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Lecture 60
Obstetrics and Gynecology
A) Kallman syndrome.
B) Sheehan syndrome.
C) Asherman syndrome.
D) Pregnancy.
E) Premature ovarian failure.
Which of the following defined as primary amenorrhea?
A) Kallman syndrome.
B) Sheehan syndrome.
C) Asherman syndrome.
D) Pregnancy.
E) Premature ovarian failure.
Kallmann’s syndrome
Results in the
failure or non-
completion of
puberty and
characterized by
hypogonadism and
by anosmia or
hyposmia
Presence of 2° sexual
characteristics
Müllerian agenesis:
Absence of two-thirds of
the vagina; uterine
abnormalities
Imperforate hymen:
Presents with
hematocolpos that
cannot escape, along with
a bulging hymen.
Presence of 2° sexual
characteristics
Complete androgen
insensitivity (XY): Patients
present with breast development
(aromatization of testosterone
to estrogen) but are
amenorrheic and lack pubic
hair.
Complete
androgen
insensitivit
y syndrome
Prevents the
masculinization
of male genitalia
as well as the
development of
male secondary
sexual
characteristics
but does not
significantly
impair female
Primary Amenorrhea
Diagnosis
First step: Get a pregnancy test.
Next step: Obtain a radiograph to
determine if bone age is consistent with
pubertal onset (> 12 years in girls).
If the patient is of short stature (bone
age < 12 years) with normal growth
velocity, constitutional growth delay
(the most common cause of 1°
amenorrhea) is the probable cause.
12 years old female arrives with her upset mother to
clinic that describe that her daughter has not
Mensterued yet. According to mother all the female
sisters menstured by her age and therefore this delay
is concerning. On detailed history the child seems
healthy and asymptomatic. On physical examination
the child has appropriate growth, primary pubic hair,
and early evidence of breast bud. What should be told
to concerned mother?
Caused by uterine
vasoconstriction, anoxia, and
sustained contractions mediated by
an excess of prostaglandin
(PGF2α).
Primary Dysmenorrhea Presentation
A diagnosis of exclusion.
Rule out 2° dysmenorrhea.
a. Endometrial polyp
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Fibroid uterus
A 41 year old gravida 3 woman presents with
heavy prolonged menstrual bleeding. Up
until 8 months ago she had regular monthly
menses which lasted 4-5 days .her physical
examination and pap smear are normal.
On pelvic ultrasound, the endometrium is 14
mm and there is a 2cmx1.2cm lesion in the
uterine cavity . her B-hcG, TSH, and
endometrial biopsy are normal. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Endometrial polyp
b. Endometrial hyperplasia
c. Fibroid uterus
Infertility
Infertility
Defined as inability to conceive
after 12 months of normal, regular,
unprotected sexual activity.
“Premature menopause”
is defined as ovarian
failure and menstrual
cessation before age 40.
Main Menopause Signs
HAVOC
Hot flashes (vasomotor
instability)
Atrophy of the Vagina
Osteoporosis
Coronary artery disease
Other Menopause Signs
Insomnia
Anxiety/irritability
Vaginal bleeding
Poor concentration
Mood changes
Dyspareunia
Loss of libido.
Menopause Diagnosis
Labs first show ↑ FSH and then
show ↑ LH.
Atrophic
Vaginitis
Osteoporosis Treatment
Treat with daily calcium
supplementation and exercise.
Possibly bisphosphonates.
Head aches
Menopause Hair becomes
and hot Symptoms thinner
flashes
Teeth loosen Breasts drop
and gums and flatten
recede
Risk of Abdomen
cardiovascular looses muscle
disease tone
Skin and
Back aches mucous
membranes
Body and become drier
pubic hair Stress or urge
becomes incontinence
thicker and
Bones loose
darker Vaginal
mass and dryness,
become more itching and
fragile shrinking