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General Instructions
Since your score on the exam is based on the number of questions you
answered correctly minus one-third of the number you answered
incorrectly, it is improbable that guessing will improve your score
(it is more likely to lower your score). (No points are deducted or
awarded for unanswered questions.) However, if you are not sure of
the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are
able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices, then your chance
of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be advantageous
to answer such a question.
1. When a cell that was deprived of nutrients was given glucose, the
pH within its vacuoles dropped. The best reason for this observation
is that:
a. 0
b. 1/4
c. 1/2
d. 3/4
e. 1
3. If you arranged the units of life listed in the table below into a
hierarchy, from smallest (least inclusive) to largest (most
inclusive), which unit would be found three levels below a fish?
a. Organ
b. Biosphere
c. Molecule
d. Cell
e. Population
a. accumulate glucose.
b. no longer produce ATP.
c. accumulate pyruvate.
d. oxidize FAD.
e. oxidize NADH to produce NAD+.
6. Which statement is FALSE ?
a. Herbivores
b. Producers
c. Primary consumers
d. Tertiary consumers
e. Secondary consumers
12. What is the most likely explanation for the observation that two
individuals originating from the same clone look different?
a. Exposure to x-rays.
b. Exposure to ultra-violet radiation.
c. Exposure to chemicals.
d. The mispairing of chromosomes during meiosis.
e. Errors during DNA replication.
16. Which factor would contribute the most to increasing the rate of
water movement upward in the xylem?
17. Two alternative alleles, the dominant A and the recessive a, are
in equilibrium in a population. The frequency of A is 0.6. The
percentage of individuals showing the dominant trait in the
population should be:
a. 36%
b. 40%
c. 60%
d. 75%
e. 84%
20. What was the key evolutionary event that led to the
diversification of plants on land? The evolution of:
a. chloroplasts.
b. protected seeds.
c. tissues to store starch.
d. meiosis.
e. a water-conducting cell type.
a. Its solid state is less dense than its liquid state, and it takes
up large amounts of heat to change to its gaseous state.
b. Its solid state is less dense than its liquid state, and it takes
up only small amounts of heat to change to its gaseous state.
c. Its solid state is more dense than its liquid state, and it takes
up large amounts of heat to change to its gaseous state.
d. Its solid state is more dense than its liquid state, and it takes
up only small amounts of heat to change to its gaseous state.
e. Its solid state is just as dense as its liquid state, and it takes
up no heat to change to its gaseous state.
23. In Drosophila the gene for brown eyes is recessive to its normal
allele for red eyes; the gene for curled wings is recessive to its
normal allele for straight wings. The two genes show independent
assortment. Males heterozygous for both genes are mated to females
that are heterozygous for the eye colour gene, but homozygous for the
gene for curled wings. What proportion of the offspring should have
normal red eyes and normal straight wings?
a. 3/16
b. 3/8
c. 1/2
d. 3/4
e. 9/16
a. i, ii and iii
b. i, ii and iv
c. i, ii, iii and iv
d. iii only
e. iv only
a. Shoot apex
b. Root apex
c. Embryo
d. Wood
e. Cambium between wood and bark
28. DNA fingerprinting has become a familiar forensic tool and has
been cited in recent criminal trials. It is possible to do DNA
fingerprinting with even a very minute sample of DNA because:
31. The content of a large vacuole in a eukaryotic cell has the same
osmotic pressure as the surrounding cytoplasm, to prevent it from
shrinking or bursting. If this eukaryotic cell is placed in a 3 M
sucrose solution:
a. The first pathway (the light reactions) captures light energy and
produces ATP and NADPH + H+.
b. The second pathway (the Calvin-Benson cycle) uses the products of
the first pathway and CO2 to produce sugars.
c. The second pathway is also known as the dark reactions because
none of its reactions uses light directly.
d. The light reactions occur within chloroplasts; the Calvin-Benson
cycle takes place in the cytosol.
e. Both pathways stop in the dark.
40. In the event of global warming which one of the following is most
likely to occur?
a. Existing plant and animal communities will move north in response
to warming.
b. Agriculture in the Prairie provinces will be redeveloped on soils
of the Canadian Shield.
c. The anticipated rise in sea level will be caused primarily by the
melting of polar ice caps.
d. The decomposition of organic matter in the unfrozen surface layer
of polar soils will increase.
e. Tundra vegetation will increase in area as soils dry out in polar
regions.
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. peptide bonds.
c. disulfide bonds.
d. ionic bonds.
e. covalent bonds.
a. Water retention
b. Regulation of sodium in the blood
c. Excretion of toxins
d. Synthesis of urea
e. Water excretion
a. The protein was a peripheral membrane protein that came off the
membrane after hormone treatment.
b. The hormone caused the cell to make endocytotic vesicles that
specifically formed at sites in the plasma membrane that contained
the protein.
c. The hormone destroyed the protein.
d. The hormone bound to the protein to make the protein heavier.
e. The hormone caused the plasma membrane to break into fragments,
causing the cell to make new plasma membrane without the protein.
a. Helicase
b. RNA primase
c. Reverse transcriptase
d. DNA ligase
e. DNA polymerase
46. If an adult human female took a drug that inhibited the release
of LH (luteinizing hormone), which of the following would NOT occur?
48. The figure below shows two nerve action potentials recorded
intracellularly in response to stimulating an axon. What experimental
manipulation would most likely have caused the change from curve A
(solid line) to curve B (dashed line)?
1. e 2. c 3. d 4. b 5. e
6. a 7. d 8. c 9. b 10. d
11. d 12. a 13. e 14. a 15. a
16. c 17. e 18. c 19. b 20. e
21. e 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. e
26. c 27. d 28. d 29. e 30. c
31. c 32. a 33. b 34. c 35. b
36. a 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. d
41. e 42. d 43. c 44. b 45. c
46. b 47. e 48. c 49. a 50. c
Back to test
On the original test paper (May 2001) there were two correct responses in each
of questions 7 and 38; these have been corrected on the online version of the
test. This was unintentional. If a student selected either of the responses it was
recorded as a correct response.
NOTE:
• To view the correct answer when you select the "Answer" button you must have Javascript
enabled on your web browser (select Options, Network Preferences, and then Languages).
• When you click on the "Answer..." button, a small window will pop up. You MUST close
it, by clicking on "Back To Test". If you do not do this, subsequent windows displaying the
answer will not be visible.
• This document is best viewed with at least Netscape 3.0 or Internet Explorer 3.0
• Answer Key
General Instructions
Since your score on the exam is based on the number of questions you
answered correctly minus one-third of the number you answered
incorrectly, it is improbable that guessing will improve your score
(it is more likely to lower your score). (No points are deducted or
awarded for unanswered questions.) However, if you are not sure of
the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are
able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices, then your chance
of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be advantageous
to answer such a question.
a. Inbreeding
b. Genetic drift
c. Natural selection
d. Artificial selection
e. Gene flow
a. Potato
b. Lettuce
c. Broccoli
d. Celery
e. Green bean
i. The atoms which make up an element are usually of the same kind.
ii. An atom is identified by the number of its protons, which is called the atomic
number.
iii. Not all atoms of the same element have the same mass number.
iv. Deuterium and tritium are isotopes of hydrogen; all three have the same
atomic number, 1.
a. i and ii
b. i, ii, iii, and iv
c. i and iii
d. ii and iv
e. iii and iv
a. cellular respiration.
b. breathing movements.
c. active transport of gases.
d. control by the central nervous system.
e. diffusion across membranes.
11. The graph below shows how much nitrate (NO3-) is exported from
the continent towards the ocean by 16 major rivers in the world
compared to the density of human populations living in those drainage
basins (i.e., along these rivers). Nitrate exported through rivers
causes eutrophication and has been implicated in the development of
toxic algal blooms in marine coastal regions. What conclusion drawn
from the graph is CORRECT ?
