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a. When maturity gap is positive, decrease in interest rate increases the Net Interest Income (NII)
b. When maturity gap is Zero, increase in interest rate increases the Net Interest Income (NII)
c. When maturity gap is positive, increase in interest rate decreases the NII
d. When maturity gap is negative, decrease in interest rate increases the NII
e. When maturity gap is negative, increase in interest rate increases the NII.
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3. The idea that trade is beneficial to both parties rests on the assumption that buyers and sellers know >
what they are doing. The failure of this assumption is described as
a. Regulatory trade
b. Monopolistic market
c. Asymmetric information
d. Trade failure
e. None of the above.
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4. Bank rate is the >
a. Rs. 25 lacs
b. Rs. 50 lacs
c. Rs. 100 lacs
d. Rs. 500 lacs
e. Rs.1,000 lacs.
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7. Replacement of the credit of one party to a transaction with the credit of a financial institution is called >
a. Bonding
b. Delegation
c. Credit substitution
d. Credit netting
e. None of the above.
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8. Disintermediation means >
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 9 years
e. 10 years.
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13. Given the ROA is 6%, non-performing assets is 15% of its book-size and total assets is Rs.500 crores, >
tax rate is 35%. The ENPA level of the bank is
a. 61.54%
b. 62.39%
c. 59.48%
d. 58.32%
e. 58.06%.
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14. The subordinated debt instruments issued by a bank should have a minimum maturity of >
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 9 years
e. 10 years.
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15. Which of the following risks is eliminated between the contracting parties in a REPO transaction? >
a. Liquidity risk
b. Interest rate risk
c. Rate level risk
d. Counter party risk
e. Call risk.
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16. Fiduciary risk refers to the risk of losses that may arise by undertaking >
a. Project financing
b. Working capital finance
c. Off-balance sheet transactions
d. Financing of book debts
e. Pledge loans.
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17. If a 91-day T-bill of face value Rs.100 is acquired in the auction at a yield of 5%, then the purchase >
price is
a. Rs.97.77
b. Rs.98.27
c. Rs.98.77
d. Rs.98.88
e. Rs.99.89.
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18. Which of the following mortgages involves transfer of an interest in specific immovable property by >
deposit of title deeds?
a. Mortgage by conditional sale
b. Usufructory mortgage
c. English mortgage
d. Equitable mortgage
e. Anomalous mortgage.
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19. Which of the following risks arises if assets and liabilities are subjected to floating rates that are pegged >
to different benchmarks?
a. Basis risk
b. Put risk
c. Prepayment risk
d. Real interest rate risk
e. Call risk.
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20. Which of the following alternatives relating to the ENPA is true? >
a. Unclaimed deposits
b. Cumulative deposits
c. Staff security deposits
d. India development bonds
e. Deposits held as securities for advances.
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22. Mismatch between maturity patterns of assets and liabilities for a bank exposes to >
a. Return on Assets
b. Return on equity
c. Equity multiplier
d. Return on asset utilization
e. DSCR.
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27. Which of the following deposits of banks does RBI regulate for payment of interest? >
a. Term Deposit
b. Certificate of deposit
c. Capital gains deposit
d. Savings Bank
e. Gold deposit.
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28. Which of the following statements is/are true in respect of Capital Adequacy Ratio? >
a. Pledgee can sell the security under notice without filing a suit
b. Pledgee can sell the security only by filing a suit
c. Pledgee becomes owner under pledge agreement
d. Pledgee cannot have possession of security
e. Pledgor has possession of security.
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30. What is the risk weight assigned to guarantees issued by banks against counter guarantees of other >
banks?
a. Zero
b. 2.5%
c. 20%
d. 50%
e. 100% .
END OF PART A
Part B : Problems (50 Points)
• This part consists of questions with serial number 1 – 5.
• Answer all questions.
• Points are indicated against each question.
• Detailed workings should form part of your answer.
• Do not spend more than 110 - 120 minutes on Part B.
1. Consider the following details of Fortune Bank as on September 30, 2003:
(Rs. in crores)
Average Average
Liabilities Amount interest Assets Amount interest
(%) (%)
Capital and Reserves 800 0 Cash and bank balance 500 0
Deposits 9,700 6 Advances 7,200 10
Borrowing 300 7 Investments 2,700 6
Other Liabilities 400 0 Fixed and other assets 800 0
11,200 11,200
You are required to
Compute the Rate Sensitive Gap
b. Compute the Rate Adjusted Gap for the bank, assuming the interest rate on various assets and liabilities is
likely to be as given below.
Deposits 6.75%
Borrowings 8.00%
Advances 11.00%
Investments 6.80%
c. With the following additional information, assess the change in the market value of the equity due to increase
in interest rate by 1%
Duration of Assets 4 years
Duration of Liabilities 3 years
Current Interest rate 10%
d. How Fortune Bank can protect the market value of the equity? Explain.
