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CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE

Multiple Choices: Below are questions accompanied with different options. Select and encircle the letter that
corresponds the BEST answer.
1. What is the crime committed of a person who without any intent to kill, fired his gun against his
neighbor, without killing him?
A. Attempted homicide
B. Attempted murder
C. Illegal discharge of firearm
D. Negligent use of firearms Ans: C
2. Evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts. It is a testimony repetitive of testimony given
earlier. It is additional evidence which merely reinforces testimony previously given.
A. Cumulative evidence
B. Corroborative evidence
C. Prima facie evidence
D. Relevant evidence Ans: A
3. Can a child be qualified to become a witness in court?

A. Yes, if the child is the only sole witness of a grave crime
B. No, the witness must be 18 years of age or has reached adulthood
C. Yes, if the child can perceive, remember, and can distinguish truth from falsehood
D. No, children are psychologically still on the stage of immaturity that may tarnish the integrity of any
testimony
Ans: C
4. Which of the following rights CANNOT be inherent?
A. Right to life
B. Right to dignity
C. Right to property
D. Right to marriage Ans: C
Note: Inherent rights are those which do not need to be granted by any person or authority.
5. Person ABC, a private individual, without legal grounds arrested Juan dela Cruz for the purpose of
delivering him to the proper authorities. What crime is committed?
A. Illegal arrest
B. Unlawful arrest
C. Arbitrary detention
D. Illegal detention Ans: B
6. A high ranking police officer who engages in human trafficking is committing the crime of ________
trafficking in persons.
A. Aggravating
B. Qualified
C. Human
D. Public Ans: B
Note: Qualified trafficking in persons if committed by syndicate, public officers, spouse, parent, the victim is a
child or has died.
7. Which of the following qualifies for slander by deed?
A. Slapping a person in public while shouting pokpok ka
B. Slapping a person having the purpose to humiliate him or her
C. Spitting the person in a public market to humiliate him or her
D. All of the above Ans: D
8. Acts and omissions punishable by the Revised Penal Code.

A. Felony
B. Offense
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C. Misdemeanor
D. Infraction Ans: A
Note: Offense – punishable by special laws. Misdemeanor or infraction – punishable by ordinance
9. In order to acquire large amount of money sufficient to buy a car, Pedro along with Juan sneaked into the
house of Maria. Unnoticed, they stole various jewelries of high value including the money stored at the
owner’s vault. Santiago, their best friend, help them to escape from the crime scene. Referring to the
above scenario, Juan participated as a ____________ of the crime.
A. Principal
B. Accomplice
C. Accessory
D. Suspect Ans: A
10. Upon knowing that the personal computer is sold only for 3,000 pesos, James rushed into the bank and
withdraws an amount and then bought the computer. 3 days passed, policemen went to his house. Only
then he realized that the computer he bought was actually a stolen item from a nearby house. Referring
to the scenario above, what crime is committed by James?
A. Buying stolen items
B. Fence
C. Fencing
D. Accepting stolen items Ans: C
Note: Fencing – buying, selling, receiving, possessing, keeping any things derived from robbery or theft.
Fence – is a person who commits the act of fencing
PD 1612 Anti-Fencing Law
11. A stage in the execution of a crime where the offender commences commission of a felony directly by
overt acts, and does NOT perform all acts of execution which should produce the felony by reason of
some cause or accident other his spontaneous.
A. Consummated
B. Frustrated
C. Attempted
D. None of the above Ans: C
Note: Frustrated Stage – offender performs all the acts of execution which would produce the felony but do
not produce it due to some cause independent of the will of the perpetrator.
Consummated Stage – a stage in the execution of a crime where all elements are present
12. Conspiracy and proposal to commit felony are punishable only in cases in which the law specially
provides a penalty thereof. A conspiracy exists when at least how any persons come to an agreement
concerning the commission of a felony and decide to commit it?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 Ans: B
Band – whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an offense.
13. Police officer ABC in civilian clothes asked person XYZ where he can buy shabu. Person XYZ responded by
asking the officer how much of the drug he needed. When he told him, XYZ left, and later returned with
the shabu, gave it to the officer, and took his money. Person XYZ is:
A. liable for selling since the police operation was a valid entrapment.
B. not liable for selling since the police operation was an invalid entrapment.
C. liable for selling since the police operation was a valid form of instigation.
D. not liable since the police operation was an invalid instigation
Ans: A
14. Any person who acts in obedience to an order issued by a superior for some lawful purpose is a __________
against criminal liability.
A. Exempting circumstance
B. Justifying circumstance
C. Mitigating circumstance
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D. Aggravating circumstance Ans: B
Note: Justifying circumstances

Self defense
Defense of Relatives
Defense of Stranger/s
Official duty
Obedience to an order issued by a superior
15. The husband has for a long time physically and mentally tortured his wife. After one episode of beating,
the wife took the husband’s gun and shot him dead. Under the circumstances, her act constitutes
A. mitigating vindication of grave offense.
B. battered woman syndrome, a complete self-defense.
C. incomplete self-defense.
D. mitigating passion and obfuscation. Ans: B
16. Those which if present in the commission of the crime reduces the penalty of the crime but does not
erase criminal liability nor change the nature of thecrime.
A. Exempting circumstance
B. Justifying circumstance
C. Mitigating circumstance
D. Aggravating circumstance
E. Alternative circumstance Ans: C
17. When the offender commits any of the crimes against the person, employing means, methods, or forms in
the execution thereof which tend directly and specially to insure its execution, without risk to himself
arising from the defense which the offended party might make, he is committing:
A. Crime
B. Murder
C. Treachery
D. Homicide Ans: C
18. CDX, a police officer, placed a hood on the head of ABC, a suspected drug pusher, and watched as Y and Z,
police trainees, beat up and tortured ABC to get his confession. CDX is liable as:
A. as accomplice in violation of the Anti-Torture Act.
B. a principal in violation of the Anti-Torture Act.
C. a principal in violation of the Anti-Hazing Law.
D. an accomplice in violation of the Anti-Hazing Law. Ans:B
19. The exchanges of highly offensive words between two quarrelling women in the presence of a crowd of
people constitute:
A. one count of grave slander against the woman who uttered the more insulting expressions.
B. grave slander against the woman who started it and light slander against the other woman.
C. two separate counts of light slander, one for each woman.
D. two separate counts of grave slander, one against each of them
Ans: D
20. Any person who, having found lost property, shall fail to deliver the same to the local authorities or to its
owner is liable for
A. occupation or usurpation of personal property.
B. civil damages only.
C. theft.
D. other deceits. Ans: C
21. To mitigate his liability for inflicting physical injury to another, an accused with a physical defect must
prove that such defect restricted his freedom of action and understanding. This proof is not required
where the physical defect consists of
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A. a severed right hand.
B. complete blindness.
C. being deaf mute and dumb.
D. a severed leg. Ans: B
22. X killed B, mistakenly believing that she was his wife, upon surprising her having sex with another man in
a motel room. What is the criminal liability of X?
A. None since he killed her under exceptional circumstances.
B. None since he acted under a mistake of fact.
C. Parricide.
D. Homicide. Ans: D
23. Hipolito concealed Cardo’s body and the fact that he killed him by setting Cardo’s house on fire. What
crime or crimes did Hipolito commit?
A. Murder, the arson being absorbed already
B. Separate crimes of murder and arson
C. Arson, the homicide being absorbed already
D. Arson with murder as a compound crime Ans: B
24. A public officer who immediately returns the bribe money handed over to him commits
A. no crime.
B. attempted bribery.
C. consummated bribery.
D. frustrated bribery. Ans: A
25. Person X inflicted violent kicks on vital parts of Person E's body. Person E nevertheless was able to flee
for fear of his life. Refusing to undergo treatment for his injuries, E died 3 days later. Is X liable for E’s
death?
A. No, since kicks on the body cannot cause death.
B. No, since it took too long for death to occur.
C. Yes, since E cannot be compelled to undergo medical treatment.
D. Yes, since it was a natural result of the injuries X inflicted on E Ans: D
26. A criminal action for rape is extinguished when the offender is forgiven by
A. the offender’s wife who herself is the rape victim.
B. his wife for having raped another woman.
C. the rape victim’s husband.
D. he rape victim herself Ans: A
27. What is the criminal liability, if any, of a pregnant woman who tried to commit suicide by poison, but she
did not die and the fetus in her womb was expelled instead?
A. The woman who tried to commit suicide is not criminally liable because the suicide intended was not
consummated.
B. The woman who tried to commit suicide is criminally liable for unintentional abortion which is
punishable when caused by violence.
C. The woman who tried to commit suicide is criminally liable for abortion that resulted due to the poison
that she had taken to commit suicide.
D. The woman who tried to commit suicide incurs no criminal liability for the result not intended.
Ans: D
28. What crime is committed by a person who kills a three-day old baby?
A. infanticide
B. homicide
C. murder
D. parricide Ans: C
29. Which of the following is a circumstance that mitigates punishment?

A. Crime committed on the occasion of earthquake, epidemic or other calamity or misfortune.
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B. Crime committed with the aid of armed men
C. Accused is a recidivist.
D. Offender is suffering some physical defect Ans: D
30. It is the loss of the right of the state to PROSECUTE an offender after the lapse of a period prescribed by
the law.
A. Prescription of crime
B. Prescription of penalty
C. Parole
D. Marriage Ans: A
Note: Prescription of the penalty – it is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the State to EXECUTE the final
sentence after the lapse of a certain period of time fixed by law
31. Which of the following is considered as a formal crime?
A. Murder
B. Slander
C. Arson
D. Homicide Ans: B
Note: Formal Crime – crimes which are consummated in one instant or by a single act. (Ex. Estafa, adultery,
libel, etc.)
Material Crimes – crimes which necessitates the three stages of execution.
32. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without trial.
A. Ex-post facto law
B. Bill of attainder
C. Law
D. Bill Ans: B
33. Which of the following is an example of Mala In Se?

A. Murder
B. Smoking
C. Loitering
D. Spitting Ans: A
Note: Mala In Se – crimes that are evil or wrong in itself (Ex. Rape, homicide. Theft, etc.)
Mala prohibita – these are crimes that are considered illegal because laws define them as such (Ex.
Vandalism, bigamy, concubinage, etc.)
34. With intent to kill, GGG burned the house where F and D were staying. F and D died as a consequence.
What is the proper charge against GGG?
A. GGG should be charged with two (2) counts of murder.
B. GGG should be charged with arson.
C. GGG should be charged with complex crime of arson with double murder.
D. GGG should be charged with complex crime of double murder Ans: C
35. What is the criminal liability, if any, of a private person who enters the dwelling of another against the
latter's will and by means of violence or intimidation for the purpose of preventing some harm to
himself?
A. The private person is criminally liable for qualified trespass to dwelling.
B. The private person is criminally liable for simple trespass to dwelling.
C. The private person incurs no criminal liability.
D. The private person is criminally liable for light threats. Ans: C
36. What is the criminal liability, if any, of a mayor who, without being authorized by law, compels
prostitutes residing in his city to go to, and live in, another place against their will?
A. The mayor is criminally liable for violation of domicile.
B. The mayor is criminally liable for expulsion.
C. The mayor is criminally liable for Grave coercion.
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D. The mayor incurs no criminal liability because he merely wants to protect the youth against the
indecency of the prostitutes.
Ans: B
37. When is a crime deemed to have been committed by a band?
A. When armed men, at least four (4) in number, take direct part in
the execution of the act constituting the crime.
B. When three (3) armed men act together in the commission of the crime.
C. When there are four ( 4) armed persons, one of whom is a principal by inducement.
D. When there are four (4) malefactors, one of whom is armed. Ans: A
38. A characteristic of the criminal law which states that the law has no retroactive effect and that it must be
construed in favor of theoffender.
A. Generality
B. Territoriality
C. Prospectivity
39. Juan Gwapo was convicted of the crime of murder. While serving his sentence inside the penal institution,
he committed serious physical injury against another inmate. Edgar Pol can beclassified as:
A. Criminal
B. Quasi-recidivist
C. Recidivist
D. Habituality Ans: B
Note: Quasi-recidivist – is one who commits another crime after having been convicted by final judgment of
a crime before beginning to serve such sentence or while serving the same.
40. R.A. 10054 known as the "Motorcycle Helmet Act" was put into law in the year 2009. Person "A" a police
officer filed a case against person "B" for violation of Republic Act 10054. The filing of the case was
triggered after theaforementioned police officer saw Person "B" not wearing helmet when they
coincidentally met in the year 1990. If you were the prosecutor of the case, what would be your legal
action?
A. Dismiss the complaint
B. Ask the officer to submit evidences that would prove his claims
C. Require the respondent to file his counter affidavit
D. Refer the case to the Lupon Ans: A
41. Tomas a member of a drug syndicate is under detention for violation of Republic Act 9165
(Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act). One day he was involved in a fight and killed his fellow detainee.
Thus, a case of homicide was also filed. Is Tomas a recidivist?
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while in detention
B. No, because he is not yet convicted of his first crime
C. Yes, because he committed a crime
D. No, because drug violation is different from homicide Ans: B
42. The seduction of a virgin over twelve years and under eighteen years of age, committed by any person in
public authority, priest, home-servant, domestic, guardian, teacher, or any person who, in any capacity,
shall be entrusted with the education or custody of the woman seduced.
A. Simple seduction
B. Qualified seduction
C. Corruption of minors
D. Consented abduction Ans: B
Note: Simple seduction – seduction of woman who is single or a widow, over twelve but under eighteen years
of age, committed by means of deceit.
Corruption of minors – Any person who promote or facilitate the prostitution or corruption of persons
underage.
Consented abduction – The abduction of a virgin over twelve years and under eighteen years of age,
carried out with her consent and with lewd designs.
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43. Is committed by any married woman who shall have sexual intercourse with a man not her husband
A. Concubinage
B. Adultery
C. Bigamy
D. None of the above Ans: B
44. Any person who, owing allegiance to the Government of the Philippine Islands, not being a foreigner,
levies war against them or adheres to their enemies, giving them aid or comfort within the Philippine
Islands or elsewhere.
A. Direct assault
B. Treason
C. Espionage
D. Rebellion Ans: B
Note: Direct assaults – Any person who shall attack, or seriously intimidate or resist any person in authority
or any of his agents, while engaged in the performance of official duties.
Espionage – any person who obtain any information, plans, or other data of a confidential nature
relative to the defense of the Philippine Archipelago.
Rebellion or insurrection – rising publicly and taking arms against the Government.
45. Any person having no apparent means of subsistence, who has the physical ability to work and who
neglects to apply himself or herself to some lawful calling; and, Any person found loitering about public
or semi-public buildings or places or trampling or wandering about the country or the streets without
visible means of support is called:
A. Prostitute
B. Vagrants
C. Beggar
D. Illegitimate Ans: B
Note: Vagrancy is no longer a crime.
46. Person "A" was an employee of Apoloy Bank Incorporated. As an employee thereof, he was able to learn
the safety vaultcombination. One Sunday evening, he went to the bank's office to steal the money placed
inside the vault. He opened the vault butfound out that it was empty. For what crime is he liable of?
A. Attempted theft
B. Frustrated theft
C. Consummated theft
D. Robbery Ans: A
47. The means sanctioned by the rules of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter
of fact:
A. Proof
B. Evidence
C. Trial
D. Procedure Ans: B
48. That which is the proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the existence of the particular fact in
dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.
A. Direct evidence
B. Primary evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Circumstantial evidence Ans: D
Note: Direct evidence – proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any inference or presumption
Primary evidence – that which affords the greatest certainty of the fact in question.
Secondary evidence – That which is inferior to primary evidence.
49. The following are sources of the criminal laws in the Philippines, EXCEPT:
A. Act No. 3815
B. Special laws
C. Presidential decrees
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D. Ordinances Ans: D
50. Person "B" unlawfully shot person "C" to death while the latter was at his brother's house. What
aggravating circumstance ispresent?
A. Nighttime
B. Superior strength
C. Relationship
D. Dwelling Ans: D
51. Juan saw Pedro attacking his own wife (Pedro's wife) using a Rambo knife. Due to pity, Juan approached
Pedro and struggled for the possession of the weapon, in the course of which Juan killed Pedro. What
Justifying circumstance is present?
A. Self defense
B. Defense of stranger
C. Defense of relative
D. Avoidance of evil Ans: B
Note: self defense – defense made towards self
Defense of stranger – defense made towards a person beyond 4th civil degree.
Defense of relative – defense towards a person within 4th civil degree (up to 1st cousin)
52. Which of the following is the right of the accused which may be waived?
A. Right to compulsory attendance of witnesses
B. Right to confrontation and cross examination
C. Right to speedy, impartial and public trial
D. Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation Ans: B
53. A criminal law is said to be general, when:

A. Such criminal law is binding on all persons who live and sojourn in the Philippine territory
B. Such law is enacted by the Philippine legislature
C. Such law is accepted by everybody
D. Such law has no retroactive effect and is construed in favour of the accused Ans: A
54. Why is treason cannot be committed during peace time?

A. There is no threat to the government
B. There is no illegal adherence to enemy's country
C. Treason is a war crime
D. Crimes during peace time are ordinary crimes Ans: C
55. Additional evidence of a different kind and character, tending to prove the same point:
A. Corroborative
B. Prima facie
C. Conclusive
D. Positive Ans: A
Note: Prima facie – evidence that can stand alone. Evidence which is sufficient for the proof unless
contradicted.
Conclusive – evidence which the law does not allow it to be contradicted
Positive – when the witness affirms that a fact did or did not occur.
56. Person "A" introduced himself as the City Mayor as he was pacifying Juan and Pedro who were fighting
inside a Bar. Notwithstanding his presence, Juan and Pedro continued to fight until Juan succeeded the
killing of Pedro. What aggravating circumstance is present?
A. In contempt or with insult to a public authority
B. Disregard of rank being the Mayor
C. Abuse of power in front of a public official
D. Killing Ans: D
57. Before killing his victim, Person "A" drank Emperador to make him bolder in the commission of the
crime. What alternative circumstance is present?
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A. Education
B. Relationship
C. Intoxication
D. Confidence Ans: C
Note: The intoxication of the offender shall be taken into consideration as a mitigating circumstances when
the offender has committed a felony in a state of intoxication, if the same is not habitual or subsequent to the
plan to commit said felony but when the intoxication is habitual or intentional, it shall be considered as an
aggravating.
58. Juan, thinking that the person walking in a dark alley was Pedro, his bitter enemy, fired at that person
who was killed as a result. However, it turned out that the victim was Jose, who was Juan's best friend. In
this situation, there is:
A. Error in personae
B. Complex crime
C. Murder
D. Homicide Ans: A
59. Evidence which is addressed to the senses, as when objects arepresented for the inspection of the court.
A. Documentary
B. Competent
C. Relevant
D. Real or object Ans: D
60. Book one of the Revised Penal Code consist of how manyarticles?
A. 113
B. 212
C. 103
D. 200 Ans: A
61. The Revised Penal Code of the Philippines took effect on:
A. January 1, 1990
B. December 1, 1930
C. January 1, 1930
D. January 1, 1932 Ans: D
62. What will a judge do if the acts done by a person being tried in court is not covered by law?
A. Convict the accused
B. Acquit the accused
C. Place accused under probation
D. Give the accused parole Ans: B
63. A foreign merchant vessel entered the Philippine territorial waters. John, one of its crews, upon seeing
Masang who boarded the vessel through a banca, courted Masang and promised to marry her if she
agrees to a sexual intercourse. Masang agreed, however after the sexual intercourse, John discovered that
Masang is no longer a virgin. With this, he did not hold on to his promise and instead only paid Masang
one hundred dollars. Is John criminally liable for breach of promise?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: A
Note: There is no such crime as breach of promise
64. Is a carbon copy of a document considered "original"?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Maybe
D. The court will decide Ans: B
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65. Is a photocopy or Xerox copy of a document considered "original"?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Maybe
D. The court will decide Ans: A
66. Decide. The accused was charged with serious physical injury because the injury obtained produced a
scar.
A. Serious physical injury is committed
B. Less serious physical injury is committed
C. Attempted homicide is committed
D. Slight physical injury is committed Ans: D
Note: Slight physical injuries and maltreatment.
1. Incapacitation of the offended party for labor from 1-9 days
2. Physical injuries which do not prevent the offended party from engaging in his habitual work nor
require medical assistance
3. Ill treatment to another by deed without causing any injury.
67. The cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take and act without proof because they
already know them.
A. Judicial admission
B. Judicial information
C. Judicial knowledge
D. Judicial notice Ans: D
68. The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of any offense
necessarily included therein, may be given in evidence against him.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Acknowledgement
D. Self declaration Ans: B
69. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the admission or confession to be admissible?
A. Must be in writing and under oath.
B. Must be taken in the court.
C. Written in a language known to the accused.
D. Taken in the presence of a competent lawyer.
E. Must be freely and voluntarily taken. Ans: B
Note: extra-judicial confessions need not to be in court
70. The duty of the party to present evidence to establish his claimis referred to as:
A. Burden of proof
B. Burden of evidence
C. Presentation of evidence
D. Weight of evidence Ans: A
71. The following are the requisites before a court can validly exercise its jurisdiction, EXCEPT:
A. It must have jurisdiction over the criminal investigation being made
B. It must have jurisdiction over the person who committed the offense
C. It must have jurisdiction over the place where the crime was committed
D. It must have jurisdiction over the crime Ans: A
72. The following are the requisites for the issuance of a search warrant, EXCEPT:
A. It must be issued upon a probable cause
B. It must describe the person to be searched
C. Particularly describing the place to be searched
D. The probable cause must be personally determined by the judge Ans: B
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73. The following are the requirements of an Information, EXCEPT:

A. It must be filed by the offended party
B. It must be subscribed by the prosecutor
C. It must be furnished by the prosecutor
D. It must charge a person with an offense Ans: A
74. The husband or the wife during or after the marriage cannot be examined without the consent of the
other as to any communication received in confidence by one from the other during the marriage except
in a civil case by one against the other, or in criminal case for a crime committed by one against the other
or the latter's direct descendants or ascendants.
A. Absolute privileged communication
B. Qualified privileged communication
C. Marital privileged communication
D. Privileged communication Ans: C
Note: Absolute Privileged Com.- Information by a client to his lawyer. Advice by the lawyer to the client.
Also, the court cannot order the priest to reveal what the penitent said in the confession.
Qualified Privileged Communication- means the communication given by a patient to doctor.
75. The Judiciary Reorganization act:
A. Batas Pambansa 129
B. Presidential Decree 1612
C. Republic Act 7659
D. Republic Act 9995 Ans: A
Note: PD 1612 – Anti Fencing Law
RA 7659 – Death Penalty Law
RA 9995 – Anti Voyeurism Law
76. The number of days the accused has to prepare for trial after a plea of not guilty is entered.
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 25 days Ans: B
77. The number of hours within which the police should file a complaint after the arrest of a person
committing a crime punishable by correctional penalties. Otherwise, the same police officer will be
charged with arbitrary detention.
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 72 hours Ans: B
Note: 12 hours – crimes punishable by light penalties
18 hours – crimes punishable by correctional penalties
36 hours – crimes punishable by afflictive penalties
78. Which among the following is a warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge
directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or
detention?
A. Mittimus
B. Warrant of Arrest
C. Carpeta
D. Search Warrant Ans: A
79. The officer to whom the warrant of arrest was assigned for execution shall make a report to the judge
who issued the warrant, within:
A. 10 days from the expiration of the period of execution
B. 15 days from the expiration of the period of execution
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C. 20 days from the expiration of the period of execution
D. 25 days from the expiration of the period of execution Ans: A
80. The place of trial for a criminal actions is called:

A. Venue
B. Jurisdiction
C. Setting
D. Territory Ans: A
81. The police was informed of the presence of a marijuana plantation. The following day, the police together
with the informer went to the location. When they arrived at the place, they saw the marijuana plants as
was informed. Are the marijuana plants admissible as evidence?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: B
Note: Search and seizure without a search warrant makes the evidence inadmissible
82. The procedure in the examination of witnesses:
A. Cross, direct, re-cross, re-direct examination
B. Direct, cross, re-direct, re-cross examination
C. Direct, re-direct, cross, re-cross examination
D. Cross, re-cross, direct, re-direct examination Ans: B
83. Accused jumped upon a woman and threw her to the ground. Although the accused raised her skirts, the
accused did not make any effort to remove the woman's underwear. Instead, he removed his own
underwear and placed himself on top of the woman and started performing sexual movements. The
crime committed is:
A. Acts of lasciviousness
B. Attempted rape
C. Rape
D. Sexual assault Ans: A
84. The right of the state to initiate criminal actions in behalf of incapacitated individuals with no known
parent, grandparent or guardian, is known as:
A. Doctrine of non-suability
B. Doctrine of parens patria
C. Habeas corpus
D. Police power Ans: B
Note: Doctrine of non-suability – immunity of state from suit
Habeas corpus – to bring the accused to court to determine the legality of his arrest
85. The robbers entered the house. Upon entering through the window, one of the robbers stepped on a child
less than 3 days old.The crime is:
A. Robbery
B. Robbery with abortion
C. Robbery with homicide
D. Robbery with infanticide Ans: C
Note: There is no such crime as robbery with infanticide
86. The substance of the crime and in its primary sense refers to the fact that a crime has been actually
committed. This also refers to the body of the crime.
A. Corpus delicti
B. Curpus delicte
C. Curpus delicti
D. Curpos delicti Ans: A
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87. This is committed by a public officer. The crime includes entering the house with warrants maliciously
obtained or abuse in the service thereof or searching domicile without witnesses.
A. Grave coercion
B. Violation of domicile
C. Trespass to dwelling
D. Expulsion Ans: B
Note:
Grave coercion – prevent another from doing something or compel him to do something against his will
Trespass to dwelling – Any private person who shall enter the dwelling of another against the latter’s will.
Expulsion – public officer not being authorized by law, shall expel or shall compel any person to change his
residence
88. Those still in the mind that is not punishable no matter how evil it is. Example, in your mind, you want to
kill your wife.
A. Overt acts
B. External acts
C. Internal acts
D. Preparatory acts Ans: C
89. Those who force or induce others to commit crime. For instance, Person "A" induces Person "B" with
reward of money to kill person "C".
A. Principal by active participation
B. Principal by direct participation
C. Principal by inducement
D. Principal by indispensable cooperation Ans: C
90. Juan invited Celia for a snack. They drove along Dumaguete Boulevard and to Bayawan, which is 100
kilometers from Dumaguete. The woman was already crying and wanted to be brought home. Juan
imposed the condition that Celia should first marry him.
A. Arbitrary detention
B. Forcible abduction
C. Grave coercion
Note: Arbitrary detention – Any public officer or employee who, without legal grounds, detains a person
Forcible abduction – The abduction of any woman against her will and with lewd designs
Grave coercion – prevent another from doing something or compel him to do something against his will.
91. Validity of the warrant of arrest expires:

A. After 10 days
B. After 15 days
C. After 20 days
D. No fixed duration Ans: D
Note: The statutory period of 10 days is merely an executory period. This means that the police officer is
given ten (10) days to execute the warrant and in the event that he fails to execute the same within that
period, he is mandated by law to make a report to the court. Be it made clear that a Warrant of Arrest has NO
EXPIRATION.
92. What is that foreign word which is used to refer to treachery?
A. Alevosia
B. Destierro
C. Hurto
D. Reiteration Ans: A
93. An assault case took place in Barangay 3, Siaton, Negros Oriental at 6.15 in the evening. Person "A" who
claimed to witness the incident stated that he saw the accused walking down Barangay 3 Street at 6pm.
In this case Person "A" is giving what kind of evidence?
A. Circumstantial Evidence
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B. Physical Evidence
C. Tracing Evidence
D. Associative Evidence Ans: A
94. "Fruit of the poisonous tree" means:

A. Any evidence must be relevant to the case at hand
B. Any evidence that is obtained must be screened for relevance and credibility
C. Any evidence that is illegally obtained is inadmissible in the court
D. Any evidence that will be presented in the court must be labelled Ans: C
95. Juan has a very bad feeling against Kario who molested Belen, the girlfriend of Juan. One day Juan decided
to kill Kario, he found Kario sitting on a rocking chair. He stabbed Kario three times only to find out that
Kario was already dead prior to his stabbing. What is the reason of the law punishing Juan?
A. That Juan actually committed a crime
B. That Juan is harboring ill feeling against Kario
C. That Juan intended to kill Kario in the first place
D. That the act of Juan is indicative of his criminal propensity or criminal tendency Ans: D
96. Peter, while walking in an uninhabited place heard of a sound in a grassy lot along the road, he searched
for it and found out that it was Juan who was dying due to a mortal or severe injury. Having an ill feeling
against Juan, Peter did not extend assistance, thus, Juan died. Is Peter liable of any crime?
A. No, because he did not do the killing of Juan
B. No because Juan died of an injury where Peter was innocent of
C. Yes, he is liable of intentional killing because he was driven by his ill feeling against Juan
D. Yes, for omission by abandonment of person in danger. Ans: D
97. Due to argument in the card game, Person "A" fired at Person "B" resulted to a hit on the shoulder of the
latter. But Person B's wound was not mortal. What Person "A" then did was to approach Person "B" and
told him, "Now you are dead, I will kill you!" However, after a short while, Person "A" took pity on his
enemy and decided to keep the revolver and instead left from the scene. What crime was committed?
A. Attempted homicide
B. Consummated homicide
C. Frustrated homicide
D. Murder Ans: A
98. Person "A" the primary suspect of the crime was brought in the police station for interrogation. In the
presence of his counsel, he was asked about the crime committed. He acknowledged of perpetuating the
offense but refused to give full details on how it was committed. In this scenario, Person "A" is giving
what statement?
A. Testimony
B. Deposition
C. Confession
D. Admission Ans: D
99. Decide. A police officer is armed with search warrant duly issued by a competent court. Upon searching
the house, the witnesses present are two minors ages 8 and 10 years old. Is the search valid?
A. Yes because the search is made by virtue of a warrant
B. Yes because the warrant was issued by a competent court
C. No because the search should be made during daytime
D. No because the witnesses are not within what the law prescribes Ans: D
100. What crime is committed when a public officer or employee shall prevent or disturb the ceremonies
or manifestations of any religion?
A. Interruption of religious worship
B. Offending religious worship
C. Atheism
D. None of the above Ans: A
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Note: Offending the religious feelings. – anyone who, in a place devoted to religious worship or during the
celebration of any religious ceremony shall perform act notoriously offensive to the feelings of the
faithful.
Atheism – absence of belief in the existence of God
101. During a birthday celebration, on the occasion of dancing, one of the participants lighted a firecracker
and exploded it near the dancing hall. Is there an alarm or scandal being committed?
A. yes, because the party people were frightened
B. No, because it was only done near the dancing hall
C. Yes, because the explosion is too loud
D. No, because it is not calculated to cause alarm or danger Ans: D
102. Decide. Person "A" a detainee, escaped from the jail after reluctant supervision from the guards. Is
Person "A" liable for evasion ofservice of sentence under Article 157?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Can't decide Ans: B
103. What provisional remedy is issued by a judge calling for the property of the adverse party to be
brought into legal custody, either at the commencement of the action or any time thereafter before final
judgment as a security for the satisfaction of a judgment obtained by the prevailing party?
A. Attachment
B. Habeas corpus
C. Statute of limitation
D. Arbitration Ans: A
104. Pedro the battalion commander of the Criminology Aptitude Training in ABCDE University filed a
complaint against a junior cadet Juan dela Cruz regarding his non-participation in the aptitude trainings.
Together with his complaint affidavit were, attendance sheet which indicates Juan's absence, CCTV
footage which showed Juan only playing at the internet café, written testimonies by three freshmen
cadets, and performance rating of the accused. If you are the investigating fiscal on the case, what will you
do?
A. Dismiss the complaint
B. Order Juan to submit his counter affidavits
C. Summon both parties and arrive on amicable settlement
D. Issue a resolution for approval by the chief fiscal Ans: A
Note: Non participation of school activities is not a crime
105. Upon receiving the information from prosecutor "A", Judge "B" upon review found out that a
probable cause exists for Pedro to be put into trial. He was about to issue a Warrant of Arrest only to find
out that Pedro was already detained in a lock up jail in PNP Dumaguete station. Instead of the issuance of
a warrant, Judge "B" shall issue:
A. Search warrant
B. Arrest warrant
C. Commitment order
D. Detention order Ans: C
106. There are three major organization of the courts: regular, special, and quasi judicial agencies. Court
of tax appeals belongs to:
A. Regular courts
B. quasi judicial agencies
C. special courts
D. municipal trial court Ans: C
Note: Regular courts – SC, Court of appeals, RTC, MTC, MCTC
Quasi-Judicial agencies – Court Marshall, LFRB, Labor and employment, etc.
Special Courts – Court of Tax Appeals. Sandiganbayan
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107. If the crime committed by a person is punishable by more than four years and two months, where is
the venue of the trial?
A. Municipal trial court
B. Regional trial court
C. Court of tax appeals
D. Supreme court Ans: B
Note: MTC – jurisdiction over cases punishable by 4 years and 2 months or less
RTC – more than 4 years and 2 months
Court of Tax Appeals – jurisdiction on cases related to tax
SC – jurisdiction over appeals, petition for naturalization, etc.
108. The following are authorized to release an inmate when sentence is due, EXCEPT:
A. Supreme court
B. President
C. Prison director
D. Judge Ans: D
Who may Authorized Release?
 Supreme Court in cases of acquittal or grant of bail
 President in cases of executive clemencies or amnesty
 BPP in parole cases
 Director upon expiration of sentence
109. If the person is arrested without a warrant and his crime is punishable with light penalties, the police
officer and the prosecution are given how many hours to complete the process of investigation in finding
probable cause to file information?
A. 10 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 36 hours Ans: B
Note: 12 hours – light penalties
18 hours – correctional penalties
36 hours – afflictive penalties
110. Who among the following is a person in authority?
A. Police officer
B. NBI agent
C. PDEA agent
D. Brgy. Chairman Ans: D
Note: Person in authority – any person directly vested with jurisdiction, as an individual or as a member of
some court or governmental corporation, board, or commission.
Agent of person in authority – A person who is charged with the maintenance of public order and the
protection and security of life and property.
111. In a case, Dr.Procopio was ordered by the court to produce at trial the patient's charts, laboratory
and x-ray results and other documents under his possession and control. The process served on him to
do is called:
A. Ordinary subpoena
B. Subpoena duces tecum
C. Subpoena ad testificandum
D. Court summons Ans: B
Note: Subpoena ducestecum – court orders a person to present documents
Subpoena ad testificandum – court orders a person to testify
112. In infanticide, the penalty provided for parricide in Article 246 and for murder in Article 248 shall be
imposed upon any person who shall kill any child:
A. 72 hours after it was born
B. Less than 72 hours after it was born
C. 3 days old
D. More than 3 days old Ans: B
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113. Pedro was killed by Juan using a 9mm firearm. The immediate family of the victim filed a case against
Juan. To shed light on the cause of death and the nature of the gunshot wounds, Dr. Tan was ordered by
the court to testify. However, Dr. Tan refused to attend on several occasions a court hearing citing as
reason that he has a lot of OPD patients to see. He may be cited for:
A. contempt of court
B. Refuse to cooperate with the court
C. Disrespect for the court
D. Unduly prioritizing his clinic practice Ans: A
114. The accused was shocked to discover his wife and their driver sleeping inside their luxury car.
Outraged, the accused got his gun and killed both. Can the accused claim that he killed the two under
exceptional circumstance?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: A
Note: No, since the accused did not catch them while having sexual intercourse
115. What crime is committed by a person who kills his legitimate brother on the occasion of public
calamity?
A. Parricide
B. Murder
C. Homicide
D. Serious physical injury Ans: B
116. AAA took the pencil of BBB without the latter's knowledge or consent. A little later, AAA felt guilty
and secretly returned the stolen pencil. Is AAA liable for theft?
A. Yes, AAA is liable for theft because theft is a crime under the Revised Penal Code, committed when a
person takes the personal property of another without the latter's consent, with intent to gain but
without force upon things or violence or intimidation against persons. Here, AAA took the pencil and
committed theft at the moment of taking.
B. No, AAA is not liable for theft because the fact that AAA returned the pencil negates the existence of
intent to gain. One of the elements of theft is intent to gain; this is inconsistent with the return of the
thing supposedly stolen, especially if the return is within a very short period of time.
C. Yes, AAA is liable for theft when s/he took BBB's pencil without the latter's knowledge or consent.
Return of the stolen pencil is merely a mitigating circumstance analogous to voluntary surrender but
it is neither a justifying nor an exempting circumstances.
D. No, AAA is not liable for theft because, although the pencil was stolen, the law does not concern itself
with trifles. De minimis non curat lex. The act of AAA, although actionable, cannot be said to be
amounting to a crime which is an outrage against the sovereignty of the State. To say that AAA is
liable for the crime of theft of a pencil would not do justice to the State, nor to BBB, nor to AAA. At
best, AAA should be made civilly liable.
Ans: C
117. Prof. Cardo gave a failing grade to one of his students, Hipolito. When the two met the following day,
Hipolito slapped Prof. Cardo on the face. What was the crime committed by Hipolito?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion Ans: B
118. A person walks into a police station and declares that he has committed a crime before the police
could take him into custody. May his declaration be admitted against him?
A. No since he has not been forewarned of his rights to silence and to counsel.
B. Yes since he made his declaration before he could be taken into custody and investigated.
C. No since he has entered the police station and came within its jurisdiction.
D. Yes since he freely gave his declaration to the police. Ans: B
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119. When the original of a document is in the custody of a public officer or is recorded in a public office,
its contents may be proved by a:
A. Certified copy issued by the public officer in custody thereof
B. Certified copy from which the document is reproduced or photocopied
C. Requesting the court to issue an order for the issuance of the document in custody of the public office
D. Requesting the public office who has custody, to present it in court
Ans: A
120. Any evidence whether oral or written, which is intended or tends to vary or contradict a complete
and enforceable agreement embodied in a document. It is also defined as any outside or extrinsic
evidence introduced to modify or explain or add something to an agreement that was put in writing.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Cumulative evidence
C. Parol evidence
D. Primary evidence Ans: C
121. After drinking one (1) case of San Miguel beer and taking two plates of "pulutan", Binoy, a Filipino
seaman, stabbed to death Sio My, a Singaporean seaman, aboard M/V "Princess of the Pacific", an
overseas vessel which was sailing in the South China Sea. The vessel, although Panamanian registered, is
owned by Lucio Sy, a rich Filipino businessman. When M/V "Princess of the Pacific" reached a Philippine
Port at Cebu City, the Captain of the vessel turned over the assailant Binoy to the Philippine authorities.
An information for homicide was filed against Binoy in the Regional Trial Court of Cebu City. He moved to
quash the information for lack of jurisdiction. If you were the Judge, will you grant the motion?
A. Yes, Philippine court has no jurisdiction over the crime committed since it was committed on the
high seas and on board a vessel not registered or licensed in the Philippines
B. No, the perpetrator of the crime and the owner of the vessel were both Filipinos, thus, it is but right
that the case should be brought for trial in the Philippines
C. Yes, the mere fact that the vessel docked into the Philippine Port, gives jurisdiction of the Philippine
Courts to try the case
D. No, the crime was committed outside the territory of the Philippines
Ans: A
122. The conduct of wife ABC aroused the ire of her husband XYZ. Incensed with anger almost beyond his
control, XYZ could not help but inflict physical injuries on ABC. Moments after XYZ started hitting ABC
with his fists, ABC suddenly complained of severe chest pains. XYZ, realizing that ABC was indeed in
serious trouble, immediately brought her to the hospital. Despite efforts to alleviate ABC's pains, she died
of heart attack. It turned out that she had been suffering from a
lingering heart ailment. What crime, if any, could XYZ be held guilty of?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. No crime due to irresistible anger Ans: B
123. The following cannot become a witness, EXCEPT:

A. Deaf Mute
B. Insane
C. Delusional
D. All are disqualified Ans: A
124. It is defined as supreme, inherent, and inalienable rights to life, to dignity, and to self development.
The essence of these rights makes man human.
A. Human rights
B. Natural rights
C. Constitutional rights
D. Statutory rights Ans: A
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125. Those that cannot be suspended nor taken away nor restricted/limited even in extreme emergency
and even if the government invokes national security. Examples: The right to freedom of thought,
conscience, and religion.
A. Statutory rights
B. Constitutional rights
C. Absolute or non-derogable rights
D. Derogable or can-be-limited rights Ans: C
126. It provides a wide range of protection for prisoners of war. It defines their rights and sets down
detailed rules for their treatment and eventual release.
A. Rome statute
B. Geneva convention
C. Japan convention
D. Universal declaration of human rights Ans: B
127. Which of the following is an act defining and penalizing crimes against international humanitarian
law, genocide and other crimes against humanity, organizing jurisdiction, designating special courts, and
for related purposes?
A. PD 1612
B. RA 9262
C. RA 9995
D. RA 9285 Ans: D
128. Means a person who is in the power of an adverse party, has clearly expressed an intention to
surrender; or has been rendered unconscious or otherwise incapacitated by wounds or sickness and
therefore is incapable of defending himself.
A. Alevosia
B. Hors de combat
C. Prisoner of war
D. Surrenderee Ans: B
129. One demanding the avowal or repudiation of certain beliefs before the performance of any act.
A. Religious freedom
B. Apostasy
C. Religious test
D. Spiritual infidelity Ans: C
130. An order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction, directed to the person detaining another,
commanding him to produce the body of the prisoner at a designated time and place, and to show
sufficient cause for holding in custody the individual so detained.
A. Habeas corpus
B. Habeas corpus proceeding
C. Writ of habeas corpus
D. Habeas corpus order Ans: C
131. Any person who shall make use of force or intimidation upon any person coming to the aid of the
authorities or their agents on occasion of the commission of any of the crimes shall be liable for:
A. Direct assault
B. Indirect assault
C. Obstruction of justice
D. Contempt of Court Ans: B
132. Any person who directly or indirectly participates in cockfights, by betting money or other valuable
things, or who organizes cockfights at which bets are made, on a day other than those permitted by law,
shall be liable for:
A. Illegal gambling
B. Illegal cockfighting
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C. Gambling
D. Cockfighting Ans: B
133. Which of the following is NOT a crime?

A. Vagrancy
B. Unintentional abortion
C. Consented abduction
D. Giving assistance to suicide Ans: A
Note: RA 10158 decriminalized vagrancy

134. Any private individual who shall detain another, or in any other manner deprive him of his liberty
shall be liable for:
A. Illegal detention
B. Arbitrary detention
C. Unlawful detention
D. Unlawful arrest Ans: A
135. When more than three armed persons form a band of robbers for the purpose of committing robbery
in the highway, or kidnapping persons for the purpose of extortion or to obtain ransom or for any other
purpose to be attained by means of force and violence, they shall be deemed:
A. Bands
B. Brigands
C. Highway robbers
D. Both B and C Ans: D
136. In premature marriages, any widow who shall marry within ____ from the date of the death of her
husband, or before having delivered if she shall have been pregnant at the time of his death, shall be
punished by arresto mayor and a fine not exceeding 500 pesos.
A. 365
B. 300
C. 301
D. 350 Ans: C
137. An inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded
belief that a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held
for trial.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. Preliminary investigation
D. Plea bargaining Ans: C
138. A preliminary investigation is required to be conducted before the filing of a complaint or

information for an offense where the penalty prescribed by law is at least:
A. 4 years and 2 months
B. 4 years and 2 months and 1 day
C. 4 years and 1 day
D. 4 years and 1 day and 2 months Ans: B
139. This is the power of the courts, ultimately the Supreme Court, to interpret the constitution and to
declare any legislative or executive act invalid because it is in conflict with the fundamental law.
A. Judicial independence
B. Judicial power
C. Judicial review
D. Judicial autonomy Ans: C
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140. Which of the following exercises exclusive jurisdiction over all offenses punishable with
imprisonment not exceeding 6 years irrespective of the amount or fine? Its jurisdiction is also on all
violations of city or municipal ordinances committed within their respective territorial jurisdiction.
A. Metropolitan Trial Court
B. Municipal Trial Court
C. Municipal Circuit Trial Court
141. The lupon of each barangay shall have authority to bring together the parties actually residing in the
same city or municipality for amicable settlement of all disputes if the crime committed is:
A. punishable by imprisonment of not more than 1 year and a fine not more than 5,000 pesos
B. punishable by imprisonment of more than 1 year but not exceeding 6 months, and a fine not more
than 5,000 pesos
C. not punishable by 6 years and a fine of 5,000 pesos
D. not punishable by imprisonment but only through fine or payment Ans: A
142. A judgment of acquittal becomes final immediately after promulgation. It cannot even be the subject
of certiorari. The reason for this rule is that an appeal if entertained amidst acquittal would place the
accused in:
A. Judicial risk
B. Double jeopardy
C. Violation of speedy trial
D. Judicial and financial compromise Ans: B
143. It is when a prior statement is withdrawn formally and publicly by a witness.

A. Affidavit of desistance
B. Recantation
C. Perjury
D. Falsification of documents Ans: B
144. In this document, the complainant states that he did not really intend to institute the case and that he
is no longer interested in testifying or prosecuting. It is a ground for dismissing the case only if the
prosecution can no longer prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable doubt without the testimony
of the offended party.
A. Affidavit of desistance
B. Affidavit of case withdrawal
C. Affidavit of disinterest
D. Affidavit from pursuit of justice Ans: A
145. Is counsel appointed by the court to represent and defend the accused in case he cannot afford to
employ one himself.
A. Defendant`s counsel
B. Counsel de oficio
C. Ex-officio lawyer
D. Defendant`s lawyer Ans: B
146. Can an officer arrest a person against whom a warrant has been issued even if he does not have the
warrant with him?
A. No, police officer must bear with him a copy of the warrant during the arrest
B. Yes, warrant can be shown as soon as it becomes practicable
C. No, arrest becomes invalid in the absence of the warrant
D. Yes, what is important is the fact that the warrant was issued Ans: B
147. What is the main purpose of the preliminary investigation?

A. To find out if there is a strong evidence for the filing of a complaint
B. To find out whether there is a probable cause to hold a person for trial
C. To check the legality of arrest and the weight of evidence presented
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D. To check for the appropriate charges against the accused based on the pieces of evidence presented
Ans: B
148. Do the offended parties have the right to move for the dismissal of a case?
A. No. The right belongs only to the government prosecutor who is the representative of the plaintiff.
B. Yes. Upon motion at any stage of the trial
C. No. Unless evidence presented are deemed to be weak and lacks merit
D. Yes. When both parties agreed for the dismissal of the case. Ans: A
149. Jose killed Mario on Monday. The lone witness was Maria. On Tuesday Jose and Maria got married.
Question: Can Maria be compelled by the prosecution to testify against Jose on Wednesday or any other
day?
A. No, because of the disqualification by reason of marriage rule.
B. Yes, Maria witnessed the crime before she got married to the accused
C. No, because both of them become one soul
D. Yes, Maria may testify against the accused as the crime is deemed to be an infraction of the state
Ans: A
150. Parents cannot be compelled to testify against his descendants.
A. Filial privilege
B. Parental privilege
C. Privilege communication
D. Privilege relating to trade secrets Ans: B
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LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

5. The highest position in PDEA is Director General with the rank of:
A. Director
B. Undersecretary
C. Assistant secretary
D. Secretary Ans: B
6. Which police organization applies the “iron fist, velvet glove” in the enforcement of law?
A. Switzerland Police
B. Japan Police
C. Ireland Police
D. Egypt Police Ans: A
7. Which of the following is known as the “modern day slavery”?

A. Prostitution
B. Human Trafficking
C. White slavery
D. Organ smuggling Ans: B
4. A mentality of pulling others down to get what you want. It is a way to illustrate the selfish, harmful, and
jealous mindset of some members in a group, who will try to undermine and halt the progress of the
other better-performing members in the group.
A. Mañana Hapit
B. Ningas Kugon
C. Crab mentality
D. Inggit Ans: C
5. Pedro a 30 year old criminologist submitted his application for Patrolman in the PNP Regional Office in
April 10, 2022. He will be celebrating his 31 st birthday on the 26th of the same month. If the schedule of
the oath taking is on June 1, 2022, what will happen to his application?
A. Disqualified
B. Accepted if he passed the screening process
C. Blacklisted
D. Nothing Ans: A
6. Patrolman CDX in his regular evaluations was found to be below satisfactory rating in terms of his
performance. His reasons thereof include personal illness, financial challenges, and trouble at home. With
this he was not promoted. His Chief stated that he understood the situation but persistently persuaded
CDX to improve. What would be the effect if within 10 years Patrolman CDX is not promoted?
A. He will be ordered to undergo a mandatory training
B. He will be demoted to a lower rank
C. He will be transferred and will be under strict supervision
D. He will be terminated Ans: D
7. Registered Criminologists can take the lateral entry in the Philippine National Police upon vacancy. This
statement is:
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: B
Note: in the new law of RA 11131, Registered Criminologists have preferential of appointment in terms of
lateral entry.
8. What rank qualifies a police officer to apply for lateral entry?
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A. Registered criminologist irrespective of whatever rank
B. Police corporal
C. Police staff sergeant
D. Police patrolman Ans: C
9. Which of the following involves activities pertaining to the higher level focusing on developing plans,
processes and policies, establishing goals and objectives? It gives proper direction, it is a directing
function. It may be compared to the brain of the human body; because its activities relate to thinking
process like fixation of target, decision making etc.
A. Management
B. Organization
C. Agency
D. Administration Ans: D
10. No one can serve two masters at the same time. Everyone should only answer to one boss. This principle
is known as:
A. Hierarchy of authority
B. Span of control
C. Unity of command
D. Specialization Ans: C
11. Which of the following is concerned with the setting up of objectives and plans, and internal operating
efficiency of the police organization? It involves making ethical and lawful decisions relating to the hiring,
management, retention, discipline, and termination of law enforcement personnel. It is otherwise known as
police in action, the cooperative human effort to achieve the purposes of the Criminal Justice System.
A. Police Management
B. Police Organization
C. Police Agency
D. Police Administration Ans: D
12. Which of the following functions carries out the majors purposes of the police department delivering the
services provided? It also deals directly with the department’s clientele and is responsible in making final
decisions with respect to the activities they perform.
A. Line function
B. Police Community Relation
C. Crime prevention and suppression
D. Patrol Ans: A
13. It refers to a sense of belongingness and a feeling of team spirit amongst employees. A feeling of pride,
fellowship, and common loyalty shared by the members of a particular group.
A. Camaraderie
B. Esprit de corps
C. Unity of direction
D. Unity of command Ans: B
14. In this theory of organization and administration employees are perceived to be motivated far more by
relational factors such as attention and camaraderie than by monetary rewards or environmental factors
such as lighting, humidity, etc.
A. Scientific management
B. Hawthorne effect
C. POSDCORB
D. Bureaucratic management Ans: B
15. This is the process of working out in broad outline the things that need to be done and the methods for
doing them. It is the determination in advance of how the objectives of the organization will be attained.
A. Planning
B. Organizing
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C. Staffing
D. Directing Ans: A
16. A civilian armed uniformed service attached to the Philippines' Department of Transportation, tasked
primarily with enforcing laws within Philippine waters, conducting maritime security operations,
safeguarding life and property at sea, and protecting marine environment and resources. It is the oldest
and only humanitarian armed service in the Philippines.
A. PNP Maritime Group
B. Philippine Coast Guard
C. Philippine Navy
D. BFAR Ans: B
17. Which of the following agencies act a national clearing house of criminal and other information for the
benefit and use of all prosecuting and law-enforcement entities of the Philippines? It also takes the
identification records of all persons without criminal convictions, records of identifying marks,
characteristics, and ownership or possession of all firearms as well as of test bullets fired there from.
A. Court
B. Prosecution
C. NBI
D. Supreme Court Ans: C
18. Acts as the primary enforcement arm of the Department of Justice and the President of the Philippines in
ensuring that all foreigners within its territorial jurisdiction comply with existing laws. It also assists
local and international law enforcement agencies in securing the tranquility of the state against
foreigners whose presence or stay may be deemed threats to national security, public safety, public
morals and public health.
A. Coast Guard
B. Department of Foreign Affairs
C. Bureau of Immigration
D. Foreign relations Ans: C
19. Which of the following agencies is “national in scope”?

A. PNP
B. Philippine Coast Guard
C. DENR
20. This agency is better known as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice.
A. NBI
B. Prosecution
C. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group
D. Crime laboratory Ans: A
21. The single anahaw leaf is found in what rank of the Philippine National Police?
A. Police lieutenant
B. Police captain
C. Police major
D. Police Inspector Ans: A
22. Supervises the regulation of the entry (arrival), stay (sojourn), and exit (departure) of foreign nationals in
the country.
A. Bureau of Immigration
B. Department of Foreign Affairs
C. Overseas Filipino Workers
D. Philippine Embassy Ans: A
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23. Among the following law enforcement agencies, the issuance of licenses for the possession of firearms
and explosives belongs to the responsibility of the:
A. PNP
B. NBI
C. AFP
D. Coast Guard Ans: A
24. Which of the following describes the rank of the Cadets of the Philippine National Police Academy
(PNPA)?
A. PNPA cadets are above the Executive Master Sergeant and below the Police Lieutenant rank in the
PNP.
B. PNPA cadets will have the rank of Police Lieutenant after graduation
C. PNPA cadets are below the rank of major but above the rank of police captain
D. PNPA cadets don’t have a rank unless they graduate or finish from the academy
Ans: A
25. Which of the following does NOT have the eligibility to apply in the rank of Patrolman/Patrolwoman?
A. Cumlaude graduate
B. Civil Service Professional Passer
C. Criminology Graduate
D. Licensed teacher Ans: C
26. The following are grounds for special promotion, EXCEPT:

A. Acts of conspicuous courage and gallantry at the risk of life over and beyond the call of duty
B. Acts of outstanding leadership ability and efficiency in staff and supposed services over and above
the normal requirements/criteria for regular promotion
C. Designation to any key position whose rank is lower than that which is required for such position
D. Acts of highest sense of moral value and honesty in the performance of duty or functions.
Ans: C
27. Refers to a system where police administrations and operations are independent from one state to
another. It is more applicable to countries with federal government.
A. Centralized police
B. Decentralized police
C. National in scope
D. State policing Ans: B
28. Patrolman ABC responded to the crime scene. After responding, he went back to his office and made a
written report and handed the investigation off to a detective. After filing a report, he went back to his
patrol car and wait for another call. This model of policing is;
A. Comparative policing
B. Community oriented policing
C. Problem solving policing
D. Traditional policing Ans: D
29. Within this model there is an emphasis on trying and prevent crime from happening. This policing model
has detectives watching for patterns in crimes to help understand when and how crimes are being
committed.
A. Traditional policing
B. Community policing
D. Community oriented policing Ans: C
30. This method takes a lot of trust on the officer`s part as well as the citizens` part. They will have to trust
each other and know that each other is looking out for them. Many citizens have stated to several
agencies that when they know the officers they start to view them as part of their family and are willing
to look out for their officers and help keep them safe.
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A. Traditional policing
B. Comparative policing
D. Community oriented policing Ans: D
31. Is the world`s largest international police organization, with 188 member countries. Created in 1923, it
facilitates cross border police cooperation, and supports and assists all organization, authorities and
services whose mission is to prevent or combat international crime.
A. International police
B. EUROPOL
C. INTERPOL
D. International Association of Chief of Police (IACP) Ans: C
32. The Headquarter of the International Criminal Organization is found in___.

A. Liberia, Cyprus
B. Haiti
C. Sudan
D. Lyon,France Ans: D
33. Compose of delegates appointed by the governments of Member Countries. As Interpol’s supreme
governing body, it meets once a year and takes all the major decisions affecting general policy, the
resources needed for international co-operation, working methods, finances and program of
activities.
A. General assembly
B. General secretariat
C. Executive committee
D. National central bureaus Ans: A
34. In this system if the judge knows the answer, he must not be prohibited from achieving it by undue
attention to regulations of procedure and evidence.
A. Common law system
B. Civil law system
C. Socialist system
D. Islamic system Ans: B
35. A theory of comparative policing that is based on the event of when a greater number of children are
being born, because as these baby booms grow up, delinquent subcultures develop out of the adolescent
identity crisis. Deprivation theory holds that progress comes along with rising expectations, and people
at the bottom develop unrealistic expectations while people at the top don’t see themselves rising fast
enough.
A. Anomie
B. Opportunity theory
C. Demographic theory
D. Social disorganization theory Ans: C
36. A type of court system in the world where the accused is considered as innocent until proven guilty.
A. Adversarial system
B. Inquisitorial system
C. Democratic system
D. Impartiality Ans: A
37. Which of the following is a notice which is issued by INTERPOL to seek the arrest or provisional arrest of
wanted persons with a view to extradition?
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Green Ans: A
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38. This type of notice is issued in order to locate, identify or obtain information on a person of interest in a
criminal investigation.
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Red Ans: A
39. An INTERPOL notice made to provide warnings and criminal intelligence about persons who have
committed criminal offences and are likely to repeat these crime in other countries or those considered
to be a possible threat to public safety.
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Green
D. Blue Ans: C
40. Which of the following is defined as the conscious abandonment of Islam by a Muslim in word or through
deed? It includes the act of converting to another religion by a person who was born in a Muslim family
or who had previously accepted Islam.
A. Balik Islam
B. Apostasy
C. Infedility
D. Infedils Ans: B
41. This is today`s modern society. This features fully developed laws, lawyers, and police forces trained to
multiple type of crime. Juvenile Delinquency is a phenomenon that occurs only in this society.
A. Urban Industrial Society
B. Bureaucratic Society
C. Urban Commercial Society
D. Folk Communal Society Ans: B
42. Is the system of interaction among the countries of the world in order to develop the global
economy. It also refers to the integration of economics and societies all over the world.
A. Globalization
B. Unification
C. Freedom
D. Liberty Ans: A
43. In the logo or emblem of INTERPOL, the olive branches in either sides of the globe symbolize:
A. Peace
B. Justice
C. Police action
D. Activities across the globe Ans: A
44. Is a small neighborhood police station found in Japan. Often translated to English as Police Box. This is
usually staffed by a relatively small number of police officers (usually 3-5 officers).
A. Koban
B. Chowki
C. Substations
D. Small stations Ans: A
45. Which of the following refers to a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the
matter to be protected? It is considered as the broadest type of security. It is concerned with the physical
measures adopted to prevent unauthorized access to equipment, facilities, material, and documents, and
to safeguard them against espionage, sabotage, damage and theft.
A. Physical security
B. Communication security
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C. Active measures
D. Passive measures Ans: A
46. Which of the following laws strengthened the regulation of the private security services industry?
A. Republic Act 5487
D. Republic Act 8551 Ans: C
47. Physicals security has two types: active and passive. Which of the following best describes passive
security?
A. Installation of physical barriers, security lighting, use of vaults, locks and others.
B. Security education, programs, investigations, seminars, personnel security check.
C. Establishment of fire extinguishers, alarms, and scanners.
D. Additional security guards, considerable number of firearms, and maintenance of security protocols
Ans: B
48. Which of the following is an addition overhang or barbed wire place on vertical perimeter fences facing
upward and outward with a 45 degree angle with three to four strands of barbed wires space six inches
apart? This will increase the protective height and prevent easy access.
A. Top guard
B. Full view fence
C. Barbed wire fence
D. Full view fence Ans: A
49. Which of the following is often located under the counter, the button can be pressed in times of distress
(Such as robbery, disruptive or threatening behavior, or a situation which may warrant assistance),
triggering a silent alarm?
A. Alarm button
B. Vibration contact
C. Distress alarm button
D. Panic button Ans: D
50. Which of the following is NOT a basic requirement of an operator or manager of a security agency?
A. Filipino citizen
B. Not be less than twenty five (25) years of age
C. College graduate and/or a commissioned officer in the inactive service or retired from the AFP or
PNP
D. Must be a criminologist Ans: A
51. The ratio between firearm and number of security guards is:
A. 2 firearms is to 1 security guard
B. 1 firearm is to 2 security guards
C. 3 firearms is to 1 security guard
D. 3 security guards is to 1 firearm Ans: B
52. A Private Security Agency may have a licensed private security personnel which is a maximum of:
A. One thousand
B. Two thousand
C. Three thousand
D. Four thousand Ans: B
53. Approval of New Regular License to Operate (LTO) is within the authority of the:
A. Chief PNP
B. Director of Civil Security Group
C. Firearms and Explosives Office
D. PNPSOSIA Ans: A
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54. Which of the following is NOT a ground for confiscation of firearms?

A. When the firearm being carried by the security guard is unlicensed or a firearm is not authorized by
law and regulation for his use;
B. When the confiscation of the firearm is directed by the order of the owner of the establishment
where the security guard is assigned.
C. When the firearm is used or carried outside the property, compound or establishment serviced by
the agency without proper authority.
D. When a security guard does not possess any license to exercise his profession.
Ans: B
55. Which of the following refers to an act or condition which results in a situation conducive to a breach of
the protection system and the subsequent loss or compromise, or damage to personnel, property or
facilities?
A. Security hazards
B. Security risks
C. Security breach
D. Security loss and compromise Ans: A
56. Which of the following is FALSE?

