Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
1. Cell Organells
2. Cell Membranes: Structure and Function
3. Amino Acids: Structure and Properties
4. Proteins: Structure and Function
5. Enzymology-I
6. Enzymology-II: Iso-Enzymes and Clinical Enzymology
7. Methods of Separation & Purification of Biological Compounds, Methods of Study of
Metabolism
8. Carbohydrates-I:Chemistry, Digestion and Absorption
9. Carbohydrates-II: Major Metabolic Pathways of Glucose, Glycolysis,
Gluconeogenesis, Glycogen Metabolism
10. Carbohydrates-III: Regulation of Blood Sugar, Insulin and Diabets Mellitus
11. Carbohydrates-IV: Other Metabolic Pathways (HMP Shunt Pathway, Fructose,
Galactose,
12. Lipids-I: Chemistry, Digestion and Absorption of Lipids
13. Lipids-II: Metabolism of Fatty acids, Fatty acid oxidation, Fatty acid synthesis,
Lipolysis, Ketone bodies
14. Lipids-III: Cholesterol, Lipoproteins and Cardiovascular Diseases
15. Lipids-IV: MCFA, PUFA and Prostaglandins
16. Lipids-V: Compound Lipids
17. Amino Acid Metabolism-I: General: Digestion, Absorption, Transamination, Urea
18. Amino Acid Metabolism-II: Simple, Hydroxy and Sulfur Containing Amino Acids
Glycine, Serine, Alanine, Threonine, Methionine, Cysteine
19. Amino Acid Metabolism-III: Acidic, Basic and Branched Chain Amino Acids,
Glutamic acid, Glutamine, Aspartic acid, Asparagine, Lysine, Nitric Oxide, Valine,
Leucine, Isoleucine
20. Amino Acid Metabolism-IV: Aromatic Amino Acids: Phenyl alanine, Tyrosine,
Tryptophan, Histidine
21. Amino Acid Metabolism-V: Inter-relations of Amino Acid Metabolisms, One Carbon
Metabolism, Amino Acidurias
22. Citric Acid Cycle
23. Electron Transport Chain
24. Free Radicals and Anti-oxidants
25. Plasma Proteins
26. Immunochemistry
27. Specialised Proteins: Collagen, Myosin
28. Heme Synthesis and Breakdown
29. Haemoglobins
30. Vitamin-I: Fat Soluble Vitamins: A, D, E and K
31. Vitamin-II: Water soluble vitamins
32. Mineral Metabolism
33. Energy Metabolism and Nutrition
34. Detoxification and Biotransformation of Xenobiotics
35. Biochemical Aspects of Environmental Pollution
36. Acid Base Balance and pH
37. Electrolyte and Water Balance
38. Molecular Biology-I: Nucleotides, Chemistry and Metabolism
39. Molecular Biology-II: DNA structure and Replication
40. Molecular Biology-III: Transcription and Translation
41. Molecular Biology-IV: Molecular Genetics and Control of Gene Expression
42. Molecular Biology-V: Recombinant DNA Technology and Gene Therapy
43. Biochemistry of AIDS
44. Biochemistry of Cancer
45. Applications of Radio-isotopes in Medicine
46. Body Fluids
47. Hormones-I: Mechanism of Action of Hormones
48. Hormones-II: Pituitary Hormones
49. Hormones-III: Steroid Hormones
50. Hormones-IV: Thyroid Hormones
51. Clinical Biochemistry-I:
52. Clinical Biochemistry-II: Liver and Gastric Function Tests
53. Clinical Biochemistry-III: Kidney Function Tests
Viva.based on Textbook of Biochemistry
Cell Organelles
Q. What is the function of Golgi complex?
A. Maturation and processing of nascent proteins, glycosylation of proteins,
secretion newly synthesised proteins
Q. What is lysozyme?
A. It is an enzyme present in external secretions
Q. What is a uniport?
A. It carries single solute across the membrane.
Q. What is co-transport?
A. If transfer of one molecule depends on simultaneous or sequential transfer of another
molecule, it is called co-transport system.
Q. What is symport?
A. In symport, the transporter carries two solutes in the same direction across the
membrane.
