:
3. Defensiveness
4. Disorganization
 60.) When an individual has to fulfill a condition before
he/she feels validated or adequate, that is what we call:
 A. Disorganization
 B. Incongruence
 C. Conditional Positive Regard
 D. Unconditional Positive Regard
 61.) Rogerian theory is classified under:
 A. Psychoanalytic Theories
 B. Cognitive Theories
 C. Behavioral Theories
 D. Humanistic-Existentialist Theories
 62.) This is the self which reflects who you objectively are.
 A. Organismic Self
 B. Perceived Self
 C. Realistic Self
 D. Truthful Self
 63.) According to Rogers, in order to have an effective
therapeutic relationship with your client, you must possess
unconditional positive regard, empathy and ________.
 A. Spontaneity
 B. Directness
 C. Clarity
 D. Congruence
 64.) When a client feels a disconnection between what he
wants to be and what he believes himself to be, that client
is experiencing:
 A. Incontinence
 B. Incompleteness
 C. Incongruence
 D. Lack of Direction
 65.) According to Rogers, these lead to a person feeling
vulnerable, anxious, or under threat and prevent people
from experiencing unconditional positive regard.
 A. Defense Mechanisms
 B. Phantasies
 C. Positive Self-Regard
 D. Conditions of Worth
 66.) Allport and McRae’s theories are classified as _______
theories.
 A. Socioanalytic
 B. Dispositional
 C. Psychoanalytic
 D. Object Relations
 67.) When an individual meshes or combines different
theories together and applies them in varying degrees, that
individual is said to have a/an ______ approach.
 A. Variable
 B. Discontinuous
 C. Eclectic
 D. Ephemoral
 68.) These are traits/dispositions that are peculiar to an
individual.
 A. Common Traits
 B. Personal Dispositions
 C. Secondary Traits
 D. Individual Traits
 69.) These are dispositions that guide our actions but don’t
initiate them.
 A. Motivational Traits
 B. Stylistic Traits
 C. Attitudinal Traits
 D. Individual Traits
 70.) These are assessment/research procedures which
stress patterns of behavior within a single individual.
 A. Individual Procedures
 B. Stylistic Procedures
 C. Morphogenic Procedures
 D. Longitudinal Procedures
 71.) This is the level of personal disposition which includes
the 5 to 10 individual traits that make a person unique.
 A. Cardinal Dispositions
 B. Central Dispositions
 C. Secondary Dispositions
 D. Tertiary Dispositions
 72.) __________ individuals tend to be punctual,
persevering, and well-organized.
 A. Agreeable
 B. Conscientious
 C. Extraverted
 D. Neurotic
 73.) Individuals who are low on _________ tend to be
suspicious, antagonistic, and irritable of others.
 A. Agreeableness
 B. Conscientiousness
 C. Extraversion
 D. Openness
 74.) This is the reinforcement schedule associated with the
presentation of rewards during changing, inconsistent
intervals of time.
 A. Variable Ratio Schedule

 B. Fixed Ratio Schedule
 C. Interval Ratio Schedule
 D. Variable Interval Schedule
 75.) From the following theorists, who is least likely to
believe in the prospect of a proactive life?
 A. Gordon Allport
 B. Abraham Maslow
 C. Carl Jung
 D. B. F. Skinner
 76.) This classification of theories involve achieving
satisfaction in life by finding meaning and improving the
self so that you become the best person you can be.
 A. Dispositional Theories
 B. Psychoanalytic Theories
 C. Humanistic-Existentialist Theories
 D. Social Theories
 77.) When a psychotherapist believes that an individual has the
capacity to make his own judgment in the sense that he/she is a
thinking individual who can weigh and assess the
consequences of different choices, that psychotherapist adheres
to what classification of psychological theory?
 A. Psychodynamic Theories
 B. Existential Theories
 C. Behavioral Theories
 D. Cognitive Theories
 78.) If an individual chooses to teach a student a complex
behavior by reinforcing successive approximations of the
target behavior, that individual is employing this method:
 A. Guiding
 B. Exposure Therapy
 C. Shaping
 D. Positive Punishment
 79.) This type of conditioning involves the association of an
unconditioned response with a neutral stimuli.
 A. Classical Conditioning
 B. Operant Conditioning
 C. Shaping
 D. Reinforcement
 80.) Involves the presentation of an aversive stimulus in
order to lessen the occurrence of a certain behavior.
 A. Negative Reinforcement
 B. Shaping
 C. Punishment
 D. Classical Conditioning
 81.) The slot machine is an example of what schedule of
reinforcement?
 A. Fixed Ratio Schedule

 B. Fixed Interval Schedule
 C. Variable Interval Schedule
 D. Variable Ratio Schedule
 82.) This allows individuals to learn without performing a
certain behavior through mere observation alone.
 A. Enactive Learning
 B. Observation Learning
 C. Collective Learning
 D. Group Learning
 83.) The belief of an individual that he/she can do a
particular task properly or correctly.
 A. Self-regulation
 B. Self-capacity
 C. Self-efficacy
 D. Proxy Agency
 84.) This occurs when people are able to trust another
individual to provide good services or good products.
 A. Collective Agency
 B. Human Agency
 C. Individual Agency
 D. Proxy Agency
 85.) This refers to Bandura’s belief that people can and do
exercise a measure of control over their lives.
 A. Human Agency
 B. Proxy Agency
 C. Social Capacity
 D. Cognitive Capacity
 86.) When we see a person similar to us succeeding in a
particular task, our belief in our abilities also increases, this
is an example of the effects of:
 A. Social Persuasion
 B. Social Modeling
 C. Mastery Experiences
 D. Roleplaying
 87.) When you meet the love of your life in the MRT
completely by chance, Bandura would call this event a:
 A. Fortuitous event
 B. Destined event
 C. Synchronized event
 D. Serendipitous event
 88.) Bandura believes that humans possess _______ which
is why they are able to anticipate likely outcomes of their
behaviors.
 A. Intentionality
 B. Forethought
 C. Self-efficacy
 D. Self-reactiveness
 89.) These are people’s shared beliefs in their collective
power to produce desired results.
 A. Proxy Agency
 B. Groupthink
 C. Self-Efficacy
 D. Collective Efficacy
 90.) The internal factors in self-regulation include self-
observation, judgmental processes, and _________.
 A. Self-consistency
 B. Congruence
 C. Self-reaction
 D. Selective activation
 91.) In Filipino Psychology, this is referred to as our “sense
of propriety.”
 A. Hiya
 B. Kapwa
 C. Pakikisama
 D. Pakikibaka
 92.) When Filipinos communicate with other Filipinos, we are
able to tell whether or not a person is feeling a certain way
despite saying things to the contrary. This is what Virgilio
Enriquez would call:
 A. Pakikibaka
 B. Pakikisama
 C. Pakikitungo
 D. Pakikiramdam
 93.) In the Filipino culture, this is a person’s internal worth.
“Her honor from within.”
 A. Puri
 B. Respeto
 C. Dangal
 D. Dama
 94.) A foreigner comes to the Philippines and interacts with one
of the natives. According to Virgilio Enriquez, the Filipino will
first classify this person as _______ before having a conversation
with him.
 A. Ibang-Tao
 B. Hindi-Ibang-Tao
 C. Kaaway
 D. Taga-labas
 95.) External: Saya; Internal: _______
 A. Ngiti
 B. Timpi
 C. Ligaya
 D. Lungkot
 96.) Adler’s experiences as a sickly child has influenced much
of his theory of personality. The sicknesses or disabilities that
cause a person to be maladaptive in some cases is what Adler
would call:
 A. Inorganic Weakness
 B. Organic Inferiority
 C. Striving for Superiority
 97.) What do Freud, Jung, and Adler have in common?
 A. All three of them are medical doctors.

 B. All three of them are secretly gay for each other.
 C. All three of them are socioanalysts.
 D. All three of them believed in the concept of
Synchronicity.
 98.) The idea that two isolated events can still be
meaningfully related even though they are not causally
related.
 A. Causality
 B. Teleology
 C. Mechanism
 D. Synchronicity
 99.) The personality theorist who placed the most emphasis
on mysticism.
 A. Alfred Adler
 B. Carl Jung
 C. Karen Horney
 D. Alfred Hitchcock
 100.) According to Erik Erikson, when an individual starts
to ask the question, “can I love?” he or she is most likely in
this developmental stage.
 A. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt

 B. Generativity vs. Stagnation
 C. Integrity vs. Despair
 D. Intimacy vs. Isolation
 A process of testing that uses a combination of techniques to help
arrive at some hypotheses about a person and their behavior,
personality and capabilities.
 Also known as Psychological Testing.