A. In case of emergency or in times of disaster or calamities, the Chief, PNP may deputize any security
guard to assist the PNP in the performance of police duties for the duration of such emergency,
disaster or calamity.
B. Private security personnel are always subordinate to members of the PNP on matters pertaining to
law enforcement and crime prevention.
C. All results of initial investigation conducted by the private security personnel and all evidence
gathered by them shall be turned over to the PNP unit/station concerned as a matter of course
without delay.
D. Security guards can enforce any provision of the law including the citizen’s arrest and/or conducting
initial investigation of a commission of a crime.
Ans: A
57. In security management, when can a license to possess firearm be revoked?
A. Failure to submit any issued firearm for verification as required
B. Carrying firearms by security personnel without appropriate Duty Detail Order
C. When the firearm was reported lost.
D. When a security guard does not possess any license to exercise his profession. Ans: D
58. A security guard shall watch and secure the property of the person, firm or establishment with whom he
or his agency has a contract for security services. Such services shall not extend beyond the property or
compound of said person, firm or establishment except when required by the latter in accordance with
the terms of their contract, or in hot pursuit of criminal offenders. this power of the security guard is
known as:
A. Territorial power
B. Power to arrest
C. Power to search
D. Authority over occupants Ans: A
59. In industrial security management, doors, floors, windows, walls, roofs and grills, would constitute the:
A. First line of defense
B. Second line of defense
C. Third line of defense
D. Fourth line of defense Ans: B
60. Which of the following is referred to as the most common type of lighting consisting of fixed series of
luminaries? It is commonly used on entry gates of employees and vehicles.
A. Stationary
B. Standby
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C. Emergency
D. Effective lighting Ans: A
61. A key that can open everything in a system involving two or more master key groups.
A. Change key
B. Sub-master key
C. Master key
D. Grand master key Ans: D
62. A term used in England for lock picker, safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted areas or rooms.
A. Pocketer
B. Code decipher expert
C. Peterman
D. Thief cracker Ans: C
63. Which of the following has contact with the occupants of the building on a daily basis?
A. Security guard
B. Watchman
C. Private detective
D. Security supervisors Ans: A
64. One of the qualifications for security guard or watchman is a pre-licensing course. However, in certain
cases this requirement is no longer needed to be fulfilled in any of the following circumstances, EXCEPT:
A. Applicant is a graduate in Criminology
B. Applicant is an honorably discharged police officer
C. Applicant underwent advance ROTC course
D. Applicant is a retired member of the military Ans: A
65. Which of the following police operation includes search, rescue and retrieval operations, fire drills,
earthquake drills and similar operations?
A. Public safety operation
B. Law enforcement operation
C. Internal security operation
D. Special police operation Ans: A
66. At 11 in the morning, Juan stabbed Pedro several times and thereafter escaped from the crime scene. An
operation was launched by Siaton Police Station to catch the culprit. After an exhaustive search, at 3 in
the afternoon of the same day, Juan was seen hiding at his grandmother`s house. He was thereafter
restrained and arrested by the authorities. What is the ground of warrantless arrest that is reflected in
this situation?
A. In flagrante delicto arrest
B. Hot pursuit arrest
C. Escaped prisoner
D. Commission of a crime Ans: B
67. While on duty at the police station, you received a call coming from one Juan dela cruz, reporting that a
shooting took place adjacent to his house, and that the identity of the perpetrator was on Pedro Pakundol.
Upon arrival at the crime scene, you saw the dead body of the victim oozing with his blood indications of
possible gunshots wound. Several witnesses declared in consonance with the suspect`s identity. A hot
pursuit operation was made. 3 days after, Pedro Pakundol was arrested. Is the arrest valid?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: B
Note: Hot pursuit arrest mandates that it should be conducted within the day.
68. Which of the following DOES NOT reflects fruits of the poisonous tree?
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A. After legally arrested, the police officer searched the suspect without a search warrant
B. Police officer ADC punched the suspect. Eventually the suspect made his confession.
C. Miss Toni Gazago confessed inside the house of Atty. BCD. Her confession was made as an evidence in
court
D. A suspicious person wearing a long jacket runs when Police Officer LMN approached him. A firearm
was seized from him.
Ans: A
69. A warrant of arrest was issued against Pedro. Police officer AB was directed to execute the warrant.
Without delay, the police officer proceeded to the scene, introduce himself, explain the miranda rights,
and while doing so, handcuffed Pedro. After which, he seized 1 firearm from the suspect and 1 sachet of
suspected shabu. However, thereafter he realized that he forgot to bring with him a body worn camera
and an alternative recording device. Considering the absence of recording devices in this situation, can
the Police officer use the seized items as evidences against Pedro in court?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: A
Note: Arrest without the body worn camera is still valid. However, the police officer must justify the failure of
wearing it or else he or she will be placed in contempt.
70. Decide: Police officer ACD was told by Pedro that Juan sniffed Marijuana at his house. Police Officer
immediately went to the location of Juan and thereby saw the latter washing his clothes. The Police
officer observed that Juan had an appearance of somewhat a red eye and untidy clothing. With these, he
handcuffed him and explained his rights. Also, the whole execution of arrest was recorded. Is the arrest
valid?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: B
71. In the total police personnel distribution, patrol is how many percent?
A. 50
B. 75
C. 10
D. 61.5 Ans: A
72. You arrested Juan for the crime of murder. You are about to start your custodial investigation by asking
him series of questions. However, you notice that he has no lawyer. What will you do?
A. Release Juan and order him to hire a lawyer or to ask assistance from the Public Attorney`s Office
B. Detain Juan while waiting for his lawyer
C. Proceed with custodial investigation and brief the lawyer of Juan about the investigation when he
arrives at the station
D. Instruct Juan to waive his rights for you to proceed with the custodial investigation
Ans: B
73. It is the most expensive type of patrol in terms of human resources and most departments had reduced
their foot patrols to a minimum because of this.
A. Foot patrol
B. Helicopter patrol
C. Cyber patrol
D. Horse patrol Ans: A
74. When is the right time to use warning shots?

A. When the suspect is uncooperative
B. When the suspect is deemed armed
C. When the suspect flees and the probability for him to be re-arrested is difficult
D. Not allowed Ans: D
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75. The following are basic requirements in any police operations, EXCEPT:
A. With a marked police vehicle
B. Led by a Police Commissioned Ofﬁcer (PCO)
C. With personnel in prescribed police uniform or attire
D. Availability of megaphones Ans: D
76. While doing an inspection on a vehicle, Police officer saw a muzzle or a barrel appearing to be of a
firearm. When asked, driver stuttered and looked pale, and later attempted to accelerate the vehicle.
Police officer asked the driver to step out from the vehicle and later, upon inspection, recovered2 pieces
of M16 rifles. What is the ground for the warrantless search?
A. Plain view
B. Reasonable suspicion
C. Consented
D. Rule of inadvertence Ans: B
77. A motorist fled from the checkpoint. Upon pursuit, he was caught and issued with a ticket. His vehicle was
impounded due to the absence of a certificate of registration. Thereafter, police officers open the
compartment and saw 3 sachets of shabu. Is the shabu admissible as evidence?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: A
78. These are procedures designed in dealing with specific situations at known locations. Included in this
type are plans for dealing with an attack against the buildings with alarm systems and an attack against
police headquarters by lawless elements.
A. Tactical plan
B. Policy or procedural plan
C. Operational plan
D. Strategic plan Ans: A
79. These are plans designed for operations of operation divisions like the patrol, detectives, traffic, fire, and
juvenile control divisions. These plans are prepared for the effectiveness of carrying out primary police
tasks. For instance, patrol activities are outlined in a way to cover the areas which are seen as crime-
prone areas and its units distributed based on the needs of service and special details as forecasted by the
decision-makers.
A. Tactical plan
B. Policy or procedural plan
C. Operational plan
D. Strategic plan Ans: C
80. Is the simplest type of mapping. In here, the police officer or the crime analysts used a uniform symbol to
represent features such as location of schools, markets, stores, roads, and many more.
A. Single symbol
B. Graduated mapping
C. Density mapping
D. Interactive crime map Ans: A
81. In this type of crime map the analyst uses different symbols, colors, or shapes to feature a particular
representation. This map can account for multiple incidents at the same locations.
A. Single symbol
C. Density mapping
D. Interactive crime map Ans: B
82. A type of crime map that uses point data to shade surfaces that are not limited to area boundaries. This
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map is shaded according to the concentration of incidents in particular areas
A. Single symbol
C. Density mapping
D. Interactive crime map Ans: C
83. Simplified geographic information systems made available to novice users over the Internet. Of the four
types of mapping, this is the only type which is accompanied by technology.
A. Single symbol
C. Density mapping
D. Interactive crime map Ans: D
84. The process through which crime analysts and researchers use location information about crime events
to detect spatial patterns in criminal activity.
A. Criminal epidemiology
B. Crime map
C. Criminal distribution
D. Criminal sociology Ans: B
85. Is the most influential of the five types of leaders and are highly respected. Their reputation precedes
them. They are well known for developing leaders. Their influence touches people in all industries and
across multiple generations. Their influence is continuously being transferred through many other
leaders at many different times in multiple locations.
A. Managerial
B. Relational
C. Motivational
D. Inspirational
E. Transformational Ans: E
86. Which of the following leadership styles reflects a leader that does not consult with others before making
decisions? The decision is communicated to subordinates and expects prompt implementation. This
leadership style is confusing to deal with, one day, they are friendly, funny and encouraging, and the next
they are cunning, demeaning and unrealistic.
A. Autocratic
B. Democratic
C. Strategic
D. Transformational Ans: A
87. A term which literally translates to “a policy or attitude of letting things take their own course, without
interfering.” In this type of leadership, all authority is handed over to the subordinates, with little to no
interference. Those who subscribe to this type of leadership see managing as ineffective and believe that
individuals are best motivated by their own personal drive.
A. Democratic
B. Facilitative
C. Team
D. Laissez Faire
E. Cross cultural Ans: D
88. This theory holds that community cooperation in the form of informal social control can result in
successful community policing since increased satisfaction with the police is indeed one of the
fundamental goals of community policing.
A. Social structural theory
B. Modern management technology theory
C. Democratic theory
D. Zero tolerance theory Ans: A
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89. This type of management follows a top-down approach, with one-way communication from bosses to
employees. This is the most controlling of the different management styles, with the management making all
workplace decisions and holding all of the power. Employees are treated as drones, to be monitored closely as
they perform within clearly defined perimeters.
A. Autocratic management
B. Democratic management
C. Laissez Faire Management
90. A subtype of autocratic management style where managers dictate exactly what they require their
subordinates to do and punish those who do not comply. Employees are expected to follow orders, not
question the authority of management, and perform their tasks the same way each time.
A. Authoritative
B. Paternalistic
C. Persuasive
91. A leader's level of interest in and regard for the welfare of subordinates. This concern includes providing
support, offering coaching and feedback, and showing appreciation.
A. Concern
B. Concern for people
C. Production
D. Concern for production Ans: B
92. In the Blake and Mouton Leadership Grid it is high on concern for production & high on concern for
people. It is termed as most effective style. The leader feels that empowerment, commitment, trust, and
respect are the key elements in creating a team atmosphere which will automatically result in high
employee satisfaction and production.
A. Impoverished management
B. Task management
C. Middle of the road
D. Country club
E. Team management Ans: E
93. Which of the four leadership styles in House`s Path Goal where the leader provides guidelines, lets
subordinates know what is expected of them, sets performance standards for them, and controls
behavior when performance standards are not met. He makes judicious use of rewards and disciplinary
action? The style is the same as task-oriented one.
A. Directive
B. Supportive
C. Participative
D. Achievement oriented Ans: A
94. Which of the four leadership styles in House`s Path Goal where the leader is friendly towards
subordinates and displays personal concern for their needs, welfare, and well-being. This style is the
same as people-oriented leadership.
A. Directive
B. Supportive
C. Participative
D. Achievement oriented Ans: B
95. Is based on the theory that if workers are given a specialized task to do, they will become skillful and
more efficient in it than if they had a broader range of tasks.
A. Centralization
B. Authority and responsibility
C. Division of work
D. Remuneration Ans: C
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96. This theory holds that community cooperation in the form of informal social control can result in
successful community policing since increased satisfaction with the police is indeed one of the
fundamental goals of community policing.
D. Zero tolerance theory Ans: A
97. This theory involves the empowerment of a new level of social organization to generate work for the
police, namely, groups, neighborhoods, communities, businesses, civic groups, and so forth. The theory
also maintains that the success of a government depends, in large measure, on the voluntary compliance
of citizens with society’s laws and norms of conduct. It rests on the principle that “anyone who exercises
authority on behalf of the community (like the police) is accountable to the community for the exercise
of that authority”
D. Zero tolerance theory Ans: C
98. When the Philippine National flag is knotted, it signifies:

A. The need of assistance
B. A day of mourning
C. A salute to a higher official
D. War Ans: A
99. In which of the following types of patriotism where people would accept and show loyalty towards the
state without questioning its applications?
A. Constructive patriotism
B. Blind patriotism
C. Personal patriotism
D. Official patriotism Ans: B
100. What is the duration of the National Flag Days?

A. June 1 – June 12
B. May 30 – June 12
C. June 12 – June 28
D. May 28 – June 12 Ans: D
101. What is the proper positioning of the national flag if placed in a hanging position during peacetime?
A. Blue at the left
B. Blue at the right
C. Any position
D. It depends upon the discretion of the LGU Ans: A
102. If the national flag is flown in a flagpole during peacetime, the blue color shall be positioned at the:
A. Top
B. Bottom
C. Side
D. Left Ans: A
103. All flagpoles in the Philippines must be of equal height with the Independence Flagpole at the Rizal
Park, Manila.
A. True
B. False
C. It depends
D. At all times Ans: B
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Note: Flagpole in Rizal Park is the highest. Others should be lower.
104. This patrol activity is conducted in order to keep the movement of people and goods in an orderly
manner and avoid potentials for conflict.
A. Traffic Direction and Control
B. Fixed and Mobile Checkpoints
C. “Standing and watch” duties
D. Beat Patrol Duties Ans: A
105. Who coined the name “United Nations”?

A. President Franklin D. Roosevelt of USA
B. Prime Minister Churchill of UK
C. Maxim Litvinov, of the USSR
D. T. V. Soong, of China Ans: A
106. Why policemen on patrol duty in the streets should not sit?
A. It is mandated under the law that policemen should not sit while on duty
B. It is an indication of laziness and inefficiency, and a proof that they are not doing any police work.
C. Patrolling means standing on duty within a designated beat.
D. All of the above Ans: B
107. It is an indispensable tool in bringing the police closer to the people. This requires the police to be
visible in the community and make its presence physically felt.
A. Patrol activities
B. Organizational work
C. Community Interaction
D. Anti – Criminality Police Operations Ans: C
108. What is the basic mission of the police?

A. Arrest criminals and provide evidence of their guilt
B. Implementation of laws and ordinances relative to protection of lives and properties
C. Prevent crime and ensure a peaceful and orderly community interaction without the necessity of
resulting into a military intervention to repress crime and severity of legal punishment.
D. All of the above
Ans: C
109. Police efficiency is the measured by;
A. Visible evidence of police action.
B. Absence of crime and disorder
C. Accuracy in crime investigation
D. Faster police response and criminal apprehension Ans: B
110. When police officer should use physical force?

A. During the conduct of police operations
B. During the conduct of search and seizures
C. Only when the exercise of persuasion, advice, and warning is found to be insufficient to achieve
police objectives.
D. When the offender is under the influence of alcohol.
Ans: C
111. What organizational principle is applied when some police personnel is assigned to patrol and other
field functions while others are assigned to support them?
A. Principle of unity objectives
B. Unity of command
C. Line and staff principle
D. Specialization Ans: C
112. A subordinate who does better work than other but constantly complains about his status and work to
other men, which affects the units morale should be dealt with by:
A. Giving him work overloads to minimize communication with others.
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B. Transferring him to other units
C. Secretly conversed with by the superior officer for him to secure cooperation without giving him
special consideration.
D. Reprimanded for insubordination
Ans: C
113. It is sometimes more effective to warn a subordinates than institute for more severe punishment is
best validly supported by the idea that:
A. Punishment is never deterrent
B. Punishment is often not appropriates for offense
C. Warnings may produce a more cooperative attitude
D. Warnings always create a greater impression than punishment Ans: C
114. Refers to the examination of raw materials to determine its reliability, credibility and relevance to
operations.
A. Collation
B. Evaluation
C. Processing
D. Interpretation Ans: B
115. Subordinate personnel as a rule do not object to strict rules if ____________________.

A. they see that results improve departmental procedures
B. they are aware that the rules are enforced without favor or relationship
C. they believe the officer approves the regulation
D. they see that the rules apply only to minor phases of work Ans: B
116. Which of the following statements BEST describes Line Intelligence?

A. It is an intelligence activity which is primarily long range in nature with little practical immediate
operation value.
B. It is an intelligence activity that has the immediate nature and value necessary for more effective
police planning and operation.
C. It is the integrated product of intelligence developed by all the governmental branches, department
concerning the broad aspect of national security and policy.
D. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile foreign
activities and to the protection of info against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
Ans: B
117. It is the reduction of information into writing or some other forms of graphical representation and the
arranging of this information into groups of related item.
A. Collation
B. Recording
C. Evaluation
D. Interpretation Ans: B
118. It would entail the recording or organization of raw materials so that they may be readily compared
with other items.
A. Collation
B. Evaluation
C. Interpretation
D. Deduction Ans: A
119. It is the greatest tongue loosener and should be avoided by intelligence agents during missions.
A. Drugs
B. Women
C. Liquor
D. Gambling Ans: C
120. The three basic formal relationships in an organization are:
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A. Responsibility, authority and chain of command
B. Authority, span of control and responsibility
C. Responsibility, functional growth and accountability
D. Authority, responsibility and accountability Ans: D
121. Of the principle of “Span of Control” it may be said that:

A. it limits subordinates to eight
B. it is closely related to the necessity for functional differentiation downwards
C. it has little to do with human limitations
D. it is independent of the variety of functions supervised Ans: A
122. An inquiry into the reputation, integrity, character, morals and loyalty of an individual to determine a
person’s suitability for appointment or access to classified matters.
A. National agency check
B. personnel security investigation
C. Background check
D. loyalty check Ans: B
123. Under the Police reform and reorganization law, a Field training Program for all PNP uniformed
members is required for permanency of their appointment consisting of 12 months. Basic areas of actual
experience and assignment during this period shall be on __________.
A. Patrol, traffic and investigation
B. Patrol, investigation and instructional duties
C. Patrol, investigation and auxiliary services
D. Traffic, investigation and staff duty Ans: A
124. The best reason why patrol service is being considered backbone of the police department is:
A. Patrol force mission of service to a greater number of people at any time.
B. Patrol function is largely preventive in nature
C. Patrol function is very wide in scope
D. Patrol is the only service that carries out to basic police jobs Ans: C
125. Indexed memorandum pad for recording of information regarding the enemy, its movement, location
and anticipated action.
A. Intelligence journal
B. Enemy situation map
C. Intelligence worksheet
D. Intelligence files Ans: C
126. In strikes, the police and military line should be at least ________ meters away from the picket line.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50 Ans: D
127. Which of the following is NOT a basic police activity?

A. Crime prevention
B. Crime repression
C. Arrest of offender
D. Prosecution of criminal Ans: D
128. The police efficiency is measured by the absence of crime and the welfare of the individual and society
as its objective. This refers to _____________.
A. Traditional Concepts
B. Police Service Oriented Concept
C. Community Oriented Public Service
D. Modern Concept Ans: D
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129. What patrol method should utilized in areas where in the terrain is rough?
A. Bicycle patrol
B. Foot patrol
C. Automobile patrol
D. Horse patrol Ans: D
130. In the concept of personnel management, the most serious problem currently facing Philippine Police
Authorities is ___________________.
A. Discipline
B. Assignment
C. Recruitment
D. Promotion Ans: A
131. The main reason of letting the employee know about the personnel policy of an organization is to
________________.
A. Maintain morale and efficiency
B. Get them to accept the policies
C. Induce their loyalty
D. Work hard for promotion Ans: A
132. The staff officer of the Chief of Police is related to the latter as his:
A. Alter ego
B. Extension
C. Administrative support
D. Coordinator Ans: B
133. The police organization unit that does the most jobs to coordinate and relate together the other
functional units in a police agency is ___________________.
A. Personnel Division
B. Records Management Division
C. Criminalistic Division
D. Finance Division Ans: B
134. This procedural plan is intended to be used in all situations of all kinds.
A. Office procedures
B. Field procedures
C. Special operating procedures
D. Tactical plans Ans: B
135. Procedure in coping for specific situations at known locations.

A. Tactical plans
B. Operational plans
C. Policy plan
D. Special operating plan Ans: A
136. A vehicle always fronting the principal’s vehicle to neutralize any possible threat.
A. Escort vehicle
B. Recon vehicle
C. Decoy vehicle
D. Shield vehicle Ans: B
137. The most complex of the factors with which top management must deal with is:
A. Men
B. Money
C. Materials
D. Mechanics Ans: A
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138. Police executive’s prime responsibility in law enforcement is the welfare and well-being of:
A. Personnel of the organization
B. Client of the organization
C. Leader of the mobilized community
D. Community, townspeople Ans: A
139. What lighting system is use to illuminate buildings, perimeter areas and boundaries?
A. Floodlights
B. Searchlights
C. Fresnel lights
D. Street lights Ans: A
140. As a security officer, you cannot prevent nor predict natural hazards like storm earthquakes, floods and
the like. In order to reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards, you will_______________.
A. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for these hazards for the firm
B. Not take any concern on such hazards
C. Alert your guards when hazards occur
D. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming Ans: A
141. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford
better observation and patrol movement is known as ___________.
A. Protective zone
B. Clear zone
C. Twilight zone
D. Patrol lane zone
Ans: B
142. A document containing an information about the enemy’s location, movement and possible actions is
called _______________.
A. Intelligence Journal
B. Intelligence Worksheet
C. Enemy Situation Map
D. Intelligence Files Ans: C
143. What do we refer to in determining the crimes per 100,000 populations?

A. Crime rate
B. Crime statistics
C. Peace and order situation
D. All of the above Ans: A
144. The term apply to a person being protected or the object of secret service.
A. Principal
B. Private individuals service
C. Protective security
D. Decoy Ans: A
145. The dynamic elevation of qualified personnel to assignment of greater importance based on merits and
fitness is called _____________.
A. Promotion
B. Regular Promotion
C. Special Promotion
D. Meritorious promotion Ans: A
146. A common technique used in data description and intelligence that demonstrates the chain of event or
activities over a period is known in intelligence as _________________.
A. Link analysis
B. Flowcharting
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C. Data collection
D. Data analysis Ans: B
147. It is the gradual penetration into enemy domain and territory.

A. Surveillance
B. Elicitation
C. Infiltration
D. All of the foregoing Ans: C
148. What unit take charge of the publication of intelligence reports?

A. Administration Division
B. Evaluation and Distribution Division
C. Information Procurement Division
D. Intelligence Proper Unit Ans: B
149. Its role is to provide law enforcement agencies with criminal intelligence and information nationally
and internationally about major criminals and serious crimes.
A. International Police Organization
B. Office of Strategic Services
C. National Criminal Intelligence Service
D. Police National Computer Ans: C
150. They are dangerous kinds of informant because they may sell information to the highest bidder.
A. Mercenary informants
B. Confidential informants
C. Rival elimination informants
D. Double crosser informants Ans: A
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CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
1. A prison institution where prisoner ABC was serving sentence was on fire. The fire conflagrated to
various cells leaving the prisoners with no choice but to escape. However, amidst this, Prisoner ABC
chose to stay. After the fire was extinguished, authorities were surprised to see ABC able to survive with
no injury incurred. Is prisoner ABC qualified for Special Time Allowance for Loyalty?
A. Yes, he is qualified for 1/5 deduction of his sentence
B. No, Special Time Allowance for Loyalty is only applicable to those who escape from the calamity and later
return
C. Yes, he is qualified for a 2/5 deduction of his sentence
D. No, the prisoner should incur an injury such as burn for him to be qualified for Special Time Allowance
for Loyalty
Ans: C
2. Preventive imprisonment is a temporary confinement in a correctional facility of a Person Deprived of
Liberty while undergoing investigation or waiting for final judgment. Situation: Pedro was accused of
committing an unbailable felony and was detained in a district jail. After one year of detention, he was
judged with a guilty verdict requiring him to be confined for rehabilitation in a penal institution for 4
years. Considering that the crime was unbailable, how many years does Pedro need to serve the
sentence?
A. Original sentence of 4 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 2 years Ans: B
3. Person XYZ was accused and been found guilty of rape and was bound to serve 40 years in a penal
institution. While being confined, XYZ exhibited good behavior and was active in various prison activities
for 11 years already. How much is the deduction per month can be given to XYZ?
A. 30 days per month
B. 25 days per month
C. 23 days per month
D. No deduction Ans: D
4. Who among the following is legally authorized to grant time allowances to Persons Deprive of Liberty?
A. Chief BJMP for PDL confined in jails
B. Director General of BUCOR for PDL confined in penal institution
C. Warden of provincial, municipal, district, or city jail
5. Person BDA was detained in a district jail for killing his long time enemy. One day, while in detention, he
was involved in an argument with a fellow detainee which lead to a fist fight that killed the latter. What is
the classification of BDA in this situation?
A. Recidivist
B. Quasi recidivist
C. Reiteration
D. Habitual delinquent
E. No classification Ans: E
6. Which of the following is NOT DISQUALIFIED for Good Conduct Time Allowance?
A. Recidivist
B. Persons who committed heinous crimes
C. Escapees
D. Convicts Ans: D
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7. Person BNG who was been convicted twice for committing murder and rape escaped from the penal
institution to save himself from the strong typhoon. Not later than 48 hours when the typhoon pacified,
BNG return to the penal authorities. How much deduction will be given due to his loyalty?
A. 1/5
B. 1 year
C. 1/3
D. None Ans: D
8. If the person deprived of liberty has been confined for 2 years with no record of any violations or
infractions of the rules inside jail or prison, he is entitled to receive how many days deductions per
month?
A. 20
B. 23
C. 25
D. 30 Ans: A
9. Under the 2020 revised GCTA Manual, those who committed heinous crime/s whose punishment under
the abolished RA 7659 is death, are not entitled to receive good conduct time allowance. Which of the
following is a heinous crime?
A. Parricide
B. Murder
C. Infanticide
10. Which of the following describes probation?

I. An community-based correction program given to persons whose sentence does not exceed six years
II. A single or one time affair
III. Given to inmates who served the minimum years of their sentence
IV. A community based correction program granted by the President through the court
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I & II Ans: D
11. Which of the following is/are ground/s for the denial of the grant of probation?
I. The offender is in need of correctional treatment that can be provided most effectively by his
commitment to an institution.
II. There is undue risk that during the period of probation, the offender will commit another crime.
III. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed.
IV. Absence of stable job on the part of the convicted person which disallow him to render financial
support to his family.
A. II, III, IV
B. II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III Ans: D
12. What is the action of the court in case a probationer has been found to violate his conditions?
A. Court modifies the conditions
B. Court release the person to the community
C. Court orders the continuation of probation in the community
D. Court orders the revocation of probation
E. A & D Ans: E
13. Where is probation applied?

A. Trial court
B. MTC
C. RTC
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D. SC Ans: A
14. Denial of probation is appealable to the higher court. This statement is:
A. False
B. True
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: A
15. Juan a convicted person applies for probation. His application has been given due course by the court.
However, he fails to report to the probation officer tasked to conduct post sentence investigation. In
addition, when the probation officer went to his residence, Juan was nowhere to be found. For a
reasonable period of time Juan was not located. In this scenario, Juan is:
A. An absconding probationer
B. An absconding petitioner
C. An escapee
D. A wanted person Ans: B
16. Berna who was been convicted of the crime less serious physical injury punishable by four years applied
for probation. His application was given due course by the court. Upon thorough examination of the PSIR
and other circumstances, the trial court decided to grant her petition. The court then issued the Probation
Order. However, after reviewing the conditions stipulated in the order, Berna willfully rejected the grant
of probation. Is the rejection justified or allowed in the law?
A. Yes, as long as the terms and conditions are not advantageous to the petitioner
B. No, contempt of court shall be imposed to those individuals who rejects orders from the court
C. Yes, as long as the conditions are deemed to be burdensome on the part of the petitioner
D. No, the fact the Berna applied for probation, already specifies her willingness to follow the terms of
conditions stated in the probation order
Ans: C
17. What is/are likely to happen if petition for probation has been denied?
A. The offender will be sent to prison
B. The offender applies for certiorari to a higher court
C. The offender can apply for appeal to a higher court
D. A & B Ans: D
18. Juan who is bound to serve 4 years of sentence, decided to apply for probation after in a week of service
at a penal institution, contemplated on the pains he experienced inside. Is he qualified?
A. Yes, his imprisonment does not exceed 6 years
B. No, he is already convicted
C. Yes, upon filing his application with the court who tries his case
D. No, he`s serving his sentence already Ans: D
19. Arrange the following in chronological order.

I. After conviction, the offender files a petition for probation within the convicting/trial court
II. The prosecutor submits his comments on the application of the offender
III. The court grants or denies the petition for probation within fifteen days upon receipt of the PSIR
IV. The court determines convict qualifications and notifies the prosecutor of the filing of the petition
V. If petitioner is qualified, his application is referred to the probation offices for post sentence
investigation
VI. Post sentence investigation report shall be submitted to the court within sixty days
VII. Pending PSI, the offender can be temporarily released through bail of release of recognizance
A. I, V, II, VII, VI, III
B. VII, I, II, III, IV, V, VI
C. I, II, III, IV, V, III
D. I, IV, II, V, VI, VII, III Ans: D
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20. Pedro a detainee was accused of committing a crime punishable by 5 years of imprisonment. Considering
that he was a first time offender, he applied for probation with the court who hears his case. Is he
qualified based on the above circumstances?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: B
21. After the receipt from the trial court, the assigned investigating probation officer will give how many days
for the petitioner to appear for interview before his/her office?
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 4 days Ans: C
22. Once granted with probation, the probationer is obliged to report to his probation officer in charge of his
supervision at least how many times in month?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Four times Ans: A
23. The following statements regarding parole are true, EXCEPT:

A. Granted to a prisoner only after he has serve the minimum of his sentence
B. It is a conditional release of a prisoner
C. It is granted more than once, depending on good behavior during imprisonment
D. it restores full civil rights Ans: D
24. Which of the following is a DISQUALIFICATION in the granting of parole?

A. Conviction is on appeal
B. confined in a jail or prison to serve an indeterminate prison sentence
C. served the minimum period of said sentence less the good conduct time allowances (GCTA)
D. reasonable probability that if released, he will become law-abiding Ans: A
25. The Board of Pardons and Parole assists in the full rehabilitation of individuals on parole or those under
conditional pardon with parole conditions, by way of parole supervision and, recommends to the
President of the Philippines the grant of any form of executive clemency to prisoners other than those
entitled to parole. The chairman of the board is the:
A. Director of BPP
B. DOJ secretary
C. Administrator
D. Member of the Bar Ans: B
26. National prisoners confined in a local jail cannot be released on parole his confinement in said jail is in
good faith or due to circumstances beyond the prisoner's control. Which of the following is a national
prisoner?
A. Conviction in two crimes, both punishable with 2 years each
B. Imprisonment is 3 years and 1 day or above
C. Sentenced for violation of customs law
27. Can a foreigner/alien who has been convicted in the Philippine Court be granted with a parole?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: A
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28. Any violation of the terms and conditions appearing in his Release Document or any serious deviation or
non-observance of the obligations set forth in the parole supervision program shall be immediately
reported by his Probation and Parole Officer to the Board. The report is called:
A. Probation and parole investigation report
B. Infraction report
C. Terms violation report
D. Investigation and assessment data Ans: B
29. What is the consequence if the parolee violates the terms and conditions being set upon his conditional
release?
A. Arrest and recommitment
B. Arrest and punishment
C. Modification of conditions and reevaluation
D. Modification of conditions and serving of original sentence in prison or jail Ans: A
30. The following are grounds for the cancellation of parole, EXCEPT:
A. Violation of the parole conditions
B. False information given before or after release
C. Non performance of his civil rights
D. Commission of a crime Ans: C
31. Petitions for parole shall be addressed to the:

A. President thru the Chairman of the BPP
B. Chairman of the BPP thru the Warden
C. DOJ secretary through the Chairman of the BPP
D. Chairman of the BPP Ans: A
32. The following are executive clemencies granted by the President, EXCEPT:
A. Conditional pardon
B. Commutation of sentence
C. Absolute pardon
D. Good Conduct Time Allowance Ans: D
33. Juan Dela Cruz a prisoner in ABC Penal institution escaped but was later arrested and recommitted to
prison in the year 2010. An evasion of sentence was filed against him of whom he was later convicted in
the year 2011. Is he qualified for executive clemency?
A. Yes, after one year from the date of his last conviction
B. No, on the basis that he was an escaped prisoner
C. Yes, when good behavior is exhibited at least five years
D. No, violations of the prison policies disqualifies a PDL for clemency Ans: A
34. The following describes pardon, EXCEPT:

A. It is an act of grace.
B. It does not erase or seal a conviction.
C. It forgives guilt either from the crime and its penalty.
D. It is appealable Ans: D
35. Which of the following is a LIMITATION of the pardoning power of the President?
A. It may not be exercised for offenses in impeachment cases
B. It may be exercised only after conviction by final judgment except amnesty
C. It may be exercised for the restoration of office forfeited
D. It may not be exercised over legislative or civil contempt Ans: C
36. The following are total extinctions of criminal liability, EXCEPT:

A. Death of the convict
B. Absolute pardon
C. Prescription of crime
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D. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty Ans: D
37. When is the right time for a political offender to avail in Amnesty?
A. Before conviction
B. During trial
C. After conviction
38. Which of the following is described as a Blanket Pardon”?

