Section A Question 1 ( 1.0 marks) Why hnRNA is required to undergo splicing?

Solution: The heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is required to undergo splicing because the primary transcript contains both exons and introns. Introns are non-functional; hence, they are removed by splicing. Question 2 ( 1.0 marks) The microscopic pollen grains of the past are obtained as fossils. Mention the characteristic of the pollen grains that makes it happen. Solution: The exine of the pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin. It is one of the most resistant organic substances and can withstand high temperature. This sporopollenin helps the pollen grain to be well preserved. Question 3 ( 1.0 marks) How does colostrum provide initial protection against diseases to newborn infants? Solution: Colostrum contains several antibodies which provide initial protection to the infant against diseases. Question 4 ( 1.0 marks)

Name the unlabelled areas a and b of the pie chart (given above) representing the global biodiversity of invertebrates showing their proportionate number of species of major taxa. Solution: (a) Insects

(b) Molluscs Question 5 ( 1.0 marks) Mention the type of evolution that has brought the similarity as seen in potato tuber and sweet potato. Solution: Convergent evolution has brought about the similarity between potato tuber and sweet potato. Question 6 ( 1.0 marks) Name the group of organisms and the substrate they act on to produce biogas. Solution: The group of organisms involved in biogas production are methanogens. These organisms act upon cattle dung to produce biogas. Question 7 ( 1.0 marks) Mention the pollinating agent of an inflorescence of small dull-coloured flowers with well-exposed stamens and large feathery stigma. Give any one characteristic of pollen grains produced by such flowers. Solution: The pollen of flowers with well-exposed stamens and large feathery stigma are wind pollinated. The pollen grains produced by such flowers are large in number and are light, feathery and dry so that they can be easily transported by the wind. Question 8 ( 1.0 marks) Name the organism commercially used for the production of single-cell protein. Solution: Spirulina Section B Question 9 ( 2.0 marks) Explain the contribution of Thermus aquaticus in the amplification of a gene of interest. Solution:

A thermostable DNA polymerase enzyme called Taq polymerase is obtained from the bacterium Thermus aquaticus. It remains active even during the high-temperature-induced denaturation of the doublestranded DNA which is a part of the PCR reaction involved in the amplification of the gene of interest. Question 10 ( 2.0 marks)

(i) What does the above diagram illustrate? (ii) Name the parts labelled a and b? (iii) Name the type of cells that produce this molecule. Solution: (i) Structure of an antibody molecule (ii) a Antigen-binding site b Light chain (iii) B lymphocytes produce the antibodies. Question 11 ( 2.0 marks) Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit whereas oranges show polyembryony. How are they different from each other with respect to seeds? OR Where are fimbriae present in a human female reproductive system? Give their function. Solution:

Parthenocarpic fruits are those which are developed without fertilisation, e.g., banana. Such fruits are seedless. In oranges, some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac divide and develop into the embryo. In this condition, each ovule contains many embryos. So, this condition is referred to as polyembryony. Seeds of such plants contain many embryos.

OR Fimbriae are the finger-like projections on the edges of the infundibulum. They help in collecting the ovum after ovulation, and pass it into the fallopian tube, from where they are transported to the uterus. Question 12 ( 2.0 marks) How is the translation of mRNA terminated? Explain. Solution: The mRNA is translated into a complete polypeptide by the ribosome as it proceeds through the mRNA sequence. Amino acids linked to the complementary tRNA anticodon are added one by one along the sequence. At the end, when the stop codon is encountered, a release factor binds to it, which then terminates translation and enables the release of a complete polypeptide chain from the ribosome. Question 13 ( 2.0 marks) Explain accelerated eutrophication. Mention any two consequences of this phenomenon. Solution: Eutrophication is the natural ageing of a water body due to the nutrient enrichment of its water. Some pollutants produced as a result of human activity such as industrial effluents and agricultural wastes accelerate this ageing process. This phenomenon is called cultural or accelerated eutrophication.

