IMMUNITY

Past Years Question s

First 2012 Exam

Grizli777

Price

Part #1
Questions and answers: 1- Calcenurin is involved in the activation of T cells 2- Calcenurin is inhibited by Cyclosporin 3- Rheumatoid factors are directed against Allotypic antibodies

Be sure to know the following. We had good questions about these topics but I dont remember the m: 1- differences between primary and secondary immune responses. 2- The concept of bystander activation 3- markers of different cell types especially newly discovered cells like NK-T cells.

1) Which of the following lymphocyteshas the highest concentrationin blood: a- CD4+ CD8b- CD4- CD8+ c- CD4+ CD8+ d- CD4- CD82) Which of the following vaccines is administeredorally: a-pollo-salk b- polio sabin c- smallpox d- hepatitis B e- a+b 3) Which of the following is not a part of the Ig gene superfamily a- Ig heavy chain b- T cell receptor a chain c- B cell receptor (signal transduction) d- B + C e- None of the above 4) Which of the following Igs has the lowest serum concentration: a- A b- G c- M d-D e- E

5) Which of the following Igs can cross the placenta: a- A b-G c-M d-B+C e- all of the above

6) Hyper IgM syndrome is due to a defect in: a- CD40L b- CD40 c- B cell receptor d- T cell receptor e- M chain 7) Which of the following is required in T cell maturatuin a- IL 1 b- IL 4 c- IL 5 d- IL 7 e- IL 9

8) Hereditary angloedemais due to deficiency of : a- C4 binding protein b- C1 inhibitor d- C4 e- None of the above Answers : 1-a 2-e 8-b 3-e 4-e 5-b 6-a 7-d c-C1

10) All of the following play a role in promoting the process of apoptosis except: bcl2 activation 11) A memory B cell has all of the following markers on its surface except: IgM (it has only the switched one IgG) 12) All the following cells has an antigen receptor on their surface except: Plasma cell (its function is only producing antibodies) 13) In screening for effective bone marrow transplantationwith hematopoietic stem cell w hich of the following markers should be targeted as the cells can be identified by the FACS machine: CD34 14) Which of the following is the crucial step in the ADCC mechanism of cell killing? the presence of FC gamma receptor on the killer cell. 15) Which of the following immune mechanismsutilizes mannan binding lectin in their killi ng process? Complement system 16) In western Immunoblotting techniquehorseradishperoxidase(HRP) enzyme is bound to which of the following secondary antibody 17) Which of the following cells fail to home to secondary lymphoid organs because they la ck homing adhesion molecules ?

The memory cells ( they go to blood and tissue when ----- cells go to secondary lymphoid organs)

18) What is the best immune cenario of two different epitopes A and B, entering the body f or the first time?

 Predetermined A specificity and predetermined B specificity alone (clonal selection theory, there is no receptor on B cell which has 2 specificities at the same time for the two epitopes) 1) Which of the followingevasive mechanismis used by herpes viruses in order not to be det ected by the immune system Interfere with the synthesis of class I MHC Ag inside the cell. 2) If an HLA- B1 cell is transplantedin an HLA-B5 fetus during the embryogenesisperiod, w hich of the following scenarios is going to happen During embryogenesis period there is a development of T-cell, So any cell is going to be recogni zed as foreign, and when we transplant B1 cell at embryo at the time of embryogenesis or development t hen it will be recognized as self, so the anti-B1cells in the thymus will be deleted and B1 will be accepted. 3) All of the following are considered as phagocytic cells except the natural killer cells

4) Which of the following Immunoglobulinsfaile to agglutinate specific antigenic determina nt on the surface of cell IgM treated with a papaine enzyme 5) In the synthesis of monoclonalantibodies the hybredoma consist of Specific B cells fused with non specific myeloma cells 6) Which of the following Immunoglobulinshas a receptor on the surface of NK cells IgG 7) In the primary immune responsethe gene rearrangement the heavy chain starts with th of e binding of D to J 8) Somatic Hyper mutation involves the production of a receptor of high affinity this involv es: the v region of the heavy and light chains and the region of the alpha and beta chain. 9) Super antigens: Bind to B chain of the T cell receptor and to class II MHC 27) A new born baby has class I MHC haptotype as : A1A3 B5B10 C1C9, born to a mother who has a haptotype of A2A3 r of this baby? B7B10 C4C9, which of the following haptotypes could be the fathe

A5A1, B5B8, C1C5 ( the baby inherit one from the father and one from the mother, it is a codom inant

type of inheritance {i.e. the baby has A1A3 then A3 from the mother and A1 from the father} 28) Restriction in Ag presentationinvolves: T cell receptor recognises non-self Ag in association with self MHC. 29) Polymorphismamong the MHC allelic forms involves the structural area of : The a1,a2 domains in class I (the area of Ag presentation) 30) During the secondary immune response class switching involves the formation of any o f these immunoglobulinsexcept: IgM, IgD