A. Absolute pardon
B. Conditional pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Commutation Ans: C
39. Pardon is granted by the Chief Executive and such as private act, while amnesty is by proclamation with
concurrence of congress, and it is a public act, which the court should take judicial notice. On the other
hand, pardon is an act of forgiveness, while amnesty is an act of:
A. Forgetfulness
B. Patriotism and nationalism
C. Sympathy and understanding
D. love or acceptance Ans: A
40. Amnesty is granted to all persons who shall apply thereof and who have or may have committed crimes,
including but not limited to the following, EXCEPT:
A. Rebellion
B. Murder
C. Coup d’état
D. Inciting rebellion Ans: B
41. The following are qualified for commutation of sentence, EXCEPT:

A. Convicted minors under RA 9344
B. Convict sentenced to death over 70 years old
C. 10 justices of the Supreme Court failed to reach a decision for the affirmation of the death penalty
D. Approval from the President lowering the sentence
Ans: A
42. Which of the following BEST EXPLAINS rehabilitation as one of the justifications of punishment?
A. The public will be protected if the offender has being held in conditions where he cannot harm others
especially the public. Punishment is effected by placing offenders in prison so that society will be ensured
from further criminal depredations of criminals.
B. Punishment gives lesson to the offender by showing to others what would happen to them if they violate
the law. Punishment is imposed to warn potential offenders that they cannot afford to do what the
offender has done.
C. The punishment should be provided by the state whose sanction is violated, to afford the society or the
individual the opportunity of imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might be enforced.
Offenders should be punished because they deserve it.
D. Society’s interest can be better served by helping the prisoner to become law abiding citizen and
productive upon his return to the community by requiring him to undergo intensive program of
rehabilitation in prison.
Ans: D
43. Mang Juan was sentenced to serve a prison term of 6 years. He applied for probation but did not qualify.
He was brought to the Bureau of Correction in Muntinlupa. To which place should he be brought for
processing and classification?
A. Testing center
B. Processing center
C. Reception and diagnostic center
D. Bureau evaluation center Ans: C
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44. How is accuracy in counting prisoners ensured?
A. Mere presence of shoes under the bed is taken as presence of the prisoner
B. A list is passed around and the name of the offender is then checked
C. An inmate takes the charge of checking his co-inmates inside their cell
D. Physical counting, with the person standing and the jail guards looking from head to foot Ans: D
45. Which of the following are classified as detainees?

I. Accused person who is confined in jail while undergoing investigation
II. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting trial
III. Accused person who is confined in jail while waiting for final judgment
IV. Accused person who is confined in jail and already convicted to serve a prison term
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. I
D. I, II, III Ans: D
46. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property with the Bureau of Prisons originally
intended as a site for boys’ training school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used as the
Manila City Jail, famous as the:
A. “ May Halique Estate”
B. “Tandang Sora State”
C. New Bilibid Jail
D. Muntinlupa Jail Ans: A
47. You are a correctional officer assigned to a cellblock. You have been assigned to this cellblock several
times, and one of the offenders in the cellblock seems to never violate any of the rules and always does
what he is asked to do. He has a good reputation as not being a troublemaker and has a good daytime
assignment that could be taken away if he was to violate a rule. One day he asks if you would take and
mail a letter that he has written to his mother, who is dying of cancer and whom he has not seen since he
was incarcerated five years ago. You should first:
A. Leave your duty post without permission and without back-up so you can immediately inform the
supervisor on duty of the request.
B. Refuse to take the letter.
C. Take the letter and consult the matter to your supervisor
D. Counsel the offender on why he should not make such a request because you do not want to see him
lose his assignment.
Ans: C
48. During the transport of detainees, the Officer shall:
A. never allow anyone near or in the vehicle, unless it is a friend or family member of the detainee who
is being transported to a court hearing
B. never make unscheduled stops for personal or other business
C. keep a weapon under the seat, in a glove box, or another area within reach in order to protect
themselves from the detainee in the event of assault or attempted escape
49. Order the sentences below to form the MOST logical paragraph. Choose the correct order from the
options below.
I. One at a time, all of the living areas were opened and inspected.
II. Following the search, all inmates occupying Living Area Number 3 were ordered to take a urine test.
III. During the evening shift, Officer C smelled an aroma similar to marijuana.
IV. Upon the results of the urine tests any necessary discipline will be given.
V. A thorough search was conducted in Living Area Number 3, however no illegal items were found.
VI. The odor was the strongest in Living Area Number 3.
Which of the following options represents the correct order of the above sentences?
A. III, VI, V, II, 1, IV
B. III, I, VI, IV, V, II
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C. III, VI, I, V, IV, II
D. III, I, VI, V, II, IV Ans: D
50. Many people believe that punishing criminals harshly has the effect of reducing crime because the fear of
going to jail or prison keeps many people from committing crimes. Which word sums up this effect?
A. rehabilitation
B. deterrence
C. incarceration
D. recidivism Ans: B
51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission, it means:

A. He has taken the process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph
B. He has been examined for contraband
C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
D. All of these Ans: B
52. Which of the following is a GUARANTEED right of an inmate?

A. To practice his faith or religion
B. To participate on recreational activities such as basketball, volleyball, watching movies
C. To participate in work hours
D. To allow family to live with the inmate inside the facility Ans: A
53. What is the role of the desk officer in the releasing of an inmate?
A. Upon receipt of release order, the desk officer shall coordinate with the paralegal officer for verification
of the authenticity of said order
B. Checks inmate records to ensure that the data in the release order coincide with the data in the inmate’s
carpeta (spelling of name, offense, Criminal Case Number, etc.).
C. Makes sure that returned items of the inmate are duly received and properly recorded
D. Reports to concerned agencies/persons the release of inmate for aftercare program Ans: A
54. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:
A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.
B. No one must escape its effect
C. It must be equal for all persons
D. The consequence must be in accordance with law Ans: B
55. Which of the following explains the difference between BJMP and BUCOR?
I. BJMP is supervised by the DOJ while BUCOR is supervised by the DILG
II. BJMP has full control over district, city, and municipal jails while BUCOR has full control over
national/insular facilities
III. BJMP is headed by a director while BUCOR is headed by a warden
IV. BJMP is under the Department of Interior and Local Government while BUCOR is under the
Department of Justice
A. All of the above
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. II & IV Ans: D
56. Which of the following refers to a group of prisoners who can be reasonably trusted to serve sentence
under “open conditions”? This group includes prisoners who can be trusted to report to their work
assignments without the presence of guards. They occupy Camp Bukang Liwayway and wear brown color
uniforms.
A. Minimum security prisoners
B. Pre-release prisoner
C. Fulfillment of service Prisoner
D. Maximum security prisoner Ans: A
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57. The following are rights of an inmate, EXCEPT:
A. To receive compensation for labor
B. To send and receive mail matters
C. To practice religion or observe religious faith
D. To participate in any athletic activity Ans: D
58. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is :
A. Orange
B. Brown
C. Stripe Orange
D. Blue Ans: A
59. The first convict in the Philippines, sentenced to death by means of Lethal injection was
A. Baby Ama
B. Asiong Salonga
C. Leo Echagaray
D. Cardong Putik Ans: C
60. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology is headed by its chief with the rank of at least:
A. Jail Superintendent
B. Jail Senior Superintendent
C. Jail Chief Superintendent
D. Jail Chief Inspector Ans: C
61.Why is 18th Century considered as a century of change or an age of enlightenment?

A. It is the period of recognizing human dignity.
B. It is the movement of reformation, the period of introduction of certain reforms in the correctional field.
C. It change the old positive philosophy of punishment to a more humane treatment of prisoners with
innovational programs.
62. At the regional level, who is the appointing authority for the rank Jail Officer 1 to Senior Jail Officer 4?
A. Chief BJMP
B. Regional Director
C. Secretary of DILG
D. President upon the recommendation of the Chief BJMP Ans: B
63. Who among the following is considered as the Chairman of the Classification and Disciplinary Board?
A. Warden
B. Assistant warden
C. Custodial team leader
D. Assistant custodial team leader Ans: B
64. Which of the following is the ideal jail-inmate ratio in a court setting?
A. 1 personnel for every inmate
B. 2 personnel for every inmate
C. 3 personnel for every inmate
D. 4 personnel for every inmate Ans: B
65. In the BJMP reception procedures, who is responsible in checking the credentials of the person bringing
the inmate to determine his/her identity and authority? Also, he or she reviews the completeness of the
documents before the person bringing an inmate/the committing officer is allowed to enter the facility.
A. Records unit
B. Gater
C. Officer of the day
D. Desk officer Ans: B
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66. This examines the completeness and authenticity of the requirements for Commitment (Commitment
Order, Booking Sheet, Arrest Report and Information) before it refers the inmate for physical
examination by the Health Unit.
A. Records unit
B. Gater
C. Officer of the day
D. Desk officer Ans: A
67. If the inmate agrees to abide with the prison disciplinary rules he will be instructed to sign the so called
Detainee`s Manifestation. However, there are cases that inmates refused to abide with the rules. With
this, what must be issued?
A. A warning notice containing the penalties of violations
B. Certification under oath
C. Waiver to abide policies
D. Nothing Ans: B
68. Upon reception, the Property Custodian checks the inmate’s belongings for presence of contraband, takes
all cash and other personal properties from the inmate, lists them down on a receipt form with duplicate,
duly signed by him/her and countersigned by the inmate. Who will receive the receipt?
A. The original receipt should be given to the inmate and the duplicate be kept by the Property
Custodian
B. The duplicate receipt will be given to the inmate while the original one will be given to the Property
Custodian
C. Both the original and the duplicate receipts shall be kept by the Property Custodian
D. The Original receipt shall be given to the immediate family of the inmate while the duplicate shall
only be kept with the Property Custodian
Ans: A
69. Who will orient the newly committed inmates on jail rules and regulations using the Inmate’s Orientation
Sheet?
A. Gater
B. Officer of the day
C. Records unit
D. Warden Ans: B
70. Which of the following is NOT authorize to commit a person to jail or prison?
A. Supreme court
B. Court of Appeals
C. Sandiganbayan
D. Village Justice
E. RTC
F. MTC
G. MCTC
H. Congress Ans: D
71. The following are authorized disciplinary measures or actions against inmates, EXCEPT:
A. Admonition or verbal reprimand
B. Temporary or permanent cancellation of all or some recreational privileges
C. Reduction of visiting time
D. Reduction of number of meals Ans: D
72. Which of the following is considered as a GRAVE OFFENSE?

A. Rendering personal service to fellow inmate(s)
B. Untidy or dirty personal appearance
C. Littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and orderliness
D. Tattooing others Ans: D
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73. In the procedures in the hearing of disciplinary measures, the first step is for the aggrieved inmate or any
person (visitor, inmate or personnel) reports the violation to the:
A. Warden
B. Disciplinary Board
C. Desk Officer
D. Officer of the Day Ans: C
74. Which of the following is the correct set up in opening the quarter of an inmate?
A. A jail officer removes his side arm and only brings with him a night stick (baton). He`ll position at the
side in opening the gate.
B. Two jail officers where one jail officer should be present and guarding the gate
C. Three jail officers with a night stick. One open the gate while the other two stand as the guards
D. Four officers, one will open the quarter while others will be on guard Ans: B
75. As a general rule, all movements of inmates outside any jail or penal institution shall be subject for
approved by the:
A. Chief BJMP or BUCOR Director
B. Secretary of DILG for BJMP and Secretary of DOJ for BUCOR
C. Warden
D. Court Ans: D
76. Inmates can view the remains of a deceased relative provided that such relative is within the second
degree of consanguinity or affinity and that the inmate`s motion for that purpose was approved.
However, the warden can timely oppose the request and notify of his or her inability to comply with the
order due to justifiable circumstances. These circumstances are the following, EXCEPT:
A. The deceased relative is lying-in-state in a place beyond thirty kilometer radius from the jail
B. The inmate has a record of escape or attempted escape
C. The inmate has two or more pending criminal cases or is a material witness in a pending criminal
case
D. The deceased was once convicted of a crime Ans: D
77. If inmates request to view the remains of a deceased relative is approved with no objections from the
warden, the inmate shall only be allowed to stay in the place where the remains of the deceased relative
lie in state, for a maximum of how many hours?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 Ans: C
78. In transporting, when is the right time for the inmate to be notified of the trip?
A. A day before departure
B. Prior to the departure
C. When the request for transport is approved
D. Anytime Ans: B
79. Who will disembark first from the vehicle?

A. Escorting personnel
B. Inmates
C. Driver
D. First inmate near the exit Ans: A
80. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. In case of an accident while en route, escort personnel shall secure and observe the inmates inside
the vehicle, let them stay inside the vehicle as much as possible.
B. The driver shall not leave the vehicle while in court or other authorized destination
C. To avoid unnecessary stops while in transit, inmates should have relieved themselves from personal
necessity
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81. Pedro`s girlfriend whom he dearly love was convicted of a crime punishable by correctional penalty and
was confined in a jail institution. Due to his love, he devised a plan for the escape of his girlfriend, to
which later he successfully executed. Pedro is liable for what crime?
A. Delaying release
B. Delivery of prisoner from jail
C. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
D. Evasion of service Ans: B
82. Which of the following is committed by a public officer or employee who delays the performance of any
judicial or executive order for the release of a prisoner or unduly delays the services of the notice of such
order to said prisoner.
A. Delaying release
C. Evasion of sentence
D. Delay in the Delivery of Detained Persons to the Proper Judicial Authorities Ans: A
83. If a private person connives with an inmate for the escape of the latter, what can be filed against the
private individual?
A. Delaying release
C. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
D. Evasion of service Ans: B
84. Jail officer ABC was assigned on a graveyard shift. Due to stress and exhaustion, he accidentally fell
asleep. In the morning, he made a head count to which he discovered that one prisoner escaped. What
crime is incurred?
A. Delivery of prisoner form jail
B. Conniving or consenting to evasion
C. Evasion through negligence
D. Escape of prisoner under the custody of a person Ans: C
85. Juan dela Cruz a detainee sought help from his outside friend for his escape from the jail where he is
temporarily confined. One night, when the rain was heavily pouring, Juan`s friend manage to make a hole
on the wall and thereby assisted Juan to escape. What crime is committed by Juan Dela Cruz?
A. Delivery of prisoner from jail
B. Evasion of sentence
C. Conniving or consenting to evasion
D. No crime as Juan is not yet convicted Ans: A
86. All PDL under custody are provided with three (3) meals (breakfast, lunch and supper), adequate supply
of potable water, uniform consisting of the yellow shirt and brown jogging pants, and hygiene kits which
are distributed on monthly or quarterly basis.
A. Provisions of basic needs
B. Health services
C. Livelihood program
D. Behavioral management Ans: A
87. Which of the following aims to promote camaraderie among PDL, encourage the development of self-
confidence and sharing of talents as form of positive entertainment? Through this program, PDL
experience some sense of social normalcy
A. Behavioral management
B. Livelihood program
C. Cultural and sports program
D. Skills training Ans: C
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88. Its objective is to address the overcrowding in jail facilities. PDL are assisted in availing of the different
early modes of release.
A. E-dalaw
B. Behavioral management/modification program
C. Paralegal services
D. After care program Ans: C
89. This functions as a referral unit where PDL and visitors can lodge their request for assistance concerning
personal or family needs. These requests are evaluated and all requests for assistance that cannot be
addressed by the jail are referred to the concerned government agencies for appropriate action.
A. Human rights desks
B. Help desks
C. Referrals for aftercare
D. Support services Ans: B
90. Managing own feelings and learning how to express self appropriately as well as learning how to follow
the rules and norms of the community while maximizing participation in activities that are appropriate
to the resident’s need for growth, take place in what phase of therapeutic community modality program
of BJMP?
A. Orientation phase
B. Treatment phase
C. Pre-entry phase
D. Re-entry phase Ans: B
91. Shall be responsible for pre-release and post-release programs of inmates due for release. It shall also
evaluate, classify and apply necessary reformation programs to inmates for readiness to join the
mainstream society upon release, as part of the pre-release program.
A. Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics
B. Directorate for External Relations
C. Reception and Diagnostic Center
D. Paralegal unit Ans: B
92. Is a process and philosophy and process whereby the offender, victim and community collective
determine how to deal with the consequences of the crime of a specific offense, thereby moving all
stakeholders towards the healing of wounds created by the commission of the said offense
A. Justice
B. Therapeutic Community Modality Program
C. Restorative justice
D. Mediation Ans: C
93. Outright correction done by any member of the TC community to another member who has done a
minor infraction but is not aware of it and done in a friendly manner and privately.
A. Talk to
B. Pull up
C. Deal with
D. Haircut Ans: A
94. Is done as a result of lack, missed or lapses in awareness in a resident. All the members of the
community are responsible to pull-up minor infractions done by the peers. This is done when the violator
is unknown and must be validated first prior to bringing up in the morning meeting.
A. Talk to
B. Pull up
C. Deal with
D. Haircut Ans: B
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95. Is done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/norms are done for the second time
of same offense by a resident. A panel of 3 composed of a senior resident, peer and a friend are tasked to
deliver a serious and stern reprimand to the subjected resident.
A. Talk to
B. Pull up
C. Deal with
D. Haircut Ans: C
96. Is done when negative behaviors or infractions to the House Rules/Norms in same offense are done for
the third time or more or for first time grave offenses. It will be given by the dept. head and other 4
residents with the tone of more serious and can be loud, more harsh and exaggerated.
A. Talk to
B. Pull up
C. Deal with
D. Haircut Ans: D
97. Which of the following is defined as a professional activity of helping individuals, groups, or communities
enhance or restore their capacity for psychological, emotional and social functioning and creating an
environment favorable for the attainment of these goals?
A. Counseling
B. Behavioral management
C. Behavioral shaping
D. Therapeutic modality Ans: A
98. It is defined as a self-help social learning treatment model used for clients with problems of drug abuse
and other behavioral problems such as alcoholism, stealing, and other anti-social tendencies. It also
refers to an environment that helps people get help while helping others. It is a treatment environment,
the interactions of its members are designed to be therapeutic within the context of the norms that
require for each to play the dual role of client-therapist.
A. Therapeutic modality program
B. Counseling
C. Behavioral management
D. Educational program Ans: A
99. When to break confidentiality?

A. Appearance in court as a witness.
B. Client expressed plan to commit suicide.
C. Client expressed plan to harm others.
D. All of the aforementioned Ans: D
100. A treatment intervention of the DSWD which is a safe, structured, group treatment method for mental
health issues. It involves using everyday activities and a conditioned environment to help people with
interaction in community settings.
A. Milieu therapy
B. Behavioral modification
C. Counseling services
D. Therapeutic modality Ans: A
101. A division of criminology focusing on the philosophy and practices of society to repress criminal
activities.
A. Criminal Law
B. Penology
C. Correction
D. Criminal Justice Ans: B
102. It is a Latin word which means punishment or suffering.

A. poena
B. poine
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C. dolo
D. delicti Ans: A
103. Penology is originated from the Greek word “poine” which means:
A. punishment
B. suffering
C. penalty
D. crime Ans: C
104. It is the community’s reaction to a convicted offender.

A. Criminal Law
B. Penology
C. Correction
D. Criminal Justice Ans: C
105. What is the most common punishment meted to criminal offender in our country?
A. death penalty
B. fine
C. imprisonment
D. destierro Ans: C
106. When the penalty meted to a convicted criminal is reclusion perpetua, it means that the convicted
criminal shall suffer the penalty of;
A. Imprisonment of 20 years to forty years and 1 day
B. Imprisonment of 20 years to 40 years
C. imprisonment of 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
D. imprisonment of 40 years to life Ans: C
107. Every crime has a corresponding penalty. This means that penalty must be:
A. productive of suffering
B. commensurate with the offense
C. personal
D. certain Ans: B
108. Penalty should redeem and uplift the valuable human material and to prevent unnecessary
deprivation of liberty. This means that penalty must be:
A. certain
B. legal
C. equal for all
D. correctional Ans: D
109. The right of the state to punish violations of penal law is base on:
A. inherent power of the state
B. the police power of the state
C. Judicial power of the state
D. executive power of the state Ans: B
110. This justification of penalty is to serve as an example to deter others from committing crimes.
A. Prevention
B. Self-defense
C. Reformation
D. Exemplarity Ans: D
111. Justification of punishment that attempt to change and restore criminal law violators and return to
community as responsible and productive persons.
A. Atonement
B. Deterrence
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C. Protection
D. Reformation Ans: D
112. According to the Bible, what is the first imposition of punishment?

A. God thrown Lucifer and other angels from heaven.
B. Adam and Eve were thrown out from the Garden of Eden.
C. The mark of Cain on his brow
D. Great flood forty (40) days and nights. Ans: A
113. It is a never ending retaliation or “blood feuds” between families and clans which destroy the two
warring families, clan or tribe in the Philippines.
A. vendetta
B. wergild
C. rido
D. blood money Ans: C
114. Which of the following codes come first?

A. King Ur – Nammu Code
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Urukagina's Code
D. Mosaic Code Ans: C
115. This code ordered the imposition of restitution and at the same time savage penalties. It promotes
the principle that offenders can be punished and at the same time reimbursed to the victim the value of
whatever has been taken or suffered by him as a result of crime. It is also known as the oldest surviving
law code today.
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Urukagina's Code
D. Mosaic Code Ans: A
116. This code is also known as the Law of Moses.

B. Hammurabic Code
C. Urukagina's Code
D. Mosaic Code Ans: D
117. Who was the first recorded legislator of Athens?

A. Draco
B. Hammurabi
C. Ur Nammu
D. Justinian Ans: A
118. What do you call to the sum which a man was valued and by the payment of which his death could be
compensated?
A. fine
B. wergild
C. rido
D. blood money Ans: B
119. Refers to a primitive form of prison where unruly slaves were chained to workbenches and
performed hard labor
A. Stocks and Pillory
B. Furca
C. Underground Cistern
D. Ergastula Ans: D
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120. What country practiced Banishment of prisoners to Seberia which is known to the world today as
Gulag Archipelago?
A. England
B. Rome
C. Russia
D. Italy Ans: C
121. What rule originated in England that became a standard test for exemption from criminal liability in
relation to insanity or mental disorder?
A. Wild Beast Rule
B. M’Nagthen Rule
C. Durham Rule
D. Irresistible Impulse test Ans: B
122. This prison facility was established by the Romans around 640 B.C. by Ancus Marcius containing a
large network of dungeons where prisoners were held in squalid conditions contaminated with human
waste.
A. Mamertine Prison
B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Panopticon
D. Bridewell Institution Ans: A
123. The modern term “JAIL” was originated from what British word.
A. Cavea
B. Gaol
C. Caveola
D. Cage Ans: B
124. These are old warships converted into prison facilities popularly known as floating hells.
A. galleys
B. panopticon
C. gaols
D. hulks Ans: D
125. This prison facility became famous because of its shower bath gadget constructed to drop a volume
of water on the head of a locked naked offender.
A. Millbank Penitentiary
B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Auburn Prison
D. Walnut State Prison Ans: B
126. This prison system compelled prisoners to work during the day and confine in individual cells during
the night. Prisoners eat and work together in complete silence enforce harshly at all times by the guards.
This system is referring to:
A. Auburn system
B. Pennsylvania Penal system
C. Mark System
D. Irish System Ans: A
127. First prison in the USA.

A. Newgate Prison
B. Sing Sing Prison
C. Auburn Prison
D. Walnut State Prison Ans: D
128. Who introduce the Mark’s Syatem?

A. Sir Walter Crofton
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B. Alexander Maconochie
C. William Penn
D. Jeremy Bentham Ans: B
129. What prison facility in New York is also known as the Hill?
A. Elmira Correctional Facility
B. Alcatraz Prison
C. Auburn Prison
D. Sing Sing Prison Ans: A
130. Alcatraz Prison, otherwise known as “the rock”, is an island located in the San Francisco Bay in
California. The name Alcatraz is derived from:
A. bird
B. stone
C. island
D. hill or mountain Ans: A
131. An English Sheriff who recommends the separation of children and women from other prison and to
provide sanitation facility and adequate salary for jailers to avoid corruption.
A. Cesare Becarria
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. John Howard Ans: D
132. Refers to an act strengthening the Bureau of Corrections and providing funds thereof.
A. R.A. 10389
B. R.A. 10159
C. R.A. 10592
D. R.A. 10575 Ans: D
133. Which of the following is referring to the Nelson Mandela Rules?

A. United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for Treatment of Prisoners
B. United Nations Standard Minimum Rules for the Administration of Juvenile Justice
C. United Nations Guidelines for the Prevention of Juvenile Delinquency
D. United Nations Rules for the Treatment of Women Prisoners and Non-custodial Measures for Women
Offenders
Ans: A
134. The Old Bilibid Prison in Manila City is now known as the;
A. New Bilibid Prison
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Manila City Jail
D. Correctional Institution for Women Ans: C
135. The Correctional Institution for Women is situated in;

A. Region 9
B. Region 6
C. NCR
D. Region 4 Ans: C
136. What is the main objective of segregation?

A. Prevention of physical and moral contamination
B. Diversification by Age
C. Diversification by degree of imprisonment
D. Diversification by sex Ans: A
137. What do you call to the facility exclusively used as confinement area of all inmates within the prison
camp with specific consideration on spatial designation?
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A. Dormitory
B. Brigada
C. Selda
D. Infirmary Ans: A
138. What is the recommended lot area per inmate of a dormitory at the BuCor?
A. 20 sq. m.
B. 30 sq. m.
C. 40 sq. m.
D. 50 sq. m Ans: B
139. The BuCor shall be headed by a Director who shall be assisted by how many deputies?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5 Ans: B
140. The head of the BuCor shall have a position and title of Director General with the rank of;
A. Secretary
B. Undersecretary
C. Assistant Secretary
D. Chief superintendent Ans: B
141. What is the rank insignia of the Director General of Corrections?

A. 4 star
B. 3 star
C. 2 star
D. 1 star Ans: B
142. What is the maximum age requirement of a new applicant of the BuCor?
A. 21 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old Ans: D
143. The application for probation may be done in any of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Oral
B. Written
C. Verbal
D. Appeal Ans: D
144. Probation is considered to be a privilege and not a right, EXCEPT if the offender is:
A. Sentenced not more than 6 years
B. Sentenced more than 6 years but below ten years
C. Known to be of good reputation
D. Child Ans: D
145. As a general rule, when the petitioner has been denied with probation, such decision from the court
cannot be appealed. However, to check on the reasonableness of the decision or to find if there is grave
abuse of decision, the petitioner can file for a:
A. Motion for reconsideration
B. Petition to a higher court
C. Certiorari
D. Writ of mandamus Ans: C
146. Which among the following is a mandatory condition in a probation?

A. Probationer must meet his responsibilities with the family
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B. Procure a secular or vocational training
C. Report to the probation officer at least once a month
D. Refrain from visiting houses of ill-refute Ans: C
147. In the United States, clemency is granted by the ____ for state crimes and by a president for federal
crimes.
A. Senator
B. Senate
C. Congress
D. Governor Ans: D
148. Commutation of sentence shall be granted by the:

A. Trial court
B. Presiding Judge of the case
C. President
D. Congress Ans: C
149. Who among the following is a PRISONER?

A. Detained
B. Sentenced
C. For safekeeping
150. Contains the personal and criminal records of inmates, documents related to his/her incarceration
such as but not limited to: commitment order, subpoenas, personal identification, orders from the court,
and all other papers necessarily connected with the detention of an inmate.
A. Carpeta
B. Prisoner file
C. Commitment documents
D. Prison file Ans: A
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Criminology
1. In hostage taking incidents, which of the following is non-negotiable?
B. Food
C. Drinks
D. Weapons
E. Money Ans: C
2. Person A bore a child with her boyfriend B. However, due to differences they decided not to be married,
and to live separately. In the child`s birth certificate, the father acknowledged the child as his own by
putting his signature. In this situation, who has the parental authority over the illegitimate child?
A. Mother
B. Father
C. Both mother and father
D. Any of them Ans: A
Note: the Family Code states that illegitimate children shall be under the parental authority of their mother.
3. Which of the following is referred to as the blueprint of the study?
A. Theoretical framework
B. Research Methodology
C. Introduction
D. Research design Ans: D
4. The introduction of the research study, contains the following, EXCEPT:

A. Background of the study
B. Research gap
C. Related theory
D. Topic to be studies Ans: C
5. Researcher ABC conducted a study on the lived experiences of the persons deprived of liberty on the
Inmates Welfare and Development Program (IWDP) at a particular district jail in Leyte. He interviewed
twenty participants to gather the desired data. The interviews were audio recorded. Also, to obtain
evidence in the conduct thereof, he took various photos with the inmates during interview sessions.
Question: On the above scenario, what research method is utilized?
A. Survey
B. Case study
C. Trend study
D. Phenomenology Ans: D
6. The researcher, as part of his presentation of the research findings in an international research forum,
presented the photographs he obtained depicting him with the inmates during the series of interviews.
Question: Based on your knowledge in research, do you consider the act of presenting the pictures as
ethical?
A. Yes, this can establish the credibility of the study
B. Yes, as long as there is a written consent from the inmates
C. No, this violates the confidentiality of inmates` identity
D. No, there is a need to first procure consent/permission from the jail administration Ans: C
7. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

A. Quantitative research uses statistical methods in the interpretation of data while qualitative
researches do not.
B. The result of a quantitative research study can be generalized while the result of a qualitative study
can not
C. Quantitative researches utilized probability sampling while qualitative uses non probability sampling
method
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D. Quantitative researches made use of in depth interviews in the collection of data while qualitative
collects data through survey and evaluation
Ans: D
8. Which of the following refers to a careful, systematic study of knowledge in the field of criminology or
criminal justice, undertaken to discover or establish facts or causations of crime? It pertains to scientific
studies done in relation to topics on criminality, such as crime causes or criminal behaviors.
A. Criminological research
B. Crime research
C. Research
D. Criminology Research Ans: A
9. Dr Cesare Lombroso categorized criminals into atavistic, criminaloid, and insane criminal. Which of the
following scenarios BEST illustrates a criminaloid?
A. Pedro was in relationship with Maria. One day, while he was walking towards the public market, he
saw the latter cuddling with a guy unknown to him. Out of anger, later that day, he broke up with
Maria.
B. When Maria found out that his son Juan performed poorly in his academics, he approached him and
severely reprimand her son. Juan walked out from their house and never returned. Maria was
regretful of her action.
C. When Pedro caught his wife Maria texting with someone, he was so angry. He went to his wife`s
room and warned him not to do it a second time or else he`ll file an annulment case. Maria did not
take heed of the warning, instead, after a week he was seen having an affair with someone.
D. While Juan was playing soccer, someone made fun of his haircut. Out of anger, he approached the
person and without hesitation punched him at the face.
Ans: D
Note: Criminaloid- those who are easily swayed or tempted to do evil. Criminaloids are normal persons who
commit crimes under the pressure of circumstances.
10. Positivists greatly differ from classical criminologists for the reason that:
A. Deterrence is the best justification for punishment that prevents the society from committing crimes
B. Human beings have free will and the actions they undertake are the result of their own choice
C. Society should respect the rights of its citizens
D. Offenders were not entirely responsible for their own crimes Ans: D
11. The proponents of Neo-Classical believes that children, insane, and lunatics should not be punished and
regarded as criminal due to the reason that:
A. They are special people that need special consideration
B. They cannot calculate pleasure and pain
C. They are influenced by sociological factors such as bad neighborhood
D. They are people with physical and mental abnormalities Ans: B
12. Scenario: Maria, a young business executive at a prestigious firm has an Iphone 5 in her car. One night,
getting home late from work, she parks on the street in front of her apartment and rushes in to change
clothes for an appointment. Running late, Maria doesn’t take the time to lock the car before going inside.
In fifteen minutes which takes her to clean up, change clothes, and get back to her car, someone opens the
car door and steals her iphone 5. In this scenario the victim obviously did not cause the crime to occur.
However, the crime might not have happened if Maria hadn’t left the car unlocked, or better yet secured
the iphone 5. To the extent that locking the car helps prevent theft, Maria plays an active role in her own
victimization. The role of Maria in the crime is embodied in the study of:
A. Criminal etiology
B. Sociology of laws
C. Penology/correction
D. Victimology Ans: D
13. The maxim “nullum crimen nula pona sine lege” (Logomacy) means:
A. Crime is a by-product of the law and that there is no crime if there is no law
B. The act is a crime once it violates the existing law
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C. The act is a crime at the time of its commission which prescribes penalty under the law
D. There is crime for as long as the act is deemed to be evil in the society Ans: A
14. Which of the following can be a good example of a white collar crime?
A. A Mayor committing corruption
B. A senator who was been stabbed by his neighbor
C. An unemployed person snatching the cellular phone of a stranger
D. An educated guy who was been stolen a billion pesos cash Ans: A
15. As to the length of time committed, episodic crimes are those committed:
A. By a series of acts in a lengthy space of time
B. In the shortest possible time
C. Only when given the situation conducive to its commission
D. When the offender is motivated by the spite of jealousy Ans: A
16. Which of the following best explains mala prohibita?

