Part I December 1985 1.

A section of the posterior lobe of the hypophysis contains mainly 1. 2. 3. 4. follicles. alpha and beta cells. chromophobes and chromophils. unmyelinated nerve fibers.

Anatom ic Sciences

7.

The epithelial root sheath (Hertwig) is essential to development of the root of a tooth because it
1.

2.
3.

2.

The artery most commonly involved in stroke is the 1. 2. 3. 4. lenticulostriate. anterior cerebral. posterior cerebral. middle meningeal.

4.

remains as an essentiaJ constituent of the periodontal ligament. gives rise to cementoblasts that produce cementum of the root. gives rise to odontoblasts that lay down denti n of the root. molds the shape of the root and stimulates differentiation of odontoblasts.

8.

In skeletal muscle, a triad consists of

1.

3.

The fiber group in the periodontal ligament that constitutes the main support of the tooth against masticatory forces is the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. apical. oblique. transverse. horizontal. transseptal.

2. 3. 4. 5.

a "T" tubule and associated mitochondria. a "T" tubule and invagination of the sarcolemma. a zone of attachment between adjacent cells. terminal cisternae and sarcoplasmic reticulum. terminal cisternae and a fingerlike invagination of the sarcolemma.

4.

Nonarticular surfaces of the temporomandibular joint are covered with

1. 2. 3. 4. periosteum. fibrocartilage. elastic carti lage. hyaline cartilage.

9.

The arterial supply of the submandibular gland is from which branch of the external

carotid artery?
1. 2. 3. 4.

Ascending pharyngeal Superior thyroid Maxillary Facial

5.

Which of the following elements are present during development and growth of the alveolar process? 1. 2. 3. 4. Osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteoid Osteoblasts, osteoid, megakaryocytes Perichondrium, osteoblasts, periosteal bud Periosteum, epiphyseal ossification centers, osteoblasts

10.

The cytoplasm of osteoblasts stains intensely with basic dyes. This is caused by the 1. 2. 3. 4. high ribonucleic acid .content. high content of potassium ions. increased number of mitochondria. presence of acidophilic substances.

6.

11.
Which of the following structures may be found within the posterior mediastinum?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Which of the following structures crosses the masseter muscle and pierces the buccinator muscle? 1. 2. 3. 4. Parotid duct Masseteric nerve Transverse facial artery Zygomatic muscle branch of the facial nerve

Heart Phrenic nerve Thoracic duct Arch of the aorta Recurrent laryngeal nerve

12.

In the Pain Gate Theory, a controller system modulates sensory input so that there is a selective and integrative action occurring before impulses reach the first synapse for onward transmission. The gate controller in this system is the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. T-cell. large A fiber. small C fiber. central control. substantia gelatinosa.

17.

Of the structures seen on a ground section of a permanent lateral incisor, which of the following was formed first? 1. 2. 3. 4. Perikymata Enamel spindle Gnarled enamel Granular layer of Tomes

18.

Colloid in the usual thyroid follicle stains 1. 2. 3. 4. basophilic. acidophilic. positive for DNA. positive for steroids.

13.

Which of the following adult salivary glands are entirely serous? 1. 2. 3. 4. Ebner's Ebner's Ebner's Parotid and and and and palatal parotid sublingual submandibular

19.

In the photomicrograph below of the interface of dental pulp and dentin, predentin is indicated with the letter

14.

Which of the following arteries is most concerned with the blood supply to the upper lip? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Facial Maxillary External nasal Greater palatine Anterior superior alveolar

15.

The alternate loosening and tightening of a primary tooth that is about to be shed results from 1.
2. 3. 4.

lack of a developing permanent successor. labial movement of the developing permanent tooth. alternate resorption and apposition of cementum and bone. alternate softening and hardening of alveolar bone proper.

1. 2. 3. 4.

A. B. C. D.

16.

Which of the following structures can be palpated by way of the external acoustic meatus? 1. 2. 3. 4. Zygomatic arch Mandibular notch Lateral pterygoid muscle Posterior aspect of the mandibular condyle

20.

The middle cranial fossa is separated from the posterior cranial fossa primarily by the 1. 2. 3. 4. crista galli. groove for the transvere sinus. lesser wing of the sphenoid bone. petrous part of the temporal bone.

21.

The normoblast is a developmental stage of

the

26.

1. 2. 3. 4.

monocyte. lymphocyte. eosinophil.

e ryth rocyte.

Which of the following has no lymph sinuses and is surrounded partly by connective tissue and partly by epithelium, the latter forming deep infoldings?
1. 2. 3. 4. J.

Thymus Peyer's patch Lingual tonsil Palatine tonsil Pharyngeal tonsil

22.

When a tendon or a ligament is attached to bone, the attaching fibers are 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Tomes' fibers. principal fibers. haversian fibers. Sharpey's fibers. interstitial fibers.

27.

In a relaxed state, transitional epithelium can be distinguished from stratified squamous epithelium because transitional epithelium contai ns 1. 2. 3. 4. stratum corneum. flattened superficial cells. dome-shaped superficial cells. more visible ground substance.

23.

The middle cerebral artery is distributed on the

1. 2.

28.

The free gingival groove is related to the 1. 2.

3. 4. J.

3. 4. 5.

ventral surface of the brain stem. ventral surface of the cerebral hemisphere. lateral surface of the cerebral hemisphere. anterior region of the medial surface of the cerebral hemisphere. posterior region of the medial surface or the cerebral hemisphere.

alveolar crest. probe-depth measurement. base of the histologic sulcus. degree of periodontal health. arrangement of supraalveolar fibers.

29.

In the human embryo, during the third week of development, the first branchial arch divides to form the mandibular process and the 1. 2. 3. hyoid arch. thyrohyoid arch. branchial pouch. maxillary process. frontonasal process. ligament is attached

24.

The fate of Meckel's cartilage is believed to be 1. 2. 3. 4. dissolution without contribution to any definitive structure. dissolution with minor contribution to ossification. an active role in ossification of the mandibular body. an active role in ossification of the alveolar process.

4. J.

30.

The sphenomandibular to the 1.

2. 3. 4.

lesser wing of the sphenoid bone and the neck of the mandible. spine of the sphenoid bone and lingula of the mandible. spine of the sphenoid bone and the angle of the mandible. None of the above

25.

The long axes of mandibular condyles intersect at the foramen magnum indicating that these axes are directed
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

31.

After exertion, an athlete is puffing. Which of the following paired muscles helps maintain a wide airway through the larynx? 1. 2. 3. 4. Cricothyroid. Aryepiglottic Thyroarytenoid Posterior cricoarytenoid

transversely. anteroposteriorly. anteromedially. posteromedially. None of the above

. .

32.

Which of the following lacking in thin skin?

layers is totally

37.

Bifid tongue is a result of lack of fusion of the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Stratum Stratum Stratum Stratum Stratum

basale lucidum spinosum corneum granulosum

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

copula. valleculae. tuberculum impar. lateral swellings. None of the above

33.

Accessory root canals can be formed by 1. 2. 3. 4. retention of the stellate reticulum. adherence of the root sheath to the dentinal surface. a break in the root sheath before formation of dentin. an epithelial rest that lies in contact with the dentin of the root.

38.

The greater peritoneal sac communicates with the lesser peritoneal sac by means of the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

aortic hiatus. inguinal canal. epiploic foramen. lesser pelvic aperture. superior pelvic aperture.

34.

The arrow in the sketch below points to the

39.

Right subclavian and right common carotid arteries arise from the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

thoracic aorta. ascending aorta. arch of the aorta. pulmonary artery. brachiocephalic artery.

40.

Which of the following is the embryonic precursor of cementoblasts? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Dental sac Dental papilla Inner enamel epithelium Outer enamel epithel i um Epithelial root sheath (Hertwig)

1. 2. 3. 4.

abducens nucleus. oculomotor nucleus. motor nucleus of the trigeminal nerve. motor nucleus of the hypoglossal nerve.

41.

The medial (internal) pterygoid muscle is attached to the

35.

Gingiva is different from alveolar mucosa in that gingiva has

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

elastic fibers. simple epithelium. muscularis mucosa. stratified epithelium. high connective tissue papillae.

pterygoid hamulus. lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate. medial surface of the lateral pterygoid plate. medial surface of the medial pterygoid plate. lateral surface of the greater wing of the sphenoid.

36.

Cyclic DNA has been found in or associated with which of the following organelles?

42.

Schwann's cells arise from

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Centriole Mitochondrion Golgi apparatus Rough endoplasmic reticulum Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

1. 2. 3. 4.

glial cells.
spongioblasts. neural crest cells. neuroepithel ial cells of the ependymal zone.

43.

Which of the following describes the manner in which tissue fluid reaches the epithelium of the skin?

48.

During deep inspiration, the diaphragm behaves in which of the following ways?

1.
2.

3. 4.

Arterioles are directly involved in tissue fluid exchange with the epithelium. Capillaries. are directly involved in tissue fluid exchange with the epithelium. Tissue fluid is obtained through the ground substance of connective tissue from arterioles. Tissue fluid is obtained through the ground substance of connective tissue from capillaries.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

It It It It It

relaxes. moves inferiorly. moves superiorly. does not change position. compresses thoracic viscera.

49.

Which of the following structures passes through the foramen rotundum?

44.

In the condition of hypersecretion of growth hormone, which of the following determines whether gigantism or acromegaly results?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Maxillary nerve Zygomatic nerve lacrimal artery Maxillary artery

1. 2. 3.
4.

The genetic make-up of the individual The nutritional state of the individual Whether epiphyses of the long bones are fused Whether there is a concomitant excess of thyroxine

50.

Peripherally located nuclei are found in which of the following types of adult muscle cells?

45.

Which of the following muscles serves as the prime extensor of the forearm?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
46.

Biceps brachii Triceps brachii . Brachioradialis latissimus dorsi Extensor digitorum communis

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Smooth Cardiac Skeletal Smooth Cardiac

only only only and cardiac and skeletal

The circulatory system of a near-term fetus differs from that of an adult in that, in the fetus, the 1. 2. 3. ductus venosus carries unoxygenated blood. ductus arteriosus carries fully oxygenated blood. foramen ovale allows blood to pass primarily from the right atrium to the left atrium.

51.

The spheno-occipital synchondrosis in the midline of the cranial base of a newborn consists of

1. 2. 3. 4.

hyaline cartilage. elastic cartilage. fibrous cartilage. fibrous connective tissue.

52. 4i.
Inorganic crystals in enamel have their long axes parallel to the rods in the 1. 2. 3. 4. centers of the bodies of the rods only. periphery of the bodies of the rods only. bodies of the rods and deviating increasingly in the tails. tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the centers of the bodies to the periphery. tails of the rods and deviating increasingly from the periphery of the bodies to the centers.

The papillary layer of the dermis differs from the reticular layer in that the papillary layer 1. 2. 3. contains larger blood vessels than the reticular layer. has a few elastic fibers, whereas the reticular layer has no elastic fibers. is composed of coarse collagenous fibers, whereas the reticular layer is composed of predominately fine collagenous fibers. is more finely constructed, whereas the reticular layer contains coarser collagenous fibers as a component.

5.

4.

6 . .

53.

In an adult, cerebrospinal fluid can be aspirated most safely by inserting the needle between third and fourth lumbar vertebrae because 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. the spinal cord does not extend below lumbar 2. the subarachnoid space does not extend . below lumbar 4. there is more space between laminae of these vertebrae. there are no important nerves in this part of the vertebral canal. there is little danger of entering the internal vertebral plexus at this level.

58.

The upper five or six anterior intercostal arteries are branches of the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. thoracic aorta. musculophrenic arteries. pericardiacophrenic arteries. internal thoracic arteries. superior epigastric arteries.

59.