31) I TAMS (immune receptor Tyrosin- based activation motif) are present in all of the follo wing chains except T-cell receptor (the B-chain of T-cell receptor) 32) CD19 : - Is present on naieve B cell - Could not be recognized in any T-cell subset - Can be targeted as B-cell marker for the FACS machine all of the above

19) All of the following proteins are part of the (ptk) enzyme system involved in the signali ng of T-cell through I TAMS phosphorylationexcept: bcl2 20) The cytoplasmic protein needed for the formation of a complex with cyclosporine a in o rder for the drug to work by finally inhibiting the formation of IL2 in T-helper cell is: The immunophilines (it bind to cyclosporine a to inhibit calcenurin from working)

21) Which of the following lymphokine receptor is defective in patient with severe combine d immunodeficiencysyndrome: IL7, IL2, IL4 22) A memory cell has all the following markers on its surface except: IgM 23) Oral tolerance is mainly mediated by being exposed to large oral dose of an antigen, w hich of the following lymphocytesis involved in this process: Naieve T-vell from gamma,delta type 24) Which of the following is or are involved in receptor editing in order not to bind self Ag and form an autoimmunedisease? the variable light genes in T-cell receptor 25) In negative selection of T-cells in thymus gland occurs during cell developmentof whic h of the following stages the double positive stage 26) All of the following play a role in apoptosis except: Bcl2 activation (repeated question)

MATCHING :

-Severe combined immuneodificiency disease RAG1 and RAG2 - Hyper IgM syndrome CD154 - Digeorge syndrome Tetany

- Multiple sclerosis increased TH1 Activity - Toxic shock syndrome Super antigen - CD80 CD28 - CD40 CD154 - ICAM LFA1 - LCK CD4 TRUE AND FALSE ity compared to an antibody that is not cross reactive. False (cuz sensitivity will not be affected by cross reaction, but the specificity will be lower, because we are talking about false positive) 2) Diversity in the light chain (lambda) is 4 times more than that lf (kappa) chain because we have 4 different types of lambda False (the constant region has nothing to do with diversity) 3) Altered peptide ligand vaccine,althoughit sometimescould lead to receptoractivationbut it provides suppression of T-helper cells instead of proliferationand differentiation TRUE 4) If the thymus gland is removedimmediatelyafter birth, Then the baby's responseto viral inf ection will be impaired. False (nothing will occur after removing the thymus gland unless we ------- the baby) 5) If TH2 is diffected then Isotype switching IgE will be affected. True ( because TH2 provide B cell with IL2,I4,I5 responsible for isotype switching) 6) Allelic exclusion phenomena implies the expression of one allotype on immunoglobulinand T cell Bchain only.

1) If an antibody is cross reactive with an antigen, it implies that it does have a lower sensitiv

Part #2
1. An example of innate immunity is: a. Antibody production by plasma cells. b. Antigen removal by cilia in the respiratory tract. c. Complement activation by antibody bound to the surface of a bacteriu m. d. Memory response to influenza virus. e. Recognition and killing of virus infected cells by cytotoxic T cells. Answer:b 2. Humoral immunity can be acquired passively by: a. Catching a virus from a friend by shaking hands. b. Receiving a vaccine of influenza virus grown in eggs. c. Receiving serum from someone who recovered from an infection. d. Receiving leukocytes from an immune family member. e. Sharing a soda with someone who has a cold. Answer:c 3. The antibiotic penicillin is small molecules that dose not induce antibod y formation. However, penicillin binds to serum proteins and forms a complex that in some people induces antibod y formation, resulting in an allergic reaction. Penicillin is therefore: a. An antigen. b. A hapten. c. An immunogen. d. Both a and b e. Both a and c answer:d 4. For specific antigen recognition by T cells: a. Antigen is bound a Tcell membrane antibody. b. Denaturation of antigen dose not reduces epitope recognition. c. Developing T cells must be exposed to the antigen. d. MHC molecules are not required. e. Soluble antigen is bound directly without processing

answer:a 5. Effector functions of complement include all of the following except: a. Attracting phagocytes to the site of infection. b. Facilitating phagocytosis of complementcoated bacteria. c. Increasing blood vessels permeability to plasma proteins. d. Lysing bacterial cells. e. Presenting antigen to B cells. Answer:e 6. Antigen epitopes recognized by ______________ tend to be ____________. a. B cells; highly accessible sites on the exposed surface of antigen. b. Cytotoxic T cells; highly accessible sites on the exposed surface of the antigen. c. Complement; highly accessible sites on the surface of APC. d. Helper T cells; associated with MHC class I on infected cells. e. Macrophages; associated with MHC class II on APCs.

