Unit Seven B: Animals

Chapter 45 - Chemical Signals MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the
statement or answers the question. 1) All of the following statements about hormones are correct except: A) They are carried by the circulatory system. B) They are used to communicate between different organisms. C) They elicit specific biological responses from target cells. D) They are produced by endocrine glands. E) They are modified amino acids, peptides, or steroid molecules. 2) Hormones are able to control homeostasis because A) they may be found in the lymphatic system. B) they are not produced by exocrine glands. C) they are steroids. D) they are subject to negative feedback. E) they are present at low concentrations. 3) An overdose of which hormone would result in the molting of insects? A) ecdysone B) prothoracic hormone C) oxytocin D) juvenile hormone E) brain hormone 4) Which of the following hormonal changes would result in the molt of an insect from an immature stage to an adult? A) increase in ecdysone, decrease in juvenile hormone B) increase in both ecdysone and juvenile hormone C) decrease in ecdysone, increase in juvenile hormone D) decrease in both ecdysone and juvenile hormone E) None of these choices is correct because molting is controlled strictly by the nervous system.

5) What do nitrous oxide and epinephrine have in common? A) They both function as hormones. B) They both function as neurotransmitters. C) They are both involved in the "fight-or-flight" response. D) A and B are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct. 6) Prostaglandins are derived from A) amino acids. B) sugars. C) steroids. D) fatty acids. E) ammonia. 7) Substance X is secreted by one cell, travels a short distance through interstitial fluid, and produces an effect in a cell immediately adjacent to the original secreting cell. All of the following terms might fit this substance except A) growth factor. B) nitric oxide. C) prostaglandin. D) neurotransmitter. E) pheromone. 8) Aspirin and ibuprofen affect the production of A) prostaglandins. B) neurotransmitters. C) histamine. D) interleukins. E) hormones. 9) Based on their effects, which choice could be considered antagonists? A) prostaglandin F and nitrous oxide B) neurosecretory cells and neurotransmitters C) growth hormone and ecdysone D) hormones and target cells E) endocrine and exocrine glands

10) A cell that contains membrane proteins enabling a hormone to selectively bind to its plasma membrane is called a(n) A) endocrine cell. B) target cell. C) regulatory cell. D) plasma cell. E) secretory cell. 11) Only certain cells in the body are target cells for the steroid hormone aldosterone. Which of the following is the best explanation for why these are the only cells that respond to this hormone? A) Only target cells contain receptors for aldosterone. B) Nontarget cells convert aldosterone to a hormone to which they do respond. C) Nontarget cells destroy aldosterone before it can produce its effect. D) Only target cells are exposed to aldosterone. E) Aldosterone is unable to enter nontarget cells. 12) A varying response to a common chemical messenger is possible because A) the circulatory system regulates responses to hormones by routing the hormones to specific targets. B) various target cells differ in their receptors to the same hormone. C) each cell knows how it fits into the body's master plan. D) various target cells have different genes. E) the hormone is chemically altered in different ways as it travels through different branches of the circulatory system. 13) An enzyme cascade A) activates the parathyroid gland. B) takes several days to occur. C) ends in steroid hormone release. D) increases the response to a hormone. E) initiates regulation of the nervous system.

14) Frequently, very few molecules of a hormone are required to effect changes in a target cell. This is because A) the mechanism of hormonal action involves an enzyme cascade that amplifies the response to a hormone. B) hormones are lipid soluble and readily penetrate the membranes of the target cell. C) hormones are large molecules that persist for years and can repeatedly stimulate the same cell. D) the mechanism of hormonal action involves memory cells that have had prior contact with the hormone and immediately respond to its presence. E) the mechanism of hormonal action involves the rapid replication of the hormone within the target cell to quickly magnify the hormone's effect. 15) Two kinds of cells may respond differently to the same steroid hormone because A) they have different acceptor proteins on the chromatin. B) they have different receptor proteins within the cell. C) the acceptor proteins are associated with different genes in the two kinds of cells. D) steroid hormones usually transmit signals that are antagonistic. E) the hormone-receptor complex is transcribed and processed differently in the two kinds of cells.