 Test - A measurement device or technique used to quantify behavior
or aid in the understanding and prediction of behavior.
 Item - a specific stimulus to which a person responds overtly.

 A set of items that are designed to measure characteristics of human
beings that pertain to behavior.
 Individual Test – A test given to one person at a time.
 Group Test – A test that can be given to more than one person at a
time.
 Ability Tests
- Can be scored in terms of speed, accuracy, or both.

- Subdivided into 3 categories:
1. Achievement Tests
2. Aptitude Tests
3. Intelligence Tests
 Achievement Tests
- Achievement refers to previous learning.

 Aptitude Tests
- Aptitude refers to potential for learning.
- Tests that measure potential for learning a certain skill or

subject matter.
 Intelligence Tests
- Intelligence refers to general mental ability.
- Tests that measure an individual’s general ability to solve

problems, think abstractly, and profit from experience.
 Personality Tests
-Related to overt and covert dispositions of individuals.

-Sometimes called “Tests of Typical Performance”.
 Personality Tests have two major types:
a. Structured Personality Tests
b. Projective (Unstructured) Personality Tests

 Structured Personality Tests
-Require the subject to choose between two or more
alternative responses.
 Projective (Unstructured) Personality Tests
-Either the stimulus (test materials) or the required

response—or both—are ambiguous.
 Norm-referenced Test
-Compares each test-taker to a norm (the performance of a
group).
 Criterion-referenced Test
-Compares each test-taker to a criterion (a specific level of
performance).
 More than 4000 years ago (earliest recorded instance)
-Chinese made use of testing (oral examinations) for work

evaluations
 206 BC to 220
-Chinese made use of test batteries (two or more tests used

together)
 1832
-English East India Company (the British) made use of tests

to choose employees
 1883
-The US Government established the American Civil Service

Commission which developed and administered tests for
government jobs.
 Francis Galton
-Applied the theories of Darwin (Theory of Evolution) to

measure individual differences.
-Father of Psychological Testing or Mental Testing
 James McKeen Cattell
-Coined the term Mental Test.

 J.E. Herbart
-Developed mathematical models of the mind.

 E.H. Weber
-Established the presence of the absolute threshold (the

minimum stimulation necessary to activate a sensation).
 Wilhelm Wundt
-Established the first experimental laboratory for

Psychology in Leipzig, Germany.
-Father of Psychology
 1866
-Development of the Seguin Form Board Test

 1905
-Development of the Binet-Simon scale by Alfred Binet and

Theodore Simon.
 The Binet-Simon Scale introduced the concept of a Standardization
Sample.
 The Binet-Simon Scale also introduced the concept of Test
Standardization.
 The Binet-Simon Scale also introduced the concept of the Mental
Age.
 1912
-Emil Kraepelin developed a series of examinations for

evaluating emotionally impaired people.
 1916
-Lewis Terman revised the Binet-Simon Scales into the

Stanford-Binet Test.
 1917
-The Woodworth Personal Data Sheet (the first structured

personality test) was released.
 1921
-Robert Yerkes created the Army Alpha (for literate

candidates) and Army Beta Tests (for illiterate candidates).
-Hermann Rorschach published the Rorschach Test.
 1935
-Henry Murray and Christina Morgan develop the Thematic

Apperception Test.
 1943
-The MMPI (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory) was

released. It relied heavily on empirical methods to determine
the meaning of a test response.
 1949
-The 16 Personality Factor (16PF) Questionnaire was first

released and was made by Raymond Cattell.
-The 16PF was made using a process called Factor Analysis.
 Scales of Measurement
-Measurement is the application of rules for assigning

numbers to objects.
 Scales can be:
1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Interval
4. Ratio
 Properties of Scales:
1. Magnitude
2. Equal Intervals
3. Absolute 0
*A scale can NOT have Equal Intervals without having the

property of Magnitude first.
*Likewise, a scale can NOT have an Absolute 0 without having

the property of Magnitude and Equal Intervals.
 Magnitude refers to the “moreness” of a scale.
Scales with the property of Magnitude ONLY are Ordinal

scales.
Scales without the property of Magnitude are Nominal

scales.
 Equal Intervals means that the difference between two points on the
scale have the same meaning as the difference between two other
points in the scale.
Scales with the property of Magnitude AND Equal Intervals

are Interval Scales.
 Absolute 0 means that the scale has a zero point, meaning that there
is nothing about the property being measured at that point.
Scales with the property of Magnitude, Equal Intervals and

Absolute 0 are Ratio scales.
 Examples:
Nominal Scales
-Jersey Numbers, Class Numbers, Cellphone Numbers
Ordinal Scales
-Classroom Academic Rankings, Intelligence Quotient (IQ), Player
Rankings
 Examples:
Interval Scales
-Degrees Celsius and Degrees Fahrenheit
Ratio Scales
-Kelvin, Inches, Heart Rate, Pounds, Grams, Seconds, Kilometers-per-
hour (kph)
 Frequency Distribution
-Shows how often a score is obtained.
 Percentile Rank
-The percentage of scores that are lower than a specific
score.
-”The percentage of people that have a lower score than
you.”
 Standard Deviation
-an approximation of the average deviation around the
mean.
 Z-Score
-The transformed version of a score that is easier to
interpret.
 T-Score
-A different type of standardized score.
***To transform a Z-Score to a T-Score:

T = 10Z+50 or S = (SD)(Z)+(Mean)
 Quartiles
-Points that divide the frequency distribution into four
equal parts.
 Deciles
-Points that divide the frequency distribution into ten equal
parts.
 Stanine
-Transforms any score into a score from 1-9
 Norms
-The performance of a particular group on a particular test.
 Tracking
-Tendency to stay at about the same level relative to one’s
age group.
 Correlation Coefficient
-Is used to tell the magnitude and direction of a
relationship.
 Scatter Diagram
-a collection of dots on a graph showing the relationship of
two factors.
 Regression Line
-The best-fitting line through a scatter diagram.
 Regression
-Used to make predictions about a variable (y) based on
information on another variable (x).
 Regression Coefficient or Slope
-How much y changes when x increases by 1.
 Intercept
-The value of y when x is zero.
 Residual
-The difference between a predicted score and the actual
score.
 Pearson Product Moment Correlation (Pearson r)
-Used to show the magnitude and direction of the
relationship between two variables.
-Ranges from -1 to 1.
 Standard Error of Estimate
-A measure of the accuracy of prediction.
 Coefficient of Determination
-Tells us how much we know about y based on x.
 Coefficient of Alienation
-Tells us how much we don’t know about y based on x.
 Reliability
-The amount of error in measuring.
-Consistency of scores.
 Charles Spearman
-Main proponent of theories regarding reliability.
 Test-Retest Reliability
-Indicates if test scores are consistent/free of error over
time.
-Obtained by giving the same test to the same sample at
two separate times.
 Split-Half Reliability
-Indicates if the sample of items are properly
representative of the larger topic it is representing.
-Obtained by splitting the test in half and correlating both
halves to one another.
-Measures the internal consistency of the test items.
 Spearman-Brown Formula
-Used to properly estimate the reliability of the test when
you use the split-half method.
-Adjusts the reliability of both halves of the test.
 KR20 (Kuder-Richardson 20)
 Alpha Coefficient
-Both are also measures of internal consistency.
 Parallel Forms Reliability
-Indicates if two different forms of a test are consistent.
-Reliability is obtained by getting equivalent forms of a test
and correlating them to one another.
 Inter-rater Reliability
-The consistency of scores between different raters.
 Kappa
-Statistic that estimates inter-rater reliability.
 How can you increase a test’s reliability?
1.) Increase the length of the test.
2.) Use Factor Analysis to divide the test into a
homogeneous subgroup of items.
3.) Use the Correction for Attenuation.
 Correction for Attenuation
-Used to estimate the correlation between tests if there had
been no measurement error.
 Validity
-Indicates if a test measures what it is supposed to measure.
-The evidence that proves the legitimacy of a test.
 Face Validity
- The appearance that the test actually measures what it
says it measures.
 Criterion Validity
- Evidence showing that a measurement can accurately
predict specific criteria.
- Has two types: Predictive and Concurrent
 Concurrent Validity
- Evidence that shows that the test reflects current
performance through the use of another test.
 Predictive Validity
– Evidence that shows that the test predicts future
performance through the use of another test.
 Construct Validity
– Evidence showing that the test actually measures the
construct (idea) it purports to measure and nothing else.
- Has two types: Convergent and Discriminant
 Convergent Validity
– Evidence that shows that there are correlations between
the test and other variables that should be related to what
the test is trying to measure.
 Discriminant Validity
– Evidence that shows that the test does not include
unnecessary items and that the test measures something
different from the other tests.
 Content Validity
– Evidence showing that the content of the test covers all
aspects of the theoretical construct it attempts to measure.
 1.) If the results of an examination are negatively skewed,
the exam questions were likely:
 A. Difficult
 B. Easy
 C. Biased
 D. Has a wide variety in scores
 2.) Standardization in testing basically refers to
________________.
A. The use of trained examiners to evaluate performance