7. Which statement about antigen epitopes is false? a. An epitope may be shared by two different antigens. b. A protein molecule usually contains multiple epitopes. c. B cells bind only processed antigen epitopes. d. Epitopes may be linear or assembled. e. Some epitopes are more immunogenic that others answer:c 8. Phagocytosis: a. Can be stimulated by antigen binding to complement or antibody. b. Is an antigenspecific process. c. Must be preceded by antigen processing. d. Rids the body of virusinfected cells. e. Only occurs after plasma cells begin secreting antibody answer:a

9. Jenner observed that milkmaids who were infected with cowpox were later immune to smallpox infections. This an example of a(n): a. Acquired immunity of barriers skin cells. b. Active immunization with a nonreleated organism that causes similar symptoms. c. Innate immunity of milkmaids to smallpox. d. Memory response to a crossreactive antigen. e. Passive immunization from contact with cows milk antibodies. Answer:d 10. ELISA: a. Detect agglutination of cells by antibodies specific for cell surface antigen. b. Uses isotopelabeled antibodies to detect extremely small amounts of antigen. c. Is used to isolate cell populations or proteins (including antibodies). d. Uses enzymelinked anti IgG to detect serum antibody to specific antigen. e. None of the above. Answer:d 11. All specific lymphocytes have surface molecules that serve as specific receptors for the antigen for which that lymphocyte is specific. In the case of the B-lymphocyte, this surface receptor has a molecular configuration that is virtually identical to which one of the following? a. A cytokine. b. An MHC molecule. c. The antigen for which that Blymphocyte is specific (known as complementary configuration). d. An antibody molecule. Answer:d 12. B cell maturation occurs in: a. The thymus. b. The bone marrow. c. The lymph nodes.

d. The spleen. e. The peyers patches. Answer:b

13. Antibody crossreactivity is demonstrated by antibody binding to: a. Cell surface marker. b. A hapten. c. A haptencarrier complex. d. An antigen that is structurally similar to the immunogen. e. The immunogen. Answer:d 14. Which of the following is an example of passive acquired immunity? a. Antibodies secreted in breast milk. b. Antisnake bite serum. c. A tetanus shot. d. Antibodies genertated by catching a cold. e. Antibodies transferred through the placenta. Answer: b 15. A component that facilitates phagocytosis when bound to a microorganism: a. Antigen. b. KDO c. Capsule d. Opsonins e. bactoprenol answer: d 16. immunoglobulin classes may not be distinguished by the type of: a. Light chain they possess. b. Carbohydrate on their light chain. c. Constant regions in their light chain. d. Heavy chains they posses. e. None of the above.

Answer: a 17. The constant regions in heavy chains determine: a. Fc receptor binding. b. Conformation of the binding site to the epitope. c. Affinity of the complement receptors. d. Interaction of the Fab with cytokines. e. None of the above. Answer: a

18. Serum from an AB positive, Rh negative patient agglutinates red bloo d cells from a patient who is Rh negative. What is likely blood type is the second patient? a. It cant be determined from the information provided. b. Type A c. Type B d. Type O e. Type AB answer: a

19. In the early stage of a primary immune response, dendritic cells prese nt antigen to helper T cells. In this process, to which protein are antigen fragments bound? a. Membrane IgM & IgD. b. IgG bound to plasma membrane FcR receptor. c. IgE bound to plasma membrane FcR receptor. d. Class I MHC e. Class II MHC answer: e 20. Breastfed infants have fewer intestinal infections than do infants fed on cows milk, because of

protection provided by antibodies in breast milk. Of what isotype are the majority of these protective antibodies? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgM d. IgD e. IgE answer: a 21. doesn't fix complement a) IgG2 b) IgG3 c) IgG4 d) IgG1 answer:c 22. elimination of bacteria by opsonization a) neutralization of bacterial toxin b) recognition of bacteria bound antibodies by Fc receptor on macrophage c) prevention of bacteria adhesion to endothelial cell d) binding antibodies Fc on bacteria e) class 1 MHC antigen answer : b 23.MHC I and MHC II a) Constituvely expressed by most cells in the b) expressed by Macrophage and dentritic cell c) Constituvely associated hapten d) Expressed INF gamma 28) Injecting Complement C killing antigen-Ab in patient lacks C3 Answer: b 24. Which one has J chain? a) IgD, IgA2 b) IgG2, IgE c) IgE, IgM d) IgG3, IgA1 e) IgA1, IgM

