FUNDA DRILL-007

INSTRUCTIONS: Read and understand the questions properly and select the best answer. 1.) The proper size of urethral catheter for female patient is: A.) Fr.12-14 B.) Fr. 16-18 C.) Fr. 8-10 D.) Fr. 22-24 2.) The length of urethral catheter insertion in a male patient is: A.) 3-4 inches B.) 5-6 inches C.) 6-9 inches D.) 9-12 inches 3.) The rationale for lateral or upward anchoring of the urethral catheter in male is to: A.) Prevent pressure at the penoscrotal area B.) Promote comfort C.) Secure the catheter well D.) Provide privacy 4.) Gradual decompression of the distended bladder is observed primarily to: A.) Monitor urine output B.) Maintain asepsis C.) Prevent shock or hemorrhage D.) Prevent discomfort 5.) To ensure success of the bladder-retraining program in client with urinary incontinence, the initial nursing is: A.) Determine the clients usual voiding pattern B.) Establish a regular voiding time of every 1-2 hours for the client C.) Provide adequate fluid intake D.) Instruct the client to avoid carbonated beverages 6.) The glands which secrete sweat that may become unpleasant in odor when acted upon by microorganisms are: A.) Eccrine glands B.) Apocrine glands C.) Sebaceous glands D.) Meibonian glands 7.) The most effective nursing measure to relieve dryness of skin is: A.) Increase fluid intake B.) Apply alcohol on the skin C.) Bathe the client daily D.) Apply alcohol on the skin

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8.) The following are appropriate nursing measures to manage acne EXCEPT: A.) Take daily bath B.) Adequate exposure to sunlight C.) Adequate rest and sleep D.) Take foods rich in carbohydrates 9.) The first line of defense of the body is: A.) Antigen-antibody response B.) Immune-response C.) Intact skin and mucous membrane D.) Body secretions 10.) The initial nursing action when providing bed bath is: A.) Close the door and windows of the patients room B.) Inform the client and explain the purpose of the procedure C.) Remove the clients gown under the cover of the top sheet D.) Place the bed in flat position 11.) The best position for the female client during perineal care is: A.) Supine B.) Dorsal recumbent C.) Lateral D.) Semi-Fowlers 12.) Which of the following is the most important nursing consideration when performing perineal care? A.) Use front to back stroke B.) Use posterior to anterior stroke C.) Clean from inner to outer area D.) Use rubbing stroke 13.) Which of the following is inappropriate nursing action when performing genital care to a male client? A.) Wear gloves B.) Use circular motion from the penile shaft towards the glans penis C.) Retract prepuce if uncircumcised D.) use moist washcloth with soap 14.) The proper manner of trimming the toenails is: A.) Trim the lateral edges of the toenails B.) Trim the toenails with pair of scissors C.) Trim the toenails with pointed tips D.) Trim toenails straight across 15.) Which of the following should not be included when patient teaching on foot care? A.) Wash the feet daily and pat dry B.) Use warm water for footsoak C.) Do not go barefooted D.) File corns and calluses

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16.) A foot disorder caused by fungus, characterized by scaling and cracking of the skin in the interdigital spaces of the toes is: A.) Tinea pedis B.) Callus C.) Corns D.) Unguis incarnates 17.) The most effective measure to prevent tooth decay is: A.) Drink milk daily B.) Eat fruits and vegetables C.) Thorough brushing of the teeth D.) Have dental check up every 6 months 18.) Tartar is described as: A.) An invisible soft film of bacteria saliva, epithelial cells and leukocytes B.) A visible hard deposit of the plaque and bacteria that accumulate in gum lines C.) Decayed tooth D.) Accumulation of foul matter on the gums and teeth 19.) Which of the following are appropriate nursing actions when rendering hair shampoo to a patient? A.) Plug the ears with cotton balls B.) Use warm water C.) Place Kelly pad under the head D.) AOTA 20.) Infestation of the scalp with lice is: A.) Pediculosis humanis B.) Pediculosis pubis C.) Pediculosis capitis D.) Pediculosis corporis 21.) Which of the following should be included when providing patient teaching on hygienic measures? A.) Do not rub the eyes B.) Remove cerumen from the ear with cotton-tipped applicator C.) Blow the nose with one nares closed D.) Use eye drops at regular basis 22.) The following are nursing consideration when bed making EXCEPT: A.) Practice asepsis B.) Finish one side of the bed at a time C.) Avoid overreaching D.) Shake linens to remove dirt 23.) If the client is unconscious, the following are appropriate nursing measures when providing oral care EXCEPT: A.) Place the patient in lateral position