Q. What is pinocytosis?.
A. It is receptor mediated. Low Density Lipoprotein(LDL) binds to the LDL receptor and
the complex is later internalised. These vesicles are coated with Clathrin. .
Q. What is phagocytosis.
A. It is the engulfment and internalisation of large particles such as bacteria by
macrophages and granulocytes.
Q. What is the basis of classification of amino acids into ketogenic and glucogenic?
A. Ketogenic amino acids enter into the metabolic pathway of fats, while
glucogenic amino acids enter the pathway of glucose metabolism.
Q. Name a purely ketogenic amino acid.
A. Leucine.
Q. Which amino acid is synthesised after it gets incorporated into the protein?
A. Hydroxyproline.
Q. Which is the amino acid having maximum buffering capacity at physiological pH? A.
Histidine.
Q. Can you name some substances where D-amino acids are seen?
A. D-amino acids are seen in cell walls of microorganisms and as constituents of certain
antibiotics such as gramicidin-S, polymyxin, actinomycin-D and valinomycin.
Q. What is glutamine?
A. That is the amide of glutamic acid.
Q. What is an amide?
A. The extra carboxyl group (other thanÿalpha carboxyl) can combine with ammonia to
form the corresponding amide.
Q. What is transamination?
A. The alpha amino group of amino acid can be transferred to alpha keto acid to form
the correspond ing new amino acid and alpha keto acid.
Q. Give an example of transamination reaction.
A. Glutamic acid + pyruvic acid alpha keto glutarate + alanine.
Q. The protein which does not answer the aldehyde test is.
A. Gelatin.
Q. What is a dipeptide?
A. Two amino acids are combined to form a dipeptide.
Q. What is a polypeptide?
A. A combination of 10 to 50 amino acids is called as a polypeptide.
Q. What are the names for the end amino acids of proteins.
A. The end where there is a free alpha amino group is called the amino terminal (N-
terminal) end. The other end of the polypeptide chain is called the carboxy terminal end
(C-terminal) where there is a free alpha carboxyl group.
Q. What is pro-insulin?
A. Insulin is synthesised by the beta cells of pancreas as a prohormone, proinsulin is a
single polypeptide chain with 86 amino acids.
Q. What is mutation?
A. Amino acid change in the linear sequence is called a mutation.
Q. Which are the forces that maintain the secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures
of a protein?
A. Hydrogen bonds, Electrostatic bonds, Vander Waals forces and Hydrophobic bonds.
Q. What are the reagents that are used for identifying the first amino acid in a protein?
A. Fluoro dinitro benzene, dansyl chloride, phenyl iso thio cyanate.
Q. What is nephelometry?
A. Nephelometry is defined as the detection of light scattered by turbid particles in
solution.
Enzymology-I
Q. How are enzymes classified?
A. They are classified into five major classes.
Q. Which enzyme will add water to a double bond, without breaking the bond?
A. Hydratase.
Q. What is holo-enzyme?
A. When apo-enzyme and co-enzymes are added, holo-enzyme is produced. Fully
active enzyme is called Holo-enzyme.
Q. How are co-enzymes classified?
A. (a) Those taking part in reactions catalysed by oxidoreductases by donating or
accepting hydrogen atoms or electrons. (b) Those co-enzymes taking part in reactions
transferring groups other than hydrogen.
Q. What is FAD?
A. Flavin adenine dinucleotide.
Q. What is Km value?
A. Substrate concentration (expressed in moles/L) at half-maximal velocity is the Km
value.
Q. What does it indicate?
A. It denotes that 50% of enzyme molecules are bound with substrate molecules at
that particular substrate concentration
Q. What is the use of assessing the Km value of an enzyme? What is the application?
A. Determination of Km value is also useful to understand the natural substrate of an
enzyme. Study of Km value will also differentiate the competitive and non-competitive
inhibitions.
Q. Why it falls?
A. when temperature is more than 50ºC, heat denaturation and consequent loss of
tertiary structure of protein occurs.
Q. What is zymogen?
A. It is otherwise called pro-enzyme. Inactive zymogen is activated by removal of a
piece of the pro-enzyme.
Q. Iodo-acetate inhibits enzyme by reacting with which group at the active site of the
enzyme?