answer: e 25. Not found on mature resting T cell a) CD5 b) MHC II c) MHC I d) CD2 e) CD3 answer: b 26. Recognition receptor functions as secreted receptor a) Mannan binding lectin b) CD 14 c) Toll like receptor answer: a 27. Ab destruction by pepsin yields a) (F(ab'))2 fragments 28. Which is wrong concerning epitopes? a) Epitope is always immunogenic 29. Allelic exclusion EXCEPT a) On one B lymphocyte you may find both a and b heavy chains 30. Immunogenic means a) Stimulates the immune system 31. In a non-emergency situation, a patient of blood type A requires transfusion of plasma. Person of which ABO types would be regarded as compatible donors? A. Either A or O. B. Either B or O. C. Either B or AB. D. Either A or AB. E. Either AB or O. Answer:a

32. In an immune response immunoglobulin genes undergo somatic mutation. What is the goal of this somatic mutation? A. Increase in antibody affinity. B. Antibody class switching (for example, from IgM to IgG). C. Allow a single b cell to produce antibody of several isotypes. D. Change in type of light chain produced (from kappa to lambda or the reverse). E. Production of anti-class IIMHC antibodies. Answer: a 33. The blood bank lab report indicates that a patient is Rh-positive. Whic h interpretation of these statements is most accurate? A. The patients plasma contains IgG antibodies to the Rh0 (D) antigen. B. The patients plasma contains IgM antibodies to the Rh0 (D) antigen. C. The patients erythrocytes carry the Rh0 (D) antigen. D. The patients erythrocytes lack the Rh0 (D) antigen Answer: c 34. In the laboratory a serological reagent, prepared from serum of a single donor, was found to bind a multivalent antigen with high affinity, cross-link antigen to form precipitate, and, when bound to antigen, activate complement. Which phrase would best describe the structure of this reagent? a. Fab fragment of IgG. b. Fc fragment of IgG. c. (Fab) 2 fragment of IgG. d. Intact IgG. Answer: d 35. What process was most responsible for the increase in antibody affinity and avidity? a. Random splicing of V/D/J segments of heavy-chain genes and v/j segments of light chain. b. Excision of constant-region exons from DNA, so that assembled heavychain variable-region exons becomes adjacent to constant-region exons of different DNA sequence.

c. Random addition of nucleotides at V/D and D/J splice junctions of heavychain genes and V/J splice junction of light-chain genes. d. Mutations of variable domain exons of heavy and light chains, followed by selection for the ability to bind epitopes. Answer: d 36. J-chains are not associated with: a. IgG. b. Polymeric immunoglobulins (more than two Fabs). c. Secretory IgA. d. IgM. e. None of the above. Answer: a 37. Actively acquired immunity is not the result of: a. Transfer of bone marrow from one individual to another. b. Immunization with a vaccine. c. Exposure to an individual who has an infectious disease. d. A physician administering a gamma globulin shot to someone who has had a needle stick (immunoglobulins). e. A & D answer:d 38. IgD antibody functions as: a. Antigen receptors on immature t cell. b. An ADCC receptors of NK cells. c. A hormone receptor on NK cells. d. A trigger of the complement cascade. e. None of the above. Answer: e 39. Antibody affinity is primarily determined by the amino acid sequence in: a. The constant regions of the immunoglobulin molecule. b. The variable regions of the immunoglobulin molecule. c. The Fc of the immunoglobulin molecule.

d. The j-chain. e. None of the above. Answer:b 40. The antigen presenting cell: a. May be a dendritic cell in the skin. b. Is not a T cell. c. Produces cytokines which influence the adaptive response. d. Processes antigen prior to presentation to the T cell. e. All of the above. Answer: e 41. NK cells recognize tumor cells using: a. Pattern recognition receptors. b. Antibody-like receptors. c. Complement receptors. d. A homing mechanism. e. None of the above. Answer:a 42. After isotype switching, IgM and IgG can be produced in which variable domains of heavy and light chains, and constant domains of light chains, are identical, but constant domains of heavy chains differ. Which statement below about such pairs of antibodies is most likely to be true? a. IgM will have lower affinity than IgG. b. IgM will have higher affinity than IgG. c. IgM will be capable of activating complement, but IgG will not. d. IgM molecules will be smaller than IgG molecules. e. IgM and IgG will molecules will bind different epitopes. Answer:c 43. Many isolates of the bacterium Neisseria meningitides can produce mucosal infections but cannot survive in the bloodstream. Cells of such bacteria are killed by contact with cell-free plasma or serum, even from persons who have never previously been exposed to Neisseria. Which mechanism is most likely to be responsible for the