Which of the following cells contains a large amount of rough-surfaced endoplasmic reticulum? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Lymphocyte Eosinophil Plasma cell Skeletal muscle cell Reticuloendothelial cell

54.

Ependymal cells constitute the tissue that

1. lines the ventricles of the brain. 2. lines the ventricles of the heart. 3. forms a part of the peripheral neuroglia. 4. covers nerve cell bodies in a ganglion. 55. 60.

The oral mucosa of the cheek differs from the skin covering the outer surface of the lip by possessing

The facial process indicated with the letter A in the sketch below of the head and neck region of a human embryo gives rise to the

1. sweat glands in the submucosa. 2. groups of sebaceous glands associated

3. 4. 5. with hair follicles. dense, collagenous fibers that immovably fix it to the orbicularis oris musCle. a stratified, squamous, keratinized epithelium with a thicker lamina propria. a stratified, squamous, nonkeratinized. epithelium with a thinner lamina propria.
"".', J \ t ,

,.-. ,.~"

"..-"

56.

Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. mitotic division of osteocytes. mitotic division of osteoblasts. resorption of primary bone by osteoclasts. appositional growth on the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate. interstitial growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate.

1. 2. 3. 4.

nasal septum. nasal conchae. primary palate. secondary palate.

57.

61.
Which of the following cells aid in the immunologic defense of the body? 1. 2. 3. 4. Mast cells Giant cells Neutrophils Plasma cells

Polymerization of amino acids to form procollagen filaments occurs 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. on ribosomes. in the golgi apparatus. on the fibroblast surface. in rough, endoplasmic reticulum. after cleavage of the registration peptide. ,.'

r
';'1
:.
.i (

62.

In salivary glands, folds of the basal portion of the cell membrane containing mitochondria are characteristic of the 1. cells composing demilunes. 2. cells of the striated ducts. 3. -cells of the intercalated ducts. 4. serous cells of the parotid gland.

68.

Multiple root formation in a tooth follows unequal proliferation of the 1. 2. 3. 4. dental sac. dental papilla. epithelial rests. epithelial diaphragm.
.

63.

The cell body of a somatic afferent neuron is found in the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. dorsal horn of the spinal cord. ventral horn of the spinal cord. dorsal root ganglion of a spinal nerve. ventral root ganglion of a spinal nerve. ganglion of .the autonomic neryous system.

69.

To expose the submandibular duct by an intraoral approach, one must cut through 1. 2. 3. 4. mucous mucous muscle. mucous muscle. mucous muscle. membrane only. membrane and the genioglossus . membrane and the buccinator membrane and the geniohyoid

.~

64.

The cores of intestinal villi consist of 1. 2. 3. loose connective tissue and folds of muscularis externa. folds of submucosa that contain blood vessels and Meissner's plexus. a lamina propria that contains blood vessels, nerves and lacteals. connective tissue and two fairly substantial layers of smooth muscle.

70.

In which of the following glands is the blood supply most isolated from the parenchyma? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Thymus Spleen Lymph node Peyer's patch Pharyngeal tonsil

4.

65.

During growth of the mandible, resting lines are seen in the cortical bone. This phenomenon is a result of

71.

The pterygoid plexus and its tributaries are the venous parallel of the
1. 2. 3. 4.

1. bone apposition. 2. internal stress in bone. 3. calcification of cartilage. 4. eruption of permanent teeth. 5. endochondral bone resorption. 72. 66.
The mylohyoid muscle functions to 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. depress the hyoid bone. raise the floor of the mouth. approximate faucial pillars. close the opening to the nasopharynx. prevent food from entering the larynx.

facial artery. maxiIlary artery. internal carotid artery. superficial temporal artery.

Eversion of valves of atrioventricular orifices of the heart is prevented by papillary muscles and 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. the terminal crest. the ligamentum teres. the ligamentum venosum. chordae tendineae cordis. trabeculae carneae cordis.

67.

Infections or neoplasms that spread by lymphatics from the skin of the angle of the mouth pass to the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. parotid nodes. cavernous sinus. pterygoid plexus. submandibular nodes. anterior auricular nodes.

73.

A lymph node is characterized by 1. 2. 3.

4.

containing medullary cords. lacking afferent lymphatics. having crypts lined with stratified squamous epithelium. having efferent lymphatics leaving at multiple sites from the capsule.

li1 J 1 1J

74.

An organ with a retroperitoneal location that can be approached surgically without violating the community of the peritoneum is the

80.

Considering number and location, the parathyroid glands are usually

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. single and dorsal to the thyroid gland. single and embedded in the dorsum of the thyroid gland. multiple and embedded in the dorsum of the thyroid gland. multiple and just superior to the thyroid gland. not related to the thyroid gland.

1. ovary. 2. kidney. 3. spleen. 4. gallbladder.

75.

The component of bone tissue that gives bone tensile strength is the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

elastic fibers. calcified ground substance. interconnecting canaliculi. periosteal connective tissue. collagenous fibrils of matrix.

81.

Which of the following is found in the curve of the duodenum? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Spleen Cystic duct left kidney Head of the pancreas Fundus of the stomach

76.

Which of the following epithelial surface variations serve primarily to increase the functional surface area? 1. 2. 3. 4. Cilia Flagella Microvilli All of the above

82.

Maxillary teeth are developed from which of the following embryonic structures? (a) (b) (c) (d) Arch I Arch II Globular process. lateral nasal process (b) (c) (c) (d) (d)

77.

Articular surfaces of most diarthrodial joints are covered by 1. 2. 3. 4. fibrocartilage. hyaline cartilage. elastic cartilage. articular disks.

"1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) and (a) and (b) and (b) and (c) and

78.

Blood vessels in interdental papillae anastomose freely with 1. 2. 3. 4. periodontal vessels only. interalveolar vessels only. both periodontal and interalveolar vessels. none of the above.

83.

A sinusoidal arrangement of blood vessels is found in the

(a) (b) (c) (d)

79.

A major tract connecting right and left cerebral hemispheres is the

hypophysis. spleen. kidney. liver.

1. cingulum. 2. corpus callosum. 3. internal capsule. 4. superior occipitofrontal bundle.

1. (a) and (b) only 2. (a), (b) and (d) 3. (a) and (c) 4. (b), (c) and (d)

84.

Which of the following organs have the closest anatomic relationship to the right kidney? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (t) Colon Liver Spleen Stomach Duodenum Pancreas (b) and (b) and (c) and (d) and (e) and (e) and (c) (e) (d) (t) (t) (t)

87.

Neonatal lines are found in which of the following?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Enamel Enamel Enamel Dentin incisors Dentin primary incisors permanent canines permanent first molars permanent mandibular . of permanent first molars of of of of

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a), (a), (a), (b), (c), (d),

1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (a), (b) and (d) only 3. (a), (b), (d) and (e) 4. (a), (c) and (d) 5. (b), (d) and (e) only 6. All of the above

88.

Which of the following articulate directly with the body of the sternum? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Clavicle Eleventh rib Manubrium First rib Xiphoid process

85.

Which of the following organelles have a double-unit membrane?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Nucleus Lysosome Golgi complex Mitochondrion Rough endoplasmic

reticulum

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (b) and (d) (b), (d) and (e) (c), (d) and (e) (c) and (e) only All of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a), (b) and (c) (a) and (c) only (a) and (d) only (a), (d) and (e) (b), (c) and (d) (b) and (e)

89.

Ligamentous remnants of the fetal circulatory system persisting in the adult include (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) ligamentum" ligamentum ligamentum ligamentum ligamentum and and and and and (c) (e) (e) (d) (e) nuchae. venosum. arteriosum. teres of the liver. teres of the uterus.

"

86.

The fate of the epithelial rests of Malassez is that they may (a) (b) (c) (d) undergo calcification. form into cementicles. become fibrous. form cartilaginous nodules.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (a), (a), (b), (c),

(b) (b) (d) (c) (d)

90.
.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Which of the following structures of the infratemporal fossa is NOT found between medial and lateral pterygoid muscles?

(a) and (b) only (a), (b) and (c) (b) and (c) only (b), (c) and (d) (c) and (d) only

1. 2. 3. 4.

Lingual nerve Inferio"r alveolar nerve Inferior alveolar artery Nerve to the masseter muscle

..

10

91.

All of the following structures are concerned

with development of the tongue EXCEPT the

95.

Epithelium of which of the following structures of the respiratory system does NOT
normally have cilia?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

copula. macula. tuberculum impar. second branchial arch. third branchial arch.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Trachea Bronchioles Alveolar ducts Primary bronchus

92.

All of the following structures lie superficial to the hyoglossus muscle EXCEPT the

96.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Which of the following is NOT a "principal" collagenous fiber group of the periodontal ligament? 1. 2. 3. 4. Apical Oblique Horizontal Gingivodental

lingual nerve. lingual artery. hypoglossal nerve. submandibular duct.

93.

The secretion of which of the following endocrine glands is NOT essential to life?

97.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the substance of the parotid gland?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Parathyroids Adrenal cortex Adrenal medulla Anterior pituitary Pancreatic islets (Langerhans)

1. Facial vein 2. Facial nerve' 3. External carotid artery 4. Superficial temporal artery 5. A branch of the great auricular nerve

94.

All of the following in dentin EXCEPT

structures may be found

98.

Submental lymph nodes receive lymphatic

vessels from all of the following EXCEPT 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. mandibular molars. the tip of the tongue. the middle of the lower lip. mandibular lateral incisors. mandibular central incisors.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

globular dentin. the neonatal line. striae of Retzius. contour lines of Owen. odontoblastic processes.

11

NATIONAL

BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION ANSWER KEY

PART

ANATOMIC SCIENCES - DEC. 1985

NO. 1.

ANS. 4 1 2 1 1 3 4 5 4 1 1 5 2 1 3 4 2 2 3 4 4 4 3 2 4

NO. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32.. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

ANS. 5 3 5 4 2 4 2 3 4 5 2 4 3 5 1 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 1 3

NO. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

ANS. 1 4 1 1 5 5 4 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 4 4 1 1 2 4 1 2 5

NO. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98.

ANS. 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 1 6 4 4 4 2 2 3 3 3 4 1 1

2. 3.
4.

5.

6. 7.
8. 9.
10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

.,~",.' ~~;f'

Part I Decem ber 1985 .

12

Biochemistry-Physiology

Exam

1.

The km value of an enzyme is numerically equal to

6.

The presence of glucose in the urine proves that the patient has

1. 2.

3.
4.

half the maximum velocity expressed in molesll iter. velocity of a reaction divided by substrate concentration. substrate concentration in moles/liter necessary to achieve half the maximum velocity of a reaction. maximum velocity divided by half the substrate concentration in moles necessary to achieve maximum velocity.

1. 2. 3. 4.

diabetes mellitus. negative nitrogen balance. exceeded his renal threshold for glucose. excessive damage to a glomerulus of the kidney:

7.

Carbonic anhydrase in kidney tubular cells is associated with reabsorption of

2.

1. 2. 3. 4.

urea. chloride.
carbohyd rate. bicarbonate ion.

The physiologically active form of vitamin D produced in the kidney is

...

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

8.

1,25-d ihydroxycholecalciferol. 25,.hydroxycholecalciferol. 7-dehydrocholesterol. cholecalciferol. ergosterol.

An impulse can travel from one nerve to another in only one direction because the 1. 2. synapse limits the direction of travel. myelin sheath limits the direction of travel.

3.

Which of the following reduction?

is an example of

1. -CH "'" CH- + HzO -CHz - CHOH2. R-COOH R-COO- + H + 3. -CHzCHz -CH == CH- + Hz 4. Cu+ Cu+z + e5. Fe+3 + e Fe+z

--

- -

myoneural junction limits the direction of travel. 4. nerve fiber permits conduction in only one direction. 5." cell body must be stimulated before the nerve fiber will conduct.