A. Sulfhydryl group.
Q. What is repression?
A. Repression acts at the gene level, the number of enzyme molecules is reduced in the
presence of repressor molecule.
Q. Give an example of repression.
A. The key enzyme of heme synthesis, ALA synthase is autoregulated by the heme by
means of repression.
Q. What are the serum enzymes helpful in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction?
A. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) H4 iso-enzyme, creatine kinase (CK) CK MB iso-
enzyme and aspartyl transaminase (AST).
Q. Total acid phosphatase may increase in some other conditions also; what are
they?
A. Prostate carcinoma, secondary metastasis in bones, per rectal examination,
intravascular hemolysis.
Q. What is immuno-electrophoresis?
A. Here electrophoretic separation is followed by an antigen-antibody reaction.
Q. What is Rf value?
A. It is the ratio of the distance travelled by the substance (solute) to the distance
travelled by the solvent. The Rf value is a constant for a particular solvent system at a
given temperature.
Q. What are the methods used to determine the molecular weight of proteins?
A. (1) Ultracentrifugation, (2) Gel filtration and (c) PAGE (poly acrylamide gel
electrophoresis).
Q. What is a polysaccharide?
A. They contain more than 10 sugar units.
Q. Give an example.
A. For example, glucose and mannose are an epimeric pair which differ only with
respect to carbon atom 2. Similarly, galactose is the 4th epimer of glucose.
Q. Name a ketose.
A. Fructose.
Q. Keto group is non-reducing, but fructose reduces Benedict.s solution, what is the
cause for this anomaly?
A. In alkaline medium, ketone group is converted to aldehyde, through enediol
formation.
Q. In the case of sugars, which of the properties go hand in hand?
A. Reducing property, osazone formation and mutarotation.
Q. Glucose and fructose are reducing sugars, but sucrose (containing glucose and
fructose) is a non-reducing sugar, why?
A. Because the glycosidic linkage in sucrose involves 1st carbon of glucose and 2nd
carbon of fructose, so both reducing groups are masked.
Q. What is a homopolysaccharide?
A. They are composed of single kind of monosaccharides.
Q. Cellulose and starch are polysaccharides made of glucose, but cellulose cannot
be digest by human beings, why?
A. Cellulose contains beta 1,4 linkages, which cannot be digested by human enzymes.
Q. What is inulin?
A. It is a homopolysaccharide, composed of fructose units.
Q. How glucose is released from intestinal cells into the blood stream?
A. Glucose transporter type 2 (GluT2) .
Q. What is hexokinase?
A. Hexokinase is the first step in the glycolysis pathway. It phosphorylates glucose to
glucose-6-phosphate.
Q. What is glucokinase?
A. The reaction is similar to hexokinase. But glucokinase is present only in liver, acts
specifically on glucose, and is active when glucose level in blood is increased after a
food.
Q. As the end product of glycolysis, pyruvate and NADH are formed. During
anaerobiasis, this NADH is reconverted to NAD+ by what mechanism?
A. Lactate dehydrogenase reaction.
Q. As the end product of glycolysis, pyruvate and NADH are formed. During aerobic
conditions, this NADH is reconverted to NAD+ by what mechanism?
A. Oxygen.
Q. What is the net yield of ATP from one glucose molecule during anaerobic glycolysis?
A. 2 ATP.
Q. In aerobic glycolysis, the net yield from one glucose molecule is how much?
A. 8 ATP.
Q. During complete oxidation, what is the net yield of ATP from one glucose molecule?
A. 38 ATP.
Q. How many ATPs are generated per one rotation of the citric acid cycle?
A. 12 ATP.
Q. What are the steps in which carbon dioxide is produced from a glucose molecule?
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha keto glutarate
dehydrogenase.
Q. What is gluconeogenesis?
A. Production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources.
Q. What are those non-carbohydrate sources? (What are the substrates for
gluconeogenesis?).
A. Glucogenic amino acids and lactate.
Q. How many ATP molecules are required to convert two molecules of pyruvate into
glucose?
A. Six.
Q. What is glycogenolysis?
A. Degradation of glycogen to glucose.
Q. Which is the defective enzyme in von Gierke.s disease (glycogen storage disease
type I)?
A. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
Q. What is the major indication for doing an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)?
A. Patient has symptoms suggestive of diabetes mellitus, but fasting blood sugar value
is inconclusive (between 100 and 126 mg/dl).
Q. When a standard oral glucose tolerance test was done, the blood glucose levels of
the patient were found as:0 min = 130 mg/dl and 120 min = 220 mg/dl. What will be your
diagnosis?
A. Diabetes mellitus.
Q. When a standard oral glucose tolerance test was done, the blood glucose levels of
the patient were found as:0 min = 120 mg/dl, 120 min = 160 mg /dl. What is your
diagnosis?
A. Impaired glucose tolerance.
Q. If a known diabetic patient, who becomes pregnant, will you include her in the
category of GDM?
A. No.
Q. What are other conditions which may cause impaired glucose tolerance?
A. Alimentary glucosuria, renal glucosuria.
Q. What is fructosuria?
A. Presence of fructose in urine. It is due to the deficiency of fructokinase or aldolase B
Q. What is lactosuria?
A. It is observed in the urine of normal women during 3rd trimester of pregnancy and
during lactation.
Q. What is the clinical importance of lactosuria?
A. The condition is harmless. But it is important to distinguish lactosuria from glucosuria
when gestational diabetes mellitus is suspected.
Q. What is proinsulin?
A. Insulin is synthesised as a large single polypeptide. Middle part of it is then removed,
to form the A and B chains of insulin.
Q. What is C peptide?
A. It is the part removed from proinsulin during the maturation of insulin molecule.
Q. What is micro-albuminuria?
A. Albumin 50 to 300 mg/day in urine. It is a predictor of progressive renal damage,
atherosclerotic diseases and cardiovascular mortality. Albumin more than 300
mg/day indicates overt diabetic nephropathy.
Q. Apart from NADPH generation, is there any other purpose for the HMPshunt
pathway?
A. The pathway is required for the synthesis of ribose, the pentose phosphates are
necessary for nucleotide (DNA and RNA) synthesis.
Q. What is fructosuria?
A. It is a benign metabolic defect due to deficiency of fructokinase. Urine gives
positive Benedict.s test, and so it should be differentiated from diabetes mellitus.
Q. What is saponification?
A. Hydrolysis of fat by alkali is called are saponification.
Q. Will there be complete breakdown of triglyceride into fatty acid in the gastro intestinal
tract?
A. No, only partial digestion is possible.
Q. Where will you find short and medium chain fatty acids?
A. They are seen in butter, ghee, coconut oil and mother.s milk.
Q. What is steatorrhea?
A. When excretion of fat in faeces is more than 6 g per day, it is called steatorrhea.
Q. What is it due to?
A. It is due to defective digestion as in chronic diseases of pancreas. In such cases,
unsplit fat is excreted in feces.
Q. What is carnitine?
A. Carnitine is beta-hydroxy-gamma-trimethyl ammonium butyrate. It is synthesised
from lysine and methionine in liver and kidney.
Q. What is the function of carnitine?
A. Fatty acids are activated in the cytoplasm, but the beta-oxidation is in mitochondria.
The long chain fatty acyl CoA cannot pass through the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Therefore a transporter, carnitine is involved in transfer of fatty acids.
Q. What is the net generation of ATP, when one molecule of palmitic acid (16
carbon) is oxidized completely?
A. 129.
Q. What are the products, during each cycle of beta oxidation of fatty acid?
A. Acetyl CoA, FADH2, and NADH.
Q. What are the co-enzymes required for the conversion of propionyl CoA to succinyl
CoA?
A. Biotin, ATP, Vitamin B12.
Q. What are the major differences between fatty acid synthesis and beta oxidation of
fatty acid?
A. Beta oxidation is taking place in mitochondria, fatty acid synthesis is in
cytoplasm. Oxidation enzymes are independent, synthetic enzymes are grouped as
a multi-enzyme complex. During oxidation, 2 carbon units are removed as acetyl CoA,
during synthesis, 2 carbon units are added as 3 carbon malonyl CoA. For oxidation,
NAD and FAD are necessary, for synthesis, NADPH is used.