A. Crimes that violates the Revised Penal Code or the Criminal Law
B. This consists of acts and omissions punishable by the existing law
C. Acts and omissions that are not necessarily bad but becomes illegal because of the law punishing it
D. This includes acts and omissions that require litigation from the competent court and is classified as
such based on the judgment given
Ans: C
17. Which of the following is an example of a formal crime?
A. Murder
B. Arson
C. Libel
D. Homicide Ans: C
Note: Formal Crime- crimes which are consummated in one instant or by a single act.
18. These are offenses which the law attaches the capital punishment or afflictive penalties.
A. Less grave felonies
B. Grave felonies
C. Light felonies
D. Capital penalty Ans: B
19. Theft and robbery are examples of:

A. Extinctive crime
B. Acquisitive crime
C. Complex crime
D. Both B and C Ans: B
20. This is an attempt on the part of correction pillar to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment.
A. Retribution
B. Deterrence
C. Incapacitation
D. Rehabilitation Ans: B
21. A study of criminality in relation to physical constitution of men.

A. Criminal psychology
B. Criminal demography
C. Criminal etiology
D. Criminal anthropology
E. Victimology Ans: D
22. In psychoanalytic theory, Freud believed that id, ego, and superego are in constant conflict, as the
primary goal is different for each piece. Freud argued that when the conflict is too much for a person to
handle, his or her ego may engage in one or many defense mechanisms namely, repression, denial,
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projection, displacement, regression, and sublimation. Which of the following situations best describes
projection?
A. Maria drinks five bottles of Red Horse for her to forget the heartbreak she had with Juan.
B. When asked, Juan told his parents that he was able to pass in the examination set by the University,
where in reality, he was not.
C. Maria, a rebel, blamed the government on the poverty she currently experienced.
D. After Juan was scolded by his boss, he went home upset. Upon arrival, he shouted against his son
after the latter failed to go for an errand.
Ans: C
Note: Projection – in this defense mechanism, the ego attempts to resolve the tension or discomfort of the
individual by attributing the undesirable thoughts, events, feelings, and motives to another individual. It
resembles with the act of blaming
23. Which of the following best explains hedonism?

A. Every human action is motivated by the pursuit of pleasure or ought to be motivated by the pursuit
of pleasure
B. Every act of man is influence with voluntariness or on the impulse of free will
C. Man commits criminality due to the internal and external circumstances that are beyond his control
D. Criminality is a result of social disorganization, normlessness, and a strain between the goal and the
means to commit it. Ans: A
24. What do you call the study of the analysis of the external formation of the skull that would indicate the
conformation of the brain and the development of its various parts in relation to the behavior of the
criminal?
A. Phrenology
B. Physiognomy
C. Psychology
D. Graphology Ans: A
25. Which of the following is NOT one of the fundamental assumptions of biological theories of crime
causation?
A. A tendency to commit crime may be inherited
B. The basic determinants of criminal behavior are, to a considerable degree, the product of the
behavior of hormones
C. The brain is the organ of behavior and criminality can be a product of how the brain functions
D. All of the above are assumptions of biological theories Ans: D
26. Juan was disrespected and humiliated at his work for not submitting the required report on time. Due to
the fear of losing his job, he did not respond to the harassment of his superior, besides he has no courage
to face the latter. Seeing the superior as impossible to argue with, he went home and displaced his anger
to his wife. What theory best explains this scenario?
A. Anger displacement theory
B. Strain theory
C. Frustration aggression theory
D. Self control theory Ans: C
27. Which of the following theories illuminate the intrinsic and extrinsic factors that influence a person to be
non-deviant? It states that pro-social values, pro-social institutions, and pro-social people, are the bonds
that controls the behavior when the person is tempted to perform a deviant act.
A. Differential association theory
B. Social control theory
C. Labeling theory
D. Strain theory Ans: B
28. Juan was raised in a religious family. He spent his elementary and secondary years of education in a
Christian School. Because of the proper guidance set both by his parents and the school he attended, Juan
in his younger years grown to be kind, diligent, and wise. When he reached college, Juan started to join
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groups and friends which were of bad influence. The moral ascendance he was once had, gradually faded.
He became alcoholic and a thief. In college, he dropped his subjects too. It was not long that he was
arrested and imprisoned. The cause of why Juan got imprisoned could be best explained by:
A. Psychoanalytic theory
B. Social bond theory
C. Self control theory
D. Differential association theory Ans: D
29. According to this theory crime is caused by the conflicts between the three socio-economic classes
capitalists (those who possess means of production and economic values), bourgeoisie (middle class) and
proletariat (working class). All classes commit crime but the crimes of the elite do more harm. It also
argue that law enforcement is selective, working in favor of elites and that crime control and punishment
perform ideological functions.
A. Theory of economic criminality
B. Differential opportunity theory
C. Marxist theory
D. Rational model of crime Ans: C
30. Is a multidisciplinary perspective that attempts to understand criminal behavior (and related outcomes,
like antisocial behavior and its consequences) by considering the interactions between biological,
psychological, and sociological factors.
A. Biopsychosocial Criminology
B. Biopsycho criminology
C. Sociological theory of criminology
D. Psychosocial criminology Ans: A
31. Asserts that women’s crime had begun to change in both quantity and quality and that this was due not
to an alteration in women’s nature but rather because of increased criminal opportunities for women.
They deny their female role and femininity and identify with then male role. In short they “attempt to be
a man”.
A. Feminist theory
B. Chivalry theory
C. Masculinity theory
D. Economic marginalization theory Ans: C
32. This theory argues that historically there have been lower rates of female criminality because of the more
lenient treatment of female offenders by criminal justice personnel. Females are more prone to violating
the law but according to the economic standard they treated as less destructive in nature. Thus, female
offences get less importance than male ones in the criminal justice system
A. Opportunity theory
B. Self derogation theory
C. Economic marginalization theory
D. Chivalry theory Ans: D
33. This theory examines the role of men and women in crime and deviance and how these sex differences
influenced as to how they are treated. It argues that crime is mostly interpreted in the context of male
perspective and with this, crime notions are less applied to females. For instance, women who are into
alcoholism and drugs are more negatively criticized compared to men doing the same.
A. Feminist theory
B. Chivalry theory
C. Life course theory
D. Routine activity theory Ans: A
34. It asserts that people's actions are more strongly influenced by the quality of their social relationships
and their physical environment rather than rational thought. It states that disorganized communities
with high population turnover rates, diverse populations, and poverty are more likely to experience high
levels of crime.
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A. Anomie theory
B. Labeling theory
C. Social disorganization theory
D. Conflict of culture theory Ans: C
35. States that crime can be prevented not by altering the criminal`s disposition but rather altering the
situation that causes him to commit crimes. For example, a thief who has the inclination to steal may be
deprived of an opportunity if a police officer is visible within his range.
A. Routine activity theory
B. Interactional theory
C. Situational crime prevention theory
D. Social bond theory Ans: C
36. Characterized of being thoughtful, quiet, reserved, calm, controlled, conforming, and passive. This kind of
people avoids social interactions.
A. Introversion
B. Extraversion
C. Neuroticism stability
D. Psychoticism Ans: A
37. “Kalikak” is a pseudonym originally from the Greek word “kallos” which means:
A. Good
B. Bad
C. Criminal
D. Criminal behavior offspring Ans: A
38. The general theory of crime.

A. Differential association theory
B. Self control theory
C. Social disorganization theory
D. Strain theory Ans: B
39. This of human development period ranges from 6 years to the attainment of sexual maturity, around 10
or 12. This is considered as the troublesome stage as children seek for conformity and become part of
groups. During this stage children develop marked negativism and because of their desire for
independence seldom obey the parents. The child begins going to school and learns the rudiments of
knowledge essential for successful adult life. The peer group assumes great significance and children of
this age 'crowd together or 'gang up' ,thus earning the name gang age'
A. Early childhood
B. Late childhood
C. Puberty or preadolescence
D. Adolescence Ans: B
40. In this stage of psychosexual development, the gratification of the infant focuses on the mouth. Activities
like eating, swallowing, biting and sucking give pleasure.
A. Oral stage
B. Appetite stage
C. Anal stage
D. Phallic stage Ans: A
41. Is an anxiety disorder which results from a traumatic experience. It can result from an extreme situation,
such as combat, natural disaster, rape, hostage situations, child abuse, bullying or even a serious accident.
It can also result from long term (chronic) exposure to a severe stressor, for example soldiers who
endure individual battles but cannot cope with continuous combat.
A. Paranoid personality disorder
B. General anxiety disorder
C. Panic disorder
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D. Post traumatic stress disorder Ans: D
42. A disorder where an individual complains of bodily symptoms that suggest the presence of physical
problem but no organic basis can be found.
A. Somatoform disorder
B. Body dysmorphic disorder
C. Briquets syndrome
D. Malingering Ans: A
43. Have a grandiose sense of self-importance. They seek excessive admiration from others and fantasize
about unlimited success or power. They believe they are special, unique, or superior to others.
A. Narcissistic personality
B. Borderline personality disorder
C. Somotoform disorder
D. Briquets syndrome Ans: A
44. A severe mental disorder in which thought and emotions are so impaired that contact is lost with
external reality. It is an abnormal condition of the mind described as involving a "loss of contact
with reality".
A. Hallucination
B. Illusion
C. Schizophrenia
D. Psychosis Ans: D
45. Is a thought process believed to be heavily influenced by anxiety or fear, often to the point
of delusion and irrationality. Paranoid thinking typically includes persecutory, or beliefs
of conspiracy concerning a perceived threat towards oneself (e.g. "Everyone is out to get me").
A. Neurosis
B. Phobia
C. Paranoia
D. Hysteria Ans: C
46. The study of the victims of crime and the psychological effects on them of their experience. It studies on
the psychological effects of crime and the relationship between victims and offender. It is a branch of
criminology that scientifically studies the relationship between an injured party and an offender by
examining the causes and the nature of the consequent suffering.
A. Victimology
B. Victim precipitation theory
C. Lifestyle exposure theory
D. Victim-offender relationship theory Ans: A
47. Often been referred to as the “father” of victimology. Intrigued by the dynamics that take place between
victims and offenders, he surveyed both parties during the course of preparing a case for trial. He coined
the term “Victimology”, and proposed that this should be an entirely new field of study instead of merely
a branch in criminology
A. Marvin Wolfgang
B. Menachem Amir
C. Stephen Schafer
D. Benjamin Mendelsohn Ans: D
48. A type of victim who instigated a conflict but is killed in self-defense. An example would be an abused
woman killing her partner while he is abusing her.
A. Innocent victim
B. Imaginary victim
C. Guilty victim
D. Guilty victim, guiltier victim Ans: C
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49. A type of victim that is characterized as immature, under adult supervision, lack physical strength and
lack the mental and emotional maturity to recognize victimization.
A. Young people
B. Minorities
C. Dull normals
D. The depressed Ans: A
50. A behavior that deviates from the norms and standards of the society. It has the tendency to become
abnormal behavior, it will become criminals when it violates the provision of the criminal law.
A. Criminal behavior
B. Deviant behavior
C. Human behavior
D. Personality Ans: B
51. This period lasts from 18 to 40 years old. This is known as the productive age, a period for dependency
and a period of emotional tension or even social isolation. This is the stage of commitment, change in
values, and changes in lifestyle choices.
A. Adolescence
B. Early adulthood
C. Middle age
D. Senescence Ans: B
52. Persons with mental defect to a degree that they are unable to guard themselves against common
physical dangers, their mentality are compared to a 2 year old child. IQ is 0-25.
A. Idiots
B. Imbeciles
C. Feeble minded
D. Morally defective Ans: A
53. Is one who experiences the same type of victimization two or more times in a given time frame.
A. Repeat victim
B. Recurring victim
C. Victim precipitation
D. Victimology Ans: A
54. Which of the following differentiates between crime and juvenile delinquency?
A. Crime is committed by adults while juvenile delinquency is committed by minors
B. Crime is dealt with the pillars of the criminal justice system while juvenile delinquency is dealt with
the juvenile justice system
C. Crime is a violation of the written laws while juvenile delinquency is a violation of the unwritten
55. Which of the following stage is juvenile delinquency is characterized by the commission of petty larceny
between. Usually this occurs at the age of 8 and sometimes the 12th year.
A. Emergence
B. Exploration
C. Explosion
D. Conflagration
E. Outburst Ans: A
56. One of the causes of juvenile delinquency consisting of the inclinations or inherited propensities, which
cannot be, considered a criminal one unless there is a probability that a crime will be committed.
A. Predisposing factor
B. Precipitating factor
C. Individual risk factor
D. Familial factor Ans: A
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57. A theory of juvenile delinquency which states that juveniles sense a moral obligation to be bound by the
law. Such a bind between a person and the law remains in place most of the time, they argue. When it is
not in place, delinquents will drift.
A. Drift theory
B. Strain theory
C. Self derogation theory
D. Labeling theory Ans: A
58. Marriage is a social union or legal contract between individuals that creates kinship. It is an institution in
which interpersonal relationships, usually intimate and sexual, are acknowledged by a variety of ways,
depending on the culture or demographic. Such a union may also be called matrimony, while the
ceremony that marks its beginning is usually called a wedding and the marital structure created is known
as the:
A. Marriage state
B. Fidelity
C. Wedding vow
D. Wedlock Ans: D
59. Any ship captain or airplane chief can solemnize a wedding only in cases of articulo mortis. Articulo
mortis means:
A. Member of the crew
B. During calamity/catastrophe
C. Point of death
D. Duty calls Ans: C
60. A child born prior to marriage but takes place by a subsequent valid marriage between parents.
A. Illegitimate child
B. Legitimate child
C. Legitimated child
D. Adopted child Ans: C
61. Refers to the mass of rights and obligations which parents have in relation to the person and property of
their children until their emancipation, and even after under certain circumstances.
A. Parental obligation
B. Parental rights
C. Parental authority
D. Parental responsibility Ans: C
62. The following are grounds for the suspension of parental authority, EXCEPT:
A. Conviction of parent for crime without civil interdiction
B. Treats child with excessive harassment and cruelty
C. Subject the child to work
D. Compels child to beg Ans: C
63. A child under ______ years of age shall not be separated from the mother UNLESS the court finds
compelling reasons to order otherwise. Paramount consideration in matters of custody of a child is the
welfare and well-being of the child
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 18 Ans: C
64. Dad is the head coach; mom is the chief of the training table and head cheerleader. The children, suffering
frequent performance anxiety, play by the rules and stay in shape with conformity calisthenics. In the
team family, competition is the name of the game and winning is everything.
A. Corporate model
B. Team model
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C. Military model
D. boarding model
E. theatrical model Ans: B
65. In Republic Act 9344 children who committed a crime is known as Child in Conflict with the Law while in
Presidential Decree 603 these children are labeled as:
A. CICL
B. Youthful offender
C. Suspects
D. Initial Contact with the Child Ans: B
66. Abandoned Child may refer to a child who has no proper parental care or guardianship, or whose
parent(s) have deserted him/her for a period of at least how many continuous months?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 Ans: C
67. In the death of both biological parents, who among the following is the first legally authorized to obtain
substitute parental authority over the child?
A. Surviving grandparent
B. Oldest brother or sister over 21 years old
C. Actual custodian over 21 years of age
D. Aunts and uncles Ans: A
68. Who among the following is NOT exempted from civil liability?
A. A child who is fifteen (15) years of age or under at the time of the commission of the offense; and
B. A child above fifteen (15) years of age but below eighteen (18) years of age if he or she acted without
discernment.
C. A child over fifteen (15) years of age but below eighteen years of age who committed a crime with
discernment
69. If the child in conflict with the law has reached eighteen (18) years of age while under suspended
sentence, the court shall determine whether to discharge the child in accordance with this Act, to order
execution of sentence, or to extend the suspended sentence for a certain specified period or until the
child reaches the maximum age of:
A. 19
B. 20
C. 21
D. 25 Ans: C
70. Is the most basic means of settling differences. It is back-and-forth communication between the parties of
the conflict with the goal of trying to find a solution.
A. Negotiation
B. Mediation
C. Conciliation
D. Litigation Ans: A
71. An approach to justice in which the response to a crime is to organize a meeting between the victim and
the offender, sometimes with representatives of the wider community. The goal is for them to share their
experience of what happened, to discuss who was harmed by the crime and how, and to create a
consensus for what the offender can do to repair the harm from the offense.
A. Retributive justice
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B. Restorative justice
C. Impartial justice
D. Justice Ans: B
72. Means a voluntary dispute resolution process in which one or more third persons, appointed in
accordance with the agreement of the parties, resolve a dispute by rendering an award. the third party,
based on the information presented to him/her by the disputants and based on his/her own investigation
of the case, makes the final decision on how to resolve the conflict.
A. Arbitration
B. Mediation
C. Conciliation
D. Med-arb Ans: A
73. Means a structured dispute resolution method in which the merits of a case are argued before a panel
comprising of senior decision-makers, with or without the presence of a neutral third person, before
which the parties seek a negotiated settlement.
A. Conciliation
B. Early neutral evaluation
C. Mini trial
D. Court annexed mediation Ans: C
74. The following are OUTSIDE the jurisdiction of the Katarungang Pambarangay, EXCEPT:
A. Where one party is a public officer or employee, and the dispute relates to the performance of his
official functions
B. Where the dispute involves real properties located in different cities and municipalities, unless the
parties thereto agree to submit their difference to amicable settlement by an appropriate Lupon
C. Offenses for which the law prescribes a maximum penalty of imprisonment exceeding one (1) year or
a fine over five thousand pesos (P5,000.00)
D. Crimes that are punishable below 1 year imprisonment but have private offended party
Ans: D
75. Refers to the development of unique relations between the hostages and the hostage takers.
A. Deadlock
B. Stockholm syndrome
C. Sympathy
D. Open to demands/negotiation Ans: B
76. These are demands of the hostage taker best described as “objective”, like money, transportation, food,
liquor, or drugs.
A. Instrumental demand
B. Expressive demand
C. Substantive demand
D. Non substantive demand Ans: A
77. Among the following members of the negotiating team, who is responsible for the actual communication
with the subject?
A. Primary negotiator
B. Secondary negotiator
C. Ground commander
D. Negotiator supervisor Ans: A
78. What is the recommended thing to be done in case the negotiator breaks down and finds himself in a
dead lock?
A. Prolong the time for negotiation
B. Order tactical team to suppress the hostage taker
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C. Soften the demands
D. Employ a mediator Ans: D
79. This is defined as rules or expectations that are socially enforced. It may be prescriptive (encouraging
positive behavior; for example, “be honest”) or proscriptive (discouraging negative behavior; for
example, “do not cheat”).
A. Societal values
B. Values
C. Morality
D. Norms Ans: D
80. Which of the following refers to actions which stands neutral in relation to the norm of morality?
A. Moral
B. Immoral
C. Amoral
D. Morality Ans: C
81. The Criminologist is reminded at all times that dignity, fairness and a genuine willingness to help are
essential to their public image and their ability to do a good job.
A. Attitude towards profession
B. Conduct towards the public
C. Limitation of authority
D. Attitude towards fellow criminologists Ans: B
82. The Criminologists shall strive constantly to improve professional standing of Criminology through
association with others in the profession and keeping abreast with the fast moving world of science and
technology through constant research and development.
A. Attitude towards profession
B. Conduct towards the public
C. Limitation of authority
D. Attitude towards fellow criminologists Ans: D
83. What number of years of non renewal of license without justifiable cause, becomes a ground for the
suspension, revocation, or cancellation thereof?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8 Ans: B
84. A passer of the Criminologists Licensure Examination cannot be registered in the Professional Regulation
Commission (PRC) under the following grounds, EXCEPT:
A. Convicted with finality of a crime involving moral turpitude by a court of competent jurisdiction
B. Found guilty of immoral or dishonorable conduct by the Board
C. Summarily adjudged guilty for violation of the General Instruction to Examinees by the Board
D. Noncompliance with the CPD and AIPO reasonable requirements as approved by the Board
Ans: D
85. The primary objectives of Police is the prevention of crime, policeman knew too well that he has
committed his Life to defend and protect the rights of the citizen and uphold the law at all cost.
A. Primordial police responsibility
B. Limitation of police authority
C. Knowledge of the law and other responsibilities
D. Proper conduct and behavior Ans: A
86. PNP members shall provide service to everyone without discrimination regardless of Party affiliation in
accordance with existing laws and regulations.
A. Non-discrimination
B. Non partisanship
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C. Commitment to public interest
D. Commitment of democracy Ans: A
87. The common practice of holding "street court," where incidents such as minor traffic tickets can be
avoided with a cash payment to the officer and no receipt given.
A. Bribery
B. Extortions/shakedowns
C. Corruption
D. Malpractice Ans: B
88. These are straightforward fellow, honest to a fault, and often take an extreme position on ethical issues.
They are realistic and often render strict decisions in accordance with the law. Thus, they are considered
a loner and deviant to the eyes of the colleagues who are corrupt and killjoy to the others.
A. White knights
B. Straight shooters
C. Grass eaters
D. Meat eaters
E. Rogues Ans: A
89. What is the basic difference between descriptive and explanatory researches?
A. The statistical method being used in the interpretation of the data
B. The questions being answered
C. The sampling size or the number of respondents needed
D. The time and setting that it should be conducted Ans: B
90. Researcher ABC wanted to study the case on the rising prostitution in his municipality. However, having
the lack of knowledge on the identities of the prostitute, he only managed to interview one. Decide: What
should be the CORRECT sampling method that should be utilized in order for the researcher to proceed
on his study?
A. Purposive sampling
B. Convenience sampling
C. Snowball sampling
D. Quota sampling Ans: C
Note: Snowball sampling – Also known as chain-referral sampling is defined as a non-probability sampling
technique in which the samples have traits that are rare to find. It is a recruitment technique in which
research participants are asked to assist researchers in identifying other potential subjects.
91. To determine the difference between male and female students in terms of addiction with online games,
the best statistical method to be used should be:
A. T-test
B. ANOVA
C. Chi-square
D. Pearson Correlation Ans: A
92. Autobiography is an example of a:

A. Narratology
B. Phenomenology
C. Grounded theory
D. Ethnography Ans: A
93. Which of the following refers to the scientific investigation into or of a specifically identified phenomenon
and is applicable to recognizable and undiscovered phenomena? It is also a process of systematic inquiry
that entails collection of data; documentation of critical information; and analysis and interpretation of
that data/information, in accordance with suitable methodologies set by specific professional fields and
academic disciplines
A. Research
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B. To search again
C. Scientific investigation
94. Which of the following is the scientific inquiry into the issue or problem that could be both basic and
applied research? This type of research generally begins as basic, but the results are found to have an
applied purpose.
A. Pure research
B. Mixed method
C. Multipurpose research
D. Prognostic research Ans: C
95. Questions like what is the average number of police officers in the police stations in Negros Oriental?
What is the average caseload of police investigators in Negros Oriental? What are the hot spots of
carnapping in Dumaguete City? How does a typical crime scene investigation take place?, can be
answered through:
A. Descriptive research
B. Explanatory research
C. Experimental research
D. Exploratory research Ans: A
96. In this method, the use of quantity or statistics is practically not utilized. Descriptive data are gathered
rather than quantitative data. Also, in this study concepts are viewed as sensitizing ideas or terms that
enhance our understanding.
A. Qualitative research
B. Quantitative research
C. Historical research
D. Descriptive research Ans: A
97. Which of the following is a short summary of your completed research? It is intended to describe your work
without going into great detail.
A. Conclusion
B. Summary of findings
C. Abstract
D. Recommendation Ans: C
98. Which of the following can be classified as a research?

A. To answer your assignment, you search in Google the definition of crime
B. You were given a task by your instructor to identify the various theories that explain crime. To
accomplish this, you go to the library
C. In your written output, you cite various sources to recognize the authors behind it
D. None Ans: D
99. Which of the following should be your top priority in handling sensitive information from the
participants?
A. Confidentiality of participants` identity
B. Credibility of the information obtained
C. Informed consent obtained after orientation
D. Access to the audio-recorded files Ans: A
100. Which of the following is an act of browsing the literature (e.g. books, research journals, and articles
in the internet)? It is also a comprehensive summary of previous research on a topic and surveys
scholarly articles, books, and other sources relevant to a particular area of research.
A. Introduction
B. Literature review
C. Interpretation of the data
D. Theoretical framework Ans: B
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101. It is a question that a research project sets out to answer. It is an area of concern that requires a
meaningful understanding of a specific topic. The parameters and elements that are being studied in the
research work.
A. Research introduction
B. Research problem
C. Research questions
D. Research design Ans: B
102. The statement “the analysis of the data in this study might be affected due to time constraints” is an
example of:
A. Introduction
B. Research procedure
C. Research problem
D. Limitation of the study Ans: D
103. This refers to a written statement that explains why your research was needed. It's a justification of the
importance of your work and impact it has on your research field, it's contribution to new knowledge and how
others will benefit from it.
A. Research design
B. Review of related literature
C. Research participants
D. Significance of the study Ans: D
104. When the person participates in a qualitative research study, he shall be called as:
A. Respondent
B. Participant
C. Gatekeeper
D. Informant Ans: B
105. What part of research which contains supplementary material that is not an essential part of the text itself
but which may be helpful in providing a more comprehensive understanding of the research problem?
A. References
B. Appendices
C. Conclusion
D. Recommendations Ans: B
106. In a research paper, most of the times the researcher will include his suggestions aimed to provide
the right course of action based from the findings being revealed. These suggestions are usually
incorporated in:
A. Conclusion
B. Recommendations
C. Appendices
D. Summary of findings Ans: B
107. This studies one case or instance to have an in-depth investigation of numerous factors to explain
something, say crime. However, since only one case is to be studied, the researcher is only capable of
explaining such case and cannot use his findings to explain other cases in other situations.
A. Idiographic
B. Nomothetic
C. Inductive
D. Deductive Ans: A
108. After the investigator has collected evidence (the weapon used, samples of blood, fingerprints, and
other trace evidence), he learns that the weapon belongs to Juan dela Cruz and the samples of blood,
fingerprints, and other trace evidence match with that of Juan, the investigator then can speculate that
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Juan might be the one who has committed the crime. Decide: Based on the scenario above, what
reasoning has been utilized?
A. Inductive
B. Deductive
C. Either a or b
D. It depends Ans: A
109. When the researcher goes from specific details to general propositions, he is doing:
A. Inductive reasoning
B. Deductive reasoning
C. Either a or b
D. It depends Ans: A
110. This fallacy occurs when one generalizes his/her observation about an individual to groups or
organizations.
A. Ecological fallacy
B. Individualistic fallacy
C. Reductionism
111. When one hears from the news that a certain police officer has been found positive of using
dangerous drug, it is a fallacy to generalize and say: I am afraid to report to the police station drug crimes
in my neighborhood because the police are even involved in drug use. Decide: What fallacy is referred on
the above scenario?
A. Ecological fallacy
B. Individualistic fallacy
C. Reductionism
112. In data collection, which of the following asks people to recall their pasts? One limitation of this
method, however, is that the respondents might not remember totally.
A. Cross sectional
B. Longitudinal
C. Retrospective
D. Survey Ans: C
113. If the researcher collects data over a long period of time like 20 years, then most probably he or she
is utilizing:
A. Cross sectional
B. Longitudinal
C. Retrospective
D. Survey Ans: B
114. Which of the following collects data from the same sample respondents for 2 or more periods of
time?
A. Cohort
B. Trend
C. Panel
115. The following are quantitative research methods, EXCEPT:

A. Ethnography
B. Survey
C. Secondary data analysis
D. Experimental study Ans: A
116. It is a method that collects data from a sample of a population by asking questions in order to
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describe some characteristics of that population It is one of the oldest methods of research and is often
used for descriptive as well as explanatory research in criminology and criminal justice
A. Survey
B. Secondary data analysis
C. Experimental
117. The researchers randomly divided the 15 beats of South Patrol Division into three groups. Then, five
beats were designated as reactive groups; another five beats as control groups; and, the remaining beats
as proactive groups. However, they made sure that none of the reactive beats were contiguous. Next, they
applied different dosage of mobile police patrol in each group. In the reactive beats, police patrol was
withdrawn; police officers only went to the beats when someone called them for help. In the control
beats, the normal patrol effort - one patrol car – was conducting preventive patrol. In the proactive beats,
the dosage of patrol was increased to two or three times. To measure the effects, they gathered data
(before, during, and after) on monthly reported crime, victimization experiences, attitudes and fear of
crime from household members, victimization experiences and satisfaction with the police from
businesses, police-citizen encounters, traffic accidents, arrests, and police response time.
Decide: What research method is utilized above?