B. Measurement against a proven standard
C. Complete uniformity in administration
D. A printed test form
 3.) A certain mental health professional is to make an
assessment of an individual experiencing emotional difficulties
following the traumatic death of her husband. This professional
graduated with a degree in Psychology and took up and
finished medicine soon after. He went for his specialization in a
mental health institution and soon got his license (which was
different from his license as a doctor). This professional is most
likely a ________.
A. Clinical Psychologist
B. Licensed Psychometrician
C. There is insufficient information about the professional
D. Psychiatrist
 4.) An individual wishes to provide a framework for the
prediction of the likelihood of alcoholism for individuals
with autism. What does the individual need to establish first
before making an assumption that the two are related?
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Correlation
D. Statistical Significance
 5.) Which of the following is NOT considered as a
necessary procedure in conducting a psychological
assessment?
A. House Visit
B. Psychological Testing
C. Behavioral Observation
D. Interview
 6.) Compared with the Army Alpha, the Army Beta test
placed more emphasis on _________.
A. Verbal Questions
B. Non-Verbal Questions
C. Covert dispositions or behaviors
D. Overt dispositions or behaviors
 7.) The major advantage of converting raw scores to
standardized scores is:
A. It makes it easier for the scores to be mathematically

manipulated.
B. It makes the test scores more presentable.
C. It makes the scores more understandable and statistically
significant relative to other test-takers.
D. It lays the groundwork for further research into the possible
applications of the test that has just been administered.
 8.) What statistic will you use to compute for the reliability
of a test which contains items that are dichotomous or
scored as 0 or 1?
A. Cronbach Alpha
B. Kuder-Richardson 20 (KR20)
C. Kappa Statistic
D. Spearman-Brown Prophecy
 9.) Which of the following can be a source of measurement
error in mental ability tests?
A. Noisy Testing Environment

B. High Test Anxiety for the Examinee
C. Examiner’s Poorly Given Instructions
D. All of the above
 10.) It is the first structured personality test.
A. Kuder-Richardson Test for 20 Personality Factors

B. 16PF
C. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
D. Murray’s Thematic Apperception Test
 11.) A test constructor wants to isolate the most prominent
variables relating to the construct “Sexual Promiscuity”.
What does he need to do to get these variables?
A. Do factor analysis.
B. Construct an item pool related to the construct.
C. Establish test reliability.
D. Establish test validity.
 12.) This standardized score has a mean of 50 and a
standard deviation of 10.
A. M-Score
B. Z-Score
C. T-Score
D. Percentile Rank
 13.) It is a measurement device or technique used to
quantify behavior or to aid in the understanding and
prediction of behavior.
A. Items
B. Psychological Assessment
C. Psychological Testing
D. Psychological Test
 14.) This is an expression of the percentage of people
whose score on a test measure falls below a particular raw
score or the ranking that conveys information about the
relative position of a score within a distribution of scores.
A. Decile
B. Quartile
C. Stanine
D. Percentile Rank
 15.) He is credited with identifying the need to minimize
measurement errors in testing.
A. Charles Spearman
B. Francis Galton
C. Charles Darwin
D. Karl Pearson
 16.) One of the most significant advantages of group testing is:
A. Being able to have a deeper understanding of your client’s

behavior.
B. Being able to administer to a larger group, and thus more
people, at once.
C. Having the opportunity to experience and simulate an ideal
testing environment.
D. Learning the difference between various personality scales.
 17.) It is a line that best fits through a scatter diagram.
A. Correlation Statistic
B. Correlation Line
C. Regression Line
D. Reliability Line
 18.) A test was given at two separate times but with the
same sample of test-takers to establish the reliability of a
test. Which method did the test-constructor employ?
A. Item Sampling Method

B. Test-Retest Method
C. Split-Half Method
D. Parallel Forms Method
 19.) Imagine you are working as a Psychometrician for a school and
the parent of the test-taker wants to find out what the contents of the
test was so that he/she could better understand the results of her
child’s test. What is the most appropriate response to this request?
A. Give her just a few of the test questions to help her understand the
test better.
B. Provide her with a copy of the test materials but only after the test so
that she could assess which areas her child can improve upon.
C. Do not provide her any of the test materials.
D. Show the contents of the test materials but only after making sure
that it is done in a strictly private location.
 20.) You were asked to familiarize yourself to a generalized
intelligence test which will be used as basis for selection to
the University you are working in. You want to find out if the
intelligence test is internally consistent. What aspect of the
test are you going to look at?
A. Inter-rater Reliability
B. Test-Retest Reliability
C. Content Validity
D. Split-Half Reliability
 21.) You then want to find out if the test provides consistent
scores over time. What kind of established reliability are
you going to look for?
A. Inter-rater Reliability
B. Test-Retest Reliability
C. Content Validity
 22.) If a Psychometrician constructs a test and finds out that
the reliability coefficient that he obtained is not up to the
standard he wants, what can he do to increase it?
A. Administer the test again.

B. Begin from scratch and redo all of the questions.
C. Increase the length of the test.
D. Change the wording of the test questions so as to provide
clearer instructions.
 23.) An individual is looking to enter a prestigious university.
Upon applying, he was asked to take an exam along with 50
other applicants on a certain date. The exam given to him
consisted of 50 questions of increasing difficulty and did not
have a time limit. Based on this information, what kind of test
was he most likely given?
A. Speed Test
B. Aptitude Test
C. Power Test
D. Structured Achievement Test
 24.) The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale is a test
measuring general mental ability. It is used to diagnose
intellectual and developmental deficiencies in young
children. This test is an example of a:
A. Individual Intelligence Test

B. Group Aptitude Test
C. Individual Achievement Test
D. Individual Aptitude Test
 25.) A Psychometrician for a company wants to find out if
an employee is a suitable candidate for training of a new
skillset. She administers this type of test first, however, to
find out if the employee has the potential to learn this new
skill.
A. Achievement Test
B. Intelligence Test
C. Aptitude Test
D. Personality Test
 26.) Intelligence Quotient (IQ) is an example of a/an _____
scale.
A. Interval
B. Nominal
C. Ratio
D. Ordinal
 27.) A researcher wishes to find out if a person’s love for food is
related to a person’s love for his/her significant other. She finds
a test measuring both of these constructs and then correlates
the obtained scores to each other. She puts dots on a Cartesian
plane to plot these scores. This graph is most likely a:
A. Bar Graph
B. Graph for Regression
C. Diagram of Correlation
D. Scatter Diagram
 28.) In test construction, this is a large collection of items
from which the constructor can derive the items to be
included in the final test.
A. Item Collection
B. Item Pool
C. Derived Sources
D. Item Glossary
 29.) An achievement test was administered to a group of
students. Since it was a difficult test, most of the students
got a low score. The graphical curve for the test will thus
appear to be:
A. Negatively Skewed
B. Platykurtic
C. Mesokurtic
D. Positively Skewed
 30.) A teacher wants to find out how much the scores of the
students in a classroom vary from each other. The best
statistical measure for this would be:
A. Median
B. Mean
C. Z-Score
D. Standard Deviation
 31.) This is the value of Y when X is 0 in a regression plot.
A. Slope
B. Intercept
C. Regression Coefficient
D. Degree of Skewness
 32.) All psychological tests fundamentally depend upon the
measurement of __________.
A. Samples of Behavior
B. Mental Processes
C. Intellectual Constructs
D. Traits
 33.) A company compares employees’ scores to an
established standard to determine whether or not they
deserve to stay in the company. You can thus say that their
performance assessment methods are:
A. Norm-referenced
B. Criterion-referenced
C. Standardized
D. Empirical
 34.) At age 5, Kyrie has about the same height as the other
children with the same age. At age 12, Kyrie still has about
the same height as the other children her age. Height is
thus a characteristic that ____ well.
A. Synthesizes
B. Tracks
C. Correlates
D. Relativizes
 35.) A person obtains a percentile rank score of 35%. This
means that he:
A. Scored lower than 35% of the other test-takers.