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B.) Use hard-bristled toothbrush C.) Use cotton swabs D.) Irrigate the mouth with water using asepto syringe and suction the solution adequately 24.) A flat, circumscribed area of color, with no elevation of its surface, less than 1 cm. in size is: A.) Macule B.) Papule C.) Bulla D.) Pustule 25.) A skin lesion which fluid-filled, less than 1 cm in size is: A.) Macule B.) Papule C.) Vesicle D.) Bulla 26.) Body mechanics is: A.) Manner of walking B.) Maintaining good posture C.) Efficient, coordinated, and safe use of the body to produce motion and maintain balance during activity D.) Maintaining ones poise 27.) The following are principles of good body mechanics when performing nursing procedures EXCEPT: A.) Start any body movement with proper alignment B.) Pulling creates less friction than pushing C.) Lower the head of the clients bed before moving him up in bed D.) Before moving objects, increase your stability by putting your feet together 28.) Pronation means: A.) Moving the forearm with the palms facing downward B.) Moving the forearm with the palms facing upward C.) Turning the sole of the foot outward D.) Turning the sole of the foot outward 29.) Moving an arm away from the body is: A.) Adduction B.) Abduction C.) Rotation D.) Circumduction 30.) When turning a client to the side, which of the following is not appropriate nursing action? A.) Move the client to one side of the bed before turning B.) Untuck the topsheet at the foot part of the bed to facilitate change of position

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C.) Turn the client towards you with your hips, knees and ankles flexed, feet apart D.) Turn the client away from you, with your back bent 31.) To prevent thrombophlebitis in bedridden client, the following are appropriate nursing actions EXCEPT: A.) Turn the client every one to two hours B.) Perform passive leg exercises C.) Elevate the legs to promote venous return D.) Massage the legs when painful 32.) The following are appropriate nursing actions to prevent orthostatic hypotension, in a client who had been in bed for few days. A.) Gradual change of position B.) Ensure adequate fluid intake C.) Slightly elevate the head of bed when lying D.) AOTA 33.) The bedridden client develops slow, shallow respiration. He is likely to develop which of the following acid-base imbalances? A.) Respiratory acidosis B.) Respiratory alkalosis C.) Metabolic acidosis D.) Metabolic alkalosis 34.) Demineralization of bones among bedridden clients results to: A.) Ankylosis B.) Disuse osteoporosis C.) Disuse atrophy D.) Contractures 35.) To prevent plantar flexion in an unconscious client, which of the following protective devices may be used? 1. Foot board 2. Tronchanter roll 3. Hand roll 4. Boot splint A.) 1 only B.) 1 and 2 C.) 1 and 3 D.) 1 and 4 36.) Trochanter roll is used to prevent external rotation of the hip. The proper method of applying the device is: A.) From waist to the ankle B.) From the waist to the knees C.) From the hips to the upper third of the thighs D.) From the hip to the knees

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37.) To transfer a client from the bed to the stretcher, the position of the stretcher should be: A.) Parallel B.) Right angle at the footpart C.) Right angle at the headpart of the bed D.) At the foot part of the bed 38.) Orthopneic position promotes maximum chest expansion of a dyspneic client. This is done by: A.) Making the patient sit in bed or at the side of the bed, learning forward with arms supported on an overbed table B.) Raising the head and trunk at 15-45 degrees C.) Raising the head and trunk at 90 degree D.) Raising the head and trunk at 45-60 degree with the knees flexed 39.) The type of exercise recommended for a client with joint pain due to arthritis: A.) Active-exercise B.) Active-assistive exercise C.) Passive exercise D.) Active-resistive exercise 40.) Isometric exercises involve: A.) Change in muscle tension only B.) Change in muscle tension length C.) Use of weights and pulleys D.) flexion and extension of a weak arm with sandbag tied on the forearm 41.) The primary cause of decubitus ulcer is: A.) Impaired circulation B.) Shearing force C.) Friction D.) Pressure 43.) The initial warning signal of impending decubitus ulcer is: A.) Purplish skin B.) Bluish skin C.) Reddish skin D.) Blanched skin 44.) The first stage of pressure ulcer formation is described as: A.) Non blanchable erythema of intact skin B.) Partial-thickness skin loss involving epidermis and or dermis C.) Full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue D.) Full-thickness skin loss tissue necrosis or damage to muscle 45.) The following are appropriate nursing measures to prevent pressure ulcer, EXCEPT: A.) Provide high protein diet

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B.) Keep the skin clean and dry C.) Change position of bedridden client every 1-2 hours D.) Massage bony prominences with soap during bed bath 46.) The following are correct nursing interventions when treating pressure sores, EXCEPT: A.) Keep the head of bed flat B.) Use pressure relieving devices like egg crate C.) Clean and dress the ulcer using medical asepsis D.) Apply cornstarch over the bedsheet 47.) The following are characteristics of pain EXCEPT: A.) pain is a protective mechanism B.) Pain is subjective C.) pain, when localized involves only that particular part of the body D.) Pain whether real or imagined is actually experienced by the client. 48.) Which of the following chemical agents may not cause pain? A.) P-substance B.) Histamine C.) Endorphins D.) Bradykinin 49.) The pain center that functions in the interpretation of pain is: A.) Cerebral cortex B.) Thalamus C.) Skin D.) Medulla oblongata 50.) The following are physiologic responses to pain EXCEPT: A.) nausea and vomiting B.) Splinting the abdomen C.) Pallor D.) Diaphoresis 51.) Which of the following is true statement about pain tolerance? A.) It is fairly similar in all individuals B.) It varies from individual to individual C.) It is increased by anger, poor sleep D.) It is increased by anger, poor sleep 52.) The pain that is perceived at an area other than the site injury is: A.) Radiating B.) Phantom pain C.) referred pain D.) Psychogenic pain 53.) Which of the following foods is rich in serotonin, and therefore may relieve pain? A.) Apple

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B.) Orange C.) Avocado D.) Banana 54.) Which of the following is the most common and effective nursing intervention to relieve pain? A.) Slow, rhythmic breathing B.) Meditation C.) Acupuncture D.) Biofeedback 55.) The primary center of wakefulness and regulates sleep is: A.) Medulla oblongata B.) Cerebellum C.) Pons D.) Reticular formation 56.) The following are characteristics of NREM stage of sleep EXCEPT: A.) Vital functions are decreased B.) PNS dominates C.) SNS dominates D.) Restores the body 57.) The following are appropriate nursing measures to promote sleep EXCEPT: A.) High-protein diet B.) Avoid caffeine and alcohol before sleep C.) Exercise at least 2 hours before sleep D.) Advise to take afternoon nap for 60-90 mins 58.) The following are nursing considerations when nursing action to relieve pain A.) Administration of analgesic should be the priority nursing action to relieve pain B.) Give analgesic at the start of pain C.) Give analgesic 15-30 mins before a pain provoking procedure D.) Try general nursing measures first before resorting to medications 59.) Which of the following beverages may induce sleep? A.) Tea B.) Coffee C.) Milk D.) Fruit juice 60.) Which of the following chemical substances may relieve pain and promote sleep? A.) Trytophan B.) Histamine C.) Prostaglandin D.) Bradykinin

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61.) Uncontrollable falling into sleep is: A.) Soliloquy B.) Somnambulism C.) Bruxism D.) Narcolepsy

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