3.

9.

The intracellular, "second" messenger for many peptide and polypeptide hormones is

"

4.

The ketone body acetoacetate is synthesized inside mitochondria of hepatocytes by

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

AMP. ATP. cyclic AMP. adenylate cyclase. a cytoplasmic receptor.

1. 2. 3.
4.

5.

carboxylation of pyruvic acid. transamination of. asp"artic acid. cleavage of fJ-hydroxy-(3-methylglutaryl CoA. oxidative decarboxylation of a-ketoglutarate. oxidation of l-(3-hydroxybutyrate followed by deacylation.

10.

Human parotid saliva is believed to be hyposmolar because

1.

2. 3. 4.

water is reabsorbed by excretory ducts of the gland. acinar cells transport water more readily than sodium ions. striated duct cells produce excess water and retain potassium. reabsorption of water by striated duct cells is less than reabsorption of sodium.

.'

5.

Acids found in the citric acid (Krebs) cycle are

11.

Which of the following is the major contributor to colloid osmotic pressure?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

glutamic acid and succinic acid. glucuronic acid and aspartic acid. oxaloacetic acid and aspartic acid. oxaloacetic acid and pyruvic acid. oxaloacetic acid and a-ketoglutaric acid.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Albumin Alpha globulin Beta globulin Gamma globulin

13

12.

The dominant factor controlling absorption of iron from the gastrointestinal tract is 1. 2. 3. 4. excretion of iron in the urine. excretion of iron in the stools. saturation of mucosal cells with iron. concentration of the ferrous iron in bone marrow, spleen and liver.

17.

Visual purple, rhodopsin, is usually formed in the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. lens. liver. retina. adrenals. vitreous humor.

18. 13.
Spatial summation results from the 1. 2. 3. 4. convergence of several afferent impulses on' the same postsynaptic nerve soma. repetitive firing of discharges (from the same presynaptic term ina\), eventually producing an action potential. exhaustion of the stores of transmitter substance at the synapse. elaboration of some inhibitory substance, such as y-aminobutyric acid, at the synapse.

Aldosterone is normally associated with partial regulation of which of the following processes? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Sodium balance Gluconeogenesis Lipid digestion Protein degradation Carbohydrate metabolism

19.

The normal delay in sexual development until puberty is attributed to 1. 2. lack of effect of sex ho.rmones on somatic tissue. failure of the gonads to respond to gonadotroph ins. inability of the hypophysis to synthesize gonadotrophins. lack of hypothalamic stimulation of gonadotrophin release. inability of the hypophysis to respond tohypothalamic releasing hormones.

14.

Two atoms are considered isotopic if 1. 2. 3. 4. their nuclei contain the same number of neutrons. their atomic numbers are the same, but their mass numbers differ. their mass numbers are the same, but their atomic numbers differ. one is a beta emitter, and the other an alpha emitter.

3. 4. 5.

20.

Neutral fats contain mixtures of one or more fatty acids esterified with 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. sterol. glycerol. lecithin.

15.

The distribution of carbonate within dental enamel follows the same surface to dentinoenamel junction patterns as which of the following? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Lead Calcium Fluoride Strontium None of the above

sphingosine.

alcohols of high molecular weight.

21.

At rest, the potential difference across the membrane of which of the following is greatest? 1. 2. 3. 4. Odontoblast Sinoatrial node Skeletal muscle Visceral smooth muscle

22. 16.
A deficiency of vitamin A in a developing tooth most likely affects the 1. 2. 3. 4. pulp. enamel. dentin. cementum.

Antidiuretic hormone acts to 1. 2. 3. 4. decrease renal filtration fraction. increase storage capacity of the bladder. decrease permeability of distoconvoluted tubules and/or collecting ducts to water. increase permeability of distoconvoluted tubules and/or collecting ducts to water.

I "'t

ff

23.

The rapid movement of a substance across a biologic membrane against a concentration gradient requires 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. that the substance be negatively charged. participation of an energy-requiring active transport system. that the substance be readily soluble in the lipid barrier of the membrane. that the substance be carried across the membrane by rapid influx of the solvent. facilitated diffusion of the substance aided by some binding system in the membrane.

28.

The most abundant form of iron in human blood plasma is found 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. as free Fe + +. as free Fe +++. as ferritin. associated with transferrin. associated with ceruloplasmin.

29.

The main control over body temperature, located in a portion of the central nervous system, is the 1. 2. 3. 4. pons. cerebellum. hypothalamus. medulla oblongata.

24.

With glutamic acid as an amino group donor, alanine can be synthesized directly from which of the following acids? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. lactic acid Pyruvic acid Glutaric acid a-ketoglutaric acid 3-phosphoglyceric acid

30.

The second heart sound is related to 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. excitation of atria. opening of AV valves. closure of AV valves. opening of aortic valves. closure of aortic valves.

25.

Neutralization of acids by san'va results mainly from which of the following salivary contents? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Mucin Ammonia Carbonate Bicarbonate Amino acids

31.

In males, growth and development of secondary sex organs are under direct control of
1. 2. 3. .~ 4.

FSH and lH. aldosterone. progesterone. testosterone.

26.

Compared with hemoglobin A, the substitution of a valine for a glutamic acid residue in hemoglobin S results from 1. 2. 3. 4. a genetic mutation. irradiation of hemoglobin A. proteolytic action in the liver. exposure to low oxygen tension.

32.

The relative refractory period of a nerve corresponds to

1. 2. 3. 4.

sodium permeability changes. decreased potassium permeability. increased potassium permeability. threshold potential that is farther from zero.

27.

Where is norepinephrine stored? 1. 2. 3.

4.

At preganglionic endings At postganglionic endings At preganglionic endings At postganglionic endings

sympathetic nerve sympathetic nerve parasympathetic nerve parasympathetic nerve

33.

The major center in the brain for autonomic nervous system regulation is the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. hypothalamus. pituitary. cerebral cortex. vestibular nuclei. floor of the fourth ventricle.

15

34.

Some sense organs, when stimulated continuously by a constant stimulus, may gradually lose their ability to continue to respond. This phenomenon is known as 1. occlusion. 2. . summation. 3. adaptation. 4. facilitation. 5. sensory deprivation.

39.

Which of the following is a function of vitamin 86 (pyridoxal phosphate)? 1. 2. 3. 4. Prevents pernicious anemia Allows adaptation to dim light Acts as coenzyme in transamination reactions Prevents microcytic hypochromic anemia

40. 35.
The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation shows that 1. 2. 3. 4.
5.

Carbon monoxide decreases the amount of 1. 2. 3.

4. 5.

dilution of a buffer increases its pH. pH is a function of temperature. pH = pka when an acid is tenth normal. pH = pka when an acid is half neutralized. pH is independent of the dissociation constant of the acid.

bicarbonate in the blood plasma. carbonic anhydrase available in the lungs. oxygen that can be transported by hemoglobin. alveolar surface available for gaseous
. exchange'.

carbon dioxide that can be transported by the blood.

41.
36. In the absence of compensatory changes, a drop in blood pressure results from 1. 2. 3. 4. vasoconstriction. increased hematocrit. increased stroke volume. increased cardiac output. decreased venous return.

The most likely cause of an increase in

filtration fraction is
.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

elevation of ureteral pressure. efferent arteriolar constriction. afferent arteriolar constriction. elevation of rerlaL-vein pressure. elevation of plasma protein concentration.

5.

42. 37.
DNA damage by ultraviolet light is due to

The two chains-of double stranded DNA are so arranged that 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. they are parallel. heat does not affect interchain bonds. hydrophobic aromatic nitrogen bases are held close to each other. purines and pyrimidines alternate along each chain. an adenine residue on one chain is directly hydrogen bonded to. a cytosine on the other chain.

1. alkylation of the guanine in DNA. 2. excessive unwinding of the DNA

3. 4. molecule. frequent replacement in the DNA molecule of purines by pyrimidines. induction of dimerization by way of covalent bonds between adjacent thymine groups.

43. 38.
Sucrose is a glycoside of which of the. following structures?

A deficiency of rhodopsin is most likely caused by decreased dietary intake of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. glucose. adenine. vitamin A. tryptophan. riboflavin.

1. 2. 3. 4.

4-D-gl ucose-a-D-galactopy ranoside 4-D-g Iucose-fJ-D-galactopyranoside a-D-gi ucopyranosido-fJ-D-fructofu ranos ide fJ-D,..gl ucopy ra nos ido-fJ-D-fructofu ran os ide

"

, -

II

16

44.

Removal of a molecule of water between the carboxyl group of one amino acid and the amino group of a second amino acid results in formation of a

49.

Carbon dioxide or bicarbonate is required in the biosynthesis of fatty acids because 1. the bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer system is very efficient at the pH optimum of this sensitive enzyme . system. 2. bicarbonate is a positive effector for this system and favorably alters the conformation of its enzymes. 3. carbon dioxide is incorporated into acetyl coenzyme A forming malonyl coenzyme A, an intermediate in the synthetic process. 4. ~ carbon dioxide is incorporated into carbamyl phosphate, a reactive intermediate in the synthetic process. 5. carbon dioxide provides an anaerobic environment that prevents oxidation of the sulfhydryl groups in the reactive sites of the enzyme system.

1. zwitterion. 2. peptide bond. 3. hydrogen bond. 4. glycosidic bond. 5. hydrophobic bond.

45.

The primary effect of calcitonin 1. 2. 3.

is to

4.

increase bone resorption. inhibit bone resorption. increase calcium absorption from the intestine. decrease calcium absorption from the intestine.

46.

The belief that the secretion of saliva is an active process is supported by the observation that

50.

1.

2. 3.

4.
5.

during secretion, there is vasodilation within the gland. during secretion, blood flow through the gland is unchanged. during secretion, blood flow through the gland is decreased. secretion continues even when the pressure within the salivary duct is higher than the blood pressure. secretion stops if the pressure within the salivary duct is the same as the blood pressure.
.

Any substance that is filtered by glomeruli and secreted, but not reabsorbed, by renal .tubules will have a renal clearance that is 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. equal to the clearance of urea. equal to the clearance of inulin. less than the. clearance of inulin. greater than the. clearance of inulin. equal to the glomerular filtration rate.

51.

47.

Energy for ATP synthesis is derived from the electron transport system by which of the following processes?

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the formation of uric acid from purines?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Urease Uricase Xanthine oxidase Aspartate transcarbamylase Carbamyl phosphate synthetase

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Transam i nation

Aldolization Reductive synthesis Oxidative deamination Oxidative phosphorylation

48.

The process by wh ich extensor muscles acting at a particular joint are inhibited by stretch of the flexor muscle acting at the same joint is

52.

Which of the following statements is true concerning fatty acid synthesis and fatty acid breakdown? 1. 2. 3. 4. Both are mitochondrial functions. Both require phosphopantothenic acid. Both share common electron donors and acceptors. Both share common enzymes for oxidation and reduction reactions.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

myotatic reflex. clasp-knife reflex. monosynaptic reflex. lateral inhibition. reciprocal inhibition.

III

17

53.

The function of rhythmic segmentation is chiefly that of

58.

The gallbladder is caused to contract by thE

hormone

1. 2. 3. 4.

macerating food. mixing food with digestive secretions. increasing the surface available for absorption. transporting material down the gastrointestinal tract.

1. 2. 3. , 4. 5.

gastri n. secretin. pancreozym in. enterogastrone. cholecystokinin.

59.
54.
Lipids are most characteristic of which of the following cellular components? 1. 2. 3. 4. Cytoplasm Ribosomes Membranes Chromosomes

The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is lower than that in alveoli. The condition suggested is

1. 2. 3. 4.
-

5.

hyperventilation. slow blood flow. high blood pressure. inadequate ventilation. thickening of the alveolar membrane.