Eutrophication leads to algal blooms and subsequent decrease in the dissolved oxygen content of the water body. This leads to the death of aquatic life in the water body. Question 14 ( 2.0 marks) List the specific symptoms of Amoebiasis. Name the causative organism. Solution: Amoebiasis or Amoebic dysentery is caused by the protozoan parasite, Entamoeba histolytica. The symptoms of this disease include constipation, abdominal pain, cramps and stools with excess mucus and blood clots. Question 15 ( 2.0 marks) A crane had DDT level as 5 ppm in its body. What would happen to the population of such birds? Explain giving reasons. Solution: DDT is a toxicant which exhibits the phenomenon of biomagnification. It can be neither metabolised nor excreted by organisms, and is passed on to the successive trophic levels. High concentration of DDT will disturb the calcium metabolism in the affected bird, thereby causing the thinning and premature breaking of its eggshells. This will lead to a decline in the birds population. Question 16 ( 2.0 marks) Describe the responsibility of GEAC, set up by the Indian Government. Solution: GEAC stands for Genetic Engineering Approval Committee. Set up by the Indian Government, this organisation takes decisions regarding the validity of GM research, keeping in mind the safety and ethical concerns of introducing genetically modified organisms for public utility. Question 17 ( 2.0 marks)

During the secondary treatment of the primary effluent how does the significant decrease in BOD occur? Solution: During secondary treatment, the primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks. Air is also passed into these tanks and agitated. This enables the growth of aerobic microbes into flocs. While growing, the bacteria consume majority of the organic matter present in the effluent. This causes a significant reduction in the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of the effluent. Question 18 ( 2.0 marks) Study the figure given below and answer the questions:

(a) How does the repressor molecule get inactivated? (b) When does the transcription of lac mRNA stop? (c) Name the enzyme transcribed by the gene Z. Solution: (a) The repressor gets inactivated by the binding of the inducer. In the case of lac operon, molecules such as lactose and allolactose act as the inducer. (b) In the absence of the inducer, when the repressor protein synthesised by the gene Ibinds to the operator region, the transcription of lac mRNA stops. (c) The gene Z codes for the enzyme -galactosidase. Section C

Question 19 ( 3.0 marks) Name the pioneer species on a bare rock. How do they help in establishing the next type of vegetation? Mention the type of climax community that will ultimately get established. Solution: The species of organisms that first invade a bare area are called pioneer species. The pioneer species on a bare rock are usually lichens. Lichens secrete acids which dissolve rocks, thereby leading to weathering and soil formation. This paves the way for small plants which hold the soil. They are succeeded by bigger plants, and ultimately, an entire forest gets established. Forests represent the climax community in this succession. Question 20 ( 3.0 marks) Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the stage of human embryo the figure represents. (b) Identify a in the figure and mention its function. (c) Mention the fate of the inner cell mass after implantation in the uterus. (d) Where are the stem cells located in this embryo? Solution: (a) Blastocyst (b) a represents trophoblast. (c) After implantation, the inner cell mass gets differentiated into the ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm.

(d) The stem cells are found in the inner cell mass. Question 21 ( 3.0 marks) Give the scientific name of the parasite that causes malignant malaria in humans. At what stage does this parasite enter the human body? Trace its life cycle in the human body. Solution: The parasite which causes malignant malaria in humans is Plasmodium falciparum. The parasite enters the human body as sporozoites, through the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito. The life cycle of the parasite is as follows:

Question 22 ( 3.0 marks) Draw a labelled schematic sketch of replication fork of DNA. Explain the role of the enzymes involved in DNA replication. Solution:

Enzymes involved in DNA replication: The main enzyme involved in DNA replication is the DNAdependent DNA polymerase. This enzyme catalyses the polymerisation of deoxynucleotides along the 5 3 direction, and hence, replication is continuous along the 3 5 strand, and discontinuous along the template, i.e., the 5 3direction. This discontinuous strand is joined by another enzyme called DNA ligase. Question 23 ( 3.0 marks) Explain the causes of global warming. Why is it a warning to mankind? Solution: Global warming is the phenomenon of increase in the overall temperature of the earth due to the increase in the level of greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide and methane. Greenhouse gases absorb a part of the radiations emitted by the earths surface and radiate them back onto the earth. During the past century, earths temperature has increased by 0.6C. This increase in temperature is leading to many climatic changes. Global warming is a warning to mankind as it is leading to an overall increase in earths temperature, which in turn is disturbing earths natural cycles. The increased temperature is causing the melting of polar ice caps, which in turn can

lead to the flooding of coastal areas, and simultaneously, to huge destruction. Question 24 ( 3.0 marks) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disorder of humans. The pedigree chart given below shows the inheritance of haemophilia in ones family. Study the pattern of inheritance and answer the question given.