15. Which of the following organelles from a living specimen can NOT
be observed under the light microscope (using a x100 objective)?
18. Which statement about mitosis and the eukaryotic cell cycle is
FALSE ?
a. Telophase is defined as the stage at which all the kinetochores arrive at the
equatorial plate and the centromeres begin to divide.
b. Replication of DNA occurs during the S phase of the cell cycle, which is part
of interphase.
c. At the onset of mitosis, the chromatin becomes highly organized as a result of
supercoiling and compacting.
d. Mitosis refers only to the division of the nucleus, but is most often followed by
cytokinesis, the division of the cell.
e. The transition of the cell from the G2 phase to the M phase requires the action
of cyclins.
19. Which statement about photosynthesis is FALSE ?
a. In green plants, both photosystems I and II are required for the synthesis of
NADPH+H+.
b. The first stable product of photosynthesis in the majority of green plants (C3-
type plants) is 3-phosphoglycerate.
c. In normal aerobic environments and saturating levels of light, an increase in
CO2 concentration from 0.03% to 0.06% (300 ppm to 600 ppm) will result in an
increase in the rate of CO2 fixation by most green plants (C3-type plants).
d. Photosynthesis is a redox process: H2O is oxidized, CO2 is reduced.
e. The enzymes required for CO2 fixation in plants are located only in the grana
of the chloroplast.
a. He is the father.
b. He might be the father.
c. He is not the father.
d. He might not be the father.
e. There is not enough information to make a decision.
22. A trait in a hypothetical diploid organism is inherited via a
single gene with four different alleles. How many different genotypes
would be possible in this system?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
e. 16
24. The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes is:
a. are parasitic.
b. are capable of carrying out photosynthesis.
c. are heterotrophic.
d. live on dead organic matter.
e. are pathogens.
a. Order
b. Subspecies
c. Class
d. Genus
e. Family
36. Some viruses are surrounded by a membranous envelope which
originates from the:
37. In plants, sieve areas are regions of the cell wall with pores
that allow cytoplasmic continuity between adjacent:
a. epidermal cells.
b. parenchyma cells.
c. phloem cells.
e. tracheids.
e. xylem vessels.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
e. 18
a. Contraction of the heart originates at the sinoatrial node in the right atrium.
b. The atrioventricular node propagates the contraction to the ventricles.
c. During atrial contraction venous blood flows into the right ventricle.
d. The pulmonary artery contains oxygenated blood.
e. The left side of the heart pumps only oxygenated arterial blood.
a. Duplication
b. Inversion
c. Translocation
d. Nondisjunction
e. Deletion
a. refractory potential.
b. threshold potential.
c. action potential.
d. polarization potential.
e. resting potential.
44. Which statement about glycolysis is FALSE ?
45. The Swift Fox is a small mammal (about the size of a cat) that
once lived throughout the prairie grasslands of central Canada.
However, due to a number of factors including hunting, it had
completely disappeared from Canada by the late 1970s. In an attempt
to restore this species, foxes from American populations have been
released in Canada. However, the number of Swift Foxes in Canada
still remains low. Which factor is most likely NOT contributing to
this?
a. Much of the fox's original grassland habitat has been replaced with agriculture,
which has reduced the quality and quantity of habitat for the foxes and the
availability of suitable prey.
b. The foxes released in early reintroductions did not survive well, likely due to a
lack of knowledge of sources of food and den locations, or because the American
foxes were not adapted to the longer Canadian winters.
c. Coyotes, which are increasing in numbers, are feeding on the foxes, or
competing with the foxes for available resources.
d. Swift foxes are still being trapped for their pelts (fur), as they have been since
the early 1800s.
e. Swift foxes may have been the unintended victim of trapping and poisoning
campaigns directed at other mammals, such as coyotes, wolves, and ground
squirrels.
a. bicarbonate.
b. carbonic acid.
c. haemoglobin.
d. oxygen.
e. water.
a. 9
b. 16
c. 18
d. 20
e. 36
a. Mesoderm - notochord
b. Endoderm - lungs
c. Ectoderm - liver
d. Mesoderm - muscular system
e. Ectoderm - eye
1999 Examination
Time: 75 minutes
Number of Questions: 50
NOTE:
• To view the correct answer when you select the "Answer" button you must have Javascript
enabled on your web browser (select Options, Network Preferences, and then Languages).
• When you click on the "Answer..." button, a small window will pop up. You MUST close
it, by clicking on "Back To Test". If you do not do this, subsequent windows displaying the
answer will not be visible.
• This document is best viewed with at least Netscape 3.0 or Internet Explorer 3.0
• Answer Key
General Instructions
Since your score on the exam is based on the number of questions you
answered correctly minus one-third of the number you answered
incorrectly, it is improbable that guessing will improve your score
(it is more likely to lower your score). (No points are deducted or
awarded for unanswered questions.) However, if you are not sure of
the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are
able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices, then your chance
of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be advantageous
to answer such a question.
a. a plant.
b. an animal.
c. a fungus.
d. a bacterium.
e. a virus.
a. Look to see which cells had flagella; the flagellated cells were from Lake
Winnipeg.
b. Put some cells of each culture into a 3 M sucrose solution; the cells that shrank
were from the Pacific Ocean.
c. Put some cells of each culture into a 3 M sucrose solution; the cells that shrank
were from Lake Winnipeg.
d. Put some cells of each culture into distilled water; the cells that burst were
from the Pacific Ocean.
e. Put some cells of each culture into distilled water; the cells that burst were
from Lake Winnipeg.
i. Selective permeability
ii. Strength
iii. Elasticity
iv. Hydrophilicity
v. Fluidity
a. i and ii
b. i and v
c. ii and iii
d. iii and iv
e. iv and v
a. The Golgi complex forms vesicles that fuse to form the endoplasmic reticulum.
a. Production of ATP.
b. Production of NADH.
c. Production of FADH2.
d. Formation of pyruvate.
e. Splitting the carbon skeletons of simple sugars.
a. the movement of water into the chloroplast and its use in photosynthesis.
b. the coupling of ATP formation to electron flow in an electron-transport chain.
c. the movement of lipid-soluble molecules through a membrane.
d. the movement of NADH from the cytoplasm into the mitochondrion.
e. the coupling of chemical gradients to osmosis.
12. The graph below shows two hypothetical reactions: reaction course
A represents a reaction uncatalysed by an enzyme, whereas B
represents an enzyme-catalysed reaction. Which statement is FALSE ?
a. When an enzyme changes the activation energy of a reversible reaction of the
type x y, both
13. Which one of the following is an end product of the Calvin cycle,
the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
a. ATP
b. NADPH
c. A three-carbon sugar
d. Oxygen
e. Carbon dioxide
14. Some human cells divide approximately every 24 hours. You do some
experiments to show that the G1 and S phases take up half of the
cycle time. Further microscopic observations demonstrate that the
mitotic phase is one hour long. How long does the post-synthesis
"gap" take in this case?
a. 1 hour
b. 6 hours
c. 9 hours
d. 11 hours
e. 23 hours
a. Anaphase
b. Prophase
c. Telophase
d. Interphase
e. Metaphase
a. 0
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
17. All of the following are used as evidence that genes are on
chromosomes EXCEPT :
a. The two meiotic divisions reduce the DNA content per cell to one half of the
initial content.
b. Crossing over occurs in prophase of the second meiotic division.
c. In many species, the haploid products of meiosis proliferate by mitotic
division.
d. In many multicellular organisms only one of the four products of meiosis is
inherited.
e. There is no DNA replication between the first and second meiotic division.
a. Attempting to place the normal gene in a vector which will help the gene
integrate into a chromosome.
b. Utilising virus vectors which have had some of their own genes removed.
c. Utilising a suitably modified HIV virus.
d. Preventing transmission of the mutation to the next generation.
e. Finding gene transfer methods for treating other genetic disorders, such as
cystic fibrosis.
a. 30% adenine.
b. 30% cytosine.
c. 15% guanine.
d. 35% uracil.
e. None of the above are correct.
