Name: ______________________ Block: _______________

AP Biology Cells Test 09

Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The creation of the cell theory as we commonly know it today is attributed to what scientists? a. Schleiden and Schwann b. Hooke and Leeuwenhoek c. Remak and Virchow d. Gorter and Grendel e. Davson and Danielli 2. When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely would use a. a light microscope. b. a scanning electron microscope. c. a transmission electronic microscope. d. A and C only e. A, B, and C 3. In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is a. the relative solubility of the component. b. the size and weight of the component. c. the percentage of carbohydrates in the component. d. the number of enzymes in the fraction. e. the presence or absence of lipids in the component. 4. Which of the following comparisons between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is incorrect? a. The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that they are structurally less complex than eukaryotes. b. The lack of internal membranes means that prokaryotes cannot compartmentalize function to the same extent as eukaryotes. c. All membrane function in prokaryotes is accomplished in the plasma membrane, while in eukaryotes, these functions are more distributed among the organelles. d. The specialization of function in organelles suggests that eukaryotes will contain a wider variety of phospholipids than prokaryotes. e. The lack of organelles in prokaryotes means that the basic cellular functions are different in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes. 5. Under which of the following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a predominance of free ribosomes? a. a cell that is secreting proteins b. a cell that is producing cytoplasmic enzymes c. a cell that is constructing its cell wall or extracellular matrix d. a cell that is digesting food particles e. a cell that is enlarging its vacuole 6. Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids? a. ribosome b. lysosome c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. mitochondrion e. contractile vacuole

7. Of the following, which is probably the most common route for membrane flow in the endomembrane system? a. Golgi lysosome ER plasma membrane b. tonoplast plasma membrane nuclear envelope smooth ER c. nuclear envelope lysosome Golgi plasma membrane d. rough ER vesicles Golgi plasma membrane e. ER chloroplasts mitochondrion cell membrane Refer to the following five terms to answer the following questions. Choose the most appropriate term for each phrase. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. B. C. D. E. lysosome vacuole mitochondrion Golgi apparatus peroxisome

8. produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 9. contains hydrolytic enzymes a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 10. helps to recycle the cell's organic material a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 11. one of the main energy transformers of cells a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 12. contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen, producing H2 O2 a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E

13. a versatile plant compartment that may hold reserves of organic compounds or inorganic ions a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 14. Grana, thylakoids, and stroma are all components found in a. vacuoles. b. chloroplasts. c. mitochondria. d. lysosomes. e. nuclei. 15. A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, while organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively, a. mitochondria and chloroplasts. b. chloroplasts and peroxisomes. c. peroxisomes and chloroplasts. d. chloroplasts and mitochondria. e. mitochondria and peroxisomes. 16. Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules? a. cilia b. centrioles c. flagella d. A and C only e. A, B, and C 17. Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is incorrect? a. The dynamic aspect of cytoskeletal function is made possible by the assembly and disassembly of a few simple types of proteins into large aggregates. b. Microfilaments are structurally rigid and resist compression, while microtubules resist tension (stretching). c. Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other. d. Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would prevent many different processes in cells. e. Transport vesicles among the membranes of the endomembrane system depend on the function of the cytoskeleton.

For the following questions, match the labeled component of the cell membrane in the figure below with its description.

18. fiber of the extracellular matrix a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 19. ___ is a glycolipid, and ___ is a peripheral protein a. A; D b. B; D c. E; D d. B; E e. A; E 20. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane phospholipids? a. They can move laterally along the plane of the membrane. b. They frequently flip-flop from one side of the membrane to the other. c. They occur in an uninterrupted bilayer, with membrane proteins restricted to the surface of the membrane. d. They are free to depart from the membrane and dissolve in the surrounding solution. e. They have hydrophilic tails in the interior of the membrane. 21. The surface of an integral membrane protein would be best described as a. hydrophilic. b. hydrophobic. c. amphipathic. d. completely covered with phospholipids. e. exposed on only one surface of the membrane. 22. What is one of the functions of cholesterol in animal cell membranes? a. facilitates transport of ions b. stores energy c. maintains membrane fluidity d. speeds diffusion e. phosphorylates ADP

23. What membrane-surface molecules are thought to be most important as cells recognize each other? a. phospholipids b. integral proteins c. peripheral proteins d. cholesterol e. glycoproteins 24. Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion? a. It is very rapid over long distances. b. It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell. c. It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. d. It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration. e. It requires integral proteins in the cell membrane. 25. Water passes quickly through cell membranes because a. the bilayer is hydrophilic. b. it moves through hydrophobic channels. c. water movement is tied to ATP hydrolysis. d. it is a small, polar, charged molecule. e. it moves through aquaporins in the membrane. Use the diagram of the U-tube in the figure below to answer the following questions. The solutions in the two arms of this U-tube are separated by a membrane that is permeable to water and glucose but not to sucrose. Side A is half filled with a solution of 2 M sucrose and 1 M glucose. Side B is half filled with 1 M sucrose and 2 M glucose. Initially, the liquid levels on both sides are equal.