60.
55.
Which of the following is true of the T m (melting temperature) of a given DNA double helix? 1. 2. 3. 4. Is a function of the base composition Can be used to accurately predict its molecular weight Can be measured by observing the change in chemical composition Is higher if individual strands of the DNA double helix are parallel rather than anti parallel

Which of the following tissues is primarily responsible for formation of urea? 1. 2. 3. 4. Liver Brain Kidney Muscle

.. ..".~

-.

61.

In which of the followjOg situations is an osmotic diuresis observed?

1. 2. 3. 4.

During diabetes mellitus During water depdvation Following ingestion of starch Following injection of Pitressin@
.,-. .

56.

A submaximal direct stimulus to a skeletal muscle causes

1. 2. 3. 4.
5.

62.
contraction of no fibers. contraction of some fibers.' partial contraction of all fibers in the muscle. less contraction than with a subminimal stimulus. more contraction than with a maximal stimulus.

Which of the following causes some degree of temporary alkalosis?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Hyperventilation High fluid intake Excessive smoking Severe muscular effort Ingestion of ammonium chloride

63.
57.
Over a period of time, a man uses 4 liters of oxygen and produces 3 liters of CO2, What is his RQ for that period? 1. 2. 3. 4. 0.75 1.00 1.33 7.00

Which

of the following enzymes is involvec in the termination of neuromuscular

transmission?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Choline acetylase Monoamine oxidase Methyltransferase Adenylate cyclase Acetylcholine esterase Catecholam i ne-ortho-methyltransferase

II

64.

A muscle devoid of tonus is 1. 2. 3. 4. atonic. spastic. hypotonic. hyperton ic.

69.

Prostaglandins are made within

cells

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

on an RNA template. on rough endoplasmic reticulum. from methionine. from progesterone. from polyunsaturated fatty acids.

65.

Which of the following asymmetric carbon?

characterizes an

1. 2. 3. 4.

A carbon atom with four identical groups attached to it A carbon atom with four different groups attached to it A carbon with at least one carboxyl and one amino group attached to it A carbon atom that has two heavy groups on one side and two light groups on the other

70.

Thyroid secretion is stimulated

by

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6.

hypoxia. propylth iouraci I. exogenous thyroid hormone. high serum iodide concentration. prolonged exposure to a cold environment. prolonged exposure to a warm environment.

66.

Which of the following statements supports the observation that the glomerulus acts like a simple physical microfilter? 1. 2. 3. 4. Potassium ion is both secreted and reabsorbed by the nephron. Antidiuretic hormone alters permeability of the tubular cell membrane. Glomerular filtration rate is determined by plasma clearance of inulin. Increased concentration of colloids in plasma diminishes the formation of fi Itrate. The afferent arteriole is greater in diameter than the efferent arteriole.

71.

Following exercise, ventilation is in excess of the metabolic requirement. During this period, the level of lactic acid in blood 1. 2. 3. Increases. decreases. remains unchanged.

5.

72. 67.
Hydroxylation of proline and lysine during collagen biosynthesis occurs 1. 2. 3. 4. after translation. in the mitochondrial matrix. before formation of their respective amino acyl-t-RNXs. while proline or lysine is bound to the peptidyl (P) site on the ribosome.

Which of the following vitamins can be supplied to humans by the normal action of intestinal flora? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. A D E K None of the above

73.
68.
Which of the following is most likely to promote depolymerization of the ground substance? 1. 2. 3. 4. S.

Some amino acids need not be present in the diet of an animal because of the animal's ability to synthesize the acids at an adequate rate. A principal source of carbon for these amino acids is 1. 2. 3. 4. nucleic acids. carbon dioxide. metabolism of carbohydrates. methylene folic acid derivatives.

Cortisone
Collagenase Chymotrypsin Hyaluronidase Ammonium phosphate

19
~

74.

Distribution of fluids between intracellular and extracellular compartments is mainly achieved by 1. 2. bulk flow across the capillary wall. unrestricted movement of sodium to achieve osmotic balance. unrestricted movement of water to achieve osmotic balance. unrestricted movement of both sodium and potassium to achieve osmotic balance. movement of potassium out of the intracellular compartment to achieve osmotic balance.

79.

Within physiologic limits, activity of the respiratory center is decreased directly by

1. decreased 2. increased 3. increased 4. . increased

3. 4.
5.

pressu reo

pH. pH. hemoglobin concentration. r?'asma carbon dioxide partial

80.
75.
The sensory organs concerned with maintenance of skeletal muscle tonus are
1. 2. 3. 4.

The tone of the masseter muscle is maintained by the 1. 2. 3. 4. flexor reflex. stretch reflex. crossed-extensor reflex. continuous production of metabolic products.

muscle spindles. gamma efferents. pacinian corpuscles. golgi tendon organs.

76.

An electrocardiogram showing extra P waves before each QRS complex indicates 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. fibrillation. atrial bradycardia. partial heart block. ventricular tachycardia. left bundle branch block.

81.

The air remaining in alveoli at the end of a forced maximal expiration is the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. tidal volume. vital capacity. residual volume. expiratory reserve volume. inspiratory reserve volume:

77.

In which of the following parts of the circulatory system is blood pressure the lowest? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Aorta Veins Arterioles Capillaries Large arteries

82.

The plasma membrane can be best described as 1.

2. 3.

78.

Carbohydrate is stored in the body principally as 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

4.

glucose. maltose. sucrose. glycogen.

glycosaminoglycans.

5. 6.

a static trilamellar lipid-protein-lipid sheath. a static mosaic composed primarily of lipids and proteins. an unorganized zone between cytoplasm and interstitial fluid. a membrane whose composition is essentially constant for all mammalian cells. a fluid mosaic composed of neutral fats and glycoproteins. a fluid mosaic composed primarily of phospholipids, cholesterol and
glycoprotei ns.

.'
83.
Functions of the hexose monophosphate shunt include production of
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

20

86.

The mechanism of fluoride action in reducing dental decay involves

(a) (b) (c) (d)

glucuronic acid for heparin synthesis. NADPH for fatty acid synthesis. NADP for pyruvate reduction. D-ribose for nucleic acid synthesis. ATP for anaerobic muscle contraction. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 87.

an increase in remineralization of incipient caries. a reduction of solubility of enamel as fluoride content increases. an enhancement of plaque accumulation. an increase in carbohydrate metabolism in oral bacteria.
(b) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) only (a), (b) and (e) (a), (c) and (e) (b) and (d) (c) and (d)

(a) and (a) and (a) and (b) and (b) and (c) and

Muscle glycogen phosphorylase by

(a) (b) (c)

is."activated

84.

Ventricular muscle re~ponds to norepinephrine by

(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. 4.

epi neph rine. glucagon. insulin.

increasing the force of contraction. decreasing the force of contraction. increasing the rate of contraction. decreasing the rate of contraction.
(c) (d) (c) (d)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

(a) on Iy (a) and (b) (a) and (c) (b) only (b) and (c) (c) only All of the above

(a) and (a) and (b) and (b) and

88.

The amino acid composition of mammalian collagen (Type I) is characterized by the presence of
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(e)

85.

The secretory product of which of the following endocrine organs is controlled by a pituitary tropic hormone?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

cystei ne. hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine. no sulfur-containing amino acids. glycine, as nearly one-third the total number of amino acid residues. a high content of aromatic amino acids.
(d) (e) (d) on Iy

Adrenal cortex Thyroid Parathyroid Thymus Pancreas

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (b) and (a), (c) and (b) only (b), (c) and (b) and (d)

89.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

(a) and (b) only (a), (b) and (c) (b) and (c) only (b), (c) and (d) (c) and (d) only (c), (d) and (e) (d) and (e) only

Which of the following molecules is NOT part of the mammalian cell membrane? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Endotoxin Cardiolipin Plasmalogen Proteoglycan lipopolysaccharide

21

.
96.
Which of the following monosaccharide? is NOT a

90.

Which of the following hormones does NOT induce activation of adenylate cyclase?

1. 2. 3. 4.91.

Insulin Glucagon Epinephrine Parathyroidhormone

1. 2. 3. 4.
J.

Amylose Glucose Fructose Glyceraldehyde Glucuronic acid

Which of the following is least soluble in solutions with low pH?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Chlorapatite Fluorapatite Hydroxyapatite Calcium fluoride

92.

All of the following function in buffer systemsin the blood EXCEPT

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. NaCI. H2CO3. NaHCO3. Na2HPO4. NaH2PO4.

97.

\Vhich of the following statements is NOT true concerning fluoride?

1. 2. 3.
4.
:J.

93.

Which of the following compounds does NOT contain a high-energy bond?

It is excreted rapidly by the kidney. It is deposited in calcified tissues. It occurs only in the ionic form in plasma. It passes the placental barrier relatively slowly. . At 1 ppm. in water, it is tasteless, odorless and colorless.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 94.

ATP Acetyl CoA UDP-glucose Glucose-6-phosphate Phosphoenolypyruvate

Which of the following is NOr a cofactor or a substance involved in hydroxylation of proline during collagen biosynthesis?

98.

Hydrolysis of nucleic acids is likely to yield all of the following EXCEPT 1. 2. 3. 4. J. ri bose. adenine. deoxyribose. acetic acid. phosphoric acid.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Ascorbate Ergosterol Ferrous ion a-ketogl utarate

95.

Which of the following statements is NOT true about ammonia and the a-amino group of amino acids? 1.

NH + 4 is formed from glutamine in the

kidney. The amino group in carbamyl phosphate is directly donated by aspartate in a transamination reaction. Cellular levels of ammonia must be maintuined at low concentrations because of its toxicity. Glutamate dehydrogenase can catalyze the formation of glutamate from ammonia and a-ketoglutarate using NADPH as a cofactor.

2.

99.

3.

Which of the following involved in coagulation 1. 2. 3. 4.

compounds of blood?

is NOT

4.

Fe+2 Ca+2 Prothrombin Fibrinogen

Th rom boplasti n

5.

" II

NATIONAL

BOARD

DENTAL ANSWER

EXAMINATION KEY

PART

BIOCHEMISTRY - PHYSIOLOGY

- DEC. 1985

NO. 1. 2.
3.

ANS. 3 1 5 3 5 3 4 1 3 4 1 3 1 2 5 2 3 1 4 2 3 4 2 2 4

NO. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. I 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

ANS. 1 2 4 3 5 4 3 1 3 4 5 4 3 3 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 3 5 3 4

NO. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

ANS. 5 2 2 3 1 2 1 5 5 1 1 1 5 1 2 4 1 4 5 5 2 4 3 3 1

NO. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99.

ANS. 3 2 4 2 2 3 6 4 1 1 1 1 4 1 1 2 1 4 2 2 1 3 4 1

4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

..
Part I December 1986
23

Microbiology-Pathology Exam

1.

Two important factors for initiation oral streptococci are

of caries by

i.

The different types of Streptococcus pneumoniae are distinguished by 1. 2. 3. 4.

J.

1. 2.
3. 4.
1

production of protease and production of acid. production of dextranase and production of soluble dextran. production of collagenase and production

of hyaluronidase.
5.

fermentation reactions. distinct Hand 0 antigens. distinct somatic proteins. distinct capsular polysaccharides. varying susceptibility to. specific bacteriophages.

:\ j
J

fermentation of mannitol and sorbitol and production of protease. synthesis of insoluble dextran and production of glucosyltransferase.

8.

Which of the following most accurately describes the antibacterial mechanism of penicillin? 1. 2. 3. Inhibits DNA synthesis Inhibits the terminal step in peptidoglycan synthesis Inhibits protein synthesis in growing bacterial cells . Disrupts the integrity of the cell membrane

2.