killing? a. Activation of complement by the alternate pathway. b. Activation of complement by the classical pathway. c. Binding of IgG. d. Binding of IgM. e. Binding of IgA. Answer:a 44. Once H chain genes have been productively rearranged and expressed on the pre-B cell membrane, the next event to occur in the cell is: a. Death of cells binding self antigen. b. Expression of membrane IgD. c. Expression of membrane IgM. d. Proliferation of the pre-b cells. e. Somatic recombination of light chain genes. Answer: e 45. Pepsin digestion of an IgG antibody against tetanus toxoid will: a. Result in loss of the ability to form a lattice with the toxoid. b. Produce two Fab molecules & one Fc fragment c. Produce a (Fab)2 molecule & loss of the ability of the Fc fragment to bind to macrophages. d. Loss of the L chain e. Loss of the C1 heavy chain constant domain answer: c 46. The most important Ig protecting a 1-month-old baby is: a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE e. IgD answer: b 47. An advantage of adaptive recognition over innate recognition is that it: a. Faster b. Cannot result in the recognition of the body's own tissues

c. Triggers an inflammatory response d. Targets specific strains of potential pathogens e. Requires less energy to produce the defensive response answer: d 48. During heavy chain splicing, N-nucleotides addition occurs in: a. The junction between the J region & the constant region. b. The junction between V & D & between D & J region. c. the nucleotides between the exons coding for the membrane-spanning region of the constant chain and the rest of the chain: d. A & B above e. A, B & C 49. Early induced immune responses are like adaptive immunity in that they: a. Are antigen specific. b. Demonstrate immune memory. c. Involve macrophages & complement. d. Involve T & B lymphocytes. e. Use presynthesized proteins that can be released quickly upon cell activation. Answer:e 50. Severe combined immunodficiency disease is most likely to exhibit the characteristic (s): a. A genetic defect in the NADPH oxidase system b. A loss in the enzyme adenosine deaminase c. A triad of thrombocytopenia, eczema, & recurrent infections. d. An absence of T cells, hypocalcemia, & tetany. e. Requires the chemokines CCR-5 fro the disease to progress. f. A defect in the transition from pre-B cells to B cels. g. A selective loss in IgA levels. 51. Which of the following statements about a secondary (memory) antibody response is FALSE? a. The secondary response comes from memory B cells. b. The secondary response is faster. c. The secondary response is primary IgM

d. The secondary response produces more immunoglobulins than the primary response. Answer:c 52. A 20-year-old college student working part-time in a pediatric AIDS clinic develops a viral exanthem with a rash. Her blood is drawn & tested for specific antibodies to varicella-zoster (chickenpox). Anti-varicella immunoglobulin belonging to which of the following antibody classes would indicate that she is immune to chickenpox? a. IgA b. IgD c. IgE d. IgG e. IgM answer:d 53. An IgG2 molecule is composed of which of the following? a. One alpha, one gamma2, & two kappa chains b. One gamma1 chain & two kappa chains c. Two gamma1 chains & one kappa & one lambda chain d. Two gamma 1 chains & two kappa chains e. Two gamma 2 chains & two kappa chains answer:e 54. The small amounts of immune complexes which form in healthy individuals are normally removed in a process involving Fc receptors expressed by: a. Macrophages. b. PMNs c. B cells d. RBCs e. Mast cells 55. The antigen-specific receptors of B lymphocytes contain only a single: a. Polypeptide chain b. Hypervariable region

suggests a malignancy involving: a. Bone marrow derived lymphocyte s (myeloma) c. Site for antigen binding d. Constant domain e. None of the above answer: e 56. Which of the following is true? a. Antibodies are composed of 4 id entical polypeptide chains. 58. Superantigens are: b. Hypervariable regions are primar a. Bacterial polysaccharides. ily found on the Fc portion of the b. Able to activate all T cells. antibody protein. c. Antigens that do not require proce c. T cell receptor & membrane bou ssing & presentation for T cell nd immunoglobulins have identical structures. d. The antigen binding site is found on without T cell help on the Fab region of the e. All of the above. immunoglobulin molecule. e. The Fc portion of the T cell rece ptor confers antigen specificity. Answer:d Answer:c activation. d. Able to induce B cell differentiati b. Placental trophoblast cells (chorio carcinoma) c. Thymus derived lymphocytes (leu kemia) d. Stromal cells of the lung (mesoth elioma) e. Liver hepatocytes (hepatoma) answer: a

57. The detection of high & sustain ed levels of a monoclonal antibody in the serum of a patient most often

**it include chapters 8 & 9** 1)The MHC-encoded antigen receptors function by: a-Binding antibody to the antigen depot. b-Binding complement c-Ensuring that antigen presenting cells interact with T cells d-A and c e-None of the above ans: c