22. Molecular biologists cracked the code of life in the 1960s, when
a series of elaborate experiments disclosed the amino acid
translations of each of the mRNA codons. How many triplet mRNA codons
are there?
a. 16
b. 20
c. 32
d. 64
e. As many as there are amino acids, plus the initiation and termination codons.
a. Digest human DNA with a restriction enzyme; digest the plasmid with two
further restriction enzymes. Ligate the human and plasmid DNA and transfer
DNA to bacteria.
b. Digest human and plasmid DNA with the same restriction enzyme. Ligate the
human and plasmid DNA and transfer DNA to bacteria.
c. Digest human DNA extensively with a conventional endonuclease; digest the
plasmid with a restriction enzyme producing "blunt ends." Ligate the human and
plasmid DNA and transfer DNA to bacteria.
d. Transform human DNA to bacteria which contain a plasmid. Use a bacterial
recombination system to integrate this DNA into the plasmids.
e. This cannot be done in two weeks or less.
a. 9%
b. 14%
c. 42%
d. 49%
e. 90%
27. When Shakespeare was alive cobs of maize (corn) grew to about 15
cm in length, whereas today they can be almost twice this size. This
is because:
a.. of the cooler temperatures and decreased rainfall experienced at that time.
b. agricultural fields in England were small at that time and thus nutrients were
limiting.
c. recombinant DNA technology was not being practised at that time.
d. plant breeding using genetic principles was not introduced until the 20th
century.
e. of the lack of genetic variation in maize from Mexico, where maize originated.
28. Many people were sceptical of the theory of evolution when Darwin
first proposed it. Darwin received such sharp criticism because:
a. the bones in the wings of bats, fins of porpoises, and legs of humans were
known to be analogous structures.
b. he could not explain completely how evolution occurred because he did not
know the mechanism of inheritance.
c. the fossil record indicated that there were links between birds and reptiles.
d. Earth was thought to be much older than it actually is.
e. he proposed that chimpanzees had evolved into humans.
a. different viruses attack people of different ages, so each year as the population
ages, a new vaccine must be produced.
b. antibodies to the flu vaccine do not survive very long in the blood.
c. vaccines are unstable and cannot be stored for more than one year.
d. the body learns to destroy the antibodies made against the vaccine, so a new
type of vaccine is needed for each vaccination.
e. flu viruses change their genetic constituents so rapidly that vaccines against
them rapidly become obsolete.
a. photosynthetic.
b. chemosynthetic.
c. heterotrophs.
d. multicellular.
e. unicellular.
a. Arthropods
b. Vertebrates
c. Bacteria
d. Fungi
e. Flowering plants
a. The fungus provides nothing to the plant; the plant provides food to the
fungus.
b. The fungus secretes toxins to kill the plant; the plant provides minerals to the
fungus.
c. The fungus provides minerals to the plant; the plant secretes toxins to kill the
fungus.
d. The fungus provides minerals to the plant; the plant provides food to the
fungus.
e. The fungus provides minerals to the plant; the plant provides nothing to the
fungus.
36. It is common practice for farmers to pick tomatoes while they are
green and to store them in a warehouse prior to shipment to the local
grocery store. Prior to shipment, the tomatoes are treated with a
growth regulator to induce ripening. Which growth regulator is used?
a. Cytokinin
b. Auxin
c. Abscisic acid
d. Gibberellin
e. Ethylene
a. Stomach
b. Colon
c. Small intestine
d. Large intestine
e. Esophagus
38. The separation of oxygen from hemoglobin is enhanced near
exercising muscle (this is known as the Bohr effect) and is caused
by:
39. Beginning from the anterior (= superior) vena cava, what is the
correct pathway of blood through the mammalian heart? (R = right, L =
left)
a. R atrium --> R ventricle --> pulmonary vein --> lung circuit --> pulmonary
artery --> L atrium --> L ventricle --> aorta.
b. L atrium --> L ventricle --> pulmonary artery --> lung circuit --> pulmonary
vein --> R atrium --> R ventricle --> aorta.
c. Aorta --> L atrium --> L ventricle --> pulmonary vein --> lung circuit -->
pulmonary artery --> R ventricle --> R atrium.
d. R ventricle --> R atrium --> pulmonary artery --> lung circuit --> pulmonary
vein --> L atrium --> L ventricle --> aorta.
e. R atrium --> R ventricle --> pulmonary artery --> lung circuit --> pulmonary
vein --> L atrium --> L ventricle --> aorta.
[see comments]
a. the membrane potential changes from positive to negative and then back again.
b. sodium ions flow out through ion channels and potassium ions flow in.
c. sodium channels open as the membrane potential becomes less negative.
d. the sodium-potassium pump moves sodium ions into the cell.
e. potassium channels close as the membrane potential becomes more positive.
45. If you were outside for a long time on a hot, dry day, without
anything to drink, which of the following would happen?
a. Freshwater marsh
b. Prairie grassland
c. Tundra
d. Boreal forest
e. Cultivated field
47. The diagram below shows the feeding interactions between nine
species (A to I) of a food web with four trophic levels. Which
statement about this food web is CORRECT ?
a. Species A is a herbivore.
b. Species D is a carnivore.
c. Species G is an omnivore.
d. Species H is a predator.
e. Species I is a primary producer.
NOTE:
• To view the correct answer when you select the "Answer" button
you must have Javascript enabled on your Web browser (select
Options, Network Preferences, and then Languages).
• When you click on the "Answer..." button, a window will pop up.
You MUST close it, by clicking on "Back To Test". If you do not
do this, subsequent windows displaying the answer will not be
visible.
• Answer Key
Since your score on the exam is based on the number of questions you
answered correctly minus one-third of the number you answered
incorrectly, it is improbable that guessing will improve your score
(it is more likely to lower your score). (No points are deducted or
awarded for unanswered questions.) However, if you are not sure of
the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are
able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices, then your chance
of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be advantageous
to answer such a question.
a. A vesicle within a cell fuses with the plasma membrane and releases its
contents to the outside.
b. Solid particles or liquids are taken up by a cell through invagination of the
plasma membrane.
c. Investment in one cytosis reduces the ability of the parent to assist another
cytosis.
d. One region of an embryo directs the development of a neighbouring region of
an embryo through movement of cells.
e. An organism obtains its energy from light and organic compounds.
a. intracellular digestion.
b. ATP synthesis.
c. lipid transport.
d. carbohydrate storage.
e. protein synthesis.
4. The graphs below show the relationship between the rate of water loss by transpiration and leaf
temperature. Based on these results, which plant is best adapted for conserving water in a hot dry
environment?
a. Sunflower
b. Maple
c. Creosote
d. Grass
e. Pine
6. Which structure is present in a bean sprout (young seedling), but not in a bean seed?
a. Elongated hypocotyl
b. Radicle
c. Two cotyledons
d. Endosperm
e. Micropyle
7. Plant hormones play a role in regulating the development of plant seeds. The graphs below plot
embryo growth and the changes in hormone concentration over time. Based on these results,
which hormone(s) most likely regulate(s) embryo growth?
a. Auxin alone
b. Gibberellic acid alone
c. Abscisic acid alone
d. Both auxin and gibberellic acid
e. Both auxin and abscisic acid
8. Cell division typically occurs only in the meristematic regions of plants. In which region would
cell division NOT occur?
a. Shoot apex
b. Wood
c. Root apex
d. Cambium between wood and bark
e. Expanding leaf
9. How many times does cytokinesis occur during the entire process of meiosis?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
10. In humans, the sex ratio is very close to 50:50. The best genetic explanation for this is:
a. crossing over.
b. independent assortment.
c. linkage.
d. transformation.
e. segregation.