(2 + 3 + 3 + 4 =12 points) < Answer >
2. The details given below represent the assets and liabilities of Dwarka Bank Ltd as on 31-03-2003:
S.No Details Rs. in crores
1. Furniture & fixtures 25
2. Buildings 10
3. Investment in Government Securities 120
4. Investment in shares/debentures 45
5. Revaluation reserve 70
6. Cumulative perpetual preference shares 15
7. Statutory reserve 25
8. Equity 30
9. Undisclosed reserves 5
10. Balance with RBI 24
11. Cash on hand 73
12. General provision and loss reserves 9
13. Capital reserve (gain on sale of assets) 22
14. Equity investments in subsidiaries 15
15. Subordinated debt (maturity wise)
Maturity 2-3 yrs 5
4-5 yrs 10
Less than one year 10
16. Advances
Unsecured 335
Secured by tangible assets 245
Loans granted to Undertakings of Government of India 16
17. Guarantees given with 50% cash margin 65
18. Deposits from Banks 10
19. Deposits from others 550
20. Gold 20
21. Tax paid in advance 45
22. Letters of credit issued with 20% cash margin 40
23. Balances in accounts with other banks 15
24. Claims on Commercial Banks (CD’s) 20
You are required to calculate the following
i. Tier I Capital
ii. Tier II Capital
iii. Capital Adequacy Ratio.
(12 points) < Answer >
3. The following information is provided by the General Manager of a bank:
Particulars %
Capital Adequacy Ratio 10
CRR 4.5
SLR 25
Cost of capital 12
Cost of deposits
*Demand deposits 3
Term deposits 6
*50% of demand deposits are
interest free deposits
Ratio of demand to term deposit is 1:2
The lending rates offered to borrowers as per credit rating are as follows:
Category Rate Proportion
A PLR 0.40
B PLR + 1 0.40
C PLR + 2 0.20
The earnings assets of the bank are at Rs.4,400 crore. The Net Interest Income (NII) figure is Rs.154 crore. The
bank is expecting a variation of 10% in the net interest income.
You are required to compute
a. The target gap for each of the four possible changes in the interest rates
b. The expected change in NII for different levels of gap.
(3 + 4 = 7 points) < Answer >
END OF PART B
END OF PART C
Reason : In the duration gap method, if the gap is negative and if the interest rates are expected to
increase, then decrease in market value of assets will be less than the decrease in market
value of liabilities. As the risk sensitive assets are less than the risk sensitive liabilities, it
will increase the value of equity.
2. Answer : (d) < TOP >
Reason : It is true, when maturity gap is negative decrease in interest rate increases the Net Interest
Income (NII). Options in (a), (b), (c) and (e) are false.
3. Answer : (c) < TOP >
Reason : The idea that trade is beneficial to both the parties rests on the assumption that buyers and
sellers know what they are doing. The failure of this assumption is described as
“asymmetric information”.
4. Answer : (c) < TOP >
Reason : Bank rate is the rate at which RBI lends to banks. Options in (a), (b), (d) and (e) are not
correct.
5. Answer : (a) < TOP >
Reason : Ways and Means Advances is not a source of financing for the Government but only
accommodates temporary mismatches in Government receipts and payments. Option in (a)
is false. Options in (b), (c), (d) and (e) are true.
6. Answer : (d) < TOP >
Reason : The minimum paid up capital required to set up a Local Area Bank (LAB) is Rs.500 lakhs.
7. Answer : (c) < TOP >
Reason : Replacement of the credit of one party to a transaction with the credit of a financial
institution is called ‘Credit substitution’. Putting of assets to guarantee performance is
called bonding.
Appointment of someone to act for others in a transaction is called delegation. There is no credit
netting. Correct answer is c.
8. Answer : (c) < TOP >
Reason : Disintermediation means loss of deposits by financial intermediaries because direct lending
becomes more attractive.
Loss of deposits by financial intermediaries because alternative types of indirect lending
becomes more attractive, is called reintermediation. Options in (a), (b), (d) and (e) are not
correct.
9. Answer : (b) < TOP >
Reason : The commercial paper issued by a borrower is an unsecured money market instrument.
Options in (a), (c), (d) and (e) are not correct.
10. Answer : (b) < TOP >
Reason : Registration of charge with the Registrar of Companies is not required in the case of pledge
loans given to the companies. In all other cases mentioned in (a), (c) and (d) charge is to be
registered with the Registrar of Companies.
11. Answer : (a) < TOP >
Reason : The subordinated debt instrument issued by a bank should have a minimum maturity of 5
years.