2)In the early stage of primary immune response , dendritic cells present antigen to helper T cells . in this process , to which protein are antigen fragments bound: a-Membrane IgM & IgD. b-IgG bound to plasma membrane FcRy receptor c-IgE bound to plasma membrane FcRe receptor d-Class 1 MHC e-Class 2 MHC ans:e 3)HLA molecules : a-Discriminate between self &non-self b-Present processed antigen to T cells of the same HLA types.

c-Are highly polymorphic d-Control susceptibility to certain immunologic disorders . e-Are characterized by each of the above. Ans: e 4)Class 2 HLA molecules : a-present peptidic epitopes to CD4+ T helper cells. b-present peptidic epitopes to CD8+ T helper cells. c-Are encoded by the gene regions DP, DQ , DR d-Appear on the membranes of most nuclested cells e-Are characterized by each of the above . ans: c 5)the rejection of allograft can be slowed or prevented by: a-careful matching of the MHC-class1 histocompatibility antigens using antibodies too the cell surface molecules. b-By grafting a privileged site c-By treating the recipient with immunosuppressive drugs d-By passive immunization of the recipient with antibodies against the MHC class 2 antigens of the donor e-All or none of the above f-A+b but not c+d ans: e 6)MHC 1 and MHC 2 : a-Constituvely expressed by most cells in the body b-Expressed by macrophage and dendritic cells c-Constitutively associated hapten d-Expressed- INF gamma

e-Injecting complement C killing antigen Ab in patient lacks C3 ans: b 7)Not found in mature resting T cell : a-CD5 b-MHC 2 c-MHC1 d-CD2 e-CD3 ans: b 8)HLA-B35 and HLA-A2 REFER TO: a-2 alleles found in 1 locus b-2 alleles found in 2 loci on chromosome 6 ans: b 9)Autoimmune disease a-Shows HLA association b-Run a steady clinical course c-Affect both sexes equally d-Are triggered by different antigen in different individuals ans: a

questions of the rest of the lectures:

1) function similar to stem cell factor (SCF) a) Il-1 b) Il-7 c) Il-4 d) Il-2 e) Il-5 ans:b/ch12

2) CD 4 molecules a) .Tyrosine kinase b) Cannot be expressed on surface of cytotoxic T cell c) Include cytoplasmic domain that has tyrosine kinase activity d) Can interact with MHC I on the B cell if CD 4 molecules is expressed on surface of cytotoxic T cell ans:b/ch12 3) Signal transduction of B cell involves all except a) Zeta b) Ig alpha

c) Ig beta d) Syk e) Tyrosine kinase as answered:a

4) CD 19 marker is found on all of these except a) Hematopietic stem cell b) Mature B cell c) Pro B cell d) Pre B cell e) Immature B cell ans:a/ch12

4) Hematopoietic stem cells are pluripotent, which mean that they: a. Are antigenspecific cells. b. Are capable of developing into any blood cells. c. Are committed to produce cells of single lineage. d. Are notself renewing. e. Will develop into T and B lymphocytes of many different antigen specificities. Ans:b/ch12

5) Primary lymphoid organs: a. Are efficient in exposing T cells to foreign antigen presented on dendritic cells. b. Are the primary site of antibody synthesis and release. c. Filter blood and trap blood borne antigens. d. Provide the microenvironment for maturation of T & B cells. e. Line the mucosal surfaces of the body for efficient antigen contact. Ans:bch13

6) Lymphocytes are activated by antigen in the: a. Blood stream. b. Bone marrow. c. Liver. d. Lymph nodes. e. Skin. Ans:d/ch13

7)B cell maturation occurs in: a. The thymus. b. The bone marrow.

c. The lymph nodes. d. The spleen. e. The peyers patches. Ans:b/ch13

8) A patient is diagnosed with Brutons Agammaglobulinemia. Which aspect of the immunesystem histology would be you except to be normal? a. Concentration of surfaceIg positive lymphocytes in peripheral blood. b. Primary factor in lymph nodes. c. Germinal centers in lymph nodes. d. Number of plasma cells in bone marrow. e. Cellularity of paracortical areas of lymph nodes. Ans:e/ch11

9)IgE binding to mast cells is mediated by: a. Fc-dependent cellular homing mechanisms. b. Sensitization of mast cells and basophils. c. Fc receptors specific for IgE. d. ICAMs. e. None of the above.