11. There are three alleles at the ABO antigen locus in humans. The A and B alleles produce A and
B antigens, respectively, while the O allele produces no antigen. For which of the following
phenotypes could you be certain that an individual (with that phenotype) is a homozygote?
a. Type A only
b. Type B only
c. Type O only
d. Types A, B, and O
e. None of the phenotypes
12. Quebec premier Lucien Bouchard had his leg amputated because of an infection known as the
"flesh-eating disease." This disease seems to have become a problem in Canada because of:
a. recent contact between humans and rodents.
b. travel between Africa and Canada.
c. the transmission of a virus from chickens to humans.
d. the evolution of antibiotic resistance.
e. contaminated hamburgers at fast food chains.
13. Which of the following would NOT be found in the cell of a bacterium?
a. DNA
b. Ribosomes
c. Plasma membrane
d. Pili
e. Mitochondria
15. In Canada, recent outbreaks of meningitis, caused by a virus, were controlled by immunization
with a vaccine. Unfortunately, AIDS caused by the HIV virus has not yet been controlled by a
vaccine because of the:
a. Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is carried in the form of bicarbonate
ions.
b. Without diffusion, there would be no gas exchange.
c. If the concentration of carbon dioxide in the alveolar air increases, the rate of
carbon dioxide exchange decreases.
d. Less carbon dioxide would be carried by the blood if there were fewer red
blood cells.
e. An increase in oxygen concentration would result in less oxygen binding to the
iron atoms in haemoglobin.
19. The trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles of humans have all of the following functions
EXCEPT:
21. Some of the important events in the human female reproductive cycle are listed below. Which
of the following best describes their sequence?
23. The embryo of which of the following organisms does NOT have an amnion?
a. A bird
b. A fish
c. An alligator
d. A lizard
e. A human
24. Which of the series of atoms listed below are ranked (from left to right) in terms of increasing
electronegativity?
a. F, N, C, H, Na
b. Na, H, C, N, F
c. Na, C, H, N, F
d. Na, H, C, F, N
e. F, N, H, Na, C
25. __________ bonds are important components that hold DNA strands together in the DNA
double helix. (fill in the blank)
a. Ionic
b. Covalent
c. Polar covalent
d. Peptide
e. Hydrogen
a. They always have at least one amino group and at least one carboxyl group.
b. In the formation of proteins, it is a condensation reaction that links the amino
group of one amino acid to the variable side chain of the adjacent amino acid.
c. The variable side chains of all of the amino acids are highly reactive and carry
a charge at neutral pH.
d. The peptide bond that links amino acids together in a protein is a type of ionic
bond, which explains why proteins are unstable at high temperatures.
e. The variable side chains of all amino acids are hydrophillic, which allows
polypeptides to remain soluble in an aqueous environment.
29. The protein complexes that constitute a cell's oxidative metabolism in the mitochondrion are:
30. The initial step in the biosynthesis of ATP by chemiosmosis in the mitochondrion is the:
31. You are a membrane biologist and have just elucidated the molecular structure of a protein that
penetrates the thickness of the plasma lipid bilayer with several non-polar, parallel helical
segments. The next most logical set of experiments you conduct should be designed to
characterize:
35. What happens each day when the leaf of a plant is first exposed to light?
a. The epidermal cells on the upper surface of the leaf begin to photosynthesize.
b. Carbon dioxide diffuses out of the leaf.
c. The cells of the spongy mesophyll begin to take up carbon dioxide, and are the
only cells that are able to do so.
d. The concentration of oxygen in the intercellular spaces of the leaf decreases.
e. The guard cells become more turgid and the stomatal apertures open.
36. Which statement about the light reactions of photosynthesis is FALSE?
37. The graph below shows the relationship between photosynthetic rate and temperature. Based
on these results, which species is best adapted to arctic conditions where the mean temperature
does not exceed 8oC during the growing season?
a. Species A
b. Species B
c. Species C
d. Species D
e. All species are equally well adapted.
a. the water in the xylem vessels moves when the water potential of the
atmosphere is less negative than the water potential of the vessels themselves.
b. the water in the xylem vessels is under a positive hydrostatic pressure.
c. the water in the xylem vessels is attracted to nonpolar molecules within the cell
walls.
d. the solution in the phloem sieve tubes is under a negative hydrostatic pressure
(tension).
e. the water potential of the phloem sieve tube elements becomes more negative
as carbohydrates are "loaded" into the elements by active transport.
39. The susceptibility to many cancers is inherited, despite the fact that those who contract the
disease usually die quickly. The evidence shows that the usual explanation for this is that people
who are at a genetic risk for cancer inherit:
40. When a DNA molecule is replicated before mitosis the result is:
a. two DNA molecules, one of which carries all of the original DNA molecule,
while the other is newly synthesized.
b. two DNA molecules, each of which contains half of the original DNA
molecule.
c. two DNA molecules, one of which carries all of the original DNA molecule,
while the other is newly synthesized, plus the RNA template used as an
intermediate.
d. two DNA molecules, each of which contains half of the original DNA
molecule, plus the RNA template used as an intermediate.
e. two chromosomes.
41. From a scientific point of view, which of the following properties would help make a gene a
practical target for gene therapy in a human?
a. i and ii
b. i, ii, and iv
c. i and iii
d. ii and iii
e. iii and iv
42. Which of the following changes to a DNA molecule is least likely to result in a deleterious
mutation?
44. Efforts to repeat the cloning of Dolly the sheep have been unsuccessful. The scientists who
claim to have cloned Dolly have been challenged to produce additional evidence that Dolly is
really derived from an adult cell (as originally claimed), rather than a fetal cell which might have
contaminated the experiment (as the sceptics suggest). Which of the following could provide
evidence that Dolly was created from an adult cell, rather than a fetal cell?
45. Although the seal and the penguin both have streamlined, fish-like bodies with a layer of
insulating fat, they are not closely related. This similarity results from:
a. homologous evolution.
b. convergent evolution.
c. adaptive radiation.
d. coevolution.
e. parallel evolution.
46. What does the term "reproductive isolation" refer to?
47. Why is it unlikely that humans will undergo speciation in the future?
48. For a trait that is controlled by two alleles at a single locus, the frequency of the dominant
allele is 0.6. What is the genotype frequency of heterozygous individuals, assuming the population
is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 0.16
b. 0.24
c. 0.36
d. 0.48
e. 0.72
49. Which prediction from the fossil record is in agreement with the theory of evolution?
a. Jawed fishes are found deeper in rock strata (layers) than jawless fishes.
b. Land animals appear earlier than land plants in the fossil record.
c. Unicellular organisms are first found in strata above multicellular fossils.
d. Prokaryote fossils appear earlier than eukaryote fossils.
e. Reptiles appear earlier than insects in the fossil record.
50. Which of the following is NOT a correct match of hormone and function?
52. If you were to insert a tiny heating probe into the thermoregulatory centre of the hypothalamus
and use it to raise the temperature of the hypothalamus slightly, what is most likely to occur?
a. Shivering
b. Decreased circulation in the skin
c. Decreased activity of the sweat glands
d. A drop in body temperature
e. Increased muscular activity
53. Suppose you are developing a new drug, and have found that when it is administered in
humans there is a substantial increase in the volume of urine produced. When you administer
antidiuretic hormone (ADH, or vasopressin) at the same time, the volume of urine returns to
normal. Which hypothesis best fits these observations? The new drug:
a. blocks the receptors for ADH on the collecting ducts of the kidney.
b. blocks the release of ADH from the pituitary.
c. mimics the action of ADH.
d. damages the kidney.
e. decreases blood pressure.