B. Answered as well as 35% of the other test-takers.
C. Scored higher than 35% of the other test-takers.
D. Got 35% of the questions correct.
 36.) A correlation coefficient of .83 means that:
A. There is a strong, negative relationship between the two

factors.
B. There is a very strong, positive relationship between the
two factors.
C. There is a strong, positive relationship between the two
factors.
D. There is a moderate, positive relationship between the two
factors.
 37.) This is a measure of the consistency of scores between
different raters.
A. Parallel Forms Reliability Coefficient

B. Test-Retest Reliability Coefficient
C. Kappa Statistic
D. Inter-Rater Validity Statistic
 38.) Kirk was shown a set of pictures and was asked to
make stories based on those pictures. He was most likely
being administered which test?
A. Thematic Apperception Test

B. MMPI
C. Rorschach Test
D. Raven’s Progressive Matrices
 39.) A certain personality test contains questions about an
individual’s relationship with his mother, father and other
family members. Test-takers answer in complete sentences.
This personality test can be classified as:
A. Structured Personality Test

B. Projective Personality Test
C. Criterion-Related Validity Test
D. Norm-Referenced Test
 40.) You wanted to determine the effects of marital satisfaction
to the number of children that couples will be having in the
future. To show that you were really able to measure “marital
satisfaction”, you compared the results of your test to another
test which also measures marital satisfaction. This is called:
A. Predictive Validity
B. Concurrent Validity
C. Face Validity
D. Construct Validity
 41.) Individuals who have severe mental disorders are
mostly administered these types of tests.
A. Structured Personality Tests

B. Intelligence Tests
C. Projective Tests
D. Aptitude Tests
 42.) An individual who is able to administer type C tests is
called a:
A. Registered Psychometrician
B. Registered Psychiatrist
C. Registered Housemaid
D. Registered Psychologist
 43.) You administer a test to a group of older individuals which
measures their potential for learning in the field of medicine.
After the exam, however, you overhear some of the test-takers
complain about the test not appearing like it asks any questions
about medicine. The test most probably has inadequate
amounts of:
A. Internal Consistency
B. Face Validity
C. Predictive Validity
D. Concurrent Validity
 44.) A classmate of yours complains that the test your
teacher gave does not contain any of the lessons that he has
been teaching the past week. You say that the test your
teacher gave has low:
A. Convergent Validity
B. Concurrent Validity
C. Content Validity
D. Construct Validity
 45.) If your teacher discusses about fractions for most of the
week and then gives you a test about fractions before the
weekend starts, that test can be called a:
A. Achievement Test
B. Intelligence Test
C. Aptitude Test
D. Item Discrimination Test
 46.) When a student comes to you for career counseling
and asks if she could take a test to find out what field she
would be good at, what kind of test would you recommend?
A. Interest Inventory
B. Aptitude Test
C. Intelligence Test
D. Structure Personality Test
 47.) One of the most significant advantages of an
individually administered test is that:
A. You get to save more time in administering the test.

B. You are able to interact with your client and thus build
rapport.
C. You are able to observe your client more closely and thus
give a more accurate interpretation of results.
D. You get to interpret scores easier because the scores you
are calculating are only for one individual.
 48.) When you want to find out whether or not the items of
your test consistently measure the same factor, what type of
reliability are you trying to find out?
A. Test-Retest Reliability
B. Inter-rater Reliability
C. Split-Half Reliability
D. Parallel Forms Reliability
 49.) The highest score obtained on a test.
A. Test Flooring
B. Test Ceiling
C. Test Difficulty
D. Test Discriminability
 50.) The first country to make use of psychological testing.
A. Great Britain
B. America
C. Cambodia
D. China
 51.) Why do you need to make use of the Spearman-Brown
Formula after using the split-half method?
A. Because splitting the test questions in half artificially increases

the reliability of the test.
B. Because splitting the test questions in half artificially
decreases the reliability of the test.
C. Because the Spearman-Brown Formula provides construct
validity evidence.
D. Because splitting the test questions in half reduces content
validity.
 52.) A psychometrician calculates for the Pearson Moment
Correlation of two hypothetically related variables. He
came up with a Pearson r of 2.65. What does this mean?
A. Both factors are very highly, positively correlated.

B. Both factors’ correlations involve a multitude of other
unknown factors.
C. The psychometrician made an error in his calculation.
D. The factors have a very low, negative correlation.
 53.) A test given to fourth graders completely covers all of
the lessons given to them during the previous months. What
quality does the test have?
A. Content Validity
B. Construct Validity
C. Test-Retest Reliability
 54.) Associated with the Differential Psychology movement
because he attempted to establish differences between
individuals.
A. Wilhelm Wundt
B. J.E. Herbart
C. Francis Galton
D. M. Winston
 55.) In Regression Analysis, when the predicted score is 8
and the actual score is 14, 6 in this case is called the:
A. Intercept
B. Slope
C. Regression Coefficient
D. Residual
 56.) These are points that divide the frequency distribution
into 4 equal parts.
A. Deciles
B. Quartiles
C. Quarters
D. Quartals
 57.) It is the squared standard deviation.
A. Variate Coefficient
B. Variance
C. Standardized Score
D. Spread Coefficient
 58.) If a scale’s values do not indicate how much more of a
particular physical attribute there is, then that scale is most
likely a/an _______ scale.
A. Nominal Scale
B. Ordinal Scale
C. Ratio Scale
D. Interval Scale
 59.) This type of validity is not considered to be an “official”
type of validity.
A. Content Validity
C. Face Validity
D. Discriminant Validity
 60.) A test you made wants to measure a very abstract
concept which needs to be properly and fully defined. The
type of validity you would wish to achieve is:
A. Content Validity
C. Face Validity
D. Discriminant Validity
 61.) This equation is used to find out the number of items
you need to add to a test to reach a certain level of
reliability.
A. Spearman-Brown Formula
B. Spearman Prophecy
C. Cronbach Alpha
D. Kuder-Richardson 20
 62.) If an individual wants to find out whether or not her test
is relatively free of measurement error, she is trying to
calculate for:
A. Validity
B. Regression
C. Correlation
D. Reliability
 63.) These tests provide ambiguous test questions.
A. Structured Personality Tests

B. Personality Tests in General
C. Projective Tests
D. Diagnostic Tests
 64.) A test asks individuals to draw a house, a tree, and a
person. The mental health professional then interprets
these drawings through empirical data and professional
experience. What level of testing is this?
A. Level A
B. Level B
C. Level C
D. Level D
 65.) This test pioneered the use of empirical methods to
establish the meaning of test results
A. 16 Personality Factor Questionnaire

B. Thematic Apperception Test
C. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
D. Raven’s Progressive Matrices
 66.) This is used when one wants to provide a framework of
prediction on the basis of one factor in order to predict the
probable value of another factor.
A. Regression
B. Frequency Distribution
C. Tracking
D. Norming
 67.) You wish to administer an intelligence test to a group of
applicants. However, the test has been constructed in America
and you wish to make the scores more meaningful for local use.
What is the most practical thing to do?
A. Obtain a different test that is more related to the local culture.