Ans:c/ch12

10)CD34 is a marker for: a. Th1 cells b. Th2 cells c. Gamma-delta T cell receptor d. B cells e. Stem cells Ans: e/ch12

11)Src kinase activity is activated by: a. Recruitment to a receptor b. Phosphorylation of a tyrosin group in the active site c. Phosphorylation of ITAM group d. Phosphorylation by Csk to cause a protein folding event e. De-phosphorylation of a regulatory tyrosine phosphate in the active site ans:a/ch11

12)Lymphocyte recirculation is involved in: a. Bringing together antigen & rare antigen-specific lymphocytes. b. Homing of effector Tc to a virus infection site. c. Homing of nave T cells to T-cell areas in the lymph nodes. d. Movement of mature T & B cells from the primary to secondary lymphoid organs. e. All of the above. Ans:e/ch13

13)Btk gene defect result in: a. X-linked agammaglobulinemia & is characterized by B cell maturation arrest at the pre B cell stage b. Failure of T cell maturation. c. Non-expression of this defect in carrier females due to the inactivation of the defective X chromosome. d. Inactive signal transduction inducing T cell development. e. All of the above. Ans:a/ch11

14)Which of the following statements about CR2 (CD21) is/are correct?

a. It promotes dissociation of C3 convertase. b. It is expressed on the surface of follicular Dendritic cells. c. It acts as a cofactor for Factor I d. It is expressed on the surface of mature B cells e. It contributes to phagocytosis of opsonized particles by macrophages & neutrophils ans:d/ch11

15) All induces memory except a) IL-2 b) CD28 and B7 c) .on class II MHC to B cell d) CD40 / CD40L e) Crosslinking of B cell with polymeric antigen ans:e/ch14

16) CD 19 marker is found on all of these except a) Hematopietic stem cell b) Mature B cell c) Pro B cell d) Pre B cell

ans:a/ch14

17) During B-cell development the rearrangement in Ig loci a) DH to JH, DJ to VH, VL to JL

18) Activation of mature B cell requires two signals a) An antigen and T cell help b) TCR occupancy and T cell help c) Antigen and cytokines d) TCR occupancy and cytokines Ans:c/ch14

19) Causes tolerance rather the immunity a) Insoluble antigen b) Heterologous antigen c) Particulate antigen d) Antigen injected subcutaneously e) Injecting antigen to fetus in development Ans:e/ch14

20) ProB cells are characterized by:

a. Expression of surrogate immunoglobulin light chain. b. Expression of TCRs. c. Expression of ckit. d. Expression of IgM. e. None of the above. Ans:a

21) Select the false statement regarding the Pre Bcell receptor: a. It is composed by Ig heavy chain, surrogate light chain, and Ig/Ig b. It is expressed on the PreB cells. c. Enables the PreB cell to proceed to maturation. d. Its surrogate chain replaces the immunoglobulin light chain. e. It remains expressed at low levels in mature B cells. Ans:e

22) B cells usually require T cell help to mature plasma cells because: a. T cells present antigen to them. b. Most b cells in the circulation need thymic hormones secreted by the antigen presenting cell to mature to

plasma cell. c. T cells produce cytokines that enhance their responsiveness to antigen. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. Ans:c/ch14

23) Once H chain genes have been productively rearranged and expressed on the pre-B cell membrane, the next event to occur in the cell is: a. Death of cells binding self antigen. b. Expression of membrane IgD. c. Expression of membrane IgM. d. Proliferation of the pre-b cells. e. Somatic recombination of light chain genes. Ans:e

24) The developmental step that commits a cell to the B lineage is: a. Expression of both membrane IgM and IgD. b. Expression of membrane chain. c. Expression of membrane recombinase enzyme.

d. Joining of a VH gene segment to a DH gene segment. e. Joining of a DH gene segment to a JH gene segment. Ans:e

25) B cell differentiation begins with the expression of: a. Membrane chain + surrogate L chain. b. Membrane IgD. c. Membrane IgM. d. germ line IgM. e. RAG-1, RAG-2 and TdT. Ans:a

26) Lymphocyte recirculation is involved in: a. Bringing together antigen & rare antigen-specific lymphocytes. b. Homing of effector Tc to a virus infection sit. c. Homing of nave T cells to T-cell areas in the lymph nodes. d. Movement of mature T & B cells from the primary to secondary lymphoid organs. e. All of the above. Ans:e

development is correct? a. Heavy chain VH-DH-JH rearrangement b 27) Which of the follo wing statements about B cell maturation (generation) is TRUE? A. It requires antigen. B. Pro-B cells have IgG & IgM on their surfac e. C. It requires stromal cells & IL-7 & occurs i n the lymph node. D. The mature B cells have IgM & IgD on its surface. Ans:d egins at the pre-B cell stage. b. The surrogate light chain is expressed by immature B cells. c. At the immature stage, B cells express I gM & IgD d. Light chain VL-JL rearrangement begins at the small pre-B cell stage. e. The light chain loci are not subject to all elic exclusion ans:c