Chapter 46 - Animal Reproduction MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the
statement or answers the question. 1) What do budding and gemmules have in common? A) Both produce large numbers of offspring. B) Both occur in cnidarians. C) Both are types of asexual reproduction. D) A and B are correct. E) Both occur in sponges. 2) Asexual reproduction in animals might involve A) regeneration. B) fragmentation and gemmule production. C) fission and budding. D) A and B only. E) A, B, and C. 3) Which of the following are possible advantages of asexual reproduction? A) It enables the species to rapidly colonize new regions. B) It enhances genetic variability in the species. C) It allows the species to endure periods of fluctuating or unstable environmental conditions. D) A and B only. E) A, B, and C. 4) Why do genetic mutations in asexual organisms lead to more evolutionary change than genetic mutations in sexual forms? A) More genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually. B) Asexual organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually. C) Asexual organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction. D) Sexual organisms can produce more offspring in a given time. E) The haploid mutations of asexual organisms are immediately expressed. 5) What are the advantages of asexual reproduction? A) It enhances the survival rates of parents. B) The limited number of offspring prevents overpopulation. C) It promotes genetic stability. D) It promotes geographic distribution of species. E) It allows animals to replace lost appendages.

6) Which of the following is a form of asexual reproduction? A) parthenogenesis B) protandry C) protogyny D) hermaphroditism E) anadromesis 7) You observe an organism with the following characteristics: parthenogenetic reproduction, internal development of embryos, presence of an amnion, lack of parental care of young. Of the following, the organism is probably a(an) A) mammal. B) lizard. C) bird. D) frog. E) earthworm. 8) Which animal would be least likely to be hermaphroditic? A) liver fluke B) tapeworm C) lobster D) earthworm E) barnacle 9) Why is sexual reproduction important? A) It can result in numerous offspring in a short amount of time. B) The resulting diverse phenotypes may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment. C) It allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions. D) It enables isolated animals to colonize a habitat rapidly. E) Both A and D are important. 10) Which of the following is not required for internal fertilization? A) internal development of the embryo B) copulatory organ C) sperm receptacle D) behavioral interaction E) All of the above are necessary for internal fertilization.

11) Why is internal fertilization considered more advantageous than external fertilization? A) Usually fewer offspring are produced, so ample food supply is available. B) The increased survival rate results in rapid population increases. C) The smaller number of offspring often receive a greater amount of parental protection. D) Usually a smaller number of genes are present, which promotes genetic stability. E) The time and energy devoted to reproduction is decreased. 12) Internal and external fertilization both A) produce a zygote. B) occur in vertebrates. C) occur in eutherian animals. D) A and B only are correct. E) A and C only are correct. 13) Organisms that produce amniote eggs, in general A) invest more parenting energy than do placental animals. B) invest most of their reproductive energy in the embryonic and early postnatal development of their offspring. C) produce more gametes than do those animals with external fertilization and development. D) have a higher embryo mortality rate than do those with unprotected embryos. E) All of the above are correct. 14) Which of these is not a correct statement about reproduction in invertebrates? A) A few species split open to release gametes to the environment. B) Some invertebrates have structures that store sperm. C) Many invertebrates utilize external fertilization. D) Many invertebrates have separate sexes. E) Invertebrates do not engage in copulation. 15) A cloaca is an anatomical structure found in most vertebrates, which functions as A) a common exit for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems. B) a gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening. C) a specialized sperm-transfer device produced by males. D) a region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females. E) a source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes.

Chapter 47 - Animal Development MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the
statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is a function of the contents of the acrosome during fertilization? A) to help propel the sperm B) to digest the exterior coats of the egg C) to trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm cell D) to nourish the mitochondria of the sperm E) to block polyspermy 2) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning the vitelline layer of the sea urchin egg? A) It is outside the fertilization membrane. B) It has receptor molecules that are specific for binding acrosomal proteins. C) It releases calcium, which initiates the cortical reaction. D) Only A and B are correct. E) A, B, and C are correct. 3) The cortical reaction functions directly in the A) formation of a fertilization membrane. B) generation of a nervelike impulse by the egg cell. C) production of a fast block to polyspermy. D) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei. E) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell. 4) What causes the "slow block" to polyspermy? A) formation of the fertilization membrane B) a transient voltage change across the membrane C) the jelly coat blocking sperm penetration D) inactivation of the sperm acrosome E) the consumption of yolk protein 5) Which of the following is least related to the others? A) cortical reaction B) slow block to polyspermy C) bindin