Which of the following viral-associated enzymes is unique to RNA tumor viruses? 1. 2. 3. 4. Neuramidase Capping enzyme

Reverse transcriptase
DNA-dependent

4.

RNA polymerase

3.

Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally 12. 3. 4. 5. motile. sensitive to HzOz. insensitive to HzOz. able to ferment lactate. producers of Oz and H2O from HzOz.

9.

A common oral manifestation disease is 1. 2. 3. 4. melanosis. xerostomia. '.-h~_< glossodynia. "cotton-wool" bone. loss of lamina dura.

of Addison's

5.

4.

Which of the following prokaryotic cell? 1. 2. 3. 4.

is characteristic of a

10.

The first human cancer that has been strongly linked to a virus is 1. 2. 3. 4. Hodgkin's disease. multiple myeloma. Burkitt's lymphoma. acute lymphocytic leukemia.' chronic myelogenous leukemia.

Mitochondrion Nuclear membrane Single chromosome Endoplasmic reticulum

5.

5.

Multiple drug resistance is related most closely to

11.

Osteomyelitis
12. 3. 4. J.

is most commonly

caused by

1. 2. 3. 4.

viruses. plasmids. transformati on. cell chromosomes.

Actinomyces bovis. Borrelia vincentii. Nocardia asteroides. Staphylococcus aureus. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

6.

Which of the following is characterized by a cumulative antimicrobial effect?

12.

Which of the following is elevated in the serum of patients with prostate cancer?

1. Iodine 2. Alcohol 3. Cationic detergent 4. Acid glutaraldehyde J. Chlorhexidine gluconate

1. 2. 3. 4.

Acid phosphatase AI pha-fetoprotei n Alkaline phosphatase Carcinoembryonic antigen

24
ff

13.

Immunosuppressed patients are particularly prone to develop severe oral disease caused by 1- Candida albicans. 2. Actinomyces israelii. 3. Pneumocystis carinii. 4. Streptococcus mutans. 5. Streptococcus salivarius.

19.

Microcytic hypochromic due to 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

anemia is most often

infection. malabsorption. folate deficiency. chronic blood loss. a genetic abnormality.

14.

Tetany may result from hypofunction of which of the following glands?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Thyroid Hypophysis Parathyroid Adrenal cortex Adrenal medulla

20.

As a result of dental prophylaxis, microorganisms around teeth enter the bloodstream. This condition is an example of
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

pyemia. toxemia. bacteremia. septicemia. focal infection.

15.

Which of the following is a significant effect of pheoch romocytoma? 1- Myxedema 2. Acromegaly 3. Glycosuria 4. Hypertension

21.

Nephrolithiasis is most likely to result from which of the following diseases? 1. 2. 3. 4. Hyperpituitarism Cushing's disease Hyperparathyroidism Paget's disease of bone

16.

The indiscriminate use of broad-spectrum antibiotics is contraindicated because they frequently 12. 3. 4. 5. are extremely nephrotoxic. cause psychogenic symptoms. produce dependency reactions. induce anaphylactoid reactions. i.nterfere with indigenous biota.

22.

The ability of mammalian organs to regenerate after injury is best demonstrated by the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. lung. liver. heart. brain. kidney.

23. 17.
A positive skin test in an individual who has had tuberculosis is an example of
1. 2. 3. 4. atopy. autoimmunity. hypersensitivity. passive immunity.

A patient is homozygous for a defective gene that substitutes valine for glutamic acid on the beta chain of globin. The most probable diagnosis is
1. 2. 3. 4.

thalassemia major. thalassemia minor. sickle cell trait. sickle cell disease.

18.

Which of the following pneumoconioses is most often associated with bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma in man? 1. 2. 3. 4. Silicosis Asbestosis Anthracosis Berylliosis

24.

Removal of the capsule from an encapsulated bacterium is likely to result in 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. loss of viability. decreased generation time. failure of the cell to gram stain. increased susceptibility to mutation. increased susceptibility to phagocytosis.

25

.
31.
Organisms that exhibit dimorphism on Sabouraud's medium are 1. 2. 3. -+.
:J.

25.

A 65-year-old man who experiences urinary retention or difficulty in voiding his bladder most likely has

and grow

1. 2. 3. 4.

carcinoma of the prostate. benign prostatic hyperplasia. malignant neoplasm involving the urethra. bladder metastasis of bronchogenic carcinoma.

fungi. bacteria. mycoplasmas. rickettsiae. spi rochetes.

26.

The absence of cellular differentiation characteristic of

is

32.

Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following anatomic findings? 1. Aortic stenosis 2. Tricuspid stenosis 3. Pericardial effusion -+. Left ventricular hypertrophy :J. Right ventricular hypertrophy

1. anaplasia. 2. metaplasia. 3. hyperplasia. 4. hypertrophy. 5. inflammation.

27.

The most characteristic finding in intestinal malabsorption syndrome is

33.

1. 2. 3. 4. . 5.

pain. melena. anorexia. diarrhea.

steatorrhea.

In transduction, DNA is transferred from donor cell to recipient cell by 1. 2. 3. -+. a plasmid. an episome. a bacteriophage. purified nucleic acid.

28.

Chronic passive congestion of the lung is characterized by 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. hyaline membranes. chronic bronchitis. giant cell arteritis. interstitial infiltration of PMN's. thickening of alveolar walls and hemosiderosis.

34.

The components in the cell wall of 'vlycobacteriaceae responsible for acid-fastness. are 1. J 3. -+.
.J.

mucoproteins. teichoic acids. polysaccharides. lipids and waxes. magnesium ribonucleates.

29.

A person with anti-A and anti-B isoagglutinins in the serum belongs to blood group

35.
1. 2. 3. 4. A. B. AB. O.

Fat embolism 1. 2. 3. , ~.

is most often a sequela of

.J.

fractu reo infection. contusion. infarction. deep laceration.

30.

A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing characterized by prolonged, expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is

36.

Which of the following viruses causes two distinct diseases in different age groups? 1. Influenza 2. Measles 3. Smallpox -+. Varicella .J. Newcastle disease

1. 2. 3. 4.
:J.

bronchopneumonia. chronic bronchitis. pulmonary emphysema. carcinoma of the lung. left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema.

26 .. 37.
.

The requirement for an insect vector in the transmission of human disease is a common characteristic of all infectious agents included in the genus 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Brucella. Bedsonia. Treponema. Mycoplasma. Rickettsia.

43.

The usual incubation virus infection is 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 1-2 days. 1-2 weeks. 1-6 months. 1 year. 5 years.

period for hepatitis B

38.

44.
Rough pneumococci grown in the presence of DNA from smooth pneumococci develop capsules. This is an example of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. mutation. conjugation. translation. transduction. transformation.

Which of the following is the most common type of lung cancer? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Adenocarci noma Bronchiolar carcinoma Alveolar cell carcinoma Squamous cell carcinoma Anaplastic (oat cell) carcinoma

39.

45.
A very high percentage of cases of hepatitis A are found in 1. 2. 3. 4. young people. recent recipients of gamma globulin. recent recipients of whole blood transfusions. persons with histories of recurrent respiratory infections.

Carcinoma of which of the following organs has been shown to be hormonally dependent? 1. 2. 3. 4. Colon Larynx Prostate Pancreas

46.
40.
Which of the following skin lesions is generally considered precancerous? 1. 2. 3. 4. Verruca vulgaris Actinic keratosis Intradermal nevus Seborrheic keratosis

Which of the following are most characteristic of cervicofacial actinomycosis?

1. 2. 3. 4.

Multiple Enlarged Multiple Indurated

ulcers cervical lymph nodes cutaneous abscesses with sinuses nodules in the skin of the neck

41.

47.
Which of the following is produced by a gram-positive, spore-forming anaerobic badlJus? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Thrush Gas gangrene Blastomycosis Actinomycosis Undulant fever

Which type of chromosome is usually missing from the cells of persons with Turner's syndrome? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. An autosome Chromosome 21 A sex chromosome A /Iring" chromosome A Group A chromosome

42.

Cytopathogenic effect in tissue culture cells is used specifically for identification of certain 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
fungi. viruses. anaerobes. spi rochetes. spore-formers.

48.

A summer illness that produces nodular lesions of the uvula, anterior pillars and the

posterior pharynx is
1. 2. 3. 4. influenza. . herpesvirus. ECHO virus.
coxsackievi rus.

.
27

49.

Antiseptics differ from disinfectC\ntsin that antiseptics

1. 2. 3. 4.

55.

steriIize. kill pathogens. are bacteriostatic only. are appl ied to viable tissues.

-\ patient with facial erythema, fever, Raynaud phenomenon, joint pain and photophobia probably has .,
J. J.
")

1 '.

50.

scleroderma. Paget's disease. Sjogren's syndrome. erythema multiforme. systemic lupus erythematosus.

Which of the following di"stinguishes a viral infection from other microbial assaults?

56.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Necrosis Chronicity Interferon production Intracellular infection Need for an external vector

in which of the following is hyaluronidase ;nvolved?

i i.

.., 3.

Arthus reaction Shwartzman phenomenon Spread of streptococcal infections Localization of staphylococcal infections

51.

For the majority of individuals, the initial infection with herpes simplex, virus results in 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. encephalitis as a young adult. a dermal rash in childhood. herpes labialis in puberty. a subclinical disease. genital herpes.

57.

7he earliest changes in rheumatoid arthritis occur in the

.

., _. J. .l
J,

,.

vilii. synovia. attached articular

subarticular

ligaments. cartilage.
bone.

52.

Bacterial endotoxins may playa role in development of periodontal disease due to

1. 2.

58.
(

3.
4.
,.. J.

high amounts of endotoxin in plaque. thE;ability of endotoxins to incite an inflammatory response. the fact that endotoxins are similar to ground substance. . the presence of endotoxins in both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. none of the above.

-\llergens that are usually responsible for contact hypersensitivity are .,

5,

lipids. haptens. proteins. carbohydrates.

59.

53.

Herpes simplex virus type 1 is clinically most often associated with

1. 2. 3. 4.

7he most frequent complication following a ~;ngle transfusion of blood that was ':1adequateJy cross matched is
..
1

5.

neural lesions. genital lesions. cervical carcinoma. oral and ocular lesions. none of the above.
60.

5.

~ ~.

leukopenia. infectious hepatitis. altered clotting time. agglutination of the recipient's eryth rocytes. agglutination of the donor's erythrocytes.

54.

The likelihood that oral bacteria play an important role in gingival inflammation is evidenced by
1. 2. 3.

~heumatic fever may leave the heart seriously camaged because of 1.

")

4. 5.

an increased number of bacteria in saliva. an increase in salivary hyaluronidase. an increase of neutralizing antibodies in saliva. new pathogenic strains in the involved area. a reduction of inflammatory states with antibiotic treatment.

3.

primary infection of the heart valves with Group A streptococci. secondary infection of the heart valves with Group A streptococci. damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to hemolytic staphy Iococci. damage to the heart valves thought to be a result of hypersensitivity to Group A streptococci.

"
61.
Opsonization may occur as a component of the humoral immune response to 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. . virulent Streptococcus pneumoniae. intracellular microorganisms. infections by viruses. nucleic acids. none of the .above.

28

67.

Which of the following cells are increased in number in the bloodstream in allergy or parasitic infection?
1. Basophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Plasma cells 4. . f\typical lymphocytes 5. Nucleated eryth rocytes

62.

Antibodies of which class are likely to be associated with atopic allergy? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. IgA IgD IgE IgG IgM

68.

Neutralization and inactivation of bacterial toxins are accomplished by 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. humoral immunity. cellular immunity. serotonin release. Iymphokine synthesis. delayed hypersensitivity.

63.