Q. Acetyl CoA from mitochondria is transferred to cytoplasm for the de novo synthesis
of fatty acid, by which enzyme?
A. ATP citrate lyase.
Q. What are the steps in which NADPH is used in fatty acid synthesis?
A. Step 4 (Keto acyl reductase) and Step 6 (Enoyl reductase).
Q. What is LCAT?
A. Lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase.
Q. Where is it present?
A. LCAT present in plasma is activated by apo-A1, when LCAT binds to HDL disc.
Q. What advise you will give to a person with increased cholesterol level?
A. Reduce food with higher cholesterol content of food, include PUFA and omega-3
fatty acids in diet, reduction of total fat intake of green leafy vegetables, exercise, avoid
cigarettes.
Q. When will you start drugs for a person with increased cholesterol level?
A. When patient.s condition is not responding to the dietary restriction.
Q. What is LCFA?
A. Long chain fatty acids they contain 16 to 18 carbon atoms.
Q. What is VLCFA?
A. Very long chain fatty acids they contain 20 or more carbon atoms.
Q. When palmitoleic acid (16 C, 1 double bond) is completely oxidised, what is the net
generation of ATP molecules?
A. 127.
Q. When unsaturated fatty acids are oxidised, how many ATP is formed?
A. The energy yield is less by 2 ATP molecules per double bond, when compared to the
corresponding chain length saturated fatty acid.
Q. What is Lecithin?
A. Phosphatidyl choline.
Q. What is Cephalin?
A. Phosphatidyl ethanol amine.
Q. What is Cardiolipin?
A. Diphosphatidyl glycerol.
Q. What is sphingomyelin?
A. All sphingolipids have the long aliphatic aminoalcohol sphingosine which is
attached to afatty acid in amide linkage to form a ceramide. A common
phosphosphingoside present abundantly in the nervous system, is sphingomyelin. It
contains choline. Sphingomyelins are the only sphingolipid that contain phosphate and
have no sugar moiety.
Q. What is a cerebroside?
A. Ceramide monohexoside.
Q. What is a globoside?
A. Ceramide oligosaccharides.
Q. What is an endopeptidase?
A. It acts on peptide bonds inside the protein molecule, so that the protein becomes
successively smaller and smaller units.
Q. What is carboxypeptidase?
A. It is secreted by cells of intestinal villi, it is a metallo-enzyme containing zinc, it
is an endopeptidase, spliting off carboxy terminal bond of the protein.
Q. What is ubiquitin?
A. It is necessary for intracellular protein breakdown.
Q. What is transdeamination?
A. Transamination takes place in all the cells of the body, the amino group is
transported to liver as glutamic acid which is finally oxidatively deaminated in liver.
Thus, the two components of the reaction are physically far away, but physiologically
they are coupled. Hence the term transdeamination.
Q. Which amino acid has two optically active (asymmetric) carbon atom?
A. Threonine.
Q. What is glutathione?
A. Gamma glutamyl cysteinyl glycine.
Q. What is GABA?
A. It is an inhibitory neurotransmitter. Which is produced by decarboxylation of glutamic
acid.
Q. Which amino acids are required for both purine and pyrimidine synthesis?
A. Aspartic acid, glutamine.
Q. What is asparaginase?
A. Enzyme catalysing the reaction asparaginase to aspartic acid + ammonia.
Q. What is indican?
A. Putrefaction product of tryptophan.
Q. What is the amino acid which has maximum buffering capacity at physiological
pH?
A. Histidine.
Q. What is figlu?
A. Formimino glutamic acid, it is a product of histidine metabolism.
Q. What are the steps in which carbon dioxide is liberated, during the oxidation of
glucose?
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, alpha keto glutarate
dehydrogenase.
Q. How many ATPs are generated per one rotation of the citric acid cycle?
A. 12 ATP.
Q. What is the net yield of ATP from one molecule of glucose in anaerobic glycolysis?
A. 2 ATP.
Q. What is the net yield of ATP from one molecule of glucose in aerobic glycolysis?
A. 8 ATP.
Q. During complete oxidation, what is the net yield of ATP from one glucose molecule?
A. 38 ATP.
Q. What is the approximate percentage of storage form of energy (total fuel reserve)
present in a normal human body?