D) fertilization membrane E) cortical granules 6) If an egg cell contained EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium, what effect would this have on reproduction? A) The zygote would not contain 46 chromosomes. B) The fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked. C) The fertilization envelope would not be formed. D) The acrosomal reaction would be blocked. E) The fast block to polyspermy would not occur. 7) Which statement about egg developement is true? A) The contents of the cortical granules contribute to the fast block to polyspermy. B) The mRNA involved with early activation of the egg arises from the sperm nucleus. C) A second messenger system is activated following fertilization. D) Eggs without a nucleus cannot initiate division. E) The sperm and egg micronuclei have fused by the end of the cortical reaction. 8) Arrange the following stages of fertilization and early development into a proper sequence. I. onset of new DNA synthesis II. cortical reaction III. first cell division IV. acrosomal reaction; plasma membrane depolarization V. fusion of egg and sperm nuclei complete A) III, V, I, IV, II B) IV, II, V, I, III C) V, III, I, II, IV D) V, I, IV, II, III E) I, III, II, IV, V 9) All of the following statements about fertilization are correct except: A) It invaginates the blastula to form the gastrula. B) A slow block to polyspermy occurs when cortical granules erect a fertilization membrane. C) Gamete fusion depolarizes the egg cell membrane and sets up a fast block to polyspermy. D) Egg cell depolarization initiates the cortical reaction. E) It reinstates diploidy.

10) What part of the sperm first contacts the egg plasma membrane? A) the posterior acrosomal membrane B) the anterior plasma membrane C) the fertilization membrane D) the posterior plasma membrane E) the anterior acrosomal membrane 11) All of the following occur during early cleavage of an animal zygote except: A) The nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio of the cells increases. B) The embryo grows significantly in mass. C) The developing cell undergoes mitosis. D) The developing cell undergoes cytokinesis. E) The ratio of surface area to volume of the cells increases. 12) How does the animal pole differ from the vegetal pole of a zygote? A) The animal pole has a higher concentration of yolk. B) The polar bodies bud from this region. C) The posterior end of the embryo forms here. D) The animal pole gives rise to the hemisphere with yellow yolk. E) The blastomere originates in the animal pole. 13) Which of the following is correct about the yolk of the frog egg? A) It is concentrated at the animal pole. B) It is homogeneously arranged in the egg. C) It impedes the formation of a primitive streak. D) It prevents gastrulation. E) It leads to unequal rates of cleavage for the animal pole compared to the vegetal pole. 14) You observe an embryo in which the initial cleavage divisions are radial and meroblastic, extraembryonic membranes develop, and a primitive streak is formed. How would you identify this organism, based on the information given? A) mammal B) reptile or bird C) fish or amphibian D) bird or mammal E) invertebrate

15) Meroblastic cleavage occurs in which of the following? I. sea urchins II. humans III. birds A) I only B) III only C) I and II only D) I and III only E) II and III only

Chapter 48 - Nervous Systems MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the
statement or answers the question. 1) An organism that lacks integration centers A) will not have a nervous system. B) cannot receive stimuli. C) will not be able to interpret stimuli. D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons. E) Both A and D are correct. 2) What do muscles, nerves, and glands have in common? A) They are target cells. B) They are referred to as postsynaptic cells. C) They synapse with neurons. D) A and B E) A, B, and C 3) Integration of simple responses to certain stimuli, such as the patellar reflex, is accomplished by which of the following? A) cerebellum B) medulla C) spinal cord D) corpus callosum E) hypothalamus 4) The general functions of the nervous system include which of the following? I. integration II. motor output III. sensory input A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I and II only E) I, II, and III

5) A ganglion is a group of nerve cell bodies A) anywhere in the nervous system. B) within the brain. C) within the spinal cord. D) in the peripheral nervous system. E) in the central nervous system. 6) The blood-brain barrier A) is formed by tight junctions. B) provides support to the brain tissue. C) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord. D) is formed by oligodendrocytes. E) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS. 7) A squirrel chewing the insulation off an electrical wire is analogous to A) Schwann cells failing to myelinate axons of the CNA. B) the nodes of Ranvier in the PNS. C) the deterioration of the brain-blood barrier. D) demyelination of the nervous system. E) the depolarization of the unmyelinated axons. 8) Which of the following statements is false? A) Gray matter is the site of neuronal integration. B) Astrocytes can communicate with nerve cells. C) The outside of a cell is negative with respect to the inside of a cell. D) Squid axons are a model system for nerve conductance. E) All cells have a membrane potential. 9) If the concentration of potassium in the cytoplasm of a nerve cell with a resting membrane potential of -70 mV were elevated above normal, the new resting potential would A) still be -70 mV. B) reverse polarity. C) be 0 mV. D) be -69 mV or higher. E) be -71 mV or lower.

10) Neurons at rest are not at the equilibrium potential for K+ because the cell membrane is A) only permeable to Na+. B) slightly permeable to Na+. C) not permeable to K+. D) only permeable to K+. E) not permeable to Na+. 11) If an otherwise normal nerve cell were made permeable to large negative ions, what would happen? A) The membrane potential would become positive. B) The membrane potential would not form. C) The Na+/K+ pump would not function. D) Potassium would not leave the resting cell. E) Sodium would not enter the resting cell. 12) The sodium-potassium pump of neurons pumps A) Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell. B) Na+ and K+ into the cell. C) Na+ and K+ into the cell and H+ out of the cell through an antiport. D) Na+ and K+ out of the cell. E) Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell. The questions below refer to the following information: An unknown organism has been discovered. It contains long cells with excitable membranes that scientists suspect are used for rapid information transfer. The membrane of the cell is permeable only to ion X, which carries a negative charge. Active transport pumps in the membrane move X into the cell while simultaneously moving ion Y, also carrying a negative charge, out of the cell. 13) Which of the following is true about the establishment of the resting membrane potential in this cell? A) A negative resting potential is directly produced by the diffusion of Y- into the cell. B) The resting potential of this cell will be zero. C) A positive resting potential is directly produced by the diffusion of X- out of the cell. D) The resting potential of this cell will be negative. E) A negative resting potential is directly produced by the pump moving a negative charge into the cell.

14) When neurotransmitter Z is released into the extracellular fluid in contact with a portion of the cell membrane, channels open that allow both X- and Y- through the membrane. Which of the following is incorrect? A) The membrane will depolarize. B) Y- will diffuse into the cell. C) The channels are chemically gated. D) The magnitude of the potential will immediately increase. E) X- will diffuse out of the cell. 15) The threshold potential of a membrane A) opens voltage-sensitive gates that result in the rapid outflow of sodium ions. B) is a graded potential that is proportional to the strength of a stimulus. C) is equal to about 70 mV. D) is equal to about 35 mV. E) is the depolarization that is needed to generate an action potential.

Chapter 49 - Sensory and Motor Mechanisms MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the
statement or answers the question. 1) When an organism dies, its muscles remain in a contracted state termed rigor mortis for a brief period of time. Which of the following most directly contributes to this phenomenon? A) no ATP to break bonds between the thick and thin filaments B) no oxygen supplied to muscle C) no energy for the synthesis of actin and myosin D) no ATP to move cross-bridges E) no calcium to bind to troponin 2) Muscle cells are stimulated by neurotransmitters released from the tips of A) T tubules. B) motor cell axons. C) motor cell dendrites. D) sensory cell dendrites. E) sensory cell axons. 3) Which of the following does not form part of the thin filaments of a muscle cell? A) tropomyosin B) calcium-binding site C) troponin D) myosin E) actin 4) What is the role of calcium in muscle contractions? A) to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the actin filament is exposed B) to break the cross-bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP C) to transmit the action potential across the neuromuscular junction D) to spread the action potential through the T tubules E) to reestablish the polarization of the plasma's membrane following an action potential