B. Increase the number of locally relevant questions to the test.
C. Renew the norms of the test
D. Administer the test but only to people who have been exposed
to American culture.
 68.) You were given 3 tests in quick succession to
determine your general mental ability. This kind of testing
is called a:
A. Mental Test Barrage

B. Criterion-Referenced Testing
C. Group Testing
D. Test Battery
 69.) In the Stanford-Binet scale, the highest year level at
which the subject successfully passes all tests.
A. Biserial Age
B. Basal Age
C. Mental Age
D. Intelligence Quotient
 70.) Evidence obtained to demonstrate that a test measures
something different from what other available tests
measure.
A. Convergent Evidence
B. Factor Analysis
C. Divergent Evidence
D. Biserial Correlation
 71.) A test that includes the following choices: strongly
disagree, disagree, neither disagree nor agree, agree,
strongly agree is using which test format?
A. Likert Scale
B. Dichotomous Scale
C. Multivariate Format
D. Multilayer Format
 72.) When a test constructor obtains the percentage of test-
takers who got a correct answer in a certain item, she is
most likely trying to measure the _________.
A. Item Discriminability
B. Item Disability
C. Item Variance
D. Item Difficulty
 73.) The phenomenon that causes the reliability of a scale
in behavior studies to be higher when an observer knows
that his or her work is being monitored.
A. Projectivity
B. Reactivity
C. Observability
D. Inconsistency
 74.) The act of giving a test.
A. Test-giving
B. Test Administration
C. Test-taking
D. Test Construction
 75.) The theory that states that the true score is equal to the
obtained score plus the error in measuring.
A. Item Response Theory

B. Classical Test Theory
C. Reliability Theory
D. The Spearman-Brown Corollary
 76.) A computer program that presents the individual with
items of varying difficulty based on his prior performance
with easy or hard items is using which theory?
A. Item Response Theory

B. Classical Test Theory
C. Reliability Theory
D. The Spearman-Brown Corollary
 77.) In interviewing, a question that usually cannot be
answered in a specific manner.
A. Direct Question
B. Formal Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Structured Question
 78.) The amount decreased from the original calculated
correlation between two variables.
A. Regression
B. Shrinkage
C. Intercept
D. Deviation
 79.) When a researcher wants to correlate two sets of ranks
for his research, he should use:
A. Spearman Prophecy
B. Spearman-Brown Coefficient
C. Kuder-Richardson 20
D. Spearman’s Rho
 80.) In interviewing, a statement intended to comfort or
support.
A. Resting Statement
B. Reassuring Statement
C. Evaluative Statement
D. Hostile Statement
 81.) In test construction, this is whether or not an item is
able to differentiate between high and low scorers in a test.
A. Item Difficulty
B. Item Discriminability
C. Item Construction
D. Item Legitimacy
 82.) “Tell me more about…” is an example of a ______
statement.
A. Hostile Statement
B. Resting Statement
C. Evaluative Statement
D. Probing Statement
 83.) The tendency for observers in behavioral studies to
stray from the definitions they learned during training and
to develop their own definitions of behaviors.
A. Regression
B. Shrinkage
C. Drift
D. Insubordination
 84.) In conducting _______ interviews, interviewers with
more experience are preferred.
A. Structured
B. Unstructured
C. Projective
D. Hostile
 85.) Alternatives on a multiple-choice exam that are not
correct or for which no credit is given.
A. Regressors
B. Differentials
C. Distractors
D. Triggers
 86.) To administer annual routine tests to individuals
belonging to an organization without their official verbal or
written consent is _______.
A. Ethical
B. Unethical
C. Completely dependent on whether or not the individuals
refuse to take the test
D. Subject to PAP investigation
 87.) This is a client’s right to keep the results of his test from
being released to the public.
A. Right to Privacy
B. Right to Confidentiality
C. Right of Suffrage
D. Right to Loyalty
 88.) In test-decision analysis, the proportion of cases in
which a test accurately predicts success or failure.
A. Differential Validity
B. Test Discriminability
C. Hit Rate
D. Legitimacy
 89.) The tendency to agree that what a test item says is true.
A. Agreeableness
B. Drift
C. Tracking
D. Acquiescence
 90.) A test that consists of tasks that require a subject to do
something rather than to answer questions.
A. Actual Test
B. On-the-Job Test
C. Performance Scale
D. Unstructured Test
 91.) A psychologist conducting research about the
correlation between students’ classroom rank and their
ranking of priorities in the household will use the following
correlation coefficient:
A. Phi Coefficient
B. Tetrachloric r
C. Spearman’s Rho
D. Point Biserial Correlation
 92.) A method of calculating for the test’s item
discriminability wherein you correlate the performance of
each test taker to his/her performance on the whole test.
A. Phi Coefficient Method

B. Extreme Groups Method
C. Point Biserial Method
D. The Rho Coefficient Method
 93.) A magazine states that poor eating habits causes
people to have a higher chance of having divorce. This
exemplifies the
A. Correlation-Causation Problem
B. Restricted Range
C. Third Variable
D. Cross Validity Issue
 94.) Fifteen rationally derived items included in both the
MMPI and MMPI-2 designed to evaluate a naive attempt to
present oneself in a favorable light. People who score high
on this scale are unwilling to acknowledge minor flaws.
A. Lie Scale
B. K Scale
C. Infrequency Scale
D. T Scale
 95.) You calculated for the item difficulty of a true-false item and
obtained the value 0.5. What is the best thing to do with the
item?
A. Keep it in the test since 0.5 is a near-perfect difficulty index

B. Remove the item in the test because of the high probability of
guessing it right
C. Return it to the item pool and replace it with another true-false
question
D. Use it as a basis for future item construction.
 96.) A respondent is given pieces of paper with various
statements and asked to sort them into piles marked 1-10
according to how true the statements are for the
respondent. The researcher made use of which item
format?
A. Checklist
B. Q-Sort
C. Category Format
D. Likert Format
 97.) Dogs of the same family were randomly assigned to two
groups marked as “trained” and “untrained.” The researcher
called for random experimenters to take the “trained” and
“untrained” dogs and teach them a few tricks. It was observed
that the dogs marked “trained” were perceived to learn the
tricks faster as compared to the “untrained” dogs. This is an
example of _______ in the research setting.
A. Hawthorne Effect
B. Acquiescence
C. Rosenthal Effect
D. Contrast Effect
 98.) An item format in which the respondent is shown a 100
mm line and asked to answer by pointing out which part of
the line represents their answers for a particular item.
A. Q-Sort
B. Likert Scale
C. Category Scale
D. Visual Analogue Scale
 99.) To demonstrate ________, a researcher could show that
the measured variable has a low correlation to other
unrelated variables.
A. Convergent Validity
B. Discriminant Validity
C. Reliability
D. Concurrent Validity
 100.) Administering intelligence tests in a neutral tone without
any reinforcements is done because:
A. Rapport, administrator familiarity and reinforcement increases

the scores of test takers
B. Rapport and administrator familiarity decreases the scores of
test takers
C. Reinforcement decreases scores while rapport and familiarity
increases scores
D. Reinforcement and Rapport increases scores while
administrator familiarity decreases scores.
 1.) The process of identifying how a job is performed, the
conditions under which it is performed, and the personal
requirements it takes to perform the job.
A. Job Description
B. Job Analysis
C. Job Dissemination
D. Performance Assessment
 Job Analysis – Foundation of all human resource activities
 Job Analysis – Foundation of all human resource activities
– Information obtained is used in everything,

from recruitment to selection to Job Evaluation,
etc.
 2.) A written summary of the tasks performed in a job, the
conditions under which the job is performed, and the
requirements needed to perform the job.
 A. Job Description
 B. Job Analysis
 C. Job Dissemination
 D. Performance Assessment
 Job Description – A detailed and accurate description of
the job
 Job Specification – the minimum qualifications of a job
 Job Profile – outlined version of a Job Description

 3.) The attitude employees have toward their jobs.
 A. Job Participation
 B. Job Role
 C. Job Satisfaction
 D. Job Specification
 4.) A body of information needed to perform a task.
 A. Knowledge
 B. Skills
 C. Ability
 D. Other Characteristics
 KSAO
 K – Knowledge
 S – Skills
 A – Abilities
 O – Other Characteristics
 Knowledge – Body of information needed to perform the
task
 Skill – Proficiency to perform a learned task
 Ability – Basic capacity to perform
 Other Characteristics – Everything else like personality,
willingness, family background, etc.
 5.) This is the prevalent need of leaders who want to be in
control of other people.
 A. Need for Achievement

 B. Need for Power
 C. Need for Affiliation
 D. Need for Recognition
 6.) Leaders who are focused on this need are the most
effective leaders.
 A. Need for Achievement