A. Trend study
B. Survey
C. Experimental
D. Phenomenology Ans: C
118. It is a qualitative method that explores the life of an individual/s through interviews and collection of
documents. This type of research tells the story of one or more individuals’ life.
A. Narratology
B. Phenomenology
C. Ethnography
D. Grounded theory
E. Case analysis Ans: A
119. Studies several individuals who have experienced the same phenomenon and attempts to extract the
essence of their lived experience commonly through interviews. The essence “focuses on the common
experiences of the participants.
A. Narratology
B. Phenomenology
C. Ethnography
D. Grounded theory
E. Case analysis Ans: B
120. It is a qualitative inquiry that describes and interprets the patterns of a group’s culture over time.
A. Narratology
B. Phenomenology
C. Ethnography
D. Grounded theory
E. Case analysis Ans: C
121. The hypothesis that states, “there is no significant relationship between religion and attitude toward
studying” is an example of:
A. Research hypothesis
B. Null hypothesis
C. Rival hypothesis
122. Gender and religion are two examples of what variable?

A. Nominal
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B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio Ans: A
Note: Nominal variables - variables whose attributes have no rank order. Attributes are only named. Example,
Gender.
Ordinal variables - variables whose attributes have ranks but have no distance. Attributes can be ordered.
Example, year level
Interval variables - comprise variables whose attributes have ranks and distance, but have no absolute
zero point. The distance between attributes does have meaning. Example, IQ, Temperature.
Ratio variables- comprise variables whose attributes have ranks, distance, and absolute zero point.
Examples are age
123. A noun that stands for variation within a class of objects. It varies across subcategories. These
subcategories are called attributes.
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
E. Variable Ans: E
124. It is the variable that is expected to affect another variable. This is classified as the cause.
A. Independent
B. Dependent
C. Moderating
125. It is a sampling design that gives equal probability or chance to each item or individual in the
population of being selected in the study.
A. Probability sampling
B. Non-probability sampling
C. Sampling
D. Sample Ans: A
126. It is the simplest probability sampling method. One only needs to have a population frame, which is
the complete list or at least the most complete list of the desired population, say, police officers in Region,
and a random numbers table to facilitate the random selection of police officers to whom a survey is
conducted.
A. Simple random sampling
B. Systematic sampling
C. Stratified sampling
D. Multistage cluster sampling Ans: A
127. It is a popular alternative to simple random sampling. It affords the ease and efficiency in selecting the
elements of the sample, and is sometimes called as “pseudo-random” selection. It is a probability sampling
method where researchers select members of the population at a regular interval – for example, by selecting
every 15th person on a list of the population
D. Multistage cluster sampling Ans: B
128. This method is often used to collect data from a large, geographically spread group of people in national
surveys, for example.
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D. Multistage cluster sampling Ans: D
129. The researcher selects respondents who are nearest to him or available to him; and, thus, affords him
with the ease of selecting respondents but at the risk of not achieving representativeness of the sample.
B. Snowball sampling
C. Quota sampling
D. Convenience sampling Ans: D
130. Also known as judgmental, selective, or subjective sampling, is a form of non-probability sampling in which
researchers rely on their own judgment when choosing members of the population to participate in their
surveys.
B. Snowball sampling
C. Quota sampling
D. Convenience sampling Ans: A
131. Which of the following statistical methods is used in calculating the difference of means among at
least three groups? For example, What is the difference among college year levels in terms of engagement
in alcohol drinking?
A. T-test
B. ANOVA
C. Chi-square
D. Pearson correlation Ans: B
132. In order to preserved the confidentiality of the identities of the participants especially on studies that
involve sensitive information, after the study, the audio recordings containing the interview should be:
A. Destroyed
B. Kept in the office
C. Given to the adviser
D. Assigned with a serial number Ans: A
133. Boys feel hostility and jealousy towards their fathers but know their father is more powerful. This
refers to:
A. Electra complex
B. Oedipus complex
C. Human disorder
D. Abnormal behavior Ans: B
134. Which of the following is marked by periods of feeling disconnected or detached from one's body and
thoughts? The disorder is sometimes described as feeling like you are observing yourself from outside
your body or like being in a dream.
A. Human adjustment disorder
B. Depersonalization
C. Neurosis
D. Stress Ans: B
135. What disciplinary measure, do you think, will most likely produce discontentment and grievance?
A. Unusual strictness
B. Inconsistent administration
C. Severity of punishment
D. Impersonal attitude Ans: B
136. Justice according to the Supreme Court is symbolically represented by a blindfolded woman holding
a sword and with a balance, meaning it is?
A. Administered with respect to persons
B. Administered without respect to persons, equality to poor and the rich
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C. Administered without respect to persons. Equality to poor people
D. Administered with respect to persons, Equality and Treatment Ans: D
137. It is defined as the wise use of one’s judgment, common sense and personal experience in deciding.
A. Discretion
B. Decision making
C. Problem solving
138. The basic weapon of a police officer is?

A. Gun
B. Uniform
C. Whistle
D. Knowledge of the law Ans: D
139. The form of child abuse that can range from habitual humiliation of the child to withholding life-
sustaining nurturing refers to –
A. Mental abuse
B. Emotional abuse
C. Physical abuse
D. Economic abuse Ans: B
140. He advocated a system of classifying criminals according to bodily measurements. Because human
skeleton is unchangeable after the twentieth year and because no two individuals are alike in all
dimensions; this method of identification received prominence in 1880’s.
A. Alphonse Bertillon
B. Charles Darwin
C. Cesar Lombroso
D. Charles Goring Ans: A
141. The theory which states that police officers who know the wrongdoing of another police officer will
not take action against them or provide information against them to investigators.
A. Code of ethical standards
B. Code of Secrecy
C. Blue wall of silence
D. Omerta Ans: C
142. Under this ethical standard, the PNP member shall take legitimate means to achieve goals despite of
internal and external difficulties.
A. Perseverance
B. Humility
C. Orderliness
D. Integrity Ans: A
143. Which of the following should not released to the press by the police officer?
A. Length of investigation
B. Juveniles age
C. Juveniles name
D. Type of crime committed Ans: C
144. What is meant by victimless crime?

A. There is no victim
B. There is no complaining Victim
C. The victim is dead
D. The victim knows the suspect Ans: B
145. Who constitutes the Holy Three in Criminology?
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A. Cesare Lombroso, Cesare Beccaria, and Raffaele Garofalo
B. Raffaele Garofalo, Emile Durkhiem, and Cesare Lombroso
C. Cesare Lombroso, Enrico, Ferri, and Raffaele Garofalo
D. Raffaele Garofalo, William Sheldon, and Sigmund Freud Ans: C
146. According to Adolphe Quetelet, crimes against property increases during __________.
A. Summer
B. Winter
C. Night time
D. All of the above Ans: B
147. It is term as the relationship between the victim and the offender.
A. Penal couple
B. Brotherhood
C. Married couple
148. Sexual deviation is attained in this deviant behavior by watching nude man or woman.
A. Exhibitionism
B. Transvertism
C. Voyeurism
D. Fetishism Ans: C
149. A behavior pattern where an individual return to a state of form adjustment and attempt to
experience them again in memory.
A. Anger
B. Phobia
C. Regression
D. Frustration Ans: C
150. The promulgation of the Code of Kalantiaw was in what year?

A. 1433
B. 1444
C. 1434
D. 1435 Ans: A
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FORENSIC SCIENCE
1. One of the major parts of a polygraph is a galvanograph which records the skin resistance of the subject
to a very small amount of electricity. To check and detect skin resistance towards a small amount of
electricity, the galvanograph metal plate is attached on the subject`s fingers primarily the:
A. Thumb and ring finger
B. Index and ring finger
C. Middle and little finger
D. Thumb and little finger Ans: B
2. To aid in the interpretation, the polygraph examiner utilized chart markings and symbols which are
reflected on the polygraph paper. The symbol XX in the polygram means:
A. Beginning or start of the test
B. End of the test
C. Subject has two negative answers
D. Polygraph encountered mechanical malfunction Ans: B
3. In forensic ballistics, which of the following instruments is used in measuring the pitch of riflings?
A. Bullet comparison microscope
B. Onoscope
C. Analytical balance
D. Helixometer Ans: D
4. Which of the following is a ridge that divides into two branches and meets again to form a single ridge?
A. Bifurcation
B. Diverging ridge
C. Type lines
D. Lake/enclosure Ans: D
5. In this type of cartridge, the diameter of the rim is equal to the body of the cartridge case.
A. Rimmed type
B. Semi-rimmed type
C. Rimless type
D. Rebated type Ans: C
6. ACE-V method is considered as the most common method of fingerprint examination worldwide. ACE-V
stands for:
A. Analysis, comparison, evaluation, verification
B. Authentication, comparison, evaluation, validation
C. Assessment, compatibility, evaluation, validation
D. Acquire, compare, evaluate, verify Ans: A
7. Which of the following is a bullet that have soft lead core inside a jacket and are used against person?
This is the original terminology for bullet. This is intended for anti-personnel and general use.
A. Ball bullets
B. Armor piercing bullets
C. Incendiary bullets
D. Tracer bullet Ans: A
8. Forgery is punishable under:

A. Special laws
B. Ordinance
C. Philippine Constitution
D. Revised Penal Code Ans: D
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9. Which of the following is the BEST remedy in case of split thumb having two nails or fingers are webbed and grown
together making it impossible to roll the fingers?
A. Use a separate fingerprint card blocks in rolling the split or webbed fingers.
B. Print it in the usual manner just like any normal thumb and make a notation at the back of the card.
C. Print the split or webbed finger normally and place a notation “AMP” in the fingerprint block
D. Rolled the split or webbed finger towards the body of the subject to prevent smudging of prints
Ans: B
10. In fingerprint, the final classification is derived from the ridge count of a loop pattern appearing on:
A. Right little finger
B. Left little finger
C. First loop that appears on the fingers of the right hand
D. First loop that appears on the fingers of the left hand Ans: A
11. When it comes to fired shells, the following are the areas where the investigator have to put his marks,
EXCEPT:
A. Near the mouth of the fired shell
B. Inside the mouth of the fired shell
C. Base of the fired shell
D. On the body near the mouth of the fired shell Ans: C
12. Which of the following is an art or science which deals with the reproduction of images through the
action of light upon sensitized materials, with the aid of images forming device and the chemical
processes involved therein?
A. Photography
B. Police Photography
C. Forensic Photography
D. Commercial Photography Ans: A
Note: Police Photography- deals with the study of the principles of photography, the preparation of
photographic evidence and application to police work
Forensic Photography- the art or science of photographically documenting a crime scene and evidence for
laboratory examination and analysis for purposes of court trial.
Commercial Photography- photographs to illustrate and usually sell service or product.
13. What is the general rule in taking photographs at the crime scene?
A. Take many photographs
B. Take photographs only on crime-related evidence
C. Take many photographs using available films
D. Take photographs of items relevant to the crime under investigation Ans: A
14. A private document may become a public or official document when it partakes the nature of a public or
official record. If a private document is intended to become a part of the public record and falsified prior
thereto, the crime committed is:
A. Perjury of public document
B. Falsification of a public document
C. Forgery of public document
D. Alteration or fraud Ans: B
15. Which of the following is NOT a legal definition of document?

A. any material which contains marks, symbols or signs, either visible, partially visible, or invisible that
may presently or ultimately convey a meaning or message to someone.
B. Any written document by which a right is established or an obligation is extinguished
C. Every deed or instrument executed by person by whom some disposition or agreement is proved,
evidenced or set forth
D. any physical embodiment of information of ideas such as contract, a receipt, a book of account, or a
blue print Ans: A
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16. Notarization is the act that ensures the public that the provisions in the document express the true
agreement between the parties. It converts a private document to a public document and renders it
admissible in court without further proof of:
A. Authenticity
B. Admissibility
C. Probable cause
D. Substantiality for court presentation Ans: A
17. The following are characteristics of a camera EXCEPT:

A. It is a light tight box
B. Is primarily an instrument for holding the film
C. Keeps the film in darkness
D. Light sensitive Ans: D
Note: The light sensitive material refers to the film

18. It is the smallest and the simplest type of camera that is usually made of simple lens located at its
peephole. It has an inherent defect known as parallax error.
A. Single lens reflex type
B. Twin lens reflex type
C. Viewfinder type
D. Press camera type Ans: C
19. When can a material be considered as a public document?

A. When issued by a public agency
B. When the document is deposited in any government agency
C. When notarized
D. When certain agreement is reflected on the material Ans: C
20. There are two divisions of questioned document examination. The first one is Criminalistic Examination
which involves the detection of forgery, erasure, alteration or obliteration of documents. The second is
Handwriting Investigation /Analysis- more focused in determining the:
A. Author of the writing
B. Fraud or deception committed in the document
C. Deception
D. Forgery and fraud Ans: A
21. Questioned or disputed holographic wills is one of the general classes of questioned documents. Which of
the following BEST defines a holographic will?
A. Document completely written, prepared and signed by the person himself without the assistance of
any person even a lawyer.
B. Document prepared and executed with the assistance of abled persons, lawyers, or immediate family
members.
C. Document whose signature is executed because of coercion or by force by another individual
D. Document which contains agreement between two parties Ans: A
22. Which of the following refers to an interruption of a writing stroke cause by the removal of pen from the
paper?
A. Pen lift
B. Initial stroke
C. Terminal stroke
D. Retrace Ans: A
23. A sound or noise created at the muzzle end of the gun.
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A. Muzzle Energy
B. Muzzle blast
C. Trajectory
D. Range Ans: B
24. Upon arrival at the crime scene you saw the victim lying on his bed with blood oozing from his body.
After observation and thorough search, you obtained the following evidences and observations: one
gunshot wound at head, undisturbed surrounding, printed suicidal note with the victim`s signature,
history of depression as reflected in his facebook account, and a jungle knife held tightly by the hand of
the victim. Is the case suicidal or homicidal? Which of the following evidences will tell you that the case is
homicidal or suicidal?
A. Homicidal. This is supported by the history of depression as reflected in his facebook account.
B. Suicidal. Evidences that will support this claim are one gunshot wound at head, undisturbed
surrounding, printed suicidal note with the victim`s signature, and the history of depression as
reflected in his facebook account.
C. Homicidal. This claim is supported by the jungle knife held tightly by the hand of the victim.
D. Suicidal. All evidences supports that the incident in the crime scene being subjected for investigation
is suicidal.
Ans: C
25. Which of the following BEST describes the difference between a hang-fire and a misfire?
A. Hang-fire is the delay of explosion of the gunpowder after the firing pin hits the primer while misfire
is the failure of the cartridge to explode after the firing pin strikes the primer.
B. Hang-fire is the failure of the cartridge to explode after the firing pin strikes the primer while misfire
is the delay of explosion of the gunpowder after the firing pin hits the primer.
C. Hang-fire is the failure of the cartridge to explode after the primer is hit by the firing pin while
misfire is the failure of the priming mixture and the gunpowder to explode causing the failure of the
creation of pressure inside the cartridge case.
D. Hang-fire is the delay of the explosion inside the cartridge case when the priming mixture failed to
undergo the process of combustion while misfire is the result of the failure of the firing pin to hit the
primer. Ans: A
26. The following are subject studies of exterior or external ballistics, EXCEPT:
A. the curved path in the horizontal flight of the bullet which usually occurred a few meters away from
the muzzle of the firearm.
B. energy generated at the muzzle end whenever the cartridge explodes from the firearm.
C. the straight distance from the muzzle of the gun to the target
D. the speed of the bullet upon hitting the target which is express in foot per second Ans: D
Note: Speed of bullet upon hitting the target is known as terminal velocity under terminal ballistics
27. Are those characteristics marking that are determinable even prior to the manufacture of the firearms.
These are factory specifications and within the control of man.
A. Class characteristics
B. Individual characteristics
C. Firearm/arm characteristics
D. Unique characteristics of firearms Ans: A
28. Primary classification is assigning numerical values on whorls appearing in:

A. Both thumbs
B. both index fingers
C. all fingers
D. little fingers of both hands Ans: C
Note: Numerical Patterns- these are patterns belonging to the whorl family which contains numerical values.
The value varies depending upon what finger the pattern appears.
Non-Numerical Patterns- these are patterns which belongs to the Arch and Loop groups which has zero (0)
value in the primary classification.
29. If right index finger is a plain arch, and the left index finger is a tented arch, the secondary classification
is:
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A. P/T
B. A/T
C. A/A
D. PA/TA Ans: B
30. Final classification in the ridge count of a loop pattern appearing in what finger?
A. Index
B. Middle
C. Ring
D. Little Ans: D
Note: Final Classification- It is the classification derived from the ridge count of a loop pattern appearing on
the right little finger.
31. If the imaginary line drawn between the delta and the core passes a bifurcation in its forking point, how
much is the ridge count?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 Ans: 2
32. It is the part of a polygraph machine which records the changes of breathing of the subject.
A. Cardiosphymograph
B. Galvanograph
C. Kymograph
D. Pneumograph Ans: D
33. Which of the following is the science which deals with the study of the identification of palm prints?
A. Poroscopy
B. Chiroscopy
C. Podoscopy
D. Dactyloscopy Ans: B
Note: Podoscopy-science that deals with the study of the sole- the bottom part of the foot.
Poroscopy-study of the arrangement and shape of the pores
Dactyloscopy - refers to the examination,identification and comparison of fingerprints
34. There are four kinds of handwriting movements: finger movement, hand movement, forearm movement,
and whole forearm movement. Writing on a wall using a paint brush involves:
A. Finger movement
B. Hand movement
C. Forearm movement
D. Whole forearm movement Ans: D
35. Rhythm in handwriting is the succession of connected, uniform strokes in full coordination. This is
manifested by clear-cut accentuated strokes which increase and decrease in which like perfect cones.
Rhythm in handwriting is crucial in Questioned document examination because:
A. It can show whether the author writes with hesitation or with smoothness
B. It determines the degree of the slanting of all letters in a handwriting
C. It detects how fast the author writes
D. It shows the size and proportion of the letters Ans: A
36. Which of the following is NOT a common handwriting disguise?

A. Change of slant
B. Using wrong hand in writing
C. Change of font style
D. Using own style of writing Ans: D
37. 32 over 32 in the primary classification would indicate that the fingerprint patterns are:
A. All Whorls
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B. All Arches
C. 1 finger with Radial Loop and 9 with whorl patterns
D. 2 fingers are whorl patterns and 8 with loop patterns Ans: A
38. A type of film that is sensitive to ultra-violet rays and blue color only.
A. Orthochromatic
B. Blue sensitive film
C. Panchromatic film
D. Infrared film Ans: B
Note: Orthochromatic film-sensitive to UV rays, to blue and green color.

Panchromatic film-sensitive to UV radiation to blue, green, and red light or all colors.
Infra-red film-sensitive to UV rays, to blue, green, red light and infrared rays.
39. When is the right time for a photographer to move the objects at the crime scene?
A. After the photographer already photographed everything
B. After noting and there is a need to move the different objects.
C. After the team leader signaled him to move objects
D. After the investigator told him to do so. Ans: B
40. Branch of Metallurgy that involves the microstructures of metals and alloys.
A. Metallography
B. Alloygraphy
C. macro etching
D. micro etching Ans: A
41. . The consent along with the appraisal of the constitutional rights of the subject shall be conducted by the
polygraph examiner at what phase of the polygraph examination?
A. Pre-test interview
B. Instrument examination
C. Post-test interview
D. Interview with the Investigator Ans: A
42. Which of the following BEST illustrates terminal energy?

A. Person “A” the victim of a shooting incident suffered one gunshot wound to the head with estimated
depth of entry of 2 inches. The wound was presumed to be the cause of the victim`s death.
B. Person “A” got hit by several bullets but was able to manage alive. Reports from the physician, shows
Person “A” being hit at the lower torso, feet, and left hand. Victim filed a frustrated murder case
against the assailant.
C. Person “A” was killed in a shooting incident. Autopsy reports reflect 3 gunshot wounds; one was on
the head with estimated wide of o.8 inches; two, was on the right hand that amputates his thumb,
index, and ring fingers; and three, was on his lower abdomen.
D. Person “A” was shot by Person “B” with a .45 caliber firearm. A shell of the said caliber was recovered
from the crime scene. Ballistic examination shows that the shell recovered from the crime scene
came from the suspected firearm seized from the alleged perpetrator.
Ans: A
Note: Terminal Energy- the energy of the bullet when it strikes the target. This refers to the fatal equivalent of
a bullet when it struck the victim
43. Once the bullet leaves from the muzzle of the firearm, it follows a specific path or direction. For instance,
the bullet may travel from point “A” and hits to point “B” depending on where the muzzle is pointed by
the shooter. That curved path in the horizontal flight of the bullet which usually occurred a few meters
away from the muzzle of the firearm is the:
A. Pathway
B. Trajectory
C. Velocity
D. Muzzle blast Ans: B
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44. He developed the so called Word Association Test, whereby the subject is presented with group of words
sufficiently separated in time to allow the patient to utter his first thought generated by each word.
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Leonarde Keeler
C. Francis Galton
D. William Moulton Marston Ans: C
Note: Cesare Lombroso-he employed the first instrument to detect deception which is known as
HYDROSPHYMOGRAPH.
William Moulton Marston- he is considered as the Father of Modern Polygraphy. He dealt with the
sphygmomanometer and made researches on its use in the detection of lies.
Leonarde Keeler- he invented the "Keeler Polygraph" which is an improvement of Larson's apparatus. He also
devised metal bellows and designed a kymograph.
45. It refers to the major component of a polygraph machine which records the skin of the subject to a very
small amount of electricity.
A. Galvanograph and Pneumograph
B. Galvanograph skin resistance
C. Galvanographic component
D. Galvanograph Ans: D
46. In the fingerprint classification line, the order should be:

A. Primary, secondary, subsecondary, major, key final
B. Final, key, major, subsecondary, primary, secondary
C. Key, major, primary, secondary, subsecondary, final
D. Subsecondary, major, final, key, primary, secondary Ans: C
47. Polygraph examination can be administered without the voluntary consent of the subject. This statement
is:
A. True, as long as the subject has been legally arrested
B. True, when the subject has been incriminated with the commission of crime
C. False, voluntary consent must be acquired prior to polygraph exam
D. False, voluntary consent is required as waiver on the right to be presumed innocent Ans: A
48. Upon careful examination, Police Lieutenant Juan de Agua a Forensic Ballistician found out that the fired
bullet recovered from the crime scene has the same markings with the tests bullets from the Bullet
Recovery Box. Police Lieutenant Juan de Agua can conclude that:
A. The recovered bullet and the test bullets have the same measurement in size.
B. The recovered bullet and the test bullets have the same characteristics and are admissible as prima
facie evidence
C. The recovered bullet and the test bullets can be used as evidence in court to prove the guilt of the
suspect.
D. The recovered bullet and the test bullets came from one and of the same firearm. Ans: D
49. These are firearms which propel projectiles more than one inch in diameter. Best examples of this are,
cannon, mortar, and bazooka. Under the study of ballistics, this firearms are classified as:
A. Artillery
B. Small Arms
C. Smooth Bore Firearm
D. Rifled Firearms Ans: A
50. When the film in the camera is strucked with light, it becomes;
A. Exposed
B. Light sensitive
C. Negative
D. Developed Ans: A
51. When a pistol is used in the commission of a crime, usually the empty shell___.
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A. Remains at the chamber of the gun
B. Disposed by the perpetrator
C. Cannot be found at the crime scene
D. Is found in the crime scene Ans: D
52. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an odd or uneven number of rods rising high as the
shoulder, the core is placed:
A. on the end point of the center rod.
B. At the first rod nearest to the delta
C. the second rod
D. At the last rod farthest from the delta Ans: A
53. These are direct questions having an extreme and specific relationship to the crime under investigation
and these are primary or key questions asked by the examiner in order to solve a specific issue. Example:
"Between 8:00am to 8:30 am of September 13, 2014, did you open the drawer of Mr. Peter Ong?"
A. Relevant Question
B. Irrelevant Question
C. Knowledge Question
D. Evidence Connecting Question Ans: A
54. In fingerprint identification, when the innermost sufficient recurve contains an even number of rods
rising high as the shoulder, the core is determined by:
A. locating the two center rods and choose the rod farthest from the delta as your core
B. locating the two center rods and choose the rod nearest to the delta as your core
C. choosing the rod farthest from the delta and make it as your core
D. choose the rod nearest to the delta and make it as the core of the pattern Ans:A
55. The minute details of the fingerprints must be identical. This means that the ridge details being compared
must be of the same length, position, type, and shape.
A. Global Pattern Configuration
B. Qualitative Concordance
C. Quantitative Concordance
Note: Global Pattern Configuration - it means that the standard fingerprint and the questioned document are
of the same type.
Quantitative Concordance - this refers to the total number of identical ridge details that are present in the two
fingerprint impressions being compared.
56. In ACE-V method of fingerprint examination, the examiner analyzes the characteristics of the fingerprints (the
physical features such as recurves, deltas, creases, and scars). He identifies conformities between the found and the
known latent prints. Known prints are often collected from victims; others present at the scene or through a search
of one or more fingerprint databases such as the FBI’s Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System
(IAFIS).
A. Analysis
B. Comparison
C. Evaluation
D. Verification Ans: B
57. The stage in ACE-V where the examiner decides if the prints are from the same source (identification or
individualization), different sources (exclusion), or are inconclusive.
A. Analysis
B. Comparison
C. Evaluation
D. Verification Ans: C
58. If opposite fingers are both amputated, both are given the classification of:
A. whorls with meeting (M) tracings
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B. whorls with no value
C. radial loops with ridge count of three
D. no classifications Ans: A
59. It includes the inability of a lens to image straight lines as straight on the edges of the film as where they
appear to barrel out.
A. Spherical aberration
B. Astigmatism
C. Chromatic aberration
D. Distortions Ans: D
Note: Spherical Aberration - When light passing through near the central part of a converging lens is bended
more sharply than those rays falling in the edge, thus the rays coming from the edges are focused on a plane
nearer the lens than those coming from the central part.
Astigmatism - This defect is present when the size of image produced by photographic rays of one wavelength
is different from the size produced by another.
Chromatic Aberration - This defect is the inability of the lens to photographic rays of different wavesesugihan
the same focus.
60. In polygraph test, which of the following is a sign or symbol that signifies beginning or the start of the
test?
A. X
B. XX
C. / //
D. + Ans: A
Note: xx- end of the test

///-when the question is asked, this mark is placed on the chart below the cardio tracing. Single line indicates
the beginning of the question, while double line indicates the ending of the question.
+-the subject answers the question with a "yes"
61. A person who will undergo a polygraph test must refrain from drinking alcoholic beverages, taking
sedatives, or capsules, for at least how many hours prior to the test?
A. 10 hours
B. 23 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 6 hours Ans: C
62. In paraffin test, the paraffin wax is applied to the hands of the suspect with the use of a paintbrush. After
drying the solid crust, the paraffin wax is removed and undergo diphenylamine test using a chemical
reagent. Positive reaction of nitrates is indicated when what color would appear?
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Yellow Ans: B
63. Picking a revolver or pistol from the crime scene should be done by:
A. Picking the firearm by using both hands covered with gloves
B. Placing a wire or string through the trigger guard
C. Using a clean cloth and wrapping it on the barrel or frame of the firearm
D. Tying the frame with a rope or string Ans: B
64. If a Tented Arch appears in the left thumb, the value under primary classification is:
A. 0
B. 16
C. 8
D. 2 Ans: A
65. Which of the following is a test which is conducted to find out if the specimen collected at the crime scene
is blood?
A. Preliminary test
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B. Confirmatory test
C. Precipitin test
D. Blood grouping Ans: A
66. Which of the following is a test conducted to know whether the blood collected from the crime scene is of
human or of the animal?
A. Preliminary test
B. Confirmatory test
C. Precipitin test
D. Blood grouping Ans: C
67. Hair is a specialized outgrowth of the skin which occur everywhere on the human body except on the
palm of the hands and the sole of the feet. Which of the following parts of the hair shaft which can tell
whether the hair is human or animal hair?
A. Medulla
B. Cortex
C. Cuticle
D. Core Ans: C
Note: Cortex – tells the race of the hair whether Negroid, Caucasian or Mongoloid.
Medulla or core – tells whether the hair belongs to male or female.
68. This generally refers to the type of cardio, pneumo, and galvo tracings produced by the subject's body on
a moving chart paper prior to the insertions of relevant questions. This may also refer to the normal
tracings produced by the subject.
A. Response
B. Norm
C. Deviation from the norms
D. Fluctuations of the tracings Ans: B
69. In the Major Division, the ridge count should start at:
A. Left thumb
B. Right thumb
C. Left hand
D. Right hand Ans: A
70. This refers to a gap occurring between continuous strokes without lifting the pen. Such as occurrence
usually occurs due to speed.
A. Hiatus/Pen Jump
B. Hook
C. Hump
D. Knob Ans: A
Note: Hook-it is a minute curve or an ankle which often occurs at the end of the terminal strokes. It is also
sometimes occur at the beginning of an initial stroke. The terminal curves of the letters "a", "d", "n", "m", "p",
"u', are the hook.
Hump- upper portion of its letter "m", "n", "h", "k". The rounded outside of the top of the bend stroke or curve
in small letter.
Knob- the extra deposit of ink in the initial and terminal stroke due to the slow withdrawal of the pen from
the paper. (usually applicable to fountain pen)
71. These questions are intended to identify and assess the occurrence of outside issues that might restrain
subject's responses to the relevant questions. Example: "Are you now convinced that I will not ask you
any question aside from the questions that we have reviewed?"
A. Symptomatic Questions
B. DYAT Questions
C. SKY Questions
D. Knowledge Questions Ans: A
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72. It is made by writing or placing in the provided space below the rolled impression, a symbol or a letter
that correspond the pattern. It also include the placing of the ridge count for loop patterns and ridge trace
for whorl patterns in the upper right corner of the blocks of rolled impression.
A. Filing
B. Classification
C. Blocking out
D. None of the Above Ans: C
73. The name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of acknowledgement. Or, it is a name or
mark that a person puts at the end of a document to attest that he is its author or that he ratifies its
contests.
A. Signature
B. Received
C. Notations
D. Document seal Ans:A
74. From especially selected water grasses found in Egypt, Armenia and along the shores of the Persian Gulf,
were prepared by leaving them under dung heaps for several months. It was the first writing tool that
had the writing end slightly frayed like a brush.
A. Quill Pen
B. Steel Point Pen
C. Fountain Pen
D. Reed Pen Ans: D
75. It is the process of producing a finished photograph or picture from a negative.

A. Development
B. Printing
C. Photographic prints
D. Enlarging Ans: B
76. Which of the following lenses is BEST suitable in clandestine operations such as tailing or undercover
activities? this lens can be used in a considerable distance without arousing suspicion.
A. Normal lens
B. Wide angle lens
C. Telephoto lens
D. Any of the aforementioned Ans: C
77. The most important and reliable indicator of deception is the stimulus response and when such response
occurs in two or more charts, these response are referred to as:
A. Norms
B. Deviations
C. Response
D. Specific response Ans: D
78. Which of the following is a faithful reproduction of an impression with the use of casting materials? It is
admitted that it cannot reproduce all characteristics of an object under all circumstances but whatever is
missing in it can be supplied by the photograph.
A. Imprint
B. Moulage
C. Casting
D. Impression Ans: B
79. It is a fluid used to restore tampered serial numbers. The type of choice depends on the structures of the
metal bearing the original numbers.
A. Etching fluids
B. Metal fluid
C. Aluminum/metal recovery fluids
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D. Mettalurgy chemical Ans: A
80. A branch of science that treats of the form and quantity of medicine to be administered within a certain
period.
A. Posology
B. Petrography
C. Toxicology
D. Biology Ans: A
Note: Petrography- is the branch of geology that deals with the systematic classification and identification of
rocks, rock forming minerals and soils.
Toxicology-study of posions
81. Refers to a something wrong in time and in place; the forger has trouble matching the paper, ink, or
writing materials to the exact date it was supposed to have been written.
A. Heliography
B. Anachronism
C. holographic
D. questioned will Ans: B
82. It is a fingerprint pattern which is a combination of two or more different patterns with the exception of
the plain arch, and two or more deltas.
A. Plain Whorl
B. Central Pocket Loop Whorl
C. Accidental Whorl
D. Double Loop Whorl Ans: C
83. In cases when there is a distortion arises on the general question test, card or third test, this test is
administered before the mixed question test. This is performed by giving the instruction to the subject to
answer "yes" to all questions to be asked.
A. Yes Test
B. Guilt complex test
C. Peak of tension test
D. One answer test Ans: A
84. It is pattern which contains the same characteristics of the Radial Loop, except that its downward
opening points from the thumb towards the little finger of either hand.
A. Plain Arch
B. Tented Arch
C. Radial Loop
D. Ulnar Loop Ans: D
85. The following are requirements for a pattern to be considered as a loop, EXCEPT:
A. At least 1 ridge that crosses or touches the imaginary line drawn between the core and the delta
B. At least 1 circuiting ridge the crosses or touches the imaginary line drawn between the left delta and
the right delta
C. Must have a core
D. Must have a delta Ans: B
86. A name applied to all homemade guns. This class of gun found to have a clever mechanism most are
effective weapon.
A. Gustav Gun
B. Zip Gun
C. Paltik firearm
D. Danao-made firearm Ans: B
87. It is the tapered or curved part of the bullet, beyond the bearing surface, towards the tip of the bullet. It is
one of the parts of the bullet where you can place your markings.
A. Ogive
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B. Point
C. Shoulder
D. Base Ans: A
88. This refers to the first test in the Relevant/Irrelevant Technique. This consists of sequence of relevant,
irrelevant, and control questions asked in designed order. First and second of its questions are irrelevant
to the case.
A. Card or Number Test
B. Mixed Question Test
C. Spot Responders Test
D. General Question Test Ans: D
89. What must be prepared in order to assure that there can be another available photographs in case the
exposed film will be lost?
A. Take backup pictures in a backup exposed film.
B. Photograph the crime scene again if in case the exposed film is lost.
C. Go back to the crime scene and have it undisturbed until you can photograph it again
D. Explain to the judge that you lost the film. Issue an affidavit. Ans: A
90. In fingerprint patterns, if a loop lacks one requirement, it becomes a:

A. Radial loop
B. Ulnar loop
C. Plain arch
D. Tented arch Ans: D
91. The symbol "PJ" in polygraphy signifies:
A. Paper Jam
B. Post Judgment
C. Pre-Judgment
D. Polygraph joiner Ans: A
92. In tracing the type lines, if the ridge bifurcates, the tracing shall continue in what branch of bifurcation?
A. Lower
B. Upper
C. stop the tracing
D. No tracing Ans: B
93. The investigator should mark his initials, or the initials of the victim on the ____recovery. of the bullet
together with the corresponding date of:
A. Ogive
B. Nose
C. Base
D. Any of the aforementioned Ans: D
94. He was an Italian physiologist who was accorded for developing the galvanic skin reflex (GSR) or the
galvanometer, which recorder electrical bodily resistance in terms of ohms, the lowest current ever
recorded.
A. Leonarde Keeler
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Vittorio Benussi
D. Luigi Galvani Ans: D
Note: Leonarde Keeler- invented the "Keeler Polygraph" which is an improvement of Larson's apparatus.
Cesare Lombroso- he employed the first instrument to detect deception known as HYDROSPHYMOGRAPH
Vittorio Benussi- he detected deception with a pneumograph, an instrument that graphically measures
inhalation and exhalation.
95. The forger signs in the absence of the facsimile of the genuine signature.
A. Simple Forgery
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B. Traced Forgery
C. Simulated Forgery
Note: Traced Forgery- Is the result of an attempt to transfer to a fraudulent document an exact facsimile of a
genuine signature or writing by some tracing process.
Simulated Forgery (Copied Signature)- The forger simulate the genuine signature or handwriting.
96. Those which are given or made upon the request of an investigator for purpose of making comparative
examination with the request writing.
A. Procured
B. Collected
C. Requested
D. Standard Ans: C
97. Generally, the success in the photography, recognition, search, collection, handling, preservation and
documentation of evidence in narcotic investigation rest upon:
A. The quantity and quality of evidence.
B. The quality of the witnesses gathered.
C. The quality of people involved in the crime scene investigation activity.
D. The weight of evidences being collected that can easily pinpoint the perpetrator. Ans: C
98. In order for the tracing be considered as an indication of deception, the response must appear in:
A. At least 3 tracings of the chart
B. At least one tracing of the chart
C. At least 2 tracings of the chart
D. At least 4 tracings Ans: C
99. A single ridge which splits into two forming a "Y" formation or structure is commonly known as
A. Diverging ridges
B. Bifurcating ridges
C. Lake or enclosure
D. Type lines Ans: B
100. Primer is the metal cup containing a highly sensitive priming mixture of chemical compound, which
when hit or struck by the firing pin would ignite and detonate. The action when the firing pin hits the
primer that cause ignition is referred to as:
A. The percussion
B. The preciseness
C. The striking
D. The detonation Ans: A
101. The person who invented the Bullet Comparison Microscope and is known as the father of modern
ballistics is:
A. John Browning
B. Calvin H. Goddard
C. David Carbine
D. Alexander Forsyth Ans: B
Note: John M. Browning- Wizard of Modern Firearms.

David Carbine Williams- invented the carbine firearm.
Alexander John Forsyth- father of Percussion ignition.
102. For a subject to qualify in a polygraph examination, he must have a goodnight sleep for at least how
many hours prior to the test?
A. 6 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 7 hours Ans: C
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103. If a document is notarized by a notary public or competent public official with solemnities required
by law, it becomes a:
A. Public Document
B. Official Document
C. Notarized Document
D. Commercial Document Ans: A
104. This is one of the types of lie which is purely used to mislead justice, a pure dishonesty to obstruct
justice.
A. Malicious/judicious lie
B. Red lie
C. White lie
D. Direct Denial Ans: A
Note: White Lie/Benign lie- a lie used to maintain harmony of friendship of the home or office.
Red lie- this is a lie used to destroy other ideologies by means of propaganda.
Direct Denial- this is a direct denial of the act in question that creates an emotional sense of disturbance.
105. Which of the following is a pointed instrument used to mark fired bullets, fired shells, metallic
fragments and firearms?
A. Stylus
B. Onoscope
C. Helixometer
D. Chronograph Ans: A
106. It is a general rule that in every technique of a polygraph examination the first question must always
be _____ to the case.
A. Control question
B. Relevant
C. Irrelevant
D. Knowledge question Ans: C
107. If the following appear in front of the pint of divergence, which of them should you select as your
delta?
A. First recurving ridge
B. Bifurcation
C. Ridge dot
D. Ridge ending Ans: B
108. Ammunition or cartridge is a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, cartridge case, gunpowder,
and a:
A. Firing pin
B. Trigger
C. Paper
D. Primer Ans: D
109. In the primary classification, if a whorl pattern appears in the middle finger of the right hand how
much is the value?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2 Ans: B
110. In the primary classification the fifth pair are:

A. Right thumb and right index
B. Left index and left middle finger
C. Right thumb and left thumb
D. Left ring finger and left little Ans: D
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Note:
First Pair--Right Thumb & Right Index
Second Pair--Right Middle & Right Ring Finger
Third Pair--Right Little Finger & Left Thumb
Fourth Pair--Left Index & Left Middle Finger
Fifth Pair--Left Ring Finger & Left Little Finger
First Pair--if a whorl appears, the value is 16

Second Pair-if a whorl appears, the value is 8
Third Pair--if a whorl appears, the value is-4
Fourth Pair--if a whorl appears, the value is-2
Fifth Pair-- if a whorl appears, the value is 1
111. In secondary, subsecondary, and major classifications, which of the following serves as the
numerator?
A. All fingers in the left hand
B. All fingers in the right hand
C. All fingers in the odd number
D. All fingers in the even number Ans: B
112. Handwriting is the result of a very complicated series of acts, being used as whole, combination of
certain forms of visible mental and muscular habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort. This
is also knows as:
A. Painstaking effort
B. Staking effort
C. Visible writing
D. Visible speech Ans: D
113. Does the writing consists of wavering strokes, awkwardness, ill formation, and lack of harmony? This
question is asked when the examiner looks on the___ of the writing.
A. Irregularity
B. Uniformity
C. Scale and proportion
D. Alignment of strokes Ans: A
114. Do the strokes follows straight along the baseline? This question is asked when the examiner looks
on the___ of the writing.
A. Irregularity
B. Uniformity
C. Scale and proportion
D. Alignment of strokes Ans: D
115. Which of the following preliminary test demonstrates an intense blue color which is an indication of
positivity of blood?
A. Benzidine test
B. Guaiacum test
C. Luminal test
D. Phenolphthalein test Ans: A
Note: Phenolphthalein test (Kastle-Meyer test) - Rose color or deep pink or permanganate color.
Guaiacum test (Van Deen or Day’s or Schoinbein Test) - Beautiful blue color
Leucomalahite Test- Bluish green
Luminol Test- Luminescence
116. This is a condition wherein males have no spermatozoa at all in their seminal fluid.
A. Oligospermia
B. Aspermia
C. Sexual organ disorder
D. Spermatozoa Ans: B
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117. What is the distance of firing where the presence of gunpowder tattooing is seldom present?
A. Beyond 36 inches
B. Beyond 50 inches
C. More than 10 meters
D. More than 11 meters Ans: A
118. 3R-G4X means that:

A. The firearm has 3 lands and four grooves with right hand twist of rifling. The distance of the lands is
3 times compared with the grooves.
B. The firearm has four grooves and four lands with left hand twist of rifling. The distance of the lands is
four times compared with the grooves.
C. The firearm has 3 lands and 3 grooves with right hand twist of rifling. The width of the grooves is 4
times the width of the lands.
D. The firearm has 4 lands and 4 grooves with right hand twist of rifling. The width of the grooves is 3
times the width of the lands.
Ans: C
119. In which area of ballistics where the motion and traits of the projectile while still inside the gun
barrel are studied? This covers from the time the firearm is loaded with the cartridge, the explosion and
the movement of the bullet towards the muzzle end of the gun.
A. Interior/Internal Ballistics
B. Interior ballistics
C. Internal ballistics
120. If the marking of the cartridge case is T-42-5, this means that:
A. The cartridge case is a fifth product of a test fire from the firearm whose last two digits of the serial
number is 42.
B. The cartridge case came from a firearm with serial number T-42-5 which signifies the class
characteristics of the said firearm.
C. The cartridge case is a standard specimen whose manufacturer has a registration code of T-42-5
which signifies the code of the location of the manufacturer.
D. Letter “T” signifies Test while 42 indicates the number of rounds a firearms can be effective in range,
while number 5 indicates the actual rounds which the shooter made.
Ans: A
121. Bullets can either be lead or jacketed. The purpose of an ammunition manufacturer in putting a
jacket on the bullet is to:
A. Prevent the adherence of lead inside the firearm barrel and to have a better penetration on the target
B. Prevent misfire and hang fire on the part of the ammunition.
C. Jacketed bullets are easily sold compared to lead bullets which contain low demands.
D. Acquire gyroscopic stability of the bullet and to prevent misfire and hang fire. Ans: A
122. A single projectile in a shotgun shell is called:

A. Slug
B. Pellet
C. Shot
D. Bullet Ans: A
123. How many lands are present if the rifling consists of 7 grooves?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8 Ans: C
124. What is your conclusion if upon examination you found out that the bullet used in the test fire and
the bullet from the crime scene contained different markings?
A. The two bullets came from different firearms
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B. The firearm used in the test fire is not the firearm used in committing the crime
C. The bullet used in the test fire and the bullet recovered at the crime scene were from different
firearms
125. If in rimmed type cartridge the diameter of the rim is wider than the diameter of the its body, rebated
type on the other hand has a rim:
A. That is smaller than the diameter of the body of the shell.
B. That is smaller than the diameter of the bullet.
C. That is bigger than the diameter of the body of the shell.
D. That is bigger than the diameter of its bullet. Ans: B
126. The latest law regulating the use of firearms is:

B. Republic Act 10591
D. Republic Act 6975 Ans: B
127. Considering that upon arrival at the crime scene, Investigator-on-case “A” found the crime already
cordoned and secured by first responders, what shall he do?
A. Initiate preliminary survey and evaluate any physical evidence possibilities
B. Install command post and receive briefing and orientation from first responder
C. Deploy crime scene investigation team inside the crime scene for fast collection of physical evidences
D. Wait for the SOCO to arrive
Ans: B
128. Upon arrival at the crime scene, if the victim is injured and is still alive, when is the right time to
sketch, measure, search, and photograph the crime scene?
A. After the victim is removed for hospitalization.
B. After the dying declaration is obtained
C. If the victim is still alive, there is no need for sketch, measurements, and photographs.
D. If the victim is still alive, photograph him in close up, mid range, and overview. Make necessary
sketch while waiting for the ambulance.
Ans: A
129. Are sometimes called secondary firing pin marks which are found in the primer near the firing pin
mark. It is just a rebound or duplication of the firing pin marks.
A. Shearing marks
B. Ejector marks
C. Magazine lip marks
D. Breechface markings Ans: A
130. When no empty shell is found at the scene of the crime, the presumptions is:
A. A revolver is used
B. An automatic pistol is used
C. The perpetrator attempted to clear any evidence that would link to him
131. What is the best remedy when upon fingerprint taking the fingers of the subject were found to be too
dry?
A. Wash hands with soap
B. Apply cream, oil, or lotion
C. Apply minimal amount of fingerprint ink
D. Record/note in the fingerprint card Ans: B
132. It is a small or short ridge structure that connects 90 degrees (right angle) from one ridge to another.
If it touches between the shoulders of the recurving ridge at a right angle, it spoils the recurve. It must be
in 90 degrees. If it fails to abut in such required degree or fails to connect in between the shoulders of the
looping ridge, then it does not affect the recurve.
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A. Upthrust
B. Appendage
C. Sufficient recurve
D. Rod or spike Ans: B
133. Which of the following ridge characteristics is disqualified to be the delta?

A. Enclosure
B. Ridge dot
C. Abrupt ridge ending
D. Meeting of two ridges Ans: A
134. When there is a choice between a bifurcation and another type of ridge that are of equal distance to the point of
divergence, select the:
A. Bifurcation
B. Select the one that is nearest to the core
C. Select the one that is farthest from the core
D. Select any of the two Ans: A
135. If there are two bifurcations that is at, in front of, or nearest to the center of divergence of the type lines, select
the bifurcation that is:
A. Select any of the two
B. Nearest to the core
C. Farthest from the core
D. Select the bifurcation that opens towards the core Ans: B
136. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains no ending ridge or rod rising as high as the shoulder of the loop,
the core is placed on the shoulder of the loop:
A. Farthest from the delta
B. Nearest from the delta
C. Opens towards the delta
D. Does not open towards the delta Ans: A
137. When the traced ridge is inside or in front of the right delta and two (2) or more ridges cross or touch the
imaginary line drawn between the right delta and the traced ridge, the trace is said to be:
A. Inner
B. Outer
C. Meet
D. Ridge traced Ans: C
138. It is the simplest fingerprint pattern where ridges enters from one side to the other , forming a rise in a center
that resembles like a wave, having no upward thrust, no recurving ridge, no identifiable core, and no delta. It is also
known as “the absence of a pattern”.
A. Plain Arch
B. Tented Arch
C. Plain Whorl
D. Central Pocket Loop Whorl Ans: A
139. In subsecondary classification, if the ridge count of the right index finger is 10, the classification is
said to be:
A. Inner
B. Outer
C. Meet
D. No count Ans: B
140. This division is derived from ridge count and whorl trace of both thumbs. It is reflected at the left
side of the primary classification. The ridge count of loop patterns appearing on the thumb is divided into
three; small, medium, and large. On the other hand, whorl trace is grouped into Inner, Outer, and Meet.
A. Key
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B. Final
C. Major
D. Secondary Ans: C
141. If all fingers are missing at birth or amputated the classification will be:
A. No classification, AMP shall be noted on the card
B. M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
C. M 0 X III MM S
M 0 X III MM S
D. 0 M W 1 MMM
M M W 1 MMM Ans: B
142. Is a device that allows light to pass for a determined period of time, for the purpose of
exposing photographic film or a light-sensitive electronic sensor to light to capture a permanent image of
a scene.
A. Lens
B. Aperture
C. Shutter
D. Light tight box Ans: C
143. When is the right time to use fast shutter speeds?

A. When the subject of the photograph is moving
B. When the subject of the photograph is not moving
C. When the light is insufficient
D. When the investigator lacks time to process the process of taking a good shot Ans: A
144. This defect is the inability of the lens to bring photographic rays of different wavelengths to the same
focus. Ultraviolet rays are bent the most while infrared rays are bent to the least when they pass through
the lens. This defect is reduced by utilizing compound lenses made up of single lens made up of glass of
different curvatures.
A. Chromatic aberration
B. Astigmatism
C. Coma
D. Distortion Ans: A
145. Is the distance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane when the lens is set or
focused at infinity position or far distance. It is also a measure of the light-bending power of a lens. It is
invariably measured in millimeters(mm).
A. Focal length
B. Focal distance
C. Shutter speed
D. Lens aperture Ans: A
146. Which of the following is not an indication of deception?

A. Increase or decrease in blood pressure
B. Increase or decrease in pulse rate
C. Changes in the inspiration or expiration rate
D. Tracings within 15 seconds before the first question is given Ans: D
147. The subject in the polygraph examination room should not face a glass window or another room
during because this may give him the chance to:
A. Look himself at the mirror and get anxious
B. Be too conscious of his responses.
C. Be distracted
D. Be aware of what is happening Ans: C
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148. These are three groups of questions placed as one. They are intended to verify the previous charts
and detect indirect participation or guilty knowledge. Example: Do you suspect anyone in particular in
stealing Florida`s money?”, “Do you know who stole Florida`s money?”, and, “Did you steal Florida`s
money?”
A. SKY Question
B. DYAT Question
C. Knowledge Question
D. Symptomatic Question Ans: A
149. In polygraph examination, the examiner is supposed to ask relevant question but made a mechanical
adjustment prior to the question, what question should be ask by the polygraph examiner after the
mechanical adjustment?
A. Relevant Question
B. Control Question
C. Irrelevant Question
D. Knowledge Question Ans: C
150. Is a figure or design incorporated into paper during its manufacture and appearing lighter than the
rest of the sheet when viewed in transmitted light. It is a brand put on the paper by the manufactures.
A. Watermarks
B. Wiremarks
C. Fiber marks
D. Docx printed marks Ans: A
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CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

1. Which of the following describes the changes whereby energy such as heat is absorbed or is added
before the reaction takes place?
A. Oxidation
B. Flames
C. Exothermic reactions
D. Endothermic reactions Ans: D
2. Stiffening of the body which occurs 2-6 hours after death and is characterized by hardening of the body.
Involves all muscles at the same time at the same rate. It appears first in the smaller muscles such as the
of the body after death due to the disappearance of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) from the muscle.
A. Post-mortem rigidity
B. Cadaveric spasm
C. Algor mortis
D. Livor mortis Ans: A
3. This is functionally the hereditary material that contains the genetic information necessary for the
duplication of cells and for the production of proteins.
A. Genes
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
C. Gamete
D. Zygote Ans: B
Note: Gamete- a reproductive cell of an animal or plant. In animals, female gametes are called ova or egg cells,
and male gametes are called sperm.
Zygote- known as a fertilized ovum or fertilized egg, is the union of a sperm cell and an egg cell.
Genes- the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. Genes are made up of DNA.
4. If the materials being consumed are combustible metallic substances such as magnesium, titanium,
zirconium, sodium and potassium, what class of fire is produced?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class K Ans: D
5. Person ABC is the stepfather of Person CDX. One day, Person ABC got very mad at Person CDX for failing
in various subjects in college. Due to his anger, Person ABC got the leather suitcase of Person CDX and
burned it together with all its contents. What crime was committed?
A. Arson
B. Malicious mischief
C. Justifying circumstance from any criminal liability
D. No crime because of relationship Ans: A
6. Which of the following countries constitute the Golden Triangle?

A. Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iran
B. Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iran, India
C. Laos, Myanmar, Thailand
D. Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, China Ans: C
7. Discoloration of the body after death; setting of blood in the dependent portions of the body following
death). It is a reddish purple to purple coloration in dependent areas of the body due to accumulation of
blood in the small vessels of the dependent areas secondary to gravity.
A. Rigor mortis
B. Algor mortis
C. Livor mortis
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D. Post-mortem rigidity Ans: C
8. As mandated in Republic Act 9165, which of the following serve as the permanent consultant of the
Dangerous Drugs Board?
A. Secretary of DOJ and Secretary of DILG
B. Director General of PDEA and President
C. NBI Director and Chief of PNP
D. Chairman of DDB and Secretary of DOJ Ans: C
9. The facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs.

A. Drug den
B. Drug laboratory
C. Clandestine laboratory
D. Illicit drug substance Lab Ans: C
10. What type of physical evidence links the perpetrator to the crime scene?
A. Corpus delicti
B. Associative
C. Tracing
D. Testimonial Ans: B
11. The frontal collision of motor vehicles is called____ collision.

A. Head-on
B. Frontal
C. Serious
D. Full impact Ans: A
12. A clean, straight cut produced by a sharp edge instrument like knife, razor, or bolo.
A. Lacerated wound
B. Incised wound
C. Punctured wound
D. Abrasion Ans: B
13. In this interrogation technique, two agents are employed. One is a relentless investigator, who is not
going to waste any time because he knows the subject is guilty. The other is a kind-hearted man.
A. Bluff on a split pair
B. Role of Mutt and Jeff
C. Shifting the blame
D. Sympathetic appeal Ans: B
14. If the area to be searched large and is divided into quadrants and each searcher is assigned to one
quadrant, search is:
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method Ans: D
15. Upon interrogation, Police Corporal “A” observe constantly at Person “B”, the suspect, and in a propitious
moment he shouted eventually and ask pertinent questions and appeared as though he is beside himself
with rage. Person “A” became nervous to the extent that he admitted on the offense charged against him.
This method of approach in interrogation is best known as:
A. Indifference
B. Questioning as a Formality
C. Pretense of physical Evidence
D. Jolting Ans: D
16. Which if the following is NOT a requirement for the admission or confession to be admissible?
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A. Must be in writing and under oath.
B. Must be taken in the court.
C. Written in a language known to the accused.
D. Taken in the presence of a competent lawyer.
E. Must be freely and voluntarily taken. Ans: B
17. Person “A” the primary suspect of the crime was brought in the police station for interrogation. In the
presence of his counsel, he was asked about the crime committed. He acknowledged of perpetuating the
offense but refused to give full details on how it was committed. In this scenario, Person “A” is giving
what statement?
A. Testimony
B. Deposition
C. Confession
D. Admission Ans: D
18. The following is the main difference between surveillance and reconnaissance.
I. Surveillance is continues while reconnaissance is intermittent.
II. Reconnaissance has specific objectives while surveillance has general objectives.
III. Surveillance is fixed while reconnaissance is not
IV. Surveillance requires greater manpower while reconnaissance does not
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. II, III
D. I, II Ans: D
19. Patrolman Juan dela Cruz submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B-3. What is the interpretation of
this evaluated report?
A. Information is usually from a reliable source and is possibly true
B. Information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true
C. Information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable
D. Information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true Ans: A
Note:
Accuracy of Information (CODE: CPPDIT)
1 - Confirmed By Other Sources
2 - Probably True
3 - Possibly True
4 - Doubtfully True
5 - Improbable
6 - Truth Can Not Be Judged
Reliability of Information (CODE: CUFNUR)

A - Completely reliable
B - Usually Reliable
C - Fairly Reliable
D - Not Usually Reliable
E - Unreliable
F - Reliability Cannot be Judged
20. What is the means of using descriptive terms in relation to the personal features of an individual and it
can be briefly described as a word of description or spoken picture? Its objective is to obtain information
or description of suspects from whom the agent interviews.
A. Potrait/Parle
B. Elicitation
C. Physiognomy
D. Atavism Ans: A
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21. The interview of a witness can be described by its acronym ‘IRONIC’ which stands for:
A. Identity, rapport, overview, narration, inquiry, conclusion
B. Introduction, rapport, opening statement, note-taking, inquiry, conclusion
C. Identity, rapport, opening statement, narration, inquiry, conclusion
D. introduction, rapport, opening statement, narration, inquiry, conclusion Ans: C
22. Is a lower echelon criminal recruited by a smuggling organization to cross a border carrying drugs, or
sometimes an unknowing person in whose bag or vehicle the drugs are planted, for the purpose of
retrieving them elsewhere.
A. Trafficker
B. Mule
C. Rabbit
D. Trader Ans: B
23. It is a psychoactive plant that contains psychotropic properties one of which is the alkaloid Ephedrine
and pseudoephedrine, an active ingredient of anti asthma drugs used in over the counter medications. It
is also an essential chemical precursor in the production of Methamphetamine or Amphetamine drugs.
Methamphetamine Hydrochloride commonly known as Shabu is a product derived from this plant
through chemical processes.
A. Coca bush
B. Opium poppy
C. Epedra
D. Peyote Ans: C
24. Which of the following classification of drug abusers who use drugs to keep them awake or for additional
energy to perform an important work. Such individual may or may not exhibit psychological dependence?
A. Situational user
B. Hippies
C. Spree users
D. Hard-core addicts Ans: A
25. This is the technique of allowing elicit or suspect consignment of narcotic drugs, psychotropic substances
or substances substituted for them to pass out of, through or into the territory of one or more countries,
with the knowledge and under the supervision of the competent authorities with a view of identifying
persons involved in the commission of drug related offenses.
A. Airport and seaport interdiction
B. Undercover operations
C. Controlled delivery
D. Entrapment Ans: C
26. Decide: When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection at approximately the same time, which
among them has the right of way?
A. The driver of the vehicle on the left
B. The driver of the vehicle on the right
C. The driver of the vehicle that arrived first
D. The driver of the vehicle that arrived last Ans: B
27. Which of the following is exempted from the speed limit?

A. physician or his driver when the former responds to emergency calls
B. fire truck
C. police car
D. ambulance Ans: A
Note: This is an example of a tricky question. Options A,B, and C do not specify if these vehicles are on
emergencies or are on official use.
28. In traffic management, which of the following is the whistle signal for STOP?
A. One long blast
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B. Two short snappy blasts
C. Three blasts
D. 3 long blasts Ans: A
29. For student permit, applicants must be at least 16 years old and had undertaken the Theoretical Driving
Course equivalent to how many hours?
A. 8
B. 20
C. 5
D. 15 Ans: D
30. Decide: A standing warrant of arrest was issued against Pedro. Police officer ABC was the one directed to
execute it. However, after a lapse of ten days, the said peace officer failed to arrest the person named in
the warrant. After a month, while you, a police officer and a colleague of ABC, were walking in bonifacio
street, you saw Pedro buying an item in a store. Considering the time lapsed, and the warrant who it is
assigned to be executed, is it legal for you to arrest Pedro?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. No idea Ans: A
Note: Warrant of arrest is valid/legal unless effected, lifted, quashed, or the person subjected thereto died.
31. Decide: Police officer ACD was told by Pedro that Juan sniffed Marijuana at his house. Police Officer
immediately went to the location of Juan and thereby saw the latter washing his clothes. The Police
officer observed that Juan had an appearance of somewhat a red eye and untidy clothing. With these, he
handcuffed him and explained his rights. Also, the whole execution of arrest was recorded. Is the arrest
valid?
A. No. The police officer failed to comply with the body worn camera requirement
B. Yes. All requirements set by law were complied by the police officer
C. No. no one is allowed to execute arrest based on hearsay
D. It depends. If the suspect flees, the arrest becomes valid. Fleeing is a sign of guilt. Ans: C
32. The following are effects on the failure of the police officer in the observance of body-worn camera rule
during search EXCEPT:
A. seized items are fruits of the poisonous tree
B. evidences are inadmissible
C. police officer may be placed into contempt
D. search may still be valid Ans: D
33. What is the kind of intelligence required by the commander to provide for planning and conduct tactical
and administrative operation in counter insurgency? This pertains to knowledge of People, weather,
enemy and Terrain (PWET) used in planning and conducting tactical and administrative operation in a
counter insurgency.
A. Line Intelligence
B. Strategic Intelligence
C. Combat Intelligence
D. Police Intelligence Ans: C
34. What is an enemy agent, who has been captured, turned around and sent back where he came from as an
agent of his captors?
A. Agent in Place
B. Double Agent
C. Penetration agent
D. Agent of influence Ans: B
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Note: Agent of Influence - agent who uses authority to gain information.
Agent in Place - agent who has been recruited within a highly sensitive target who is just beginning a career
or has been long insider.
Penetration Agent - agent who have reached the enemy, gather information and able to get back without being
caught.
35. Which of the following is the correct top to bottom chronological order of security classification of
documents?
A. Restricted, confidential, top secret, secret
B. Secret, top secret, confidential, restricted
C. Top secret, secret, restricted, confidential
D. Top secret, secret, confidential, restricted Ans: D
36. A line up usually consists of how many persons?