54. Along with nicotine, cigarette smokers receive tars, phenols, hydrocarbons, arsenic, and many
other chemicals. All of the following are effects of inhaling tobacco EXCEPT:
55. Where would one expect to find the highest concentration of PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls,
an organic contaminant) in a lake?
a. Water
b. Small fish
c. Sediment
d. Phytoplankton
e. Zooplankton
56. You were asked to measure the density of rats on an island using the mark-recapture technique.
You captured 200 rats, marked them with tags and released them. A week later you sampled 500
rats and measured how many of these rats were marked. This ratio allows you to estimate the size
of the rat population on the island, as shown in the equation below. Which of the following must
occur in order for your estimate of population size to be accurate?
a. The marked rats must not move far from the region where you released them.
b. The marked rats must represent a small proportion of the total population.
c. The marked rats must mix freely with the rest of the population.
d. The death rate in the rat population must be low.
e. The rats on the island must be territorial.
58. As the number of individuals approaches the carrying capacity of a population, which of the
following is predicted by the sigmoidal growth curve?
59. In most ecosystems, the biomass of a trophic level is higher than the biomass of its predators,
as illustrated below by an upright pyramid of biomass. In the open ocean, however, the biomass of
primary producers (microscopic algae) is often lower than the biomass of higher trophic levels (for
example, zooplankton and fish), as illustrated below by an inverted pyramid of biomass. In the
open ocean, how can there be enough food to support the higher trophic levels?
Note: The width of the bars indicates the amount of biomass at each
trophic level.
60. One of the consequences of El Niño is a decline in the number of fish caught along the coasts
of Ecuador and Peru. This decline is primarily because:
• Answer Key
Since your score on the exam is based on the number of questions you
answered correctly minus one-third of the number you answered
incorrectly, it is improbable that guessing will improve your score
(it is more likely to lower your score). (No points are deducted or
awarded for unanswered questions). However, if you are not sure of
the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are
able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices, then your chance
of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be advantageous
to answer such a question.
2. A scientist put some plant cells in a solution of glucose and, after 30 minutes, measured the
concentration of glucose inside the cells. When she repeated the experiment using double the
concentration of glucose in the solution, the concentration of glucose inside the cells also doubled.
Which of the following principles does this experiment demonstrate?
3. Which statement best explains why protozoans that live in pond water must use exocytosis to
get rid of excess water in their cytoplasm?
4. Plant cells can often grow larger than animal cells because:
5. Which of the following cell types provide mechanical support for plants?
6. Water can move from the soil and up through the world's tallest living tree (which is 110 metres
high) by which of the following process(es)?
a. Osmosis
b. Root pressure
c. Pressure flow
d. Adhesion and cohesion of water molecules
e. All of the above
8. What path does a carbon atom take in going from the atmosphere into the cell wall of a root cap
cell?
a. Stoma---proplastid---chloroplast---vessel element---procambium---apical
meristem---root cap
b. Stoma---chloroplast---phloem---apical meristem---procambium---root cap
c. Stoma---chloroplast---vessel element---procambium---apical meristem---root
cap
d. Stoma---chloroplast---sieve tube---procambium---apical meristem---root cap
e. All of these paths are possible.
9. The plant growth regulator involved in aging and ripening of fruit is:
a. cytokinin.
b. auxin.
c. gibberellin.
d. abscisic acid.
e. ethylene.
10. Which of the following provides the best evidence that all known forms of life descended from
a common ancestor?
a. DNA
b. Chloroplasts
c. The genetic code
d. The homeobox sequence
e. Mitochondria
a. gamete formation.
b. meiosis.
c. mitosis.
d. sexual reproduction.
e. syngamy.
12. Imagine that in a plant, hairy leaves are dominant to smooth leaves, and blue flowers are
dominant to white. You cross a pure breeding hairy-leaved, blue-flowered strain with a pure
breeding smooth-leaved, white-flowered strain. You allow the offspring to self-fertilize, and
observe that the F2 offspring are 69% hairy-leaved and blue-flowered, 19% smooth-leaved and
white-flowered, 6% hairy-leaved and white-flowered, and 6% smooth-leaved and blue-flowered.
Based on these observations you can conclude that the two genes:
13. Recently, scientists induced a single diploid cell from an adult sheep (the "mother") to grow
into a lamb, named Dolly. How closely are Dolly and her "mother" related?
14. You are moving to Africa and you have heard that the Green Fever virus disease is common
there. Before you leave, you visit your doctor for advice. Which of the following is your doctor
most likely to recommend? You should:
a. take a large supply of antibiotics with you.
b. wash your food in an antiseptic before you eat it.
c. get vaccinated against the disease.
d. not worry as viruses only cause diseases in plants.
e. get regular blood tests which will use the light microscope to look for virus
particles.
15. A hospital technician, while doing some routine culturing of micro-organisms in a lab, noticed
a bacterial colony growing on a culture medium containing three different antibiotics. He
identified the bacterium as one that did not cause a human disease, but he still reported his
observation to the hospital administration. Which statement is CORRECT? He was worried
because:
a. he had no way of killing this bacterium now that it was resistant to antibiotics.
b. resistance to antibiotics could be transferred to disease-causing bacteria by
transduction or conjugation.
c. the bacterium might feed on the antibiotics and therefore be able to grow in
people taking these antibiotics.
d. there should be no bacteria inside a hospital.
e. if people accidentally ingested the bacteria with their food, they would become
resistant to the antibiotic.
18. Which of the following best represents the path taken by an amino acid molecule after it is
ingested?
19. Which of the following statements about the gills of fish is FALSE?
a. The flow of water over the gill is in the same direction as the flow of blood in
the filament.
b. Oxygen gas dissolved in the water diffuses into blood vessels of the gill.
c. Blood flows into and out of each filament of the gill in separate vessels.
d. Decreasing the rate of movement of water over the gills would decrease
oxygen uptake.
e. Most fish actively force water over their gills by movement of the operculum.
20. In a mammalian lung the rate at which oxygen could be obtained from the air would increase
if:
22. If a molecule of carbon dioxide released into the blood in the foot of a human foetus is exhaled
through the mouth of the mother, it will NOT travel through the:
a. Cell division to form a blastocyst begins after the fertilized egg is implanted in
the endometrium of the uterus.
b. The placenta contains cells derived both from the embryo and the mother.
c. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the production of sperm in the
male testes.
d. Human males can continue to produce sperm throughout life, whereas females
stop producing eggs during menopause.
e. Some female mammals only release eggs from their ovaries when copulation
occurs.
24. Trace a sperm cell from the structure where it is produced to fertilization of the egg:
seminiferous tubules (1); vas deferens (2); uterus (3); fallopian tube (4); vagina
(5); epididymis (6); and urethra (7).
a. 6, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 4
b. 1, 6, 2, 7, 5, 3, 4
c. 1, 6, 2, 7, 5, 4, 3
d. 1, 2, 6, 7, 5, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 6, 7, 5, 4, 3
25. The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of:
a. lactose.
b. haemoglobin.
c. cellulose.
d. glycogen.
e. starch.
a. Covalent bonds are the sharing of neutrons; ionic bonds are the sharing of
electrons.
b. Covalent bonds are the electric attraction between two atoms; ionic bonds are
the sharing of electrons between atoms.
c. Covalent bonds are the sharing of protons between atoms; ionic bonds are the
electric attraction between two atoms.
d. Covalent bonds are the sharing of protons between atoms; ionic bonds are the
sharing of electrons between two atoms.
e. Covalent bonds are the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds are the
electric attraction between two atoms.
28. What would be an expected consequence of changing one amino acid in a particular protein?
a. contains oxygen.
b. contains ions as part of the structure.
c. has an asymmetrical distribution of electrical charge.
d. is formed at extremely low temperatures.
e. contains double or triple bonds.
