DIAGNOSTIC TEST | BIOLOGY 60 QUESTIONS
Directions:
Please
answer
your
questions
by
filling
in
the
corresponding
bubble
sheet
and
bringing
it
to
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near
you.
Make
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you
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and
print
out
the
correct
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sheet
according
to
the
diagnostic
test
and
location.
1.
Life
originated
approximately
(A)
3.8
billion
years
ago
(B)
4
billion
years
ago
(C)
65
million
years
ago
(D)
2.5
billion
years
ago
2.
According
to
most
scientists,
all
the
following
gases
were
present
in
Earths
earliest
atmosphere
except
(A)
CO2
(B)
O2
(C)
NH3
(D)
H2S
3.
In
the
5
kingdom
system,
to
which
kingdom
are
bacteria
assigned?
(A)
monera
(B)
protista
(C)
animalia
(D)
archaea
4.
What
do
plants
store
glucose
as?
(A)
starch
(B)
cellulose
(C)
dextran
(D)
glycogen
5.
What
is
a
covalent
bond?
(A)
a
pair
of
electrons
shared
between
atoms
of
greatly
different
electronegativities.
(B)
there
is
no
electron
deficit
in
the
valence
shell
of
an
atom.
(C)
a
pair
of
electrons
shared
between
atoms
of
similar
electronegativities.
(D)
when
two
or
more
molecules
combine.
6.
An
atom
has
15
protons,
16
neutrons,
and
12
electrons.
What
is
its
atomic
number?
(A)
15
(B)
16
(C)
12
(D)
31
7.
In
the
following
four
compounds,
which
contains
a
hydrogen
atom
that
is
most
likely
to
take
part
in
hydrogen
bonding?
(A)
H2
(B)
CH4
(C)
BH3
(D)
CH3OH
COPYRIGHT 2012 SEED
PAGE 1
8. Where does ribosomal synthesis occur? (A) the nucleus (B) nuclear envelope (C) nuclear lamina (D) ribosomal subunits 9. What is the function of the mitochondria? (A) produce proteins (B) digest cellular waste (C) convert energy into forms that are usable by the cell (D) produce lysosomes 10. Which cell structure uses selective permeability? (A) extracellular matrix (B) cell junctions (C) plasma membrane (D) integrin 11. What process is responsible for transporting sodium ions to the outside of the cell and potassium ions to the inside of the cell? (A) endocytosis (B) simple diffusion (C) facilitated diffusion (D) active transport 12. Which of the following types of organisms is likely to have been capable of energy metabolism? (A) photoautotroph (B) chemoautotroph (C) chemoheterotroph (D) none of the above 13. Glycolysis occurs in (A) animal cells (B) plant cells (C) animal and plant cells (D) animal cells and non-photosynthetic plant cells 14. Which of the following does not form during glycolysis? (A) pyruvate (B) NADH (C) ATP (D) FADH2 15. In which process does a substance gain electrons? (A) Hydrogenation (B) Phosphorylation (C) Reduction (D) Oxidation
COPYRIGHT 2012 SEED
PAGE 2
16.
If
a
chloroplast
has
been
deprived
of
CO2,
which
molecule
cannot
be
produced?
+ (A)
NADPH
+
H
(B)
H2O
(C)
ATP
(D)
glucose
17.
In
photosynthesis,
where
is
the
main
source
of
carbon
from?
(A)
carbonate
rock
in
the
soil
(B)
carbohydrates
in
the
soil
(C)
water
(D)
carbon
dioxide
18.
What
is
the
role
of
H2O
in
photosynthesis?
(A)
be
split
to
help
make
carbon
dioxide
for
the
Calvin
cycle.
(B)
absorb
light
energy.
(C)
provide
oxygen
for
the
light-independent
reactions.
(D)
provide
electrons
to
the
light-dependent
reactions.
19.
What
type
of
leaf
tissue
will
contain
guard
cells?
(A)
cuticle
(B)
upper
epidermis
(C)
mesophyll
(D)
lower
epidermis
20.
What
did
Rosalind
Franklin
and
Maurice
Wilkins
work
establish?
(A)
DNA
is
the
genetic
material.
(B)
within
a
given
species,
the
relative
amount
of
bases
in
a
DNA
sample
is
present
in
a
characteristic
ratio.
(C)
DNA
is
helical
in
shape.
(D)
each
strand
of
DNA
is
made
up
of
a
polynucleotide
chain.
21.
What
is
the
function
of
DNA
Ligase?
(A)
break
the
bonds
between
the
parent
strands
of
DNA
(B)
join
Okazaki
fragments
together
(C)
remove
the
RNA
primers
(D)
polymerize
an
incoming
nucleotide
to
the
existing
strand
22.
Where
does
polypeptide
synthesis
begin?
(A)
endoplasmic
reticulum
(B)
cell
nucleus
(C)
Golgi
apparatus
(D)
lumen
23.