26. Initially, in terms of tonicity, the solution in side A with respect to that in side B is a. hypotonic. b. plasmolyzed. c. isotonic. d. saturated. e. hypertonic. 27. After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed? a. The molarity of sucrose and glucose are equal on both sides. b. The molarity of glucose is higher in side A than in side B. c. The water level is higher in side A than in side B. d. The water level is unchanged. e. The water level is higher in side B than in side A.

28. A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled water, equal to the volume of blood lost, is transferred directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion? a. It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria. b. The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid is hypotonic compared to the cells. c. The patient's red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid is hypotonic compared to the cells. d. The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood fluid is hypertonic compared to the cells. e. The patient's red blood cells will burst because the blood fluid is hypertonic compared to the cells. 29. You are working on a team that is designing a new drug. In order for this drug to work, it must enter the cytoplasm of specific target cells. Which of the following would not be a factor that determines whether the molecule enters the cell? a. size of the drug molecule b. polarity of the drug molecule c. charge on the drug molecule d. similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules transported by the target cells e. lipid composition of the target cells' plasma membrane 30. What is the voltage across a membrane called? a. water potential b. chemical gradient c. membrane potential d. osmotic potential e. electrochemical gradient 31. Which of the following characterizes the sodium-potassium pump? a. Sodium ions are pumped out of a cell against their gradient. b. Potassium ions are pumped into a cell against their gradient. c. The pump protein undergoes a conformational change. d. Only A and B are correct. e. A, B, and C are all correct. 32. What mechanisms do plants use to load sucrose produced by photosynthesis into specialized cells in the veins of leaves? a. an electrogenic pump b. a proton pump c. a contransport protein d. A and C only e. A, B, and C 33. White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process? a. exocytosis b. phagocytosis c. pinocytosis d. osmosis e. receptor-mediated exocytosis 34. All of the following membrane activities require energy from ATP hydrolysis except a. facilitated diffusion. b. active transport. c. Na+ ions moving out of the cell. d. proton pumps. e. translocation of potassium into a cell.

35. In the yeast signal transduction pathway, after both types of mating cells have released the mating factors and the factors have bound to specific receptors on the correct cells, a. binding induces changes in the cells that lead to cell fusion. b. the cells then produce the a factor and the factor. c. one cell nucleus binds the mating factors and produces a new nucleus in the opposite cell. d. the cell membranes fall apart, releasing the mating factors that lead to new yeast cells. e. a growth factor is secreted that stimulates mitosis in both cells. 36. Paracrine signaling a. involves secreting cells acting on nearby target cells by discharging a local regulator into the extracellular fluid. b. requires nerve cells to release a neurotransmitter into the synapse. c. occurs only in paracrine yeast cells. d. has been found in plants but not animals. e. involves mating factors attaching to target cells and causing production of new paracrine cells. 37. From the perspective of the cell receiving the message, the three stages of cell signaling are a. the paracrine, local, and synaptic stages. b. signal reception, signal transduction, and cellular response. c. signal reception, nucleus disintegration, and new cell generation. d. the alpha, beta, and gamma stages. e. signal reception, cellular response, and cell division. 38. The signal transduction pathway in animal cells that use epinephrine a. activates the breakdown of glycogen in liver and skeletal muscle cells. b. is a classic example of synaptic signaling. c. operates independently of hormone receptors on target cells. d. A and B only e. A, B, and C 39. A small molecule that specifically binds to another molecule, usually a larger one a. is called a signal transducer. b. is called a ligand. c. is called a polymer. d. seldom is involved in hormonal signaling. e. usually terminates a signal reception. 40. Which of the following is (are) true of ligand-gated ion channels? a. They are important in the nervous system. b. They lead to changes in sodium and calcium concentrations in cells. c. They open or close in response to a chemical signal. d. Only A and B are true. e. A, B, and C are true. 41. Up to 60% of all medicines used today exert their effects by influencing what structures in the cell membrane? a. tyrosine-kinases receptors b. ligand-gated ion channel receptors c. growth factors d. G proteins e. cholesterol

42. Which of the following are chemical messengers that pass through the plasma membrane of cells and have receptor molecules in the cytoplasm? a. insulin b. nitric oxide c. testosterone d. B and C only e. A, B, and C 43. In general, a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins a. brings a conformational change to each protein. b. requires binding of a hormone to a cytosol receptor. c. cannot occur in yeasts because they lack protein phosphatases. d. requires phosphorylase activity. e. allows target cells to change their shape and therefore their activity. 44. Which of the following is/are considered second messengers? a. cAMP b. GTP c. calcium ions d. A and C e. A, B and C 45. The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is a. phosphorylase. b. phosphatase. c. protein kinase. d. ATPase. e. protease. 46. Which of the following is not true of cell communication systems? a. Cell signaling was an early event in the evolution of life. b. Communicating cells may be far apart or close together. c. Most signal receptors are bound to the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope. d. Protein phosphorylation is a major mechanism of signal transduction. e. In response to a signal, the cell may alter activities by changes in cytosol activity or in transcription of RNA. 47. An inactive G protein is bound to, a. a G-protein coupled receptor b. GTP c. An integral membrane protein d. GDP e. a tyrosine-kinase receptor 48. G protein-coupled receptors are __ proteins, while G proteins are __ proteins a. integral; peripheral b. peripheral; integral c. integral; cytoplasmic d. peripheral; cytoplasmic e. cytoplasmic; integral 49. A fully activated receptor tyrosine kinase, a. is an unphosphorylated dimer b. has bound a ligand c. is a phosphorylated dimer d. is a phosphorylated monomer e. is an unphosphorylated monomer

50. Receptor tyrosine kinases that function even in the absence of signaling molecules can lead to, a. a decrease in enzymatic activity b. a decrease in transcription c. unregulated cell division d. increased neurotransmitter release e. decreased glycogen breakdown 51. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Mitosis produces new nuclei with exactly the same chromosomal endowment as the parent nucleus. b. Mitosis may occur without cytokinesis. c. Mitosis and cytokinesis are required for asexual reproduction. d. All cells come from a preexisting cell. e. The mitotic spindles in prokaryotic cells are composed of microtubules. The questions below refer to the following terms. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all. A. B. C. D. E. telophase anaphase prometaphase metaphase prophase

52. Two centrosomes are arranged at opposite poles of the cell. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 53. This is the longest of the mitotic stages. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E 54. If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested? a. anaphase b. prophase c. telophase d. metaphase e. interphase 55. A cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would, at its completion, produce two nuclei containing how many chromosomes? a. 12 b. 16 c. 23 d. 46 e. 92

56. Microtubules of the spindle originate from ___ and attach to ___ bound to chromatids. a. metaphase plates; centromeres b. centrosomes; kinetochores c. centromeres; kinetochores d. kinetochores; centrosomes e. centrosomes; centromeres 57. Cytokinesis usually, but not always, follows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis, the result would be a cell with a. a single large nucleus. b. high concentrations of actin and myosin. c. two abnormally small nuclei. d. two nuclei. e. two nuclei but with half the amount of DNA. 58. How do the daughter cells at the end of mitosis and cytokinesis compare with their parent cell when it was in G1 of the cell cycle? a. The daughter cells have half the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA. b. The daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. c. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA. d. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA. e. The daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA. 59. Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells? a. They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture. b. When they stop dividing, they do so at random points in the cell cycle. c. They are not subject to cell cycle controls. d. B and C only e. A, B, and C 60. A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with a cyclin-dependent kinase called Cdk 2. This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G1 into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The amount of cyclin E is greatest during the S phase. b. The amount of Cdk 2 is greater during G1 compared to the S phase. c. The amount of cyclin E is highest during G1 . d. The amount of Cdk 2 is greatest during G1 . e. The activity of the cyclin E/Cdk 2 complex is highest during G2 . Matching Match the following root words with their definitions a. loosen d. sheet/layer b. a little pipe e. green c. nucleus 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. chloro karyo lamin lyso tubul 10

ID: A

AP Biology Cells Test 09 Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: A C B E B C D D A A C E B B D D B A B A C C E C E C C C E C E E B A A A B A B E D D A D PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: TOP: 1

Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept

6.1 6.1 6.2 6.3 | Concept 6.4 6.4 6.4 6.4 6.4 6.4 6.5 6.4 6.5 6.5 6.5 6.6 6.6 7.1 7.1 7.1 7.1 7.1 7.1 7.2 7.2 7.3 7.3 7.3 7.3 7.4 7.4 7.4 7.5 7.4 11.1 11.1 11.1 11.1 11.2 11.2 11.2 11.2 11.3 11.3

ID: A 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: C C D A C C E C D D D B D D E C PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 TOP: Concept 11.3 TOP: Concept 11.3

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Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept Concept

12.2 12.2 12.2 12.2 12.2 12.2 12.2 12.1 | Concept 12.2 12.3 12.3

MATCHING 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: ANS: E C D A B PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: PTS: 1 1 1 1 1