30. A scientist produced some mutant fungal cells that, under normal growth conditions, were
much smaller, and which grew much more slowly, than normal cells. When the mutant and normal
cells were each grown in a glucose solution in a tightly sealed container and examined after 1
week, the two types of cells looked identical and had grown to the same extent. Which statement
best explains these results?
31. Animal cells were placed in a water solution containing sodium and potassium ions. After 10
minutes, the concentration of sodium had increased in the solution, but the concentration of
potassium had decreased. When the experiment was repeated with glucose added to the solution,
the concentration of sodium in the solution increased faster, but the decrease in potassium was the
same as in the first experiment. Which statement best explains these results?
a. Sodium leaves the cells, and potassium enters the cells, by passive transport.
b. Sodium is excreted from the cells by active transport and potassium enters the
cells by passive transport.
c. Glucose enters the cells by passive transport.
d. Sodium leaves the cells by passive transport and potassium enters the cells by
active transport.
e. The plasma membrane is more permeable to sodium ions than potassium ions.
34. Hibernating animals (that sleep all winter) have tissues containing mitochondria with a
membrane protein that accelerates electron transport while blocking the synthesis of ATP. What is
the consequence of this?
a. Energy is saved because glycolysis and the citric acid cycle shut down.
b. Hibernating animals do not have enough energy to keep warm in cold weather,
so they have to sleep through the entire winter.
c. Pyruvate is converted to lactic acid by anaerobic fermentation.
d. Hibernating animals can synthesize fat instead of wasting energy on
respiration.
e. The energy of respiration is converted to heat.
35. An investigator wanted to test the mass-flow theory of phloem transport. She knew that a
growing melon must receive a large flow of organic material by way of the slender vine.
Therefore, she thought if she cut the vine, a good deal of phloem sap should leak out of the stump.
But when she tried, only a small droplet of phloem sap emerged from the stump. What is most
likely to have happened?
36. Which statement comparing the biochemical processes of photosynthesis and cellular
respiration is FALSE?
a. Stomata are open when the turgor pressure of the guard cells decreases.
b. When stomata are about to open, potassium ions are actively transported into
the guard cells from the surrounding cells of the epidermis.
c. To close stoma, potassium ions diffuse passively out of the guard cells.
d. Low levels of carbon dioxide stimulate the opening of stomata.
e. High levels of water stress promote stomatal closure.
39. Which statement best explains why C4 grasses often do better than C3 grasses in hot, dry
environments?
40. In a charged transfer RNA, the nucleotide bound to the amino acid is adenosine (A), and the
next two nucleotides are cytosines (C). What can you tell about the DNA codon to which this
transfer RNA corresponds?
a. The codon is TGG.
b. The codon is ACC.
c. The codon is UGG.
d. The first position is A, but you can't tell about the others from the information
given.
e. You can't tell anything about the codon from the information given.
41. Approximately what percentage of the DNA in the human genome is both transcribed and
translated?
a. 100%
b. 70%
c. 50%
d. 20%
e. 3%
42. Which of the following is true of all cancer cells? The rapid growth and division of cancer
cells is caused by:
a. bacterial infection.
b. breakdown of normal gene regulation.
c. viruses.
d. changes in the intracellular hormone receptors.
e. toxic chemicals.
43. Which application of genetics has had the greatest impact on the well being of humans to date?
a. Plant breeding
b. Animal breeding
c. Genetic engineering
d. In vitro fertilization
e. Genetic counselling
a. Blood type
b. Skin colour
c. DNA fingerprint
d. Enzyme electrophoretic type
e. Fingerprints
45. New strains of bacteria are becoming resistant to antibiotics at a high rate. Which genetic
process is now responsible for most of this increase in the proportion of resistant bacteria?
a. Transformation
b. Transduction
c. Mutation
d. Insertion
e. Transposition
a. The population
b. Individual phenotype
c. Individual genotype
d. Individual gene
e. The species
[The Answer is...]
48. Scientists consider the horse and the donkey to be different species, but when individuals of
these two species mate they produce a strong offspring called a mule. According to the biological
species concept, should scientists reclassify the horse and donkey as belonging to the same
species?
a. Yes, horses and donkeys must be considered one species if they can mate and
produce an offspring.
b. Yes, because horses and donkeys are morphologically similar.
c. No, because the mule cannot breed with either horse or donkey.
d. No, because this cross-mating is rare in nature.
e. No, horses and donkeys are probably different genetically, which is the only
factor used in determining species.
49. A biologist sequenced the cytochrome c enzyme in a range of animals and compared the amino
acid (AA) differences between pairs of species. Which of the following results would be most
consistent with modern systematics?
50. If one gamete in five carries a recessive allele, what must be the frequency of the homozygous
recessive genotype in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 4%
b. 16%
c. 20%
d. 60%
e. 80%
a. Even if the sodium-potassium pump of a nerve cell brings about ion exchange,
the fact that the membrane is naturally more permeable to sodium means that
more sodium will leak out than potassium in.
b. The energy for the sodium-potassium pump probably comes from the
breakdown of ATP to ADP.
c. Axons usually synapse with the dendrites or the cell body of the next neuron in
a sequence.
d. In vertebrates, myelinated nerve fibers generally transmit impulses more
rapidly than do unmyelinated fibers of comparable diameter.
e. Neurons do not make direct connections with one another; they are separated
by a space known as the synaptic cleft.
52. Which of the following would NOT result from the release of adrenalin (epinephrine)?
53. Suppose you were a neuroscientist and had been given a sample of a new snake venom. You
test its effect on action at a synapse, and find that it increases the magnitude of the normal
depolarizing excitatory response. The most likely explanation for this is that the venom is:
a. Steroid hormones act by passing through the cell membrane and affecting gene
transcription.
b. Adrenaline (epinephrine) acts on cell membrane receptors to stimulate
production of second messengers.
c. The anterior pituitary releases several hormones which act on other endocrine
glands.
d. Insulin is produced in the islets of Langerhans in the spleen, when blood sugar
levels fall.
e. The posterior pituitary releases a hormone that regulates kidney activity and
blood pressure.
56. Approximately 1.5 million species have been identified and described by scientists. Which
group contains the most species worldwide?
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Vascular plants
d. Insects
e. Mammals
[The Answer is...]
57. Which nutrient is most likely to limit primary production in terrestrial ecosystems in Canada?
a. Carbon
b. Sulfur
c. Phosphorus
d. Nitrogen
e. Potassium
58. Two insect species were used in a laboratory experiment. For one treatment, both species were
grown by themselves (in separate chambers) on a suitable food source. For the second treatment,
the two species were grown together (in the same chamber) on the same type and amount of food
as in the first treatment. The figure below shows the results (the number of individuals of each
species in the two treatments) at the end of the experiment. Based on these results the two species
should be classified as:
a. competitors.
b. antagonists.
c. mutualists.
d. predators or pathogens.
e. commensalists.
[The Answer is...]
59. In a hypothetical developing nation, new government policies and international aid have
resulted in improved family planning and decreased death rates. As a result, the average number of
children per female, the average age of reproduction, and the average life expectancy are now the
same as in Canada. If we ignore changes in population size because of immigration and
emigration, the population growth rate of the developing nation will now:
60. If we wish to manage a deer population so that a very high number of deer can be harvested,
we should manage the population so that:
a. the number of deer is far enough below the carrying capacity to support high
birth and growth rates.
b. the number of deer is at the carrying capacity to provide the largest sustainable
deer population.
c. the deer are rare and have little contact with each other.
d. the number of deer slightly exceeds the carrying capacity so that the excess
can be harvested.
e. the number of deer greatly exceeds the carrying capacity to provide a large
number of excess individuals.
• Answer Key
Since your score on the exam is based on the number of questions you
answered correctly minus one-third of the number you answered
incorrectly, it is improbable that guessing will improve your score
(it is more likely to lower your score). (No points are deducted or
awarded for unanswered questions). However, if you are not sure of
the correct answer but have some knowledge of the question and are
able to eliminate one or more of the answer choices, then your chance
of getting the right answer is improved, and it may be advantageous
to answer such a question.