A. Fat 85%, glycogen 1%, protein 14%.
Q. What is valinomycin?
A. It acts as an ionophore, dissipates the proton gradient, and so inhibits ATP
synthesis.
Q. What is atractylocide?
A. It inhibits translocase, and inhibits ATP synthesis.
Q. How many ATP are produced in the oxidation of one molecule of NADH?
A. Three.
Q. How many ATP are produced in the oxidation of one molecule of FADH?
A. Two.
Q. What is oligomycin?
A. It inhibits oxidative phosphorylation.
Plasma Proteins
Q. What are the functions of albumin?
A. It maintains colloidal osmotic pressure of plasma, and it transports non-esterified
fatty acid and bilirubin.
Q. What is ceruloplasmin?
A. It is a copper containing enzyme (ferroxidase) seen in blood. It is an acute phase
protein.
Immunochemistry
Q. How immunoglobulins are classified?
A. IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD and IgE.
Q. What is M band?
A. A narrow peak in gamma globulin, caused by monoclonal antibodies secreted
by malignant plasma cells.
Q. What is Bence Jones protein?
A. It is the light chains of immunoglobulins, excreted in urine. It is seen in urine of 20%
cases of multiple myeloma.
Q. What is the test done to detect Bence Jones protein?
A. It is precipitated when heated between 45 and 60 degrees.
Q. What is myosin?
A. It is a specialised protein seen in muscle.
Q. What is jaundice?
A. When plasma bilirubin is more than 2 mg/dl, it diffuses into tissues, causing yellowish
discolouration of tissues.
Q. What is kernicterus?
A. In young children, when plasma bilirubin is more than 20 mg/dl, it diffuses into
brain, causing permanent damage to brain cells.
Q. Bile salts and bile pigments are excreted in urine in which condition?
A. Obstructive jaundice.
Haemoglobins
Q. What are the salient structural features of hemoglobin molecule?
A. Hb has four subunits, two alpha and two beta units. It contains four iron atoms.
Q. What is met-hemoglobin?
A. Hemoglobin in which iron is in ferric state.
Q. What is hemoglobin S?
A. The glutamic acid in the 6th position of beta chain of HbA is changed to valine in
HbS.
Q. What is calcitriol?
A. 1,25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol, or active Vitamin D, contains three hydroxyl groups at
1, 3 and 25 positions. So it is called calcitriol.
Q. What is menadione?
A. It is synthetic water soluble Vitamin K, widely used in clinical practice.
Q. Can you give an exmple of one Vitamin deficiency leading to another Vitamin
deficiency?
A. PLP deficiency in turn leads to niacin deficiency which is manifested as pellagra.
Q. What is PABA?
A. Para amino benzoic acid.
A. Macrocytic anemia.
Q. How it is synthesised?
A. Man and primates cannot synthesise ascorbic acids. Lower animals could
synthesise it from glucose through glucuronic acid pathway.
Mineral Metabolism
Q. What influences absorption of calcium from intestine?
A. Vitamin D, calcitriol, parathyroid hormone, phytic acid, and oxalate.
Q. What is hemosiderin?
A. Excess iron is loaded as hemosiderin.
Q. What is haptoglobin?
A. It is the carrier of free hemoglobin.
Q. What is hemopexin?
A. It is the carrier of free heme.
Q. What is ceruloplasmin?
A. It is ferroxidase, and it promotes oxidation of ferrous ion to ferric form.
Q. What is Fluorosis?
A. It is produced when fluoride concentration in water is more than 20 ppm.
Osteoporosis is the manifestation.
Q. A balanced diet should have calories for carbohydrate, proteins and fats in which
ratio?
A. 60:20:20.
Q. What are the occupations in which persons are prone to get lead poisoning?
A. Battery repair, radiator repair, soldering, painting and printing.
Q. When pH falls by 1 unit, what is the change in the hydrogen ion concentration?
A. Increases by 10 times.
Q. What are the mechanisms by which renal regulation of acid load is achieved?
A. Excretion of hydrogen ions in urine, excretion of ammonium ions in urine, and
production of bicarbonate in renal tubules.