13. Answer : (d) < TOP >
Reason : Malhotra Committee setup by the Government of India recommended changes in the
insurance sector. Goiporia Committee made recommendations on customer service. Chore
committee made recommendations on maximum permissible bank finance in connection
with the working capital finance.
Narasimham Committee recommended on banking reforms.
Verma Committee recommended on restructuring of weak public sector banks. Correct answer is
(d).
14. Answer : (d) < TOP >
Reason : Every NBFC has to create reserve fund and transfer every year an amount not less than
20% of net profit.
15. Answer : (d) < TOP >
Reason : In a REPO transaction, there is no counter party risk as the lending is secured by
government/approved securities. Options in (a), (b) and (c) do not arise in a REPO
transaction.
16. Answer : (c) < TOP >
Reason : Fiduciary risk refers to the risk of losses that may arise by undertaking off-balance sheet
transactions.
17. Answer : (c) < TOP >
100 − x 365
×
x 91
Reason : = 0.05
X = 98.77
Purchase price of T-bill is Rs.98.77.
18. Answer : (d) < TOP >
Reason : Equitable mortgage is created by deposit of title deeds. Deposit of title deeds is an essential
feature of equitable mortgage. Options in (a), (b), (c) and (e) are not correct.
Reason : Basis risk is the risk arising out of two different benchmark rates not moving in tandem.
When the costs of liabilities and the yields on assets are linked to different benchmarks in a
float rate situation, it gives rise to basis risk.
A put option is exercised by the investor in an increasing interest rate scenario. This is called put
risk. A call option is exercised by the issuer to redeem the bonds/securities before maturity
in a declining interest rate scenario. This is called call risk. Cash inflows in an declining
interest rate scenario due to prepayment of loans gives rise to prepayment risk since these
cash flows are to be redeployed at a lower rate. Real interest rate risk occurs because the
changes in the nominal interest rates may not match with the changes in inflation.
20. Answer : (c) < TOP >
Reason : Return on assets is the ratio of net profit to total assets while ENPA (Earnings before taxes
as a proportion to NPAS, is the ratio of profit before taxes to NPA.
The credit risk is quantified in terms of ENPA. As ROA increases ENPA will also increase.
Alternatives:
(b) Higher ENPA level indicates lower credit risk
(c) NPAs increase as ENPA level falls is not true
(d) Margin of safety increases with ENPA rise.
(e) The curve will be upward sloping not downward sloping since ENPA increases with
ROA.
21. Answer : (a) < TOP >
Reason : Unclaimed deposits is a demand liability and all the other liabilities under (b), (c), (d) and
(e) are examples of time liabilities.
Reason : By not paying interest on current a/c bank is saving its expenditure on cost of funds. By
offering free cheques, bank is not put to any leakage of income as the same is compensated
in saving the interest payment on current account balances. Such a pricing strategy is
referred as implicit pricing.
The other strategies in options (a), (c), (d) and (e) are as follows:
Rebate strategy: The bank makes charges but rebates on basis of balance
Explicit pricing: Charge as the costs go and competition permits.
Relationship pricing: If the customer has more than one account, he gets a better price.
Symmetric account: Paying interest as function of minimal or average balance.
25. Answer : (b) < TOP >
Other alternatives are not correct as they are all measured against net profit.
27. Answer : (d) < TOP >
Reason : The interest rate on savings bank is regulated by Reserve Bank of India. The interest rates
on other deposits are deregulated.
28. Answer : (b) < TOP >
Reason : Revaluation reserves should be valued at 45%, Tier II capital should not exceed Tier I
capital and subordinate debt should not exceed 50% of Tier I capital. So only alternative (b)
is correct
29. Answer : (a) < TOP >
Reason : Pledgee can sell the security under notice without filing a suit.
Under pledge possession is with the pledgee and ownership remains with the pledgor. A
pledgee can auction the goods / security to recover the dues. Any surplus realized after
adjusting the dues is to be returned to the pledgor.
Reason : Guarantees issued by banks against coenter guarantees of other banks carries risk weight of
20%.
Part B : Problems
1. a. Rate Sensitive Gap = Rate Sensitive Assets – Rate Sensitive Liabilities
Rate Sensitive Assets = 7,200 + 2,700
= Rs.9,900 cr
Rate Sensitive Liabilities = 9,700 + 300
= Rs.10,000 cr
Rate Sensitive Gap = 9,900 – 10,000
= – 100cr
b. Rate Adjusted Gap = Rate Adjusted Assets – Rate Adjusted Liabilities
Rate Adjusted Assets:
Advances = 7,200 × 1 = 7,200
Investments = 2,700 × 0.80 = 2,160
Total Rs. 9,360 cr.
Rate Adjusted Liabilities:
Deposits = 9,700 × 0.75 = 7,275
Borrowings = 300 × 1.00 = 300
Total Rs.7,575 cr.