Most bacterial endotoxins are composed of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. pure lipids. pure proteins. pure carbohydrates. mucoprotein complexes. lipoprotein-polysaccharide

69.

'vVhich of the following is most commonly associated with development of gastrointestinal cancer?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

. complexes.

64.

Diverticulosis Villous adenoma Pedunculated adenoma Meckel's diverticulum Duodenal peptic ulcer

Which of the following is an example of naturally-acquired passive immunity in humans?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

70.

Tetanus immunization Injection of gamma globulin Transfusion of immune blood Placental transfer of antibody Antibody produced during recovery from measles

Development of pseudomembranous colitis is a major adverse effect of prolonged therapy with 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. vancomycin. clindamycin. tetracycl ine. streptomycin. cephalosporin.

65.

The alum adjuvant employed in many vaccines acts biologically in tissues to 1. 2.

3. 4.

71.

serve as a local inflammatory stimulus. prolong antigen release to immunocompetent cells in the region. Both (1) and (2) above Neither (1) nor (2) above

The aerosol produced during operative dental procedures is likely to contain a predominance of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. yeasts and spi rochetes. spi rochetes and rod forms. spirochetes and rickettsiae. gram-positive microorganisms. gram-negative rod forms and spi rochetes.

66.

Recurrent herpes labial is occurs in people who 1. 2. 3. 4. are hypersensitive to herpesvirus. have been infected with herpesvirus and who have antibodies against the virus. have been infected with herpesvirus but who fail to produce antibodies against the virus. None of the above

72.

Large wound defects heal by

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

resolution. regeneration. wound contraction. primary intention. secondary intention.

29 73.
A lesion that is characterized microscopically in the tissues by central necrosis surrounded by macrophages, lymphocytes, plasma cells and occasional giant cells is generally classified as .

79.

The most reliable gaseous sterilizing available for dental instruments is

agent

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a cyst. a phlegmon. a granuloma. an acute abscess. an autoimmune disease.

1. 2. 3. 4.

formaldehyde. ethylene oxide. carbon dioxide. hydrogen sulfide.

80.

Immersion 'of instruments in cold disinfectants for 30 minutes is expected to destroy (a) (b) (c) (d) streptococci. hepatitis B virus. bacterial spores. staphylococci.

74.

Leukocytosis is to acute appendicitis as

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

a sign is to disease. a lesion is to disease. a symptom is to disease. pathogenesis is to disease. an etiologic agent is to disease.

75.

Which of the following histopathologic findings during necropsy suggests that the person died of, or at least had, rheumatic fever? 1. 2. 3. 4. Russell bodies Periarteritis nodosa Aschoff bodies in the heart muscle Monckeberg's sclerosis of the aorta

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (b) and (c) (a) and (c) only (a), (c) and (d) (a) and (d) only (b) and (c) only

81.

Clotting of blood is delayed in which of the following conditions? (a) (b)

(c) (d) (e) (0 (g) 1. 2. 3. 4. J. (a),(b)

76.

Inadequate immobilization after a bone fracture is likely to result in 1. 2. 3. 4. lipping. a pannus. pseudoarthrosis. Heberden's nodes.

Hyperparathyroidism Granulocytic leukemia with thrombocytopenia During treatment with dicumarol hepari n Tetany Alcoholic cirrhosis Rickets Microcytic anemia
and (e)

or

77.

Anoxia most seriously and immediately the brain and the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. lung. heart. liver. spleen. kidney.

affects

(b), (c) and (e) (b), (c) and (f) (b), (c) and (d), (e) and (g) (g)

82.

Which of the following endogenous pigments? (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) 1. 2. 3. 4.
,). 6.
,..

are examples of

78.

Which of the following is the lymphoid cell type probably responsible for initial immune recognition of an antigen?

Lead Melanin Hemosiderin Bismuth Bilirubin (b) (d) (c) (c) and and and and (c) (e) (d) (e)

1. Neutrophil 2. Plasma cell 3. Immunoblast 4. B-Iymphocyte 5. T-Iymphocyte

(a), (a), (b), (b),

(c), (d) and (e) All of the above

83.
Edema may result from(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

30 86.
The secondary stage of syphilis may be manifested in which of the following forms?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

increased increased increased decreased decreased

sodium retention. lymphatic drainage. venule blood pressure. capillary permeability. plasma osmotic pressure. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Hard chancre Soft chancre Maculopapular rash Extensive CNS involvement Mucous patches in the oral cavity
and and and only and only (b) (d) (c) (e)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (b) and (d) (a), (c) and (d) (a), (c) and (e) (b), (c) and (e) (b), '(d) and (e)

(a) (a) (b) (c) (c) (d)

87.

Which of the following are important etiologic factors in arteriosclerosis?

(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. (a), (a), (a), (b), All Smoking Hypertension Diabetes mellitus High serum cholesterol (b) and (c) (b) and (d) (c) and (d) (c) and (d) of the above

84.

Benign neoplasms may cause a serious threat to a patient's well-being or, in some cases, death by
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

levels

overproduction of a hormone. direct invasion into a blood vessel. compression of an adjacent vital organ. secondary spread to vital organs, such as the liver. hemorrhage following ulcerations of an overlying mucosal surface.
(b) (b) (c) (c) (d) (c) (d) (d) and and and and and and and and (c) (e) (d) (e) (e), (d) (e) (e)

88.

Major complications ulcer include

(a) (b) (c) (d)

of a duodenal peptic
'

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

(a), (a), (a), (a), (a), (b), (b), (c),

stenosis. pernicious anemia. mqJignant transformations. perforation with peritonitis.

(b) and (c) and (d) (c) only (d) only (d) only

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a) and (a), (b) (a) and (a), (c) (a) and (b) and

89. 85.
Responses by T-Iymphocytes to viral infections include
(a) (b) (c)

Infectious mononucleosis well-defined hematologic of

(a) (b) (c)

is characterized by a picture that consists

production of Iymphokine. direct cell-mediated cytotoxicity. helper activity to trigger B-Iymphocytes to divide and secrete antibodies.
and (b) and (c) and (c) of the above

atypical lymphocytes. lymphocytic leukocytosis. a positive heterophile test.

only and (b) and (c) only and (c) only of the above

I I

1. 2. 3. 4.

(a) (a) (b) All

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

(a) (a) (a) (b) (b) (c) All

'",

31

90.

Abnormalities in cell growth that cause cells,

tissues or organs to be smaller than normal include
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) metaplasia. atrophy. hyperplasia. hypoplasia. hypertrophy. (c) and (d) and (d) only and (e) (d) only (e) only (e)

95.

\ \ hich of the following is least I p~oduce acute abdominal sympt 1.

I

.., .).

-t

Cholelithiasis Acute pancreatitis Carcinoma of the ampulla c Carcinoma of the tail of the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a), (b), (a), (b) (a), (b) (b) and (b) and (c) and

96.

\ \ ;,ich of the following

cannot t

b.
1.
I

karyotyping?

Trisomy 18 Down's syndrome .., 5. Neu rofi bromatosi s ""T. Klinefelter's syndrome

91.

Which of the following species of streptococci is usually NOT found in human dental plaque?

97.

1. 2. 3. 4.
J.

5. 5. 5. 5. 5.

mutans sanguis pyogenes salivarius mitior IS. mitis)

\\ !lich of the following organisIT li~e!y to be found among norma flora of the gingival sulcus? 1. .., 3. .1. J. Treponema Bacteroides Actinobacillus Fusobacterium ivlycobacteria

92.

Which of the following anaphylaxis? -l. 2. 3. 4. 5.

is NOT associated with

98.

Delayed reaction Immediate reaction Passive transfer by serum Participation of antibodies Smooth muscle spasm with capillary damage

\\ lich of the following \:amin D deficiency?

1. 2.

does NC

Rickets Osteomalacia Rachitic rosary tv\etastatic calcification

3. 4.

99. 93.
Microorganisms of which of the following species do NOT exhibit dimorphism?
l. 2. 3. 4.

\\ nich of the following rTetastasize?

1. 2. 3.
.1.
J.

is least Ii

Candida albicans Actinomyces israelii Histoplasma capsulatum Blastomyces dermatitidis

Neuroblastoma Chondrosarcoma Epidermoid carcinoma Basal cell carcinoma Mucinous adenocarcinoma

94.

jaundice does NOT result from which or the following? 1. 2. 3. 4.

:>.

100.

r.emoptysis is characteristic foilowing EXCEPT

l. 2. 3. 4.

of e,

Gallstones Hepatitis A Hemolytic anemia Vitamin K deficiency Carcinoma of the common bile duct

:>.

emphysema. tuberculosis. lobar pneumonia. pulmonary embolism. bronchogenic carcinoma.

32 NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION PART I

ANS\AJER KEY

MICROBIOLOGY-PATHOLOGY

- DECEMBER

1986

NO. 1. 2.
3.

ANS. 5 3 2 3 2 5 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 3 4 5 3
2

NO. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

ANS. 1 5 5 4 3 1 4 3 4 1 4 5 5 1 2 2 2
.3

NO. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67.
68.

ANS. 4 2 4 5 5 3 2 2 5 4 1 3 5 4 3 2 2 1 2 2 4 5 3 1 3

NO. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89.
"

ANS. 3 2 5 2 4 2 4 3 4 4 5 5 5 7 4 3 1 2 4 4 3 5 4 4 1

4.
5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

.",. '"',

-,

90.
91. 92. 93. 94. 95.

18.

19. 20.
I

4 3 3 2 4 5 2

4 3 3 3 4 4 3

69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

Part I December 1986

All test items relating to occlusion refer to a Class 1 canine and molar relationshipunless otherwise specified. Terms such as "normal" or "ideal" are synonymous with the above definition.

33 5.

Dental Anatomy
In the following drawing of mandibular teeth, the base of the arrow represents a possible contacting area and direction for the maxillary cusp.

..

1.

Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrow on the sketch below represents the path taken by the Identify the cusp.
1. 2. 3. 4. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Mesiofacial cusp of a first molar Mesiolingual cusp of a first molar Distofacial cusp of a first molar Distolingual cusp of a first molar

mesiofacial cusp of a second molar. mesiolingual cusp of a second molar. distofacial cusp of a second molar. distolingual cusp of a second molar. mesiofacial cusp of a third molar.

6.

Indicate the mandibular movement.

1. 2. 3. -+.

2.

The-mandibular movement indicated is 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. protrusive. right lateral, working side. left lateral, working side. right lateral, non-working side. left lateral, non-working side.

Intercuspal position Protrusive movement

-

lateral movement (working side)

lateral movement (non-working side) :>. lateral protrusive movement

7.
3.
I

Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrow on the sketch below represents the path taken by the

Assuming occlusion and alignment are normal, the arrow on the sketch below represents the path taken by the

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

distofacial cusp of a first molar. fifth cusp of a first molar. mesiofacial cusp of a second molar. mesiolingual cusp of a second molar. distofacial cusp of a second molar.

1. 2. 3.
1 ""t.

:>.

facial cusp of a first premolar. lingual cusp of a first premolar. facial cusp of a second premolar. lingual cusp of a second premolar. mesiolingual cusp of a first molar.

4.

The mandibular movement indicated is 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. protrusive. right lateral, working side. left lateral, working side. right lateral, non-working side. left lateral, non-working side.

8.

The mandibular movement indicated is

1. 2. 3. -+. :>.

protrusive. right lateral, working side. left lateral, working side. right lateral, non-working side. left lateral, non-working side.

. 9.
In the sketch below, the base of the arrow represents a possible contacting area for which of the following maxillary cusps?

34

14.

Which of the following primary teeth has a distinctly prominent facial cervical ridge that makes it uniquely different from other teeth?