A. 7-10
B. 11-15
C. 16-20
D. 21-25 Ans: A
37. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. Upon arrival at the crime scene, if the victim is dead, the body should only be removed after sketch,
measurements, and photographs have been made. However, if the victim is still alive sketch,
measurements, and photograph of the crime scene shall be done after the victim is removed for
hospitalization.
B. Upon arrival at the crime scene, if the victim is still alive, dying declaration should be obtained first
prior to the sketch, measurements, and photograph of the crime scene. If the victim is already dead,
remove the body to obtain proper sketch and measurements.
C. Upon arrival at the crime scene, sketch, measurements, and photographs can only be done prior to
the removal of the body of the victim. However, if the victim is still alive, there is no need for sketch,
measurements, and photographs.
D. Upon arrival at the crime scene, if the victim is still alive, photograph him in close up, mid range, and
overview. Make necessary sketch while waiting for the ambulance. On the other hand, if the victim is
already dead, sketches, measurements, and photographs should only be done before the body is
removed.
Ans: A
38. If the person to be questioned is believed to possess knowledge that is of official interest to the
investigator and the subject is deemed to be cooperating with the line of questioning, the said
conversation is:
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Asset interview
D. Cooperative questioning Ans: A
39. What is the type of informant who uses his seeming desire to give information as an excuse to talk to the
police in order to get more information from them than he gives? It is well to feed this informant false
information to catch him.
A. Double Crosser Informant
B. Mercenary Informant
C. Self Aggrandizing Informant
D. False Informant Ans: A
40. In order to preserve the integrity of evidence collected or gathered from the crime scene, what must be
observed?
A. Identify and tag evidence
B. Photograph evidence
C. Preserve and seal evidence
D. Maintain chain of custody Ans: D
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41. Which of the following is considered to be the most important quality of a good report? This requires for
the report to be an exact conformity with the facts.
A. Timeliness
B. Brevity
C. Accuracy
D. Clarity Ans: C
42. What is this mechanical device strategically located in an installation or in the street where a fire hose
will be connected?
A. Fire escape
B. Stand pipe
C. Fire hydrant
D. Fire hose Ans: C
43. In traffic accident, which of the following first accidental touching between traffic units involved in the
collision?
A. Perception of hazards
B. First impact
C. Initial contact
D. Maximum engagement Ans: C
44. Every motor vehicle shall have tail lights which should be lighted and visible in at least:
A. 100 meters from the rear of the vehicle
B. 60 meters from the rear of the vehicle
C. 50 meters from the rear of the vehicle
D. 30 meters from the rear of the vehicle Ans: A
45. When the heat transferred is through a circulating medium, usually air or liquid, it is said to be:
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Flame contact Ans: B
46. What tool is employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to establish an alibi?
A. Accelerant
B. Timing device
C. Stopper
D. Delaying tactic Ans: B
47. Upon arrival at the scene, you observe that the color of the smoke is black accompanied by large red
flames, what are the possible materials being consumed by fire in this scenario?
A. Calcium products
B. Magnesium products
C. Petroleum or rubber products
D. Nitrogen products Ans: C
48. What criminal act uses modern technology such as computer and a network?
A. Internet crime
B. Cybercrime
C. Computer crime
D. Technology crime Ans: B
49. Which of the following is a MAIN priority of protection in order for the digital evidence to maintain its
admissibility in the court?
A. Integrity of evidence
B. Number and photographs of evidence collected
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C. Time and date of evidence collection
D. Seal and preservation of evidence Ans: A
50. Consider yourself as part of a digital forensic search team. The subject of search is a clandestine room
where suspected online child pornography is held. However, upon arrival at the scene, your team only
saw turned off computers and two presumed to be foreign nationals on a drinking session. Applying your
skills in cyber crime investigation, what will you do?
A. Turned the computers on
B. Leave the computers off
C. Press the off button for 10 seconds
D. Press Control Alt Esc Ans: B
51. Upon arrival at the search scene, you happened to discover that the date and time of the computer does
not coincide with the exact real time and date, what will you do?
A. Press the off button for 10 seconds
B. Align/change it to real time and date
C. Document the difference
D. Save computer files in your external hard drive Ans: C
52. Upon arrival at the search scene, you saw a computer presumed to be owned by the suspect, with the
monitor playing with a sexual graphic content. Knowing that you have a lady officer in the team, what will
you do?
A. Turn it off, the RAM can be captured anyway
B. Turn it off, respect is paramount at work
C. Leave it on, document what`s in the monitor
D. Enjoy watching Ans: C
53. In the documentation of the physical evidences, it has been suggested to label all connectors and cable
end to allow reassembly as needed. Therefore, if the socket is marked with “A”, the cable end should be
marked with:
A. “A”
B. “B”
C. “AB”
D. Any markings Ans: A
54. Upon arrival at the search scene, you happened to catch the suspects perpetuating an online scam. With
this, together with your forensic team, you seized the computer, documented everything and preserved
the digital evidence. When you are about to finish the search, you saw 2 pieces of cameras partially
hidden on the edge of the wall. Are the cameras sources of digital evidences? What will you do?
A. Yes, seize it.
B. No, leave it in its original place.
C. Maybe, ask your supervisor first.
D. No idea, throw the camera Ans: A
55. Arrange the following in accordance to the PNP Anti-Cybercrime Group`s model of digital forensic
investigation.
I. Examination/ analysis
II. Acquisition
III. Court presentation
IV. Reporting
V. Identification
A. I, II, III, V, IV
B. IV, V, II, I, III
C. II, V, IV, I, III
D. V, II, I, IV, III Ans: D
56. Which of the following should NOT be observed in digital evidence search?
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A. Allow owners to access the computers (if protected by password) only within 30 seconds maximum
B. If the device is “ON”, do not turn it “OFF”
C. Write down all information on display and, if possible, secure a photograph.
D. Separate and identify persons at the scene and record their time of entry Ans: A
57. The use, production, sale, procurement, importation, distribution, or otherwise making available, without
right, a device, including a computer program or application, designed or adapted primarily for the
purpose of committing any of the offenses under this Act; or computer password, access code, or similar
data by which the whole or any part of a computer system is capable of being accessed with intent that it
be used for the purpose of committing any of the offenses under this Act.
A. Cyber squatting
B. Misuse of devices
C. Data interference
D. System interference Ans: B
Note: Data Interference. — The intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion or deterioration of
computer data, electronic document, or electronic data message, without right, including the introduction or
transmission of viruses.
System Interference. — The intentional alteration or reckless hindering or interference with the functioning of
a computer or computer network by inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting, deteriorating, altering or
suppressing computer data or program, electronic document, or electronic data message, without right or
authority, including the introduction or transmission of viruses.
Cyber-squatting. – The acquisition of a domain name over the internet in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy
reputation, and deprive others from registering the same, if such a domain name is similar, identical, or
confusingly similar to an existing trademark registered with the appropriate government agency.
58. What warrant must be issued to authorize law enforcers to listen, record, monitor, or surveil the content
of the communications through electronic eavesdropping or tapping devices, while the communication is
occurring?
A. Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
B. Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
C. Warrant to Search, Seize, and Examine Computer Data
D. Warrant to Examine Computer Data Ans: A
59. These are those laws that deal with the protection, conservation, utilization and development of forests,
other land-based natural resources, and wildlife.
A. Blue laws
B. Green laws
C. Brown laws
D. Forest and wildlife laws Ans: B
60. In cybercrime investigations this can be thought of as fingerprints of the files. The contents of a file are
processed through a cryptographic algorithm, and a unique numerical value is produced that identifies
the contents of the file.
A. Bit
B. Hash values
C. Data fingerprint
D. Byte Ans: B
61. Which of the following traffic signs connotes prohibition?

A. Red triangle
B. Red ring with diagonal line
C. Blue or green Rectangle
D. Blue disc Ans: B
62. it is the separation of a traffic unit in motion from an object with which it has collided; the force
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between the object ceases at this time
A. maximum engagement
B. disengagement
C. start of evasive action
D. initial contact Ans: B
63. Which of the following is not an element of a fire tetrahedron theory?

A. Chain reaction
B. Fuel
C. Gas
D. Oxygen Ans: C
64. Which of the following drugs has been known as the “soldiers` disease”?
A. Shabu
B. Cocaine
C. Opium
D. Morphine Ans: D
65. To burn a fuel (combustible material), its temperature must be raised until ignition point is reached.
Thus, before a fuel start to burn or before it can be ignited, it has to be exposed to a certain degree of
temperature. When the temperature of a certain substance is very high, it releases highly combustible
vapors known as:
A. Free radicals
B. Pyrolosis
C. Vapor density
D. Vapor density Ans: A
66. The following are reasons for the license to be revoked, EXCEPT:
A. cheating during examinations
B. falsification of document
C. driving a motor vehicle used in the commission of a crime
D. failure to bring driver`s license Ans: D
67. Who among the following is NOT allowed to operate a motor vehicle?
A. A driver with student permit
B. A driver whose license is about to expire
C. A driver with traffic violations
D. A driver whose vehicle is untidy Ans: A
68. On a highway having two or more lanes for the movement of traffic in one direction, the driver of a
vehicle may overtake and pass another vehicle in what direction?
A. Left
B. Right
C. Left or right
D. Passing is prohibited Ans: C
69. Before turning either left or right be sure to give a signal at least ____ meters before you make the turn.
This gives ample time and consideration to vehicles following behind.
A. 100
B. 50
C. 30
D. 10 Ans: C
70. No driver of a motor vehicle concerned in a vehicular accident shall leave the scene of the accident
without aiding the victim, EXCEPT:
A. If he is in imminent danger of being seriously harmed by any person or persons by reason of the
accident
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B. If he reports the accident to the nearest officer of the law
C. If he has to summon a physician or nurse to aid the victim
71. The science of measuring traffic and travel, the study of basic laws relative to the traffic law and
generation; the application of these knowledge to the professional practice of planning, deciding, and
operating traffic system to achieve safe and efficient transportation of persons and goods.
A. Traffic engineering
B. Traffic enforcement
C. Traffic education
D. Traffic ecology
E. Traffic economy Ans: A
72. Which of the following is a complete list of the first illicit drug route?
A. Middle East, Turkey, Europe, United States
B. Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iran, and India
C. Laos, Myanmar, and Thailand
D. China, Russia, Pakistan, and Philippines Ans: A
73. They produce effects opposite to that of the depressants because instead of bringing about relaxation and
sleep, they produce increased mental alertness, wakefulness, reduce hunger, and provide a feeling of well
being. Abrupt withdrawal of the drug from the heavy abuser can result in a deep and suicidal depression.
A. Downers
B. Stimulant
C. Hallucinogen
D. Over the counter drugs Ans: B
74. It is the energy possessed by a material or substance due to molecular activity.

A. Fuel
B. Oxygen
C. Heat
D. Chain reaction Ans: C
75. It is the transfer of heats by molecular activity within a material or medium, usually a solid. Direct contact
is the underlying factor in conduction. Example, if you touch a hot stove, the pain you feel is a first result
of conducted heat passing from the stove directly to your hand.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Flame contact Ans: A
76. It is the policy making body and strategy making body under the office of the president charge with the
planning and formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and control. It is composed of a
total ___ number of members.
A. 17
B. 16
C. 15
D. 14 Ans: A
77. Which of the following is the first thing that should be done after receiving a complaint or report of an
incident?
A. The police officer who first received the report should record the time and date the complaint was
received.
B. The police officer should inform his superior immediately. A dispatch team should be dispatched
thereafter.
C. Dispatch immediately a mobile team to the place of the incident for verification. Inform the superior
while the team is on its way to the crime scene.
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D. Dispatch an investigating team. Ans: A
78. Considering that upon arrival at the crime scene, Investigator-on-case “A” found the crime already
cordoned and secured by first responders, what shall he do?
A. Deploy crime scene investigation team inside the crime scene for fast collection of physical evidences
B. Initiate preliminary survey and evaluate any physical evidence possibilities
C. Receive briefing and orientation from first responders
D. Wait for the SOCO to arrive Ans: C
79. The following are passive counter intelligence measures, EXCEPT:

A. Security classification of documents
B. Secrecy discipline among members of the intelligence force
C. Encryption and cryptography of information
D. Intelligence operations such as counterespionage and counter-subversion Ans: D
80. If you are the investigator-on-case on a shooting incident, after conducting a final survey, you observe
that there are no more new physical evidences that are to be collected, what is the next thing you should
do?
A. Release the crime scene and ask the SOCO to take over.
B. Release the crime scene and conduct interviews with witnesses
C. Release the crime scene and determine crime scene boundaries
D. Release the crime scene Ans: D
81. Which of the following best describes cold turkey?

A. Self drug withdrawal
B. Detoxification from drugs
C. Rehabilitation of drug addicts
D. Disengagement from drug addiction Ans: A
82. Intensity of fire simply means;

A. How big is the fire
B. How hot the fire is burning
C. How much is the magnitude of fire
83. An inter communication in the police agency which is a common practice. In its simple terms, it is a “note
to help the memory”. It may be general in application requiring compliance by or information of a
majority of all the officers and members of the police organization.
A. Directive
B. Report
C. Memorandum
D. Order Ans: C
84. Which of the following is written above the addressee if sent to a superior officer?
A. Memorandum For
B. MEMORANDUM FOR
C. Memorandum To
D. MEMORANDUM TO Ans: B
85. As a general rule, police reports shall use in what level of persons?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Any level as long as clarity is obtained Ans: C
86. The process of giving training and practice in the actual application of traffic safety knowledge.
A. Traffic engineering
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B. Traffic enforcement
C. Traffic education
D. Traffic ecology
E. Traffic economy Ans: C
87. If you turn off a gas valve in a gas line so as to prevent the fuel and oxygen from coming together, what
method of fire extinguishment are you using?
A. Smothering
B. Cooling
C. Confinement
D. Separation Ans: D
88. Smoke in the study of fire is considered as the product of;

A. Incomplete combustion
B. Complete combustion
C. Fire
D. Heat Ans: A
89. Person “A”is a prestigious businessman in the Municipality of Siaton owning 20 big stores and
restaurants. One day, he reported to the law enforcement authorities with regards to the ongoing
criminal activities at the premises of his business establishments. He strongly admits that he does not
want that his business will be affected with the hangouts of criminals. In this case, Person “A” who gives
information concerning specialized cases can be classified as a:
A. Legitimate informant
B. Businessman informant
C. Rival Elimination Informant
D. Voluntary informant Ans: A
90. What is the fundamental objective of intelligence?

A. Collection or procurement of information.
B. Dissemination of intelligence information to those who need it.
C. To ensure a rational and timely decision making.
D. Evaluation of information to become intelligence information. Ans: C
91. Which of the following BEST describes the difference between rough and finished sketch?
A. A rough sketch is made at the office and is intended for court presentation while the finished sketch
is made at the crime scene.
B. A rough sketch is made by the sketcher while the finished sketch is made by an artist
C. Rough sketch is made at the crime scene while finished sketch is made at the office which purpose is
for court presentation
D. Rough sketch and finished sketch are the same. They only differ on the size of the sketch made.
Ans: C
92. The following are guidelines for taking photographs of a crime scene, EXCEPT:
A. Photographs of a crime scene should be taken as soon as possible, before note taking, sketching, or a
search for evidence begins.
B. The pictures should illustrate the original, uncontaminated condition of the crime scene.
C. To adequately present the crime scene initially, the photographs must forma n organized sequence
and show all relevant locations and objects.
D. The photographs should indicate the actual measurements of things with scale and proportion
observed.
Ans: D
93. After the completion of the search, an effort must be made to determine from the appearance of the place
and its objects what actually occurred and what the circumstances of the crime were. This is known as
reconstructing the crime. If your are the investigator-on-case, you interview several witnesses and
examines the position of physical evidences, what kind of reconstruction do you obtain?
A. Mental reconstruction
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B. Physical reconstruction.
C. Crime scene reconstruction
D. Reconstruction of the crime Ans: B
94. The following are the categories of classified matters, except:

A. TOP SECRET – highly sensitive
B. SECRET – sensitive information
C. CONFIDENTIAL – not so sensitive
D. RESTRICTED – not sensitive
E. UNRESTRICTED – Open to anybody Ans: E
95. Is the point where the fireline is progressing faster.

A. Head
B. Tail
C. Flanks
D. Body Ans: A
96. What term may be inferred from circumstances and from the statements of witnesses that the suspect
has been motivated by a desire for revenge or personal gain? It is simply defined as something that
induces a person to do a criminal act.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Reason
D. Discretion Ans: B
97. If a person informs the law enforcement on the illicit drug trade within his area for the purpose of
eliminating his rival or competitor, he is a:
A. Legitimate informant
B. Businessman informant
C. Rival elimination informant
D. Mercenary informant Ans: C
98. After the witness is done narrating the facts of the case, what is the next thing you should do as an
investigator?
A. Make a conclusion about the case
B. Ask questions
C. Establish rapport with the witness
D. Note the details Ans: B
99. Person “A” a celebrity, confessed to the media of his responsibility in raping Denice, another celebrity. If a
celebrity confessed his involvement of a crime in television, the said confession is classified as:
A. Judicial n
B. Extra judicial
C. Admission of guilt
D. Confession of a crime Ans: B
100. What is arrest?

A. The taking of a person into custody in order for him to be confined and be rehabilitated.
B. The process of bringing the suspected person inside jail or prisons that he may be questioned and be
brought to court for trial
C. The taking of person into custody that he may be bound to answer for the commission of a crime.
D. Taking of person suspected of committing a crime inside the jail for him to be detained
Ans: A
101. Which of the following BEST describes how erased words should be corrected in a police blotter
entry?
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A. Erased words should be corrected using a pencil eraser or a white fluid eraser. A countersign shall be
placed on top of the corrected word with badge number, initials, and date and time
B. A red line should be drawn in the corrected word. After which, a white fluid eraser should be used in
making correction.
C. A pencil eraser should be utilized in correcting words in all police entries. Initials of the police who
made the changes along with his badge number should be indicated and the date and time.
D. Drawing a red ink line through the corrected words and inserted in red ink any correction. The
initials, badge number shall be indicated together with the date and the time
Ans: D
102. The investigation report should not be contaminated with the investigator`s emotions, personal
prejudice, and opinions. This mechanic of reporting refers to what we call:
A. Objectivity
B. Brevity
C. Completeness
D. Accuracy Ans: A
103. Is defined as asking somebody a series of questions to gather information. Usually the subject of the
line of questioning is the witness.
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Asking
D. Questioning Ans: A
104. This refers to the arrangement of components which will create a structure. This allows the
sequencing of the events to portray the incident clearly.
A. Note taking
B. Proofreading
C. Organizing
D. Interview Ans: C
105. If the memorandum is from the bottom rank to the higher rank, it shall be known as a:
A. Report
B. Directive
C. Information dissemination
D. Acknowledgement Ans: A
106. Which of the following is an example of a third level person speaking?

A. “I went to his office and stole the cash inside his drawer”
B. “you went to his office and stole the cash inside his drawer”
C. “the suspect went to his office and stole the cash inside his drawer”
D. “you said that he went to your office and stole the cash inside the drawer” Ans: C
107. Generally, all police reports are constructed in the third person. Which of the following is correct?
A. I put my cellphone on the table and when I came back, I noticed that it was gone.
B. You put your cellphone on the table and when you came back, you noticed that it was gone.
C. He or she put his or her cellphone on the table and when he or she came back, he or she noticed that
it was gone.
D. He put his cellphone on the table and when he came back, he noticed that it was gone.
Ans: D
108. In making an entry in the police blotter, which of the following is correct?
A. The said victim claimed to have been stabbed with a jungle knife by……
B. The said victim is claiming before this office that he was been stabbed by…
C. The said victim is still on the process of claiming that he was been stabbed by…
D. The said victim is claimed that he was been stabbed by.. Ans: A
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109. When the direction of the report is either from the top to the bottom or vice versa, it is said to be a:
A. Vertical report
B. Horizontal report
C. Lateral report
D. Organizational report Ans: A
110. When the direction of the report is towards other units or departments of an organization, it is
called:
A. Vertical report
B. Horizontal report
C. Lateral report
D. Organizational report Ans: B
111. Which of the following refers to the act that ensures the public that the provisions in the document
express the true agreement between the parties? It converts a private document to a public document
and renders it admissible in court without further proof of its authenticity.
A. Notarization
B. Conversion
C. Publication of documents
D. Documentation Ans: A
112. An instrument or document to be employed in a legal transaction or a judicial proceeding that

includes the primary essential matters, the appropriate technical phrases or terms, and any additional
materials required to render it officially accurate, arranged in suitable and systematic order, and
conducive to adaptation to the circumstances of the particular case. This could be in the form of
affidavits, sales of personal property, contracts, complaints, etc.
A. legal document
B. legal instrument
C. legal forms
D. legal agreement Ans: C
113. The space between sentences in a legal form:

A. Single
B. Double triple
C. 1.5 inches
D. 2.0 inches Ans: A
114. In the efficient use of paper rule set by the Supreme Court, the left hand margin of the document
should be how many inch(es)?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 2.5 Ans: B
115. In the efficient use of paper rule set by the Supreme Court, the lower margin should be:
A. 1.0 inch
B. 1.0 inch from the edge
C. 1.5 inches
D. 1.5 inches from the edge Ans: B
116. All pleadings, motions, and similar papers intended for the court and quasi judicial body`s
consideration and action shall be written in what font style?
A. Aerial
B. Times new roman
C. Cambria
D. Easy readable font style Ans: D
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117. Under the Judicial Affidavit Rule, judicial affidavit must be in what form?
A. Paragraph form
B. Narrative form
C. Question and answer form
D. Legal form Ans: C
118. Perjury is knowingly making untruthful statements and not being included in the provisions of the
next preceding articles, shall testify under oath, or make an affidavit, upon any material matter before a
competent person authorized to administer an oath in cases in which the law so requires. Which of the
following is an example of perjury?
A. Spreading false rumors that Maria is pregnant
B. Posting false information in Facebook about a person alleged to be a thief
C. False testimony in court
D. Executing a libelous statement that destroys the reputation of another Ans: C
119. The basic difference between complaint and information lies:

A. On the nature of the crime being accused with
B. As to the spelling
C. On who furnish the document
D. On the weight of evidence being presented Ans: C
120. As a general rule, the size of the bond paper which will be utilized in legal forms is:
A. 8.5 inches by 13 inches
B. 8.5 inches by 11 inches
C. A4 size
D. Any size as deemed fit Ans: A
121. As a general rule, the font size of the legal document should be:
A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14 Ans: D
122. Comes from the analogy that Internet scammers are using email lures to fish for passwords and
financial data from the sea of Internet users. This is also called brand spoofing is the creation of email
messages and Web pages that are replicas of existing, legitimate sites and businesses. These Web sites
and emails are used to trick users into submitting personal, financial, or password data.
A. Phishing
B. Email spoofing
C. Boiler room
D. Nigerian scam Ans: A
123. In a crime scene involving a computer as evidence, the responder should image the RAM. If done,
press and hold the power button for ____ seconds.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25 Ans: A
124. Which of the following is known as the Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act?
B. Republic Act 7586
C. Republic Act No. 7942
A. Republic Act No. 7076 Ans: A
125. This agency is primarily tasked to handle matters relating to the protection and conservation of
wildlife and natural reserves and other protected areas.
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A. Department of Environment and Natural Resources
B. Parks and Wildlife Bureau
C. Forest Management Bureau
D. Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources Ans: B
126. Which of the following is an indication that the gunshot wound is NOT suicidal?
A. The fire is usually in contact or near contact, as shown by the presence of burning, singeing and
tattooing of the area around the gunshot wound.
B. The presence of usually but one gunshot wound. In most cases, after a shot, especially at the head, the
victim can no longer voluntarily act to inflict another shot.
C. Portions of the body involved are those accessible to the hand of the victim utilized in committing
suicide.
D. Usually gunpowder tattooing is nowhere to be found due to the close distance between the gun and
the target.
Ans: D
127. Upon arrival at the crime scene, you saw a dead body of a person with several wounds on his body
preferably caused by a knife. The muscles of the victim were relaxed and had lost its natural tone and that
his jaw was observed to drop down. Also, the thorax collapses and the limbs become flaccid. Witnesses
disclosed that the victim was missing for already two days. Under what stage of muscle changes does the
victim in?
A. Stage of primary flaccidity
B. Stage of rigor mortis
C. Stage of cadaveric spasm
D. Stage of secondary flaccidity Ans: A
128. Which of the following is/are NOT sign/s of death?

I. Cessation of respiration
II. Cessation of heartbeat
III. Cooling of the body
IV. Insensibility of the body and loss of power to move
V. Loss of corneal and light reflexes
VI. Haziness of the cornea
VII. Fixation of the pupil
A. All of the above are signs of death

B. I, II, III, IV
C. VI, III, V
D. IV Ans: A
129. Autopsies shall be performed in the following cases, EXCEPT:

I. Whenever required by special laws
II. By Order of Court or Fiscal
III. Whenever the case involves adultery
IV. Upon written request of police authorities
V. Whenever the Solicitor General, provincial or city fiscal as authorized by existing laws, shall
deem it necessary to disinter and take possession of remains for examination to determine the
cause of death
VI. Whenever the nearest kin shall Request in writing by nearest of kin the to ascertain the cause of
death
A. I & II
B. IV, V, VI
C. III
D. All of the above are cases where autopsy should be performed Ans: C
130. Which of the following is TRUE regarding exit wounds?

A. Always present
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B. Bend to be smaller than the corresponding entrance wounds
C. Margins are usually averted
D. Presence powder tattooing Ans: C
131. When is fetus considered born?

I. If it is born alive at the time it is completely delivered from the mother's womb.
II. If it is aborted intentionally or unintentionally
III.If the fetus had an intra-uterine life of less than seven months, and it does not die within twenty-four
hours after its complete delivery from the maternal womb.
IV. If the fetus had an intra-uterine life of less than five months, and it does not die within twenty-four
hours after its complete delivery from the maternal womb.
A. All of the above

B. I
C. I and III
D. II, III, IV Ans: C
132. Application of knowledge about insects, insect identification; knowledge of their developmental and
reproductive stages to deal with legal problems such as time of death, and reconstruction of crime scene.
A. Forensic entomology
B. Forensic odontology
C. Forensic anthropology
D. Forensic science Ans: A
133. Which of the following is the law that rose the age of consent from 12 years of age to 16 years old?
A. RA 11648
B. RA 4136
C. RA 10591
D. RA 6975 Ans: A
134. In testing a suspected intoxicated driver, which one of the ff. tests should be given last?
A. Hand writing
B. Pupils of eyes
C. Balance
D. Walking and turning Ans: A
135. Where 2 or more emergency vehicles, operating as such approach the same intersection from
different directions, creating a probability conflict, an officer directing traffic at the intersection must
give preference to one and cause the others to yield the right of way. Of the following, the type of vehicle
which should generally be given preferences over any of the vehicle is the-
A. Ambulance
B. Police car
C. Fire truck
D. Wrecker Ans: C
136. What factors are taken into consideration in the determination of the liability of the person found
guilty of arson?
A. the kind of building or property that was burned.
B. the location of the building
C. whether the building is inhabited or not
D. all of the above Ans: D
137. The primary purpose of statutory requirements for fire protection is-
A. to see to it that the buildings are insured
B. to safeguard life
C. to see to it that the buildings are fire hazard free
D. to generate income for the government Ans: C
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138. Physical evidence is generally given weight in the courts because:

A. it speaks for its self
B. it cannot lie
C. not affected by emotion
D. all of the forgoing Ans: D
139. What is the classification of documents which calls for the utmost degree of protection, Unauthorized
revelation of this materials and information will cause extremely severe damage to the nation, politically,
economically, or militarily? Examples of this are political negotiations, military defence, war strategic
plans, etc.
A. Top secret
B. Confidential
C. Secret
D. Restricted Ans: A
140. For an investigator to be able to solve cases, he must posses the ability to be patient to obtain
accurate and complete information, specially with uncooperative subjects.
A. Integrity
B. Perseverance
C. Alertness
D. logical mind Ans: B
141. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the crime will most likely mean that:
A. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived.
B. the suspect was professional
C. the suspect was juvenile
D. the police probably did not conduct a complete search for evidence. Ans: D
142. A case decided in USA in the year 1920 that established the “ Doctrine of the Fruit of the Poisonous
Tree”.
A. MAPP vs. USA
B. MAPP vs. Ohio
C. USA vs. Ohio
D. Silverthorne Lumber Co. vs. US Ans: D
143. Fires that started in advance of the heads by windblown sparks or bits of burning material. A number
of this kind of fire may merge and create a new head in advance of the main fire.
A. Crown fires
B. Spot fires
C. Surface fires
D. Ground fires Ans: B
144. What Special Law punishes the crime of Arson which amends the provision of the Revised Penal
Code.
A. Presidential Decree 603
D. Presidential Decree 1613 Ans: D
145. It is best to interrogate a suspect in a “foreign Territory” such as the investigator room at the police
station because the place:
A. Is comfortable to the suspect
B. Is familiar to the suspect
C. Provides food and cigarette to the investigator
D. Intimidates the suspect Ans: D
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146. This is the lifeblood of investigation and hence to be considered seriously and also to be followed up.
Once it dries you have nowhere to go.
A. Information
B. Intelligence
C. Interview
D. Instrumentation Ans: A
147. Fernando Jose is testifying in court to disprove the criminal charge filed against him. Thus, he is the:
A. Suspect
B. Accused
C. Criminal
D. Respondent Ans: D
148. When a police officer finds a tool at the crime scene, he should first of all:
A. Pick it up for a closer examination, taking care not to jar
B. Wait until the crime scene has been sketched or photographed and measurements taken before he
collects the evidence
C. Immediately collect it and always send it to the Crime Laboratory for specific examination
D. Compare the following edge of the tool with impression to determine if this was the tool used in
crime.
Ans: B
149. Person ABC is an alleged thief. He is being accused of stealing personal property but he is not yet
under the custody of the police. Therefore, he is legally addressed as:
A. Suspect
B. Accused
C. Accomplice
D. Accessory Ans: A
150. All of the following are generally accepted rules of behavior that should be followed by police officer
first arriving at the crime scene of a murder committed indoors, EXCEPT:
A. Try to keep the witnesses separated
B. Record the time of discovery of the crime
C. Discuss the crime with persons who witness the incident
D. Notify the superior officer as quickly as possible but do not leave the scene unguarded Ans: C
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CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE

3. Can a child be qualified to become a witness in court?

8. Acts and omissions punishable by the Revised Penal Code.

Note: Justifying circumstances

29. Which of the following is a circumstance that mitigates punishment?

33. Which of the following is an example of Mala In Se?

53. A criminal law is said to be general, when:

54. Why is treason cannot be committed during peace time?

73. The following are the requirements of an Information, EXCEPT:

80. The place of trial for a criminal actions is called:

91. Validity of the warrant of arrest expires:

94. "Fruit of the poisonous tree" means:

123. The following cannot become a witness, EXCEPT:

133. Which of the following is NOT a crime?

Note: RA 10158 decriminalized vagrancy

138. A preliminary investigation is required to be conducted before the filing of a complaint or

143. It is when a prior statement is withdrawn formally and publicly by a witness.

147. What is the main purpose of the preliminary investigation?

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

7. Which of the following is known as the “modern day slavery”?

19. Which of the following agencies is “national in scope”?

26. The following are grounds for special promotion, EXCEPT:

32. The Headquarter of the International Criminal Organization is found in___.

54. Which of the following is NOT a ground for confiscation of firearms?

56. Which of the following is FALSE?

74. When is the right time to use warning shots?

98. When the Philippine National flag is knotted, it signifies:

100. What is the duration of the National Flag Days?

105. Who coined the name “United Nations”?

108. What is the basic mission of the police?

110. When police officer should use physical force?

115. Subordinate personnel as a rule do not object to strict rules if ____________________.

116. Which of the following statements BEST describes Line Intelligence?

120. The three basic formal relationships in an organization are:

121. Of the principle of “Span of Control” it may be said that:

127. Which of the following is NOT a basic police activity?

135. Procedure in coping for specific situations at known locations.

143. What do we refer to in determining the crimes per 100,000 populations?

147. It is the gradual penetration into enemy domain and territory.

148. What unit take charge of the publication of intelligence reports?

10. Which of the following describes probation?

13. Where is probation applied?

19. Arrange the following in chronological order.

23. The following statements regarding parole are true, EXCEPT:

24. Which of the following is a DISQUALIFICATION in the granting of parole?

31. Petitions for parole shall be addressed to the:

34. The following describes pardon, EXCEPT:

36. The following are total extinctions of criminal liability, EXCEPT:

38. Which of the following is described as a Blanket Pardon”?

41. The following are qualified for commutation of sentence, EXCEPT:

45. Which of the following are classified as detainees?

51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission, it means:

52. Which of the following is a GUARANTEED right of an inmate?

61.Why is 18th Century considered as a century of change or an age of enlightenment?

72. Which of the following is considered as a GRAVE OFFENSE?

79. Who will disembark first from the vehicle?

80. Which of the following is TRUE?

99. When to break confidentiality?

102. It is a Latin word which means punishment or suffering.

104. It is the community’s reaction to a convicted offender.

112. According to the Bible, what is the first imposition of punishment?

114. Which of the following codes come first?

116. This code is also known as the Law of Moses.

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