(a) Give all the possible genotypes of the members 4, 5 and 6 in the pedigree chart. (b) A blood test shows that the individual 14 is a carrier of haemophilia. The member numbered 15 has recently married the member numbered 14. What is the probability that their first child will be a haemophilic male? Solution: (a) 4 Carrier female with genotype X*X 5 Affected male with genotype X*Y 6 Normal male with genotype XY Here, X* represents the trait for haemophilia. (b) There is a 25% probability that their first child will be a haemophilic male. Question 25 ( 3.0 marks)

(a) Mention the specific geographical region where these organisms are found. (b) Name and explain the phenomenon that has resulted in the evolution of such diverse species in the region. (c) Explain giving reasons the existence of placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf sharing the same habitat. Solution: (a) The figure represents the adaptive radiation of marsupials, in Australia. (b) The phenomenon that has resulted in the evolution of these diverse animals is adaptive radiation. It is the process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area, starting from a point and radiating to other geographical locations or habitats. The marsupials of Australia have evolved from an ancestral stock, but each one is different from the other and also inhabits different habitats.

(c) Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf share the same habitat because in Australia, placental mammals also exhibit adaptive radiation and show similarities in appearance to a corresponding marsupial mammal. Question 26 ( 3.0 marks)

(a) Identify the selectable markers in the diagram of E. coli vector shown above. (b) How is the coding sequence of galactosidase considered a better marker than the ones identified by you in the diagram? Explain. Solution: (a) The selectable markers in the given diagram are (i) a corresponding to ampR (ampicillin resistance) (ii) d corresponding to tetR (tetracycline resistance) (b) The coding sequence of galactosidase is considered a better marker than antibiotic resistance. The detection of antibiotic resistance is a cumbersome process. When galactosidase coding sequence is used as a marker, the recombinants and non-recombinants are selected on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Question 27 ( 3.0 marks) Construct an ideal pyramid of energy when 1,000,000 joules of sunlight is available. Label all its trophic levels. Solution:

Section D Question 28 ( 5.0 marks) Explain with the help of a diagram the development of a mature embryo sac from a megaspore mother cell in angiosperm. OR Study the following flow chart. Name the hormones involved at each stage. Explain their functions.

Solution: The megaspore mother cell undergoes mitosis to form two nuclei which migrate to opposite poles, forming a 2-nucleate embryo sac. Further mitotic divisions lead to the formation of 4-nucleate and 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac. In these mitotic divisions, nuclear division is not followed by cell division. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down and a typical female gametophyte or embryo sac is formed. Among the eight nuclei, six are enclosed by cell walls and organised into cells, while the remaining two nuclei (called polar nuclei) are situated below the egg

apparatus in a large central cell. Out of the six cells, three are grouped at the micropylar end, and constitute the egg apparatus made up of two synergids and one egg cell. The other three cells are located at the chalazal end, and are called antipodals. Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac after maturity is 8-nucleated and 7-celled. OR

The given flow chart represents the hormonal regulation of spermatogenesis in males. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to an increase in the level of gonadotropin- releasing hormone secreted by the hypothalamus. The GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary, which in turn secretes two hormones namely, leutinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). LH acts on the Leydig cells and stimulates the synthesis and secretion of androgens, which in turn stimulate spermatogenesis. FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and causes the release of some factors that enable the process of spermiogenesis. Question 29 ( 5.0 marks) (a) Explain the experiment performed by Griffith on Streptococcus pneumoniae. What did he conclude from this experiment? (b) Name the three scientists who followed up Griffiths experiments. (c) What did they conclude and how?