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Lingual cusp of a second premolar Distolingual cusp of a first molar Mesiolingual cusp of a first molar Mesiolingual cusp of a second molar Distolingual cusp of a second molar

Maxillary canine Mandibular canine Mandibular first molar Maxillary second molar Maxillary central incisor

15.

Which of the following primary teeth has the greatest faciolingual diameter of the crown? 1. 2. 3. 4." Maxillary canine Maxillary first molar Maxillary second molar Mandibular second molar

10.

The sketch represents which of the following concepts of occlusion?

1. 2. 3. 4.
5.

Cusp-fossa .~ Cusp-marginal ridges Class I occlusion All of the above None of the above

16.

A permanent maxillary central incisor usually has how many mamelons and developmental lobes? 1. Two mamelons lobes Two mamelons lobes Three mamelons lobes Three mamelons lobes and two developmental and three developmental and two developmental and four developmental

11.

2. In a protrusive movement, the maxillary right central incisor ideally occludes with which of the following mandibular teeth? 1. 2. 3. 4. Central incisors Right central incisor only Right lateral incisor only Right central and lateral incisors 3.

4.

17.
12.
The tooth most likely to exhibit a lingual groove that extends from the enamel onto the cementa I area of the root is a permanent 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. maxillary canine. maxillary second molar. maxillary central incisor. maxillary lateral incisor. mandibular second premolar.

In an ideal intercuspal position (centric occlusion), the cusp of a permanent mandibular canine opposes the

1. 2. 3.
4.

marginal ridges of maxillary premolars. distal fossa of a max:llary first premolar. occlusal embrasure between maxillary canine and first premolar. incisal embrasure between maxillary canine and lateral incisor.

13.

18.
Approximately what percentage of permanent root formation is completed at the time the tooth eru pts? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 20% 30% 50% 80% 100%

Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by tooth contact? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Terminal hinge Maximum opening Postural position Masticatory cycle Intercuspal position Retruded contacting

position

35

.
24.
When an adult with normal occlusion moves his mandible from right lateral relation to centric occlusion, which cusp moves between racial cusps of the maxillary rigH second molar? 1.
! 3.

19.

A lingual pit is most common on which of the following teeth? 1. 2. 3. 4. Maxillary canine Mandibular canine Maxillary lateral incisor Maxillary central incisor

Distofacial cusp of the f!1andibular first molar .

Distal cusp of the mandibular first molar Mesiofacial cusp of the mandibular second molar Distofacial cusp of the mandibular molar Mesiofacial cusp of the mandibular molar second third

20.

-+.

Number and arrangement of cusps, number and location of roots, developmental grooves and oblique ridges are similar in a primary maxillary second molar and a 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. maxillary second premolar. permanent maxillary first molar. permanent mandibular first molar. permanent maxi lIary second molar. permanent mandibular second molar.

J.

25.

Nhich of the following ,.

'"\ '"\

is the longest root?

Root of a maxillary canine Root of a mandibular canine

-

21 ..

The dentition of a normally developed 6 Y2-year-old child usually consists of 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 8 primary and 8 permanent teeth. 10 primary and 10 permanent teeth. 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth. 20 primary teeth. permanent teeth -on Iy 26.

J.

Lingual root of a maxillary first molar

Lingual root of a maxillary second molar Mesial root of a mandibular first molar

-'.

22.

The ideal position and height of lingual cusps

of a mandibular first molar accommodate which of the following?

Which of the following occurs when the ,::;istofacial cusp of a permanent mandibular -ight first molar moves through the facial ~roove from the central fossa of the maxillary -rght first molar? Direct lateral excursion to the left Direct lateral excursion to the right Direct protrusive mandibular excursion Lateral-protrusive excursion to the left Lateral-protrusive excursion to the r~ght

,.
2. 3. 4. S.

Centric relation Working movement Protrusive position Non-working movement Maximum intercuspation

-'. -

23.

In carving an occlusal amalgam restoration in a permanent mandibular second molar, which of the following shapes is the most typical

27.

groove pattern?
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. H L U Y +

',yhich of the following permanent posterior :eeth has a mesial marginal ridge that is located more cervical than its distal marginal ridge? 1. 2. 3. Maxillary first premolar Maxillary second molar Mandibular first premolar Mandibular second molar

36
34.

28.

The sketch below is an occlusal view of a segment of a normal dental arch. The tooth indicated with an arrow is the primary

From a proximal view, which of the following permanent teeth tends to be positioned in the arch with its axis most nearly vertical? 1. 2. 3. 4. :>. Maxillary canine Maxillary lateral incisor Maxillary central incisor Mandibular lateral incisor Mandibular central incisor

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

maxillary right first molar. mandibular left first molar. maxillary right second molar. mandibular left second molar. mandibular right second molar.

35.

Which of the following grooves separates cusp ridges from marginal ridges? 1. 2. 3. 4. Supplemental Developmental Mesiomarginal developmental Marginal ridge developmental

29.

A mandibular primate space is usually found in the primary dentition between

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

central incisors. central and lateral incisors. lateral incisor and canine. canine and first molar. first and second molars.

36.

Primary molars differ from permanent molars in that primary molars 1. 2. 3. have heavier root trunks. tend to have less pronounced cervical ridges. have flatter facial and lingual surfaces from occlusal to cervical ridges. have thicker enamel compared with the total bulk of crowns.

30.

The premolar that most frequently central pit is the 1. 2. 3. 4. maxillary first. maxillary second. mandibular first. mandibular second.

has a single

4.

37.

Anterior guidance is a result of

1. 2. 3.
4. j.

31.

The first succedaneous tooth to erupt is a 1. 2. 3. 4. maxillary central incisor. maxillary lateral incisor. mandibular central incisor. mandibular first molar.

horizontal and vertical overlap. vertical and posterior cusp height. horizontal overlap and posterior cusp height. intercondylar distance and free way space. intercondylar distance and postural vertical dimension. .

38. 32.
How soon after eruption of a permanent tooth is the apex usually fully developed? 1. 2. 3. 4. Immediately 3 months 2 or 3 years 5 or 6 years

Which of the following sketches illustrates the mesial view of a permanent maxillary first molar?

33.

A 1-year-old child is expected~ to have erupted which of the following primary maxillary and mandibular teeth?

1 1. 2. 3. 4. 1 2 3 4

1. 2. 3. 4.

Incisors and canines Incisors and first molars Central incisors and canines Mandibular central and lateral incisors and maxillary central incisors

37

39.

In an otherwise normal arrangement, which of the following teeth are most often in abnormal relation and contact with adjacent teeth in the same arch?

44.

When viewed from the occlusal, the mesiodistal width of the lingual portion of the crown is generally greater than the mesiodistal width of the facial portion of the crown in a permanent 1. 2. 3. 4. maxillary first molar. mandibular first molar. maxillary second molar. mandibular second molar.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Mandibular first premolars Maxillary first molars Mandibular second molars Maxillary lateral incisors Maxillary second premolars

40.

The lingual cusp of a mandibular first premolar is similar in development to the 1. 2. 3. 4. cingulum of fifth cusp of middle lobe distolingual molar. a canine. a maxillary molar. of a mandibular canine. cusp of a maxillary third

45.

Which of the following muscles is the prime mover in effecting a left working movement? 1. 2. 3. 4. Left lateral pterygoid Left medial pterygoid Right lateral pterygoid Right medial pterygoid

41.

During nonmasticatory usually

swallowing,

teeth are

46.

Which of the following teeth in the permanent dentition normally,have trifurcations? 1. 2. 3. 4. Mandibular molars only Mandibular second premolars Mandibular molars and maxillary first premolars Maxillary molars and maxillary first premolars Maxillary first and second molars and some maxillary third molars

1. 2. 3. 4.

protruded. in a working arrangement. in contact in intercuspal position. None of the above. This is a nonexistent act.

5.

42.

The largest and longest cusp in posterior teeth is the 1. 2. 3. mesiolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar. distolingual cusp of a maxillary first molar. mesiofacial cusp of a mandibular first molar. distofacial cusp of a mandibular first molar.

47.

Which of the following jaw positions is determined almost exclusively by the behavior of the mandibular musculature? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Postural Terminal Intercuspal Retruded contacting Protruded contacting

4.

43.

Contraction of the lateral pterygoid muscle produces

48."

1. initial upward closure of the mandible. 2. forward movement of the condyle from
3. the articular fossa. posterior displacement of the condyle
.

Which of the following primary molars has an occlusal surface that most often bears the greatest resemblance to a premolar? 1. 2. 3. 4. Maxillary first Maxi Ilary second Mandibular first Mandibular second

from the articular eminence. 4.

final forceful closure of the molars through a bolus of food.

38

49.

Which of the following roots is most likely to

have a concavity on either or both its facial and lingual surfaces?

55.

Occlusocervically, the height of the mesial marginal ridge of a permanent mandibular first molar is the same as the height of the 1. 2. 3. 4. triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp. distal marginal ridge of a mandibular first molar. mesial marginal ridge of a mandibular second molar. distal marginal ridge of a mandibular second premolar.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Root of a maxillary second premolar lingual root of a maxillary first molar Mesial root of a mandibCJlar first molar Distal root of a mandibular second molar Mesiofacial root of a maxillary first molar Distofacial root of a maxillary first molar

50.

'In the diagram of Posselt's envelope of motion, maximum intercuspal position is the

56.

1. 2. 3. 4. 51.

lowest point. most anterior point. most posterior point. most superior point.

A developmental abnormality characterized by the presence of fewer than the usual number of teeth is 1. 2. 3. 4. anodontia. oligodontia. microdontia. hypodontia.

In which of the following molars is the mesial fossa most distinctly separated from the remainder of the occllJsal table by a transverse ridge? 1. 2. 3. 4. Maxillary first Mandibular first Maxillary second Mandibular second

57.

In the sketch below, the arrows indicate which of the following mandibular movements?

52.

The glenoid fossa is an oval cavity or a depression in the 1." maxilla, just anterior to the malar process. 2. temporal bone, just anterior to the auditory canal. 3. mandible, just posterior to the internal oblique ridge. 58.

1. 2. 3. 4.
:).

Protrusive Right lateral, working side Left lateral, working side Right lateral, non-working side Left lateral, non-working side

53.

The oblique ridge on a permanent maxillary first molar is reduced in height in the center of the occlusal surface and is nearly level with the

An anatomic feature that is most'likely complicate root planing of a maxillary incisor is 1. 2. 3. 4. a root bifurcation. a mesial concavity. an enamel projection. a distolingual groove.

to
lateral

1. 2. 3. 4.

marginal ridge. cusp tip of the distofacial cusp. triangular ridge of the mesiofacial cusp. None of the above

59.

54.

In the triangle formed by the projection of the orifices of the canals of a maxillary first molar, the 1. 2. 3. 4. :). angle at the distolingualcanal is obtuse. angle at the mesiofacial canal is obtuse. line connecting mesial with distal is longest. line connecting mesial with lingual is longest. . line connecting distal with lingual is longest.

Because of the presence of a fissured groove, cavity preparations most frequently need to be extended from the occlusal surface to the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. facial of maxillary molars. facial of mandibular molars. lingual of maxillary molars. lingual of mandibular molars. lingual of maxillary first premolars.

39

60.

Which of the following teeth have sharp demarcations between pulp chambers and . pulp canals?

65.

In a healthy state, the height of interproximal alveolar bone is most directly related to the 1. convexity of facial and lingual surfaces of the crown. convexity of proximal surfaces of the crown. relationship of proximal contacts occlusocervically. relationship of proximal contacts faciolingually. relationship of cementoenamel. lines of adjacent teeth.

1. 2. 3. 4.

Mandibular canines Maxillary lateral incisors Maxillary first premolars Mandibalar second premolars

2. 3.
-+. J.

61.

A patient with a paralyzed right lateral pterygoid muscle is instructed to open his mouth wide. Which direction will the mandible take on opening? 1. 2. 3. 4. To the left To the right Straight (without deviation to right or left) None of the above. The mandible will not move.

66.

Which of the fol/owing covers the articulating osseous structures of the temporomandibular joint? 1. 2. 3. 4.
J.

Synovial membrane Hyaline cartilage only Vascular fibrous connective tissue Dense avascular fibrous connective tissue Dense avascular elastic connective tissue

62.

In an ideal intercuspal position, the cusp tip of a permanent maxillary canine should contact

67.

In the figure below, which number designates retruded contacting po~itjon? . 34

1.
2. 3. 4. 5.

both mandibular canine and first premolar. the mandibular first premolar only. the mandibular lateral incisor. the mandibular canine only. no other tooth.

63.

From a facial view, the sketch' below is typical of the pulpal outline of a permanent

~
1. 2. 3. 4.
maxillary canine. mandibular canine. mandibular first premolar. maxillary central incisor.

8 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

64.

Under normal conditions, the presence of mamelons in a 14-year-old patient is indicative of

68.

1. fluorosis. 2. malnutrition. 3. malformation. 4. malocclusion. 5. enamel composition.

Which of the following premolars frequently has only one pulp horn? 1. 2. 3. 4. Maxillary first Mandibular first Maxillary second Mandibular second

.
69.
The facial surfaces of mandibular molars compared with the anterior border of the ascending ramus are located 1. 2. 3. 4. medial to the border. lateral to the border. continuous with the border. None of the above. Great'individual variation exists.

40

74.

When viewed from the facial, the distal contact of a maxillary canine is located 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. in the cervical third. in the incisal third. in the middle third. at the junction of cervical and middle thirds. at the junction of middle and incisal th irds.

70.

From a facial view, mesial and distal contact areas of mandibular central incisors are located 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. in the middle third. at the junction of incisal and middle thirds. at the junction-ekervical and middle thirds. . cervical to the junction of incisal and middle thirds. incisal to the junction of incisal and middle thirds.

75.

In a developing tooth, the junction of the dental papilla and the inner enamel epithelium becomes the 1. 2. 3. 4. zone of Weil. dentinoenamel junction. cementoenamel junction. primitive epithelial layer.

76.

71.

Identify the permanent anterior tooth that most frequently exhibits a bifurcated root and identify the positions of the roots. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Maxillary canine-facial and lingual Maxillary canine-mesial and distal Maxillary lateral incisor~facial and lingual Maxillary lateral incisor-mesial and distal Mandibular canine-facial and lingual Mandibular canine-mesial and distal

The facial masticatory mucosa (attached gingiva). is narrowest on which mandibular tooth? 1. 2. 3. 4. First molar Second molar First premolar Central incisor

77. 72.
It is most difficult to obtain close adaptation of the matrix band at the cervical for an amalgam restorationc on the 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. mesial surface of a maxillary first premolar. distal surface of a maxillary first premolar. mesial surface of a maxillary second premolar. distal surface of a mandibular second premolar. mesial surface of a mandibular first molar.

Sequence the following cusps of a permanent maxillary second molar from largest to
smallest. (a) (b) (c) (d) '

Mesiofacial Distofacial Mesiolingual Distolingual b, c, a, a, d, c, d, b, d, a, d b d b b

1. 2. 3. 4.
J.

a, a, c, c, c,

73.

The sketch below represents the facial view of a

78.

as
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. permanent mandibular right first molar. permanent mandibular left first molar. permanent mandibular right second molar. permanent mandibular left second molar. primary mandibular right second molar.

Arrange the three furcations of a maxillary first molar from closest to farthest from the cervical line.
(a) (b) (c)

Facial Mesial Distal b, c, a, c, b, c b c a a

1. 2. 3. 4.
J.

a, a, b, b, c,

"

I ,i
.j

41

.
83.
The mesiodistal measurement of the crown is greater than the faciolingual measurement in which of the following teeth? (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. 2. 3. 4. Maxillary molar Mandibular molar Maxillary canine Maxillary central and lateral incisors

79.

Which of the following statements are applicable to a maxillary second premolar? (a) (b) .{c) (d) (e) (f) Usually one root is present. The cusps may have vastly different forms. The root is extremely concave on the mesial surface. The crown is extremely concave on the mesial surface. There may be a groove on the mesiolingual aspect of the crown. Facial and lingual cusps are approximately the same size.

(a) and (b) (a), (c) and (d) (b) and (c) (b) and (d)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
80.

(a), (c) and (f) (a), (d) and (f) (a), (e) and (f) (a) and (f) only (b), (d) and (e)

84.

Whid1. of the following are notable differences between primary and' permanent dentitions? (a) Cervical ridges of permanent teeth are more pronounced. Crowns of primary incisors are shorter compared with mesiodistal diameters. Root trunks of primary teeth are less.

Which of the above statements are applicable to a mandibular first premolar? 1. 2. 3. 4.

(a), (a), (a), (b), (b) (c) (e) (c) and and and and (e) (e) (f) (f)

(b)

(c) (d) (e)

pronounced.

"'"

81.

When viewed from the mesial or the distal, the overall facial outline from cusp tip to root apex of a mandibular canine. is (a) (b) (c) (d) made up of two arcs. made up of one continuous arc. different from the outline of a maxillary canine. very similar to the outline of a 'maxillary canin~. and and and and only (c) (d) (c) (d)

(f)

Enamel is thinner in primary teeth compared with bulk of the crowns. Pulp cavities are larger in permanent teeth. Roots of permanent teeth are longer and slimmer. (b) (e) (c) (c) (d) and and and and and (c) (f) (d) (e) (e)
,

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (a), (b), (b), (c),

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) (a) (b) (b) (d)

85.

The outline below of a pulp cavity indicates

that this tooth probably

82.

The lingual surface of the crown of a mandibular canine is smooth and (a) (b) (c) relatively flat in the fossa area. poorly developed in the marginal ridge area. poorly developed in the cinguluf!1 area.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

has three well-developed lobes. has experienced trauma. is that of an old person. is that of a young person. and and and and and (b) (c) (d) (c) (d)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a) only (a) and (b) (b) only (b) and (c) (c) only AIl of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) (a) (a) (b) (b)

.
86.
When occlusion and alignment of teeth are normal, facets due to attrition develop in the (a)
(b) (c) (d)

42
89.

,'~
'r

;;,

The contact area, a self-protective feature of the dentition, functions to

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

facioincisal of a maxillary lateral incisor. linguoincisal of a maxillary central incisor. facioincisal of a mandibular canine. linguoincisal of a maxillary canine.
'

prevent food impaction. distribute occlusal forces. protect mucosal tissues. form embrasures. stabilize the dental arch.

1. 2. 3.
4;

5.

(a), (b) (a), (c) (b) and (b), (c) (c) and

and and (c) and (d)

(d) (d) only (d) only

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (b) and (c) (a), (d) and (e) (b) and (d) (c) and (d) (e) only

90.
87. In a normal occlusion, mandibular central incisors contact maxillary incisors in which of the following movements?
(a) . Protrusive (b) lateral (working) (c) lateral (non-working) (d) lateral protrusive .....

Which of the following features are useful in distinguishing a maxillary second premolar from a mandibular second premolar?
(a)

(b)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a) and (b) only (a), (b) and (d) (a) and (d) only (b) and (c) (c) only' (d) only

(c) (d)

The tip of the lingual cusp of a mandibular premolar is closer to the lingual border of the crown. The occlusal outline of a mandibular premolar is more nearly square. The root of a mandibular premolar is more circular in cross section. Facial and lingual cusps of a maxillary premolar are more nearly the same height.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) and (b) (a) and (d) (b) and (c) only (b), (c) and (df All of the above

88.

Which of the following permanent teeth have contact areas at approximately the same levels cervicoincisally or cervico-occlusally, on the mesial and the distal?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f)

91.

Maxillary central incisors Mandibular central incisors Maxillary canines Mandibular canines Maxillary molars Mandibular molars
(b) and (e) and (f) and (f) and (f) (d) (f) only

In an adult, which of the following occur normally while swallowing?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

(a) and (a), (c) (a), (e) (b), (d) (b), (e) (c) and (e) and

Masseter muscles contract. The suprahyoid group of muscles relaxes. Teeth come into occlusal contact. The tip of the tongue touches the roof of the mouth.
(b) and (c) (b) and (d) (c) and (d) (c) and (d) of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a), (a), (a), (b), All

? ;~
.~ -2 oJ

"

43

92.

The design of a restored ocdusal surface is dependent upon the

(a) (b) (c) (d)

95.

Distolingual cusps of which of the following posterior teeth may be completely absent?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

contour position amount rotating amount anterior

of the articular eminence. of the tooth in the arch. of lateral shift in the condyle, of vertical overlap of teeth. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Maxillary first molar Mandibular first molar Mandibular second molar -. Maxillary third molar Mandibular second premolar
and and and only only and only (b) (c) (d)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) and (c) (b), (c) and (d) (b) and (d) only (c) and (d) only All of the above

(a) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) (e)

(e)

96.

Which of the following permanent teeth have mesial concavities that require special attention when removing calculus deposits?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

93.

A permanent mandibular canine can be distinguished from a permanent maxillary canine because, typically, the mandibular canine has
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

Maxillary central incisors Maxillary first premolars Maxillary first molars Mandibular second premolars

a sharper facial cusp outline. a straighter mesial border, when viewed facially. contact areas located more incisally. a more pronounced cingulum. a cusp tip displaced lingually to a midline faciolingually.
(b) and (c) (c) and (d) (d) and (e) (c) and (e) . (d) and (e) of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a) and (b) on Iy (a), (b) and (c) (b) and (c) only (b), (c) and (d) (c) and (d) only, All of the above

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

(a), (a), (a), (b), (b), All

97.

Which of the following permanent anterior teeth generally have a lingual cervical line positioned JI'Lore apically than the facial counterpart?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (t)

Maxillary central incisor Mandibular central incisor Maxillary lateral incisor Mandibular lateral incisor Maxillary canine Mandibular canine
(d) and (t) and (t) (d) (t) only

94.

In carving the occlusal surface of a permanent maxillary first molar, occlusal contact should be anticipated on the
(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

(a) and (a), (e) (b), (c) (b) and (e) and

lingual slope of the facial cusp. facial slope of the lingual cusp. facial slope of the facial cusp. lingual slope of the lingual cusp.

98.

Which of the following muscles is NOT an elevator of the mandible? 1. 2. 3. 4. Temporal Masseter Medial pterygoid lateral pterygoid

1. 2. 3. 4.

(a), (b) and (c) (a), (b) and (d) (c) and (d) All of the above

44

99.

Each of the following is a function of the periodontal ligament EXCEPT 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. sensory. nutritional. supportive via the fibers. formative via its cellular elements. maintenance of the epithelial attachment. 'M

45

;',"
,.
' :
'

NATIONAL BOARD DENTAL EXAMINATION

ANSWER KEY

PART

DENTAL ANATOMY

& OCCLUSION

DECEMBER

1986

it , 0'. '> h

NO.

ANS. 3 2 3 5 2 2

NO. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31.

ANS.
2 3 2 4 4 3

NO.
51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56.

ANS.
2 2. 1 3 4 2

NO.
76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81.

ANS. 5 3 3 4 1 3

1.

2. 3. 4. 5. 6.
7.

8. 9. 10.
11.

4 4 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 4 4 5 3 2 3 2 5 4 1

32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.

3 2 1 2 3 1 1 4 1 3 1 2
I'

57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75.

3 4 4
' 3

82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100.

6 4 3 3 4 3 5 2 5 3 5 4 2 6
:}

12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

2 5 4 4 5 4 4 2 1 5 3 1 1 3 2

3 5 1 1 2 4

4 4 5