QUESTIONS TEAM

28) Which of the follo wing statements about B cell

Cytokine important in control dissemination of M. leprosy a) TNF-alpha b) IL-4 c) IL8 d)Th2 cytokines e) IL-5 answer :d Difference between primary and secondary immune response except a) antig- C needed < primary response b) binding affinities much lower than primary response c) Lag phase is higher than primary response d) Concentration of IgG is much higher than primary e) Concentration of IgM is the same as in primary answer : b Which one is false? a) Mast cell : IL 12 b) TH2 : IL6 c) TH1 : INF gamma d) Eosinophil : IL 5 answer : a

Activation of mature B cell requires two signals a) An antigen and T cell help b) TCR occupancy and T cell help??? c) Antigen and cytokines??? d) TCR occupancy and cytokines answer : c

M. tuberculosis is best eliminated by a) TNF alpha b) IL-4 c) IL-5 d) IL-8 answer : a

Restriction means a) The recognition of self MHC with antigen by T cells answer : a

Development of CD8+ T cells could occur normally in the absence of: a. b. c. d. e. HLADR genes. RAG1 & RAG2 Selfpeptides. Tapsain and calnexin. TAP1 & TAP2

Positive and negative selection of T cells: a. Involve different MHC molecules. b. Involve different peptides. c. Must involve signals that differ either in amount or in type. d. Occur in the same thymus microenvironment. e. Result in T cells which can never recognize self antigen. Which of the following statement is true of TH1 cells: a. TH1 cells secrete IL4. b. TH1 cells help induce IgE producon by B cells. c. TH1 cells smulate Eosinophil acvaon. d. TH1 cells secretes interferon gamma. Which of the following statement is true of TH2 cells: a. TH2 cells secrete IL4 & IL10. b. TH2 cells secrete GMCSF. c. TH2 cells are responsible for cytotoxic T cell (TC) activation. d. None of the above statements are true. Which of the following best describes positive selection of T cells? a. Selection for cells whose T cell receptors are capable of binding antigenic peptides. b. Selection for cells whose T cell receptors are capable of binding selfpeptides. c. Selection for cells able to bind immunoglobulins.

d. Selection of cells whose T cell receptors are capable of binding selfMHC molecules. e. Selection for cells capable of rejecting foreign MHC molecules. Which of the following best describes negative selection of T cells? a. Selection against cells whose T cell receptor are capable of binding selfMHC. b. Selection against cells whose T cell receptor having high affinity for selfpeptide and/or self MHC molecules. c. Selection against cells that do not present MHC molecules. d. Selection against whose T cell receptors are not able to bind antigenic peptides. e. Selection against cells whose MHC molecules bind selfpeptides with high affinity. B cells usually require T cell help to mature plasma cells because: a. T cells present antigen to them. b. Most b cells in the circulation need thymic hormones secreted by the antigen presenting cell to mature to plasma cell. c. T cells produce cytokines that enhance their responsiveness to antigen. d. All of the above. e. None of the above. answer : c

Defense against viral infections requires a balance between humoral and cell mediated immunity, as reflected in the relative activities of th1 and th2 cells. Overproduction of which cytokine should lead to relative predominance of cell-mediated immunity? a. IFN- b. IL-4. c. IL-1. d. IL-8. e. IL-2 answer : a Which interleukin is necessary for the switch to IgE production: a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 Activation of T helper cells by antigen-presenting cells requires: a. CD2 b. CD3 c. CD4 d. CD28 e. Each of the above is required.

A major marker retained on all peripheral T cells is: a. CD3 b. CD4 c. CD8 d. IL-1 e. IL-2 CD34 is a marker for: a. Th1 cells b. Th2 cells c. Gamma-delta receptor d. B cells e. Stem cells Which of the following statements about a secondary (memory) antibody response is FALSE? a. The secondary response comes from memory B cells. b. The secondary response is faster. c. The secondary response is primary IgM d. The secondary response produces more immunoglobulins than the primary response. Tuberculoid leprosy is characterized by all EXCEPT: a. Externisve cell-mediated response to Mycobacterium leprae b. High levels of IFN gamma c. Extermemly high levels of antibody to the microbe d. Large numbers of activated macrophages to destroy the microbe T cell

In X-linked hyper IgM syndrome: a. IgG & IgA levels in the blood are high while IgM levels are low b. T cells can not engage CD40 on B cells c. B cell activation & isotype switching take place normally d. Lymphoid tissue lack germinal centers e. All of the above f. B + D answer : f