5) During muscle contraction, the ion that leaks out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum and induces myofibrils to contract is A) Cl-. B) K+. C) Mg2+. D) Ca2+. E) Na+. The question below refers to the following information. 1. Tropomyosin shifts and unblocks the cross-bridge binding sites. 2. Calcium is released and binds to troponin. 3. Transverse tubules depolarize the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 4. The thin filaments are ratcheted across the thick filaments by the heads of the myosin molecules and ATP. 5. An action potential in a motor neuron causes the axon to release acetylcholine, which depolarizes the muscle cell membrane. 6) For the events listed above, which of the following is the correct sequence for their occurrence during the excitation and contraction of a muscle cell? A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 C) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4 D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4 E) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4 7) Which of the following could you find in the lumen of a transverse tubule? A) extracellular fluid B) myosin C) cytoplasm D) sarcomeres E) actin 8) A sustained muscle contraction due to a lack of relaxation between successive stimuli is called A) an all-or-none response. B) fatigue. C) a spasm. D) tonus. E) tetanus.

9) The breast muscle of turkeys and chickens is usually referred to as light meat, whereas that of wild ducks and geese is described as dark meat. Which of the following is consistent with this observation? A) The darker body color of ducks and geese provides protective camouflage against predators. B) Turkeys and chickens are not closely related to ducks and geese. C) Turkeys and chickens do not fly for sustained periods; ducks and geese do. D) The muscles of these two groups of birds contain different filamentous proteins. E) Turkeys and chickens do not use their breast muscle, whereas ducks and geese do. 10) Which of the following are shared by skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle? A) transverse tubules B) A bands and I bands C) gap junctions D) motor units E) thick and thin filaments 11) Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis along the digestive tract? A) voluntary B) smooth C) skeletal D) striated E) cardiac 12) Which adaptation best accounts for the efficiency of the dolphin as it is adapted to movement through water? A) its large oarlike flippers B) the presence of a large powerful tail C) the blowhole located on the top of its head D) the torpedo shape of its body E) none of these 13) Hydrostatic skeletons are normally used for movement by all of the following except A) crustaceans. B) cnidarians. C) annelids. D) flatworms. E) nematodes.

14) What structural feature contributes most to the diverse adaptations for animal movement? A) nervous system B) skeletal system C) muscular system D) sensory system E) both B and C 15) Hair cells can be found in all of the following locations except A) the lateral line system of fish. B) the statocysts of invertebrates. C) the organ of Corti in humans. D) the retina of mammals. E) the semicircular canals in mammals.

Unit Seven B: Animals

Chapter 45 - Chemical Signals
1) Answer: B 6) Answer: D 11) Answer: A 2) Answer: D 7) Answer: E 12) Answer: B 3) Answer: E 8) Answer: A 13) Answer: D 4) Answer: A 9) Answer: A 14) Answer: A 5) Answer: D 10) Answer: B 15) Answer: C

Chapter 46 - Animal Reproduction

1) Answer: C 6) Answer: A 11) Answer: C 2) Answer: E 7) Answer: B 12) Answer: D 3) Answer: A 8) Answer: C 13) Answer: B 4) Answer: E 9) Answer: B 14) Answer: E 5) Answer: C 10) Answer: A 15) Answer: A

Chapter 47 - Animal Development

1) Answer: B 6) Answer: C 11) Answer: B 2) Answer: B 7) Answer: C 12) Answer: B 3) Answer: A 8) Answer: B 13) Answer: E 4) Answer: A 9) Answer: A 14) Answer: D 5) Answer: C 10) Answer: A 15) Answer: B

Chapter 48 - Nervous Systems

1) Answer: C 6) Answer: A 11) Answer: B 2) Answer: E 7) Answer: D 12) Answer: E 3) Answer: C 8) Answer: C 13) Answer: C 4) Answer: E 9) Answer: D 14) Answer: D 5) Answer: D 10) Answer: B 15) Answer: E

Chapter 49 - Sensory and Motor Mechanisms

1) Answer: A 6) Answer: D 11) Answer: B 2) Answer: B 7) Answer: A 12) Answer: D 3) Answer: D 8) Answer: E 13) Answer: A 4) Answer: A 9) Answer: C 14) Answer: E 5) Answer: D 10) Answer: E 15) Answer: D