Q. What is a nucleotide?
A. Nitrogenous base + sugar + phosphate.
Q. What is a nucleoside?
A. Nitrogenous base + sugar.
Q. Which amino acid is required for both purine and pyrimidine synthesis?
A. Aspartic acid and glutamine.
Q. N3 of purine ring is donated by what?
A. Glutamine.
Q. How is it manifested?
A. Severe immunodeficiency.
Q. What is nucleosome?
A. DNA wrapped around histones.
Q. What is euchromatin?
A. Transcriptionally active chromatin is called euchromatin. It is less densely
packed, and sensitive to digestion by DNAse.
Q. What a replisome?
A. DNA replication needs the participation of more than 20 enzymes and proteins,
collectively called DNA replicase system or replisomes.
Q. What is transcription?
A. The process of making a complementary mRNA copy of DNA.
Q. What is intron?
A. Part of mRNA that is removed is called intron.
Q. What is a spliceosome?
A. Small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (SnRNPs) associated with hnRNA at
the exon ntron junction form spliceosomes. This is taking place inside the nucleus.
Q. What is the cause for systemic lupus erythematosis?
A. Production of auto antibodies against small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles
cause systemic lupus erythematosis (SLE), a fatal autoimmune disease.
Q. How many high energy bonds are required for the synthesis of one peptide bond?
A. Four high energy bonds.
Q. What is a mutation?
A. An alteration in the genetic material results in a mutation.
Q. Give an example.
A. HbS or sickle-cell hemoglobin is produced by a mutation of the beta chain in which
the 6th position is changed to valine, instead of the normal glutamate.
Q. What is a prion?
A. .Prions. is the acronym for .proteinaceous infective particles..
Q. What is transgenesis?
A. It is a form of germ cell gene therapy. A recombinant DNA segment,
containing the desired gene from another species, is introduced into the fertilized ova.
The embryos are allowed to develop in the uterus of another animal.
Biochemistry of AIDS
Q. What other special tests could be done?
A. T-helper cell count is below 300/ cu.mm. By RTPCR (reverse transcriptase
polymerase chain reaction, the number of HIV particles in blood can be estimated, a
value of less than 5000 copies per ml of blood has good prognosis, while a count
more than 1 lakh per ml means very bad prognosis.
Biochemistry of Cancer
Q. Proto-Oncogenes may be activated by what mechanisms?
A. Viral infection, mutation in proto-oncogene, promoter insertion, and chromosome
translocation.
Q. What is an Isotope?
A. Isotopes of a given element will have different atomic weights, but will have
same atomic number.
Q. For RIA (radio immuno assay), the radio-active isotope used is:
A. 125-Iodine.
Body Fluids
Q. Milk contains which type of fatty acids?
A. The fatty acids are mainly saturated, but 50% of them are medium chain fatty acids
(Lauric and Myristic acids).
Q. What is whey?
A. If milk is acidified and pH lowered to 4.7, the casein is precipitated (iso-electric
precipitation). The supernatant is called whey.
Q. What are the proteins present in whey?
A. Lactalbumin, lactoglobulin and lysozyme.
Q. Name some hormones which act through cyclic AMP as the second messenger.
A. Glucagon, ACTH, TSH, ADH, FSH, LH.
Q. Name some hormones which act through cyclic GMP as the second messenger.
A. ANF (atrial natriuretic factor).
Q. Alpha chain of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) is shared with what else?
A. TSH, FSH, LH and HCG have the common alpha chain, and beta chains are specific.
Clinical Biochemistry-I
Q. What is end point analysis?
A. Serum sample and reagents are mixed and incubated for a fixed time, to develop
the colour optimally. Then, the OD is ascertained and the concentration of the
substances is calculated. This is called end point analysis.
Q. What is accuracy?
A. Accuracy is the closeness of a result to the true value.
Q. What are the salient laboratory findings in a patient with chronic liver disease?
A. Serum albumin is lowered, albumin globulin ratio is reversed, and prothrombin time is
prolonged.
Q. What is the characteristic laboratory findings in alcoholic cirrhosis?
A. Elevation of gamma glutamyl transferase level in serum.
Q. What is micro-albuminuria?
A. When small quantities of albumin (50-300 mg/ day) is seen in urine.