Rate Adjusted Gap = 9,360 – 7,575
= Rs.1,785 crore
3 ×114.905 × 6 0.0567
=
**36500
8. Legally, insurance is a uberrimae fides contract where one party agrees to compensate the other in consideration of
a certain smaller sum. Such compensation is contingent upon happening or non-happening of a certain event.
Uberrimae fides relates to one of the 8 elements of insurance – Utmost Good Faith. Uberrimae fides contracts
require utmost good faith on both the parties of an insurance contract that ask for voluntary disclosure of all
material facts relevant to the subject matter of the contract. Thus, in an insurance contract, both the person who is
buying insurance and the insurance company should disclose all material facts at the time of entering into the
contract. Any material facts that are not disclosed to the other party having a direct or indirect relationship to the
contract will make it null and void.
The assured must disclose material facts which he knows or ought to know, at the time when he is making or is
under the duty to make disclosure. The assured is under such duty until there is a binding contract of insurance
made. The question as to whether certain facts are material or not will not be decided by the assured but is to be
determined by the views of reasonable and prudent insurer. Thus materiality is a question of fact, to be decided in
the circumstances of each case and may be generally taken to embrace every circumstances which would influence
the judgment of a prudent insurer in fixing the premium or determining whether he will take the risk and if so, at
what premium and on what conditions.
It also means that the person who is buying insurance should disclose all material facts to the insurance company,
and it is for the insurance company to determine relevance of each material facts. But in practice, the prospective
assured is given a proposal form upon which certain questions relating the risk to be insured are asked. This has
considerable bearing upon the question of materiality involved in the non-disclosure and misrepresentation. The
express terms that are contained in the proposal form as a rule are called warranties, by which the truth of the
answers to proposal form is made the basis to the liability of insurers under contract. Apart from this, the insurance
company is obligated to explain the implication of the clauses in the agreement and further to explain each of the
questions of which the answers are sought in the personal statement.
Apart from Utmost Good Faith, there are seven other elements of insurance contract which are listed below:
• Insurable Interest
• Indemnity
• Subrogation
• Warranties
• Proximate Cause
• Assignment
• Nomination
Insurable Interest
A valid contract of insurance should have an insurable interest’ by the person who is buying insurance (the
policyholder) in the existence of the subject matter that is being insured. That is, the policyholder should be able to
establish a monetary relationship between her and the subject matter of the insurance. Any loss of subject matter
should directly lead to monetary loss to the policyholder. All insurance contracts should compulsorily have an
insurable interest by the policyholder.
Indemnity
Indemnity refers to the assurance given by one to put the person who obtained assurance, in the event of loss, in
the same position that he/she occupied immediately before the happening of the event for which indemnity is
sought for.
Therefore, all insurance contracts except for life insurance, are considered as contracts of indemnity.
The principles of indemnity and the principle of insurable interest are considered complementary to each other as
the insured has to prove that he/she is the person who will suffer a loss (approximately) to the extent of sum
assured.
Subrogation
Doctrine of Subrogation refers to “the right of the insurer to stand in the place of the insured, after settlement of a
claim, in so far as the insured’s right of recovery from an alternative source is involved”.
When the value of compensation that is recovered from the third party is more than the indemnified value, then the
insurer may charge the appropriate share of any expense incurred in recovering or collecting the money.
Warranties are conditions that are written by the insured in the insurance contracts that state the truth by affirming
or denying the existence of particular state of facts. Warranties that are mentioned in the policy are called express
warranties and those which are not written in the policy are implied warranties. Also, there are warranties which
are answers to the questions (called affirmative warranties) and some warranties fulfilling certain conditions or
promises.
Proximate Cause
Proximate cause refers to the immediate cause that resulted in the loss. For example, when there is loss of property
due to fire caused by a short circuit, the proximate cause will be short circuit (even if the short circuit occurs due to
some other cause, say, the malfunctioning of an electric equipment). It is the cause without which the loss would
not have occurred. An insurer is liable for any loss proximately caused by a peril insured against.
Assignment
Assignment refers to the situation in which one party transfers its rights and duties under a contract to another
party. Both life insurance policies as well as general insurance policies can be assigned. Many of the loan
companies and housing finance companies grant loan to the individuals on assignment of life insurance policies.
Nomination
Nomination refers to the procedure which enables the nominee (in whose favor nomination is given) to get the
policy proceeds without the necessity of producing any legal representation to the estate of the deceased life
assured There need not be any reason for nomination of a policy, a policy may be assigned for a legal
consideration or love and affection. The nomination may be changed during the course of the life of the assured.
However, once the assignment is made, it cannot be revoked by the assignor because he ceases to be the owner of
the policy unless re-assignment is made by the assignee in favor of the assignor.
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