50

Important
MCQ’s
Questions

BY: MONIKA MAHLAWAT

1. Right to Information Act, 2005 come into force (as a whole) on ?
A.15 June 2005
B.12 Oct 2005
C. 31 Dec 2005
D. 21 June 2005
2. Subject to the proviso to subsection (2) of Section 5 or the proviso to sub-section (3) of
Section 6. the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case
may be. on receipt of a request under Section 6 shall ?
A. As expeditiously as possible. and in any case within thirty‘ days of the receipt of the
request, either provide the information on payment of such fie as may he prescribed
or reject the request for any‘ of the reasons specified in Sections 8 and 9:
B. Shall not reject the request for any‘ of the reasons specified in Sections 8 and 9
C. As expeditiously as possible. and in any case within thirty‘ days of the receipt of the
request.
D. As expeditiously as possible
3. Under RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT 2005 where the information sought for concerns the life
or liberty of a person ?
A .Reject the request for any‘ of the reasons specified in Sections 8 and 9
B.As expeditiously as possible. and in any case within thirty‘ days of the receipt of request.
C. With in reasonable time.
D. the same shall be provided within forty-eight hours of the receipt of the request.
4. Information is defined under which section of Right to Information Act, 2005 ?
A. Section 2 (f)
B. Section 2 (a)
C. Section 2 (e)
D. Section 2 (c)
5. Under RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT 2005 where An information shall ordinarily be provided
in the form in which it is sought unless ?
A.All are right.
B. Preservation of the record in question.
C.Would be detrimental to the safety
D. It would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority
6. What is the maximum penalty for damage to computer, computer system, unauthorized access,
download of data, infecting with virus:
A. 50lakh B. 75 lakh C. 1crore D. 5crore
7. What section of IT act deals with cyber crime.
A. 66B B. 66C C.66F D.66A
8.Which act governs internet usage India.

9. Which section of IT deals with legal recognition of Electronic records ?

A. Sec 2 B. Sec 5 C. Sec 6 D. Sec 4
10.When supreme court invalidate Sec66A of IT Act, 2000 ?
A. 24/03/2015 B. 31/03/2015 C. 01/01/2015 D. 01/01/2015
11.What was the highlights of IT(Amendment) Act, 2008?
A. Increasing penalty for cyber crime
B. Increasing prison term for cyber crime
C. Electronic signature legal validity
D. Recognition to PKI
12. Which among the following is not included in negotiable instrument act,1881?
A. Demand draft
B. Cheque
C. Promissory notes
D. Mutual funds
13. Redressal mechanism for dispute settlement under section 9 of the consumer protection
act envisage a
A. Single-tier system
B.Two-tier system
C.Three-tier system
D. open system independent hierarchy
14 Statemet-1 :Agreement without consideration is always valid.
Staement-2 :All contracts are agreement but all contracts are not agreement.
15. Match the list:
A. Cyber crime 1. Intellectual property rights
B. Doctrine of Caveat Empower 2. Negotiable instrument act,1881
C. Dishonor of Bill 3. Sale of goods Act, 1932
D. Patent & copyright 4.The information & technology Act

16.Which are of these included in digital payment system ?

A. RTGS
B. Demand draft
C. NEFT
D. cheque
17. Quasi-contracts is a classification of a contract in terms of .
A. mode of formation
B. validity
C. mode of performance
D. Enforceability
18. Sections 68 to 72 of the Contract Act describe the cases which are to be deemed as .
A. Bailment Contract
B. Pledge’ Contract
C. Contract of Guarantee
D. Quasi contract
19. Is the right of a person to retain possession of some goods belonging to another until some debt
of or claim of the person in possession is satisfied.
A. Lien
B. Pledge
C.A Guarantee
D. Indemnity
20. The doctrine of Indoor management is an ______to the doctrine of constructive is notice
A. Exception
B. Extension
C. Alternative
D. None of these
21. Under which sec. a private company can automatically converted into public company_____.
A. Sec-34
B. Sec- 43
C. Sec- 51
D. Sec- 35
22.___ are required to file prior to making second and subsequent issue of securities in case of
shelf prospectus are filled:
A. Information memorandum B. Information article C. Form 13 D. None of these
23.Which term describes a prospectus which does not include complete particulars of the
quantum or price of the securities included therein?
A. Public prospectus
B. Shelf prospectus
C. Red herring prospectus
D. None of these
24.Which of the following is not related party.
A. Director
B. Key managerial person
C.A Firm, in which a director, manager or his relative is a partner
D none of these
25. In case of non-profit making companies books of account are required to be preserved for-
A. 2yr B. 7yr C. 4yr D. 8yr