Where
will
a
tRNA
molecule
with
an
anticodon
sequence
of
3
AAG
5
bind
on
a
messenger
RNA
codon?
(A)
5
TTC
3
(B)
3
CUU
5
(C)
5
CUU
3
(D)
3
UAG
5
COPYRIGHT 2012 SEED
PAGE 3
24. In what form do retroviruses carry their genome? (A) RNA (B) cDNA (C) protein (D) DNA 25. Which of the following can destroy bacterophage DNA? (A) restriction enzymes (B) plasmids (C) ligases (D) vectors 26. What is the purpose of a polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? (A) amplify a segment of DNA into many copies (B) insert new nucleotide segments into a plasmid (C) make a complementary strand of DNA (D) link together multiple fragments of DNA 27. List in order the steps in which HIV replicates. I. The virus makes NA from RNA using reverse transcriptase. II. Viral proteins are synthesized and new viruses are assembled and bud off. III. HIV enters the cell. IV. DNA enters the nucleus of the host cell and is integrated into the hosts DNA. V. The synthesized DNA is used to make a complementary strand of DNA. VI. RNA is transcribed from the DNA (A) III, II, I, IV, V, VI (B) III, IV, V, VI, I, II (C) III, I, II, V, VI, IV (D) III, I, V, IV, VI, II 28. Where do restriction enzymes naturally occur? (A) bacterial cells (B) viral cells (C) eukaryotic cells (D) plasmids 29. What type of protein are spindle fibers composed of? (A) actin (B) tubulin (C) myosin (D) troponin 30. In which cell cycle does DNA replication occur? (A) interphase (B) G1 phase (C) anaphase (D) prophase
COPYRIGHT 2012 SEED
PAGE 4
31.
Homologous
chromosomes
originate
(A)
during
S
phase
of
interphase
(B)
during
M
phase
of
mitosis
(C)
during
fertilization
(D)
after
cytokinesis
32.
In
which
phase
do
homologous
chromosomes
separate
and
migrate
to
opposite
poles?
(A)
prophase
I
(B)
prophase
II
(C)
anaphase
I
(D)
anaphase
II
33.
What
is
an
animal
cell
with
one
set
of
chromosomes
rather
than
two
called?
(A)
haploid
(B)
diploid
(C)
single
(D)
abnormal
34.
Why
did
Gregor
Mendel
perform
thousands
of
crosses
between
the
same
two
plants,
essentially
running
the
same
experiment
over
and
over?
(A)
He
wanted
to
be
sure
that
his
parental
plants
were
true
breeding.
(B)
He
had
difficulty
keeping
track
of
his
plants.
(C)
The
more
crosses
he
did,
the
more
mathematically
accurate
his
results
would
be.
(D)
He
wanted
to
be
sure
that
he
had
attained
all
possible
results.
35.
How
many
different
gametes
are
formed
from
a
parent
with
a
genotype
of
YYRr?
(A)
1
(B)
2
(C)
3
(D)
4
36.
If
a
female
has
the
genotype
AABb,
what
fraction
of
her
eggs
will
be
the
genotype
Ab?
(A)
1
(B)
1/2
(C)
1/4
(D)
0
37.
When
a
person
with
type
B
blood
is
given
type
A
blood,
why
is
there
a
fatal
reaction?
(A)
Antibodies
from
the
type
B
blood
attack
the
antigen
in
the
type
A
blood.
(B)
The
antigens
in
the
type
A
blood
attack
the
type
B
blood.
(C)
The
blood
types
mix
to
form
type
AB
blood
with
both
A
and
B
antigens.
(D)
No
reaction
occurs,
blood
type
A
is
the
universal
donor.
38.
What
is
epistasis?
(A)
Both
alleles
for
a
trait
are
expressed,
producing
a
phenotype
seen
in
neither
parent.
(B)
Multiple
alleles
govern
a
trait,
resulting
in
more
than
two
phenotypes.
(C)
One
allele
dominates
another
allele,
resulting
in
only
two
different
phenotypes.
(D)
The
expression
of
one
gene
modifies
or
suppresses
the
expression
of
another.
COPYRIGHT 2012 SEED
PAGE 5
39.
What
does
the
HardyWeinberg
equation
allow
you
to
determine
directly?
(A)
Gene
frequency
and
the
genotypic
frequency
of
the
population
(B)
Gene
frequency
and
the
phenotypic
frequency
of
the
population
(C)
Gene
frequency
and
the
future
distribution
of
the
gene
frequency
(D)
Gene
frequency
and
the
past
genotypic
frequency
by
regression
analysis
40.
What
is
the
definition
of
a
population?
(A)
a
group
of
organisms
of
the
same
species
that
live
in
a
given
geographical
area.
(B)
all
the
organisms
that
live
in
a
given
geographical
area.
(C)
a
group
of
organisms
that
are
capable
of
producing
fertile
offspring.
(D)
all
the
organisms
of
a
given
species
that
are
able
to
reproduce.
41.
Why
did
Darwins
peers
dislike
his
theory
of
natural
selection?
(A)
geological
evidence
showed
that
the
earth
was
not
old
enough
to
allow
the
time
for
natural
selection
to
occur.
(B)
farmers
were
unable
to
successfully
breed
livestock
for
desired
traits.
(C)
his
voyage
around
the
world
yielded
no
outstanding
observations
to
support
his
theory.
(D)
science
lacked
an
explanation
of
the
mechanism
by
which
traits
were
inherited.
42.
Convergent
selection
pressures
can
lead
to:
(A)
Homologous
structures
(B)
Analogous
structures
(C)
Comparative
morphology
(D)
Adaptive
radiation
43.
Which
phylum
includes
liverworts,
hornworts,
and
mosses?
(A)
seed
plants
(B)
bryophytes
(C)
algae
(D)
Rhodophyta
44.
Which
statement
about
Fungi
is
incorrect?
(A)
The
partitions
of
the
hyphae
are
called
septa.
(B)
Mycelia
consist
of
individual
filaments
called
hyphae.
(C)
A
fungal
mycelium
has
low
surface-area-to-volume
ratio.
(D)
Rhizoids
are
modified
hyphae.
45.
Which
characteristic
do
reptiles
not
have?
(A)
internal
fertilization
(B)
amniotic
egg
(C)
yolk
sac
(D)
external
fertilization
46.
Which
germ
cell
layer
or
layers
form
the
skin,
nervous
system,
and
cornea
and
lens
of
the
eye?
(A)
endoderm,
mesoderm
(B)
mesoderm
(C)
ectoderm
(D)
mesoderm
and
ectoderm
COPYRIGHT 2012 SEED
PAGE 6
47.
Where
does
the
urea
cycle
occur?
(A)
blood
stream
(B)
liver
(C)
kidneys
(D)
all
of
the
above
48.
In
the
thick
segment
of
the
ascending
loop
of
Henle,
NaCl
enters
the
medulla
by
(A)
passive
transport
osmosis
(B)
NaCl
does
not
enter
the
medulla.
(C)
active
transport
(D)
osmosis
49.
Which
is
not
an
example
of
nonspecific
defenses?
(A)
skin
(B)
mucous
membranes
(C)
acid
secretion
in
stomach
(D)
antibody
production
50
What
causes
a
resting
potential
in
a
neuron?
(A)
excess
sodium
inside
the
cell.
+ (B)
open
K
channels.
(C)
depolarization
+ (D)
open
Na
channels.
51.
What
is
responsible
for
breaking
down
proteins
into
smaller
polypeptides
and
dipeptides
in
the
stomach?
(A)
pepsin
(B)
pepsinogen
(C)
amylase
(D)
hydrochloric
acid
52.
Why
are
steroid
hormones
different
from
other
hormones?
(A)
they
are
composed
of
amino
acids
(B)
they
are
secreted
directly
into
bodily
fluids
(C)
they
have
intracellular
receptors
(D)
they
use
signal-transduction
pathways
53.
When
does
germination
begin?
(A)
the
sporophyte
emerges
from
the
seed
(B)
the
seed
becomes
surrounded
by
soil
(C)
when
the
zygote
undergoes
its
first
division
(D)
the
seed
swells
from
the
uptake
of
water
54.
How
does
phototropism
contribute
to
homeostasis
in
plants?
(A)
It
insures
that
the
roots
grow
into
the
soil.
(B)
It
enables
vine-like
plants
to
climb
towards
the
light.
(C)
It
insures
that
the
shoots
of
the
plant
get
the
maximum
amount
of
light.
(D)
It
prevents
the
plant
from
growing
crooked.
COPYRIGHT 2012 SEED
PAGE 7
55. What type of light is the best at interrupting night length? (A) Red light (B) Far-red light (C) Ultraviolet light (D) White light 56. Which internal factor controls the flowering of a plant? (A) light (B) darkness (C) temperature (D) hormones 57. What are epiphytes? (A) Epiphytes are plants that grow on top of other plants. (B) Epiphytes are plants that grow on top of the water. (C) Epiphytes are plants that require animal protein to grow. (D) Epiphytes are plants that never produce seeds and only undergo asexual reproduction. 58. Which biome is characterized by permafrost? (A) taiga (B) tundra (C) deciduous forest (D) taiga and tundra 59. Which of the following organisms are K-selected? (A) apple trees (B) house flies (C) humans (D) frogs 60. Which two elements are added to global cycles by human activity? (A) oxygen and hydrogen (B) sulfur and hydrogen (C) carbon and sulfur (D) carbon and hydrogen
COPYRIGHT 2012 SEED
PAGE 8
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