OR Two blood samples A and B picked up from the crime scene were handed over to the forensic department for genetic fingerprinting. Describe how the technique of genetic fingerprinting is carried out. How will it be confirmed whether the samples belonged to the same individual or to two different individuals? Solution: (a)

In 1928, Fredrick Griffith performed some experiments on Streptococcus pneumoniae. When the bacteria were grown on culture medium, some produced smooth shiny colonies (S), while the others produced rough colonies (R). This is because the S strain contained a polysaccharide mucus coat, while the R strain lacked it. Mice infected with the S strain died of pneumonia, while those infected with the R strain survived. Griffith then heat-killed the S strain bacteria and injected them into mice. He noticed that the mice did not develop pneumonia. He then mixed the heat-killed S strain with the live R strain and injected it into mice. The mice died as a result. He was also able to recover live S strain bacteria from the dead mice. He then concluded that some transforming principle was transferred from the heat-killed S strain to the R strain, which enabled the synthesis of the polysaccharide coat in the R strain, thereby rendering it virulent.

(b) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty were the three scientists who followed up Griffiths experiment. (c) They purified proteins, DNA and RNA from the heat-killed S strain, and transferred them to the live R strain cells to see which biomolecule had the capacity to render the R strain virulent. From their experiments, they concluded that only the DNA of the S strain had the capacity to transform the R strain. They also noticed that proteases and RNAses did not affect the transformation of the R strain, and hence, concluded that the transforming principle was neither RNA nor protein. They suggested that DNA caused transformation and could be the genetic material. OR DNA fingerprinting is based on the identification of difference between some specific regions of DNA, called the repetitive

DNA. These stretches of DNA are repeated many times and are separated from the bulk genomic DNA as different peaks during density gradient centrifugation. The genomic DNA forms a major peak and the other smaller peaks are called satellite DNA. These sequences show high degree of polymorphism, called the VNTR (variable number of tandem repeats). Since the DNA isolated from any tissue of a particular individual shows the same degree of polymorphism, it forms the basis of forensic applications. Steps involved in the process of DNA fingerprinting are as follows

First of all, the DNA from an individual is isolated and cut with restriction

endonucleases.

Fragments are separated according to their size and molecular weight on electrophoresis gel. Fragments separated on electrophoresis gel are blotted (immobilised) on a synthetic membrane such as nylon or nitrocellulose. Immobilised fragments are hybridised with a VNTR probe. Hybridised DNA fragments can be detected by autoradiography.

In the given situation, the DNAs can be tested for the degree of polymorphism exhibited in the case of both the blood samples. If the DNAs show the same degree of polymorphism, then it can be concluded that the blood samples are from the same individual. If the DNAs exhibit different degrees of polymorphism, then they are from different individuals. Question 30 ( 5.0 marks) One of the main objectives of biotechnology is to minimise the use of insecticides on cultivated crops. Explain with the help of suitable example how insect-resistant crops have been developed using techniques of biotechnology. OR

(a) How is mature insulin different from proinsulin secreted by pancreas in humans? (b) Explain how human functional insulin was produced using rDNA technology. (c) Why is the functional insulin thus produced considered better than the ones used earlier by diabetic patients? Solution: One of the main objectives of biotechnology is to minimise the use of insecticides on cultivated crops. This can be done by using the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.It has Bt gene that produces Bt toxin. This toxin provides resistance to plants against lepidopteron, coleopteron and dipterans pests. An example is Bt cotton, in which the gene from the bacterium that encodes for the toxin is incorporated. The activated Bt toxin binds to the surface of the midgut epithelium of the insects and causes swelling and cell lysis, which eventually leads to the death of the insects. In the process of producing insect-resistant crops, specific Bt toxin genes are isolated from B.thuringiensis, and incorporated into the crops. Since these toxins are insect specific, they do not harm the crops or humans. The Bt toxin is encoded by the cry gene. The cry I AC and cry II Ab control cotton boll worms, while the cry I Ab controls corn borer. OR (a) The proinsulin secreted by the pancreas contains an extra stretch of peptide called the C peptide, while the mature insulin lacks this C peptide. (b) The functional insulin hormone is produced by E. coli, wherein sequences coding for the chains A and B are incorporated into two different plasmids. These chains are

synthesised separately, extracted, and then combined by creating disulfide bonds to form the mature human insulin. (c) Earlier diabetic patients were injected with insulin extracted from slaughtered cattle or pigs. This insulin would produce allergies and other types of reactions in some patients. However, the insulin synthesised using rDNA technology does not produce such reactions, and hence, is considered to be the better alternative.