2. A scientist added a chemical (cyanide) to an animal cell to stop aerobic respiration. Which of
the following is most likely to have been affected by this treatment?
4. If you could suddenly remove all the protein molecules from the plasma membrane of a cell
(without destroying the cell), which of the following would you expect to happen?
a. Cotyledon
b. Hypocotyl
c. Seed coat
d. Meristem
e. Plumule
6. Which of the following changes would DECREASE the rate of water loss (transpiration) from
the leaves of a sugar maple tree?
a. Light breeze
b. Bright sunshine
c. An afternoon rain shower
d. A plentiful supply of soil water
e. High temperatures during the afternoon
a. Ethylene alone
b. Cytokinin alone
c. Gibberellin alone
d. Ethylene and gibberellin
e. Cytokinin and gibberellin
8. Cactus plants are adapted to the hot and dry deserts of North and South America. Which of the
following characteristics would NOT help cacti to survive the extreme heat and low rainfall?
a. A thick waxy cuticle
b. A stem with a high surface to volume ratio
c. Stomata that are closed during the day
d. Thin leaves with a large surface area
e. Water storage tissue
9. During the malting process, starch stored in the barley grain is broken down to sugars. These
sugars provide the energy for anaerobic respiration by yeast cells during the beer making process.
Which of the following observations indicates that the plant hormone, gibberellic acid, is required
for this process?
10. One of Mendel's laws states the following: Units of inheritance which control different aspects
of the phenotype may be inherited independently. Which of the following true statements best
restates this conclusion in modern terms?
a. In the first stage of meiosis, the segregation of one pair of chromosomes does
not affect the segregation of other chromosomes.
b. During fertilization, which sperm combines with which egg is a matter of
chance.
c. In mitosis, there is no difference between the original DNA strand and the
recently synthesized copy.
d. In the first stage of meiosis, chromosomes pair with their homologues.
e. Mutations are random events, which affect each locus independently.
11. Before beginning a genetic analysis how would you best ensure that you have homozygous
genotypes?
12. In a population of humans, the frequency of a recessive allele causing a genetic disease is 0.01,
or 1%. What proportion of the population would you expect to suffer from the disease?
a. 0.0001
b. 0.001
c. 0.0025
d. 0.01
e. 0.25
13. In the pedigree shown below, individuals with the solid symbols suffer from a genetic disease
caused by a recessive allele at an autosomal locus. You would counsel the couple marked A and B
that the probability that each of their children will have the disease is:
a. 0
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 100%
14. One day, you wake up with a sore throat and a runny nose. Your doctor takes a swab from your
throat, sends it to a lab, and telephones you the next day to say that an antibiotic will not help you
get better. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the doctor's statement?
16. You open your refrigerator to make a sandwich and find that the tomato that you put there 3
weeks ago has turned into a soggy, mushy mess. Your mother tells you that the tomato must have
been infected with a bacterium. Which of the following procedures would be the best way to prove
this?
17. How is chyme (the semi-liquid stomach contents) treated in the stomach and small intestine?
a. The compacted chyme is pushed into the small intestine only after the stomach
has completed its action.
b. The chyme has a high pH in the stomach, but that is changed to a low pH in
the intestine.
c. Most of the nutrients are absorbed from the chyme before the chyme is passed
into the small intestine.
d. Small amounts of chyme are continuously released into the small intestine
through the pyloric sphincter.
e. Sucrose and proteins are broken down in the stomach by the enzymes sucrase
and trypsin.
a. The surface area of the absorptive surface of the small intestine of humans is
well over 100 square metres.
b. Your large intestine contains many microorganisms that are beneficial to you
because they produce useful vitamins.
c. In herbivores such as cows, the cellulose of plant cell walls is digested by
cellulase produced by glands in the wall of the rumen.
d. Human saliva contains enzymes that begin the process of breaking down
carbohydrates.
e. The liver produces bile, which helps in the digestion of fats by causing them to
be dispersed as microscopic droplets.
19. If you arrange the following structures in the order in which they would be passed by an
oxygen molecule during inspiration, which would be third?
a. Bronchiole
b. Trachea
c. Alveolus
d. Epiglottis
e. Pharynx
20. Which of the following produces negative pressure within your thoracic cavity?
a. Exhalation
b. Contraction of the diaphragm muscles
c. Relaxation of the muscles between the ribs
d. Contraction of the muscles in the wall of the stomach
e. Relaxation of the diaphragm muscles
a. Testosterone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Gonadotrophins
e. Progesterone
23. How are the time of ovulation and the onset of menstruation related in the human menstrual
cycle?
24. The diagram below is of the adult human heart. The chambers or vessels that carry oxygenated
blood include which of the following?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 3 only
d. 3, 5, and 6
e. 5 and 6 only
26. Consider the following: H2O + H2O --> HO- + H3O+. If such an aqueous solution contains 10-6
mol/L of hydronium ion, what is the pH of the solution?
a. 10-8 mol/L
b. -6
c. 6
d. 8
e. 6 mol/L
27. The requirement for stable hydrogen bonding between base pairs requires that, if one strand of
double-stranded DNA consists of the sequence 3'-ATTCGTAC-5', the complementary sequence
must be:
a. 5'-UAAGCAUG-3'
b. 3'-ATTCGTAC-5' in the reverse direction
c. 3'-TAAGCATG-5'
d. 5'-TAAGCATG-3'
e. 5'-TAAGCATG-3' in the reverse direction
28. Coupled biochemical reactions are important in determining thermodynamic order within
cells. Consider the following two reactions that occur simultaneously in cells:
a. The energy change of the coupled reaction, or net reaction, is the sum of the
energy changes of the two partial reactions and is DELTA G° = -18 kJ.
b. The coupled reaction is driven toward ATP, or occurs because the sum of the
two free energy changes of the partial reactions is a negative value and yields
energy to drive the reaction.
c. The overall reaction: 1,3-biphosphoglycerate + ADP --> 3-phosphoglycerate +
ATP is endergonic; it requires +18 kJ and thus can not occur spontaneously.
d. The reactions occur during glycolysis.
e. ATP mediates the transfer of energy between exergonic reactions (that
normally have relatively high free energies of phosphate transfer) and endergonic
reactions.
30. A plant cell was put into a solution of substance A at a concentration of 200 mmol/L. The rate
of uptake into the cell was measured as 5 mmol per minute. When the cell was placed in a solution
of substance A at a concentration of 400 mmol/L, the rate of uptake was 10 mmol per minute.
When the experiment was repeated with substance B, the rate of uptake was 10 mmol per minute
at both concentrations of the substance. Which of the following provides the best explanation of
the results?
31. Which molecule releases the most energy during cellular respiration?
a. Pyruvic acid
b. Glucose
c. Acetyl coenzyme A
d. Glyceraldehyde
e. Citric acid
32. With respect to the process of aerobic respiration, which statement is CORRECT?
34. Long distance, competitive, runners are usually small and wiry and run more slowly than
sprinters, who run much shorter distances and generally have a large bulk of muscle. Which of the
following best explains the differences between the two types of runners?
a. Long distance runners run more slowly because lactic acid quickly builds up in
their muscles and causes fatigue. Sprinters do not run for long enough for lactic
acid to build up in their muscles.
b. The large muscles of sprinters increases the oxygen supply to each muscle,
preventing lactic acid from forming.
c. Sprinters do not run for long enough for sufficient lactic acid to build up in
their muscles, therefore they can have large muscles for more power. By being
lighter and running more slowly, long distance runners ensure that their muscles
receive enough oxygen for aerobic respiration.
d. Sprinters run faster because their large muscles have more blood running
through them to stop anaerobic respiration from taking place. Long distance
runners run more slowly because they are using the energy from anaerobic
respiration, which does not produce as much ATP as aerobic respiration.
e. Long distance runners burn more energy than sprinters, which makes it
difficult for them to gain weight.
a. Stroma
b. Thylakoid
c. Chloroplast envelope
d. Location of photophosphorylation
e. Location of Calvin cycle
37. Transport of the products of photosynthesis is thought to occur by pressure flow through the
sieve tubes of the phloem from a source (such as the leaves where the products are produced) to a
sink (such as a developing fruit where they are used or stored). Which of the following statements
about phloem transport is FALSE?