 B. Need for Power
 C. Need for Affiliation
 D. Need for Recognition
 Needs:
1. Need for Power – The extent to which a person desires to

be in control of other people
2. Need for Achievement – The extent to which a person

desires to be successful
 Needs:
3. Need for Affiliation – The extent to which a person

desires to be liked and around other people
 7.) The third stage of the team process, in which teams
establish roles and determine policies and procedures.
 A. Forming
 B. Norming
C. Storming
 D. Adjourning
 Stages of the Team Process
1. Forming
2. Storming
3. Norming
4. Performing
5. Adjourning
 8.) A theory of leadership stating that leaders will be
effective if their behavior helps subordinates achieve
relevant goals.
 A. Position Style
 B. Adjustment Theory
 C. Path-Goal Theory
 D. Trait Theory
 9.) The idea that organizations tend to promote good
employees until they reach the level at which they are not
competent.
 A. Peter Principle
 B. Galatea Effect
 C. Hawthorne Principle
 D. Primacy Effect
 Peter Principle – Promotion of employees until they reach
the level at which they are not competent.
 Pygmalion Effect – Higher expectations lead to higher

performance
 Golem Effect – Lower expectations lead to lower
performance
 Galatea Effect – Higher SELF-expectations lead to higher

performance
 Halo Effect – Performance in one area influences another
area or set of areas
 10.) A stress-prone person who is mostly competitive,
impatient, and hurried.
 A. Type A personality
 B. Type B personality
 C. Eustress Personality
 D. Distress Personality
 11.) The theory that states that job satisfaction is influenced
by two factors in the workplace.
 A. Path-Goal Theory
 B. Two-Factor Theory
 C. Organizational Fit Theory
 D. Consistency Theory
 12.) Aldefer’s ERG Theory talks about three levels of
satisfaction:
 A. Excitement, Reparation, Games

 B. Examples, Retardation, Growth
 C. External, Relational, Global
 D. Existence, Relatedness, Growth
 Aldefer’s ERG Theory
1. Existence – Needs satisfied by food, air, water, pay, etc.
2. Relatedness – Needs satisfied by interpersonal reactions
3. Growth – Needs satisfied by an individual making

meaningful contributions
 13.) This occurs when an individual’s negative expectations
negatively affects that individual’s performance.
 A. Galatea Effect
 B. Peter Principle
 C. Golem Effect
 D. Hawthorne Effect
 14.) When talking about Herzberg’s Theory, these are the
factors that come from the environment and not from the
job itself.
 A. Hygiene Factors
 B. Job Satisfaction
 C. Motivators
 D. Outsourcing
 Herzberg’s Two Factor Theory
1. Hygiene Factors – Job Context (Environment)
2. Motivator Factors – Job Content

 15.) A test used to predict an applicant’s tendency to steal.
 A. Projective Test
 B. Trade Test
 C. Integrity Test
 D. Interest Inventory
 16.) People with this believe that they are responsible for
and are in control of their success or failure in life.
 A. Internal Locus of Control

 B. External Locus of Control
 C. Human Factors
 D. Expectancy
 17.) This is the perceived probability that a particular
amount of effort will result in a particular level of
performance according to Vroom’s theory.
 A. Expectancy
 B. Valence
 C. Instrumentality
 D. External Equity
 18.) This is the power obtained by individuals who have
knowledge.
 A. Leadership Position Power

 B. Legitimate Power
 C. Expert Power
 D. Referent Power
 19.) The power that exists when followers can identify with
a leader and a leader’s goals.
 A. Reward Power
 B. Referent Power
 C. Legitimate Power
 D. Leadership Position Power
 Raven’s Bases of Power:
1. Expert Power – Power gained through personal

knowledge
2. Legitimate – Power because of elected or appointed

position
3. Reward Power – Power gained through the ability to

reward followers
4. Referent Power – Power gained when followers are able

to identify with a leader and his goals
5. Coercive Power – Power gained through the ability to

command others by force (through punishment)
6. Information Power – Power gained through the offer of

information
 20.) When high self-expectations result in higher levels of
performance.
 A. Peter Principle
 B. Hawthorne Effect
 C. Galatea Effect
 D. Golem Effect
 21.) A type of rating error in which the rater focuses on a
single positive characteristic and allows that to influence
everything else in their assessment.
 A. Fork-tail Error
 B. Hawthorne Effect
 C. Peter Principle
 D. Halo Error
 22.) A method of performance appraisal involving the
placement of benchmark behaviors next to each point on a
graphic rating scale.
 A. Behavioral Observation Scales

 B. 360-Degree Feedback
 C. Critical Incidents
 D. Behaviorally-Anchored Rating Scales
 Performance Appraisal – The process of evaluating the
performance of employees
 23.) This occurs when the performance of one applicant
affects the perception of the performance of the next
applicant.
 A. Contrast Effect
 B. Corresponding Effects
 C. Hawthorne Effect
 D. Galatea Effect
 Contrast Effect – Performance of one applicant influences
the perception of the performance of another
 Hawthorne Effect – The alteration of behavior due to

observation
 24.) A method of recruitment in which job applicants are
told both the positive and the negative aspects of a job.
 A. Realistic Job Preview

 B. Job Fair
 C. Employee Referral
 D. Job Rotation
 25.) When employees choose to fill vacant positions with
people who are already working in the company, this is
called what type of recruitment?
 A. External Recruitment
 B. Internal Recruitment
 C. Selective Recruitment
 D. Employee Referral
 26.) Sources such as supervisors and incumbents who are
knowledgeable about a job.
 A. Job Master
 B. Referral
 C. Subject Matter Experts
 D. Type X Leaders
 27.) Elements of a job that concern the actual duties
performed by the employee.
 A. Hygiene Factors
 B. Motivators
 C. Needs
 D. Norms
 28.) Happens when employees change their behavior due
solely to the fact that they are receiving attention or are
being observed.
 A. Hawthorne Effect
 B. Drift
 C. Hindsight Bias
 D. Pygmalion Effect
 29.) The extent to which members of a group like and trust
one another.
 A. Group Size
 B. Group Status
 C. Group Cohesiveness
 D. Groupthink
 30.) The theory that believes that employees are
extrinsically motivated or not innately motivated to do their
work.
 A. Theory X
 B. Fiedler’s Contingency Model of Motivation
 C. Two-Factor Theory of Motivation
 D. Theory Y
 31.) When the completion of a task by one person affects
the completion of a task by another person.
 A. Task Structuredness
 B. Task Analysis
 C. Task Inventory
 D. Task Interdependence
 32.) Proficiency in performing a particular task.
 A. Technique
 B. Skill
 C. Knowledge
 D. Ability
 33.) The process of confirming the accuracy of résumé and
job application information.
 A. Referral Service
 B. Referent Power
 C. Recruitment
 D. Reference Check
 34.) The process of attracting interested applicants for
vacant job positions in a company.
 A. Selection
 B. Processing
 C. Recruitment
 D. Interviewing
 Recruitment – Process of searching for and securing
applicants
 Two Major Sources of Recruitment:
1. Internal
2. External
 Different Methods of Recruitment:
1. Job Posting
2. The Word-of-Mouth System

3. Advertising Media
4. Walk-ins
5. Job Fair and Open House
6. Campus or University Recruitment

7. Government Agencies
8. The Internet
 Selection – Determining which among the applicants is the
most qualified
 35.) A method in which employees are given the
opportunity to perform several different jobs in an
organization.
 A. Job Sharing
 B. On-the-Job Training
 C. Simulation
 D. Job Rotation
 36.) Applies knowledge of human capabilities and
requirements to the design of work devices, systems, and
the physical work setting in order to make these devices
“user-friendly.”
 A. Industrial-Organizational Psychology
 B. Human Resource Management
 C. Time and Motion Studies
 D. Ergonomics
 37.) The tendency for supervisors to recall and place more
weight on recent behaviors when they evaluate
performance.
 A. Recency Effect
 B. Primacy Effect
 C. Racial Bias
 D. Halo Effect
 38.) It is the grouping of jobs based on similarities in
requirements and duties. It is also useful for determining
pay levels, transfers, and promotions.
 A. Job Evaluation
B. Job Classification
 C. Job Design
 D. Performance Appraisal
 39.) A good trait of a ________ is that upon reading it, the
reader would immediately get an accurate picture of the
job.
 A. Job Classification
 B. Job Title
 C. Job Evaluation
D. Job Design
 40.) This involves other relevant information about the
applicant like his/her gender, age, and personality traits.
 A. Knowledge
 B. Skills
 C. Abilities
 D. Other Characteristics
 41.) The extent to which behavior learned in training will
be performed on the job.
 A. Triangling
 B. Transfer of Training
 C. Needs Analysis
 D. Skills
 42.) In expectancy theory, the perceived desirability of a
consequence that results from a particular level of
performance.
 A. Expectancy
 B. Instrumentality
 C. Valence
 D. Relatedness
 43.) An exercise designed to place an applicant in a
situation that is similar to the one that will be encountered
on the job.
 A. On-the-Job Training
 B. Case Study
 C. Simulation
 D. Job Rotation
 44.) A group incentive method in which employees get a
percentage of the profits made by an organization.
 A. Quota Rewards
 B. Stock Options
 C. RICE Allowance
 D. Profit Sharing
 45.) The process of having certain organizational functions
performed by an outside vendor rather than an employee
in the organization.
 A. Organizational Socialization
 B. Outsourcing
 C. External Recruitment
 D. External Hiring
 46.) An employee trying to convey his work-related
concern with his supervisor is an example of _______
communication.
 A. Upward
 B. Downward
 C. Sideways
 D. 360 Degree
 47.) A type of rating error in which a rater consistently
gives all employees high ratings, regardless of their actual
levels of performance.
 A. Halo Effect
 B. Galatea Effect
 C. Hawthorne Effect
 D. Leniency Error
 48.) A flextime schedule in which employees can choose
their own hours without any advance notice or scheduling.
 A. Fixed Interval Schedule

 B. Gliding Time
 C. Paid Overtime
 D. Gainsharing
 49.) A type of programmed instruction presented through a
computer.
 A. Long-Distance Learning
 B. Computer-based Training
 C. Nesting
 D. Online Recruitment
 50.) Korman’s theory that employees will be motivated to
perform at levels consistent with their levels of self-esteem.
 A. Consistency Theory
 B. ERG Theory
 C. Expectancy Theory
 D. Social Learning Theory
 51.) The psychological state of being overwhelmed with
stress.
 A. Burnout
 B. Type A Personality
 C. Type B Personality
 D. Red Herring
 52.) Statements that are so general that they can be true of
almost anyone such as those used in astrological forecasts.
 A. Barnum Statements
 B. Leading Statements
 C. Interrogative Statements
 D. Cold Reading
 53.) A training technique in which employees, usually in a
group, are presented with real or hypothetical workplace
problems and are asked to propose the best solution.
 A. Simulation
 B. On-the-Job Training
 C. Case Study
 D. Field Research
 54.) A common practice in the Philippines is _______, where
employees recommend family members for a specific
position inside the company.
 A. Employee Referral
 B. Internal Recruitment
C. Outsourcing
D. Grapevine Recruitment
 55.) The following are problems that interviewers usually
encounter during unstructured interviews except:
 A. Contrast Effects
 B. Interviewer-Interviewee Similarity
 C. Primacy Effects
D. Hawthorne Effect
 56.) This subset of abilities involve vision, color
discrimination, depth perception, glare sensitivity and are
usually expected in blue-collar workers for them to
perform their jobs well.
 A. Psychomotor Ability
 B. Cognitive Ability
 C. Perceptual Ability
 D. Physical Ability
 57.) A selection method that considers an applicant’s life,
school, military, community, and work experience.
 A. T-Data
 B. Biodata
 C. In-basket Technique
 D. Personality Inventory
 58.) The following are reasons for evaluating employee
performance except:
 A. Providing Employee Training and Feedback

 B. Determining Salary Increases
 C. Making Termination Decisions
 D. Making Job Descriptions
 59.) A person who enjoys change and makes changes for
the sake of it.
 A. Change Agent
 B. Change Analyst
 C. Change Resister
 D. Devil’s Advocate
 60.) Factors, such as responsibility and education
requirements, that differentiate the relative worth of jobs.
 A. Compensable Job Factors

 B. Compensatory Approach
 C. Distributive Justice
 D. Form Stability
 61.) The power that individuals have because of their
elected or appointed position.
 A. Reward Power
 B. Legitimate Power
 C. IMPACT Power
 D. Expert Power
 62.) A selection strategy in which applicants must meet or
exceed the passing score on more than one selection test.
 A. On-the-Job Training
 B. Work Sample
 C. Multiple Cutoff Approach
 D. Criterion-Related Approach
 63.) The length of time an employee has been with an
organization.
 A. Duration
 B. Tenure
 C. Mastery
 D. Loyalty
 64.) When managers look for unnecessary and complicated
procedures and attempt to streamline or outright remove
them, they are most likely conducting a:
 A. Sacred Cow Hunt

 B. Time and Motion Study
 C. Hawthorne Study
 D. Field Study
 Sacred Cow Hunt – The process of removing unnecessary
practices that waste time
 Types of Cows:
1. Paper Cow – Unnecessary paperwork
2. Meeting Cow – Unnecessary meeting practices
3. Speed Cow – Unnecessary deadlines

 65.) When a company offers its employees the opportunity
to invest money into the company, they are making use of
what type of employee incentive?
 A. Stock Options
 B. Bonus Pay
 C. Quota Bonus
 D. Cut-off Incentive
 66.) An applicant fears that one of the other applicants with
much better qualifications will be interviewed before him
leading him to be directly compared to that applicant. This
applicant is aware of the ________.
 A. Halo Effect
 B. Contrast Effect
 C. Paper Cow Effect
 D. Golem Effect
 67.) This is where the Hawthorne Studies were conducted.
 A. Western Electric Plant, Hawthorne, Illinois

B. Ford Automotive Industries, Hawthorne, Pennsylvania
 C. IBM Manufacturing Plant, Hawthorne, Glasgow
 D. Apple Industries, Hawthorne, New York
 68.) In a workplace, rumors about a coworker’s infidelity is
being gossiped about by other employees. This informal
communication network is what is called a:
 A. Looking Glass Network

 B. Information Network
 C. Grapevine
 D. Gossip Area
 69.) An employee who consistently blames her being late
everyday to different causes is leaning more towards a/an
_______ locus of control.
 A. External
 B. Internal
 C. Hygiene
 D. Motivator
 70.) A type of rating error in which a rater consistently rates
all employees in the middle of the scale, regardless of their
actual levels of performance.
 A. Hindsight Bias
 B. Leniency Error
 C. Pygmalion Effect
 D. Central Tendency Bias
 71.) A company posted a job opening in the newspapers which
included an ideal age range of 20-23 years old. This type of
practice is discouraged because it may cause _______ among
possible applicants.
 A. Gender Discrimination
 B. Wage Gap
 C. Age Gap
 D. Age Discrimination
 72.) The branch of Human Resources concerned with
employees’ learning of necessary skills and additional
learning.
 A. Company Relations
 B. Training and Development
 C. Public Relations
 D. Recruitment
 73.) A group of people interview a certain applicant for the position
of HR Representative in San Miguel Corporation. Each one of them
would ask the applicant different questions regarding her
background in the field of human resource management and if she is
willing to invest more time into the company. This type of interview is
called a:
 A. Stress Interview
 B. Panel Interview
 C. Group Interview
 D. Online Interview
 74.) This is a graphical illustration of the structure and
members of a company.
 A. Company Drawing
 B. Structural Profile
 C. Company Description
 D. Organizational Chart
 75.) A certain company allows their employees to choose the
time they start working as opposed to a fixed everyday
schedule. However, the employees are still required to put in the
same amount of work hours as any other company. This
company has a _______ schedule.
 A. Inconsistent Type
 B. Flextime
 C. Contractual
 D. Freelance
 76.) A supervisor was observed to be very lenient towards his
employees, and easily gives in to the requests of his coworkers.
As a result, his team has one of the lowest productivity scores for
the year. This leader is what is called a:
 A. High Likability Floater

 B. Change Agent
 C. Paranoid/Passive-Aggressive Leader
 D. Narcissist
 77.) A test made by Fiedler as a way to determine leader
effectiveness given the situation.
 A. Contingency Model Scale

 B. Theory X Measurement Scale
 C. Least Preferred Coworker Scale
 D. Job Elements Inventory
 78.) Employees of an IT company do not have adequate
background on how to run an IT company and thus do not know
how to do their job well. According to the IMPACT theory, which
leadership style is most effective?
 A. Magnetic
 B. Position
 C. Coercive
 D. Informational
 79.) An employee, when sitting through a meeting, only
remembers the main points being talked about and not the
specifics. This employee can be said to have this kind of
listening style.
 A. Leisure Listening
 B. Stylistic Listening
 C. Inclusive Listening
 D. Technical Listening
 80.) As a response to communication overload, Laura orders the
information she needs to process from most important to least
important and then deals with them accordingly. This style of
dealing with communication overload is called:
 A. Escape
 B. Use of a Gatekeeper
 C. Use of multiple channels
 D. Queueing
 81.) A school principal is angry because he was not included in
the decision-making process to implement stricter admission
rules. According to the equity theory, this school principal is
seeking which type of equity or justice?
 A. Distributive Justice
 B. Procedural Justice
 C. Interactional Justice
 D. Wage Justice
 82.) A law office agrees to pay their lawyers a portion of the
profits obtained after they earn a certain amount. This amount is
added to the lawyers’ base salary which, in turn, increases their
monthly earnings. This incentive is called:
 A. Gainsharing
 B. Profit Sharing
 C. Stock Options
 D. Quota Wage
 83.) When a company decides to reinforce an employee by
letting him have short walks outside of company grounds when
delivering papers instead of staying all day inside his cubicle,
the company is taking advantage of the:
 A. Hawthorne Effect
 B. Premack Principle
 C. Financial Reward Principle
 D. Contingency Model
 84.) The best time to give rewards or punishments to
employees is:
 A. Directly after the employee performed well

 B. A day after the employee performed well
 C. On the next payday for practicality purposes
 D. Just before performance assessment
 85.) A friend of yours resigns from his job because he realized
that he wanted to do something “more meaningful.” The next
day, you see him applying for law school. This theory would
explain your friend’s behavior.
 A. ERG Theory
 B. Two-Factor Theory
 C. Job Characteristics Theory
 D. Job Expectations Theory
 86.) According to the ERG theory, these are the needs of
employees that are related to their need for survival and
sustenance.
 A. Existence
 B. Relatedness
 C. Growth
 D. Ecstasy
 87.) During performance assessment, it was found that
giving an employee feedback on their performance would:
 A. Motivate them
 B. Demotivate them
 C. Not affect their performance at all
 D. Lessen the frequency of good performance
 88.) The type of analysis that determines those
environmental factors that either facilitate or inhibit
training effectiveness.
 A. Organizational Analysis
 B. Task Analysis
 C. Person Analysis
 D. Needs Analysis
 89.) When a group, after having multiple disagreements,
start understanding each other’s strengths and weaknesses
and take on individual roles, they are in this stage in the
group process:
 A. Forming
 B. Storming
 C. Norming
 D. Performing
 90.) Probably the most biased form of performance
appraisal because this would make it hard for the appraiser
to be objective about his/her ratings.
 A. Peer Appraisal
 B. Supervisor Appraisal
 C. Self-Appraisal
 D. 360 Degree Appraisal
 91.) A supervisor who wants to use Skinner’s concepts in
the way he manages his employees could make extensive
use of ________ to increase the frequency of good behavior.
 A. Rewards
 B. Punishment
 C. Molding
 D. Self-Control
 92.) In making employment decisions, _________
information tend to have more weight than _________
information.
 A. Positive, Negative
 B. Negative, Positive
 C. Neutral, Positive
 D. Neutral, Negative
 93.) When employees receive pay bonuses based on
performance appraisal scores, this is called:
 A. Profit Sharing
 B. Stock Options
 C. Gainsharing
 D. Merit Pay
 94.) A system in which employees are given more
responsibility over the tasks and decisions related to their
job.
 A. Job Enlargement
 B. Job Enrichment
 C. Time and Motion Studies
 D. Job Development
 95.) When a company encourages practicing a task even
after it has been mastered in order to retain learning, this is
called:
 A. Overlearning
 B. Training
 C. Development
 D. Multiple Hurdle Approach
 96.) The extent to which an employee identifies with and is
involved with an organization.
 A. Job Enrichment
 B. Job Commitment
 C. Organizational Commitment
 D. Tenure
 97.) The overall image that a supervisor has of an
employee.
 A. Archetype
 B. Exemplar
 C. Prototype
 D. Cognitive Bias
 98.) A method of performance appraisal wherein a
supervisor ranks employees based on a normal
distribution curve.
 A. Graphic Rating Scale Method

 B. Rank-Order Method
 C. Forced Distribution Method
 D. Paired Comparison Method
 99.) Refers to the ability of a supervisor to have adequate
direct control over and supervision of employees under
him.
 A Span of Control
 B. Managerial Skill
 C. Homogeneity
 D. Unity of Command
 100.) A method of performance appraisal wherein each
employee is paired with every other employee and the
supervisor decides who of the two is superior.
 A. Rank-Order Method
 B. Paired Comparison Method
 C. Forced Distribution Method
 D. Graphic Rating Scale Method

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 1.

) A branch of psychology that deals with the

 Clinical Psychology – Applied branch of psychology that

 Abnormal Psychology - the branch of psychology that

 A. Abnormality as Norm Violation

1. Abnormality as Norm Violation

2. Abnormality as Statistical Rarity

3. Abnormality as Personal Discomfort

4. Abnormality as Deviation from an Ideal

Axis I – Mental Disorders (Developmental, Psychoses,

 A. DSM-IV-TR and DSM-V (Diagnostic and Statistical

 B. ICD-10 (International Classification of Diseases)

 Phenotype – Observable characteristics

 A. She has no mental disorder that can be diagnosed at present.

 A. A peculiar capacity to get under the skin of others

Cluster A: Odd or Eccentric Disorders (Paranoid, Schizoid,

Cluster B: Dramatic or Erratic Disorders (Antisocial, Borderline,

Cluster C: Anxious or Fearful Disorders (Avoidant, Dependent,

 A. Traumatic Epileptic Response

 A. Behavioral Inhibition System

1. Panic Disorder – have “panic attacks” and are fearful of

3. Generalized Anxiety Disorder – Persistent anxious mood

6. Separation Anxiety Disorder – Excessive, enduring fear in

1. Blood-Injury-Injection Phobia – Unreasonable fear and

2. Situational Phobia – Anxiety involving enclosed places

3. Natural Environment Phobia – Fear of situations or events

4. Animal Phobia – Unreasonable, enduring fear of animals

1. Dissociative Identity Disorder – Multiple personalities

2. Depersonalization – Feeling of being an outside observer of

3. Dissociative Fugue – Characterized by flight and memory loss

4. Dissociative Amnesia – Generalized memory loss

5. Dissociative Trance – Sudden changes in personality

1. Hypochondriasis – Severe anxiety over belief in having a

2. Somatization Disorder – Extreme long-lasting focus on

3. Pain Disorder – Features true pain, but wherein

4. Conversion Disorder – Real physical impairment (like

5. Factitious Disorder – Faking of physical or psychological

*Malingering – Deliberate faking of physical or

6. Body Dysmorphic Disorder – Excessive preoccupation

1. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder – excessive lack of

2. Sexual Aversion Disorder – Extreme aversion to sex

3. Male Erectile Disorder – Male inability to have an

4. Female Sexual Arousal Disorder – Female inability to

5. Female Orgasmic Disorder – Female inability to achieve

6. Male Orgasmic Disorder – Male inability to achieve

5. Premature Ejaculation – Ejaculating before desired time

6. Sexual Pain Disorders (Dyspareunia) – A recurring

1. Fetishism: Sexual attraction to nonliving objects

2. Voyeurism: Viewing an unsuspecting person undressing

3. Exhibitionism: Exposing one’s genitals to unsuspecting

4. Transvestite fetishism: Wearing opposite-sex clothing

5. Frotteurism: Rubbing genitals to unsuspecting strangers

6. Sexual sadism: Inflicting pain or humiliation

7. Sexual masochism: Experiencing pain or humiliation

8. Pedophilia: Strong sexual attraction to children

9. Incest: Sexual attraction to family member

 A. Multiple Personality Disorder

 A. Dependent Personality Disorder

 Delusions – False beliefs

1. Mania – a frantic “high”, high self-confidence, energy, and

1. Major Depressive Disorder – extremely severe depression

2. Dysthymia – Long-term mild depression

3. Double Depression – Alternating between Major Depression