38 . Using the four graphs above and your knowledge of the action
spectrum of photosynthesis and the absorption spectra of chlorophyll
a and chlorophyll b, identify the plant pigment responsible for
phototropism.
a. Anthocyanin
b. Blue light receptor
c. Carotene
d. Phytochrome
e. Phycocyanin
a. Wheat is the species that has the highest rate of photosynthesis when
temperatures are around 25°C.
b. Maize shows maximum photosynthetic rates at 38°C.
c. Wheat shows maximum photosynthetic rates at 25°C.
d. In a region where mean temperatures were 10°C, C3 species would have
higher photosynthetic rates than C4 species.
e. In the arctic tundra where mean daily temperatures might be as low as 0°C, the
C3 tussock grass would have the highest rate of photosynthesis.
41. Normally, genetic information is passed from DNA to RNA to protein. Which recently
discovered process can pass information in the other direction?
42. The DNA of an organism has cytosine as 20 percent of its bases. What percentage of DNA
bases would be thymine?
a. 0
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
e. 60
43. For a gene with the DNA sequence TACCCGGATTCA, and read from left to right, the
anticodon of the transfer RNA that carried the last amino acid would be:
a. TCA
b. UCA
c. AGU
d. ACT
e. AGT
44. Some of the most effective antibiotics work by blocking the movement of the ribosome along
prokaryotic mRNA. If the antibiotic erythromycin is administered, which of the following
immediate effects would be expected in a bacterial cell?
45. Assume that you are trying to insert a gene from human DNA into a plasmid and someone
gives you a preparation of human DNA cut with restriction endonuclease A. The human gene you
are after has sites on both ends for restriction endonuclease B. You have a plasmid with a single
site for B, but not for A. Your best strategy would be to:
a. insert the fragments cut with B directly into the plasmid without cutting the
plasmid.
b. cut the plasmid with restriction endonuclease A and insert the fragments cut
with B into the plasmid.
c. cut the plasmid twice with restriction endonuclease B and ligate the two
fragments onto the ends of the human DNA fragments cut with restriction
endonuclease A.
d. cut the human DNA again with the restriction endonuclease B and insert these
fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme.
e. cut the plasmid with restriction endonuclease A and insert the human DNA cut
with A into the plasmid.
46. Darwin and Wallace convinced most of their contemporaries that evolution had occurred. They
did this primarily by relying on evidence from which area of study?
a. Palaeontology
b. Geographic distribution
c. Behaviour
d. Developmental biology
e. Comparative anatomy
47. Which of the following observations was NOT important in helping Darwin and Wallace
develop their theory of natural selection?
a. In most species more offspring are produced than can be supported by their
environment.
b. The Earth, and life on Earth, is very old.
c. There is variability in populations.
d. Young tend to resemble their parents.
e. All cells contain DNA which transmits coded information to other cells.
48. Which of the following would NOT generally affect allele frequencies in a population?
a. Non-random mating
b. Directional selection
c. Mutation
d. Immigration
e. Emigration
49. Which of the following would generally reduce the likelihood of speciation?
a. Geographical isolation
b. Genetic variation in populations
c. Natural selection
d. Genetic drift
e. Immigration and emigration
50. In a population with two alleles for a particular locus, A and a, the frequency of A is 0.6. What
would be the frequency of heterozygotes if the population was in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
a. 0.16
b. 0.24
c. 0.36
d. 0.48
e. 0.64
a. In vertebrate sensory neurons, nerve impulses normally travel both away from
and toward the cell body.
b. The resting potential of a neuron is maintained by membrane "pumps" actively
transporting sodium into and potassium out of the cell.
c. Neurons operate with two main types of electrical signal: slow graded
potentials and fast action potentials.
d. Saltatory conduction involves nerve impulses "jumping" between regions of
the axon where the myelin sheath is missing.
e. The "processing" of information by integration of synaptic activity occurs in
the spinal cord as well as the brain.
54. Insulin:
a. was discovered by Banting and Best in the 1970s; both received the Nobel
prize for their work.
b. acts on the liver to cause the release of glucose when glucose is needed during
exercise.
c. was originally difficult to obtain because it is destroyed by protein-digesting
enzymes from the pancreas.
d. causes cell membranes to become impermeable to glucose.
e. can cause diabetic coma by raising blood sugar levels higher than normal.
55. Which sequence best describes a simple reflex arc such as the knee-jerk reflex?
a. sensory neuron --> interneuron --> motor neuron --> effector cell
b. sensory neuron --> interneuron --> interneuron --> motor neuron
c. sensory neuron --> motor neuron --> interneuron
d. sensory neuron --> effector cell --> motor neuron
e. sensory neuron --> motor neuron --> effector cell
56. An excess supply of which of the following nutrients is the most common cause of
eutrophication in freshwater lakes in Canada?
a. Phosphorus
b. Calcium
c. Sulfur
d. Potassium
e. Nitrogen
57. Because of interest in the global carbon (C) cycle and the greenhouse effect, ecologists are
estimating how much C is in each biome and whether the sizes of these C pools are changing. The
organic matter (humus and dead plant tissues) in the soils of the boreal forest biome forms one of
the largest pools of C in the biosphere. On average, boreal forest soils contain 15,000 g C m-2, a
higher value than occurs in other types of forest. However, the primary production of the boreal
forest is only 350 g C m-2 yr-1 on average, a low value compared to other types of forests. This
pattern occurs primarily because:
a. high rates of herbivory in the boreal forest lead to low levels of forest
productivity.
b. the slow weathering of bedrock under boreal forest soils releases large
quantities of C into the soil. This C would be lost in hotter climates.
c. low rates of herbivory in the boreal forest mean that most leaves, branches, and
roots are added to the soil when they die. Temperate and tropical forests, in
contrast, have high rates of herbivory.
d. the cold, wet soils of the boreal forest restrict decomposition more than they
restrict the photosynthesis of plants.
e. periodic fires destroy large areas of boreal forest and keep primary
productivity low, while leaving most of the soil C intact.
a. As N decreases, increase G by using either sonar to find the fish more easily,
nets with smaller mesh sizes, or other advances in technology.
b. As N decreases, increase E by allowing more boats to fish or more days of
fishing.
c. As N decreases, increase H.
d. As N decreases, set a level for H and keep it fixed at that level.
e. As N decreases, either E or G can change, but their product must remain
constant.
59. We have introduced an animal species to an island where it undergoes exponential growth in
this new unexploited, resource-rich environment. The initial population size (year 0) is 20
individuals (point shown on graphs). After 4 years the population size is 80 individuals. What is
the population size after 10 years, assuming that exponential growth has continued?
a. The population will be at its carrying capacity, but too little information about
the biology of the species is given to determine what that value is.
b. About 140 individuals
c. About 170 individuals
d. About 400 individuals
e. About 640 individuals
60. In freshwater lakes, the dissolved nutrients are mixed and redistributed primarily by:
a. fish.
b. high and low tides.
c. the spring and fall turnover.
d. the thermocline.
e. wave action along shorelines.
• Answer Key
a. The cell will already be dead because plant cells cannot survive without a cell
wall.
b. The cell will expand and eventually burst.
c. The cell will shrink because the vacuole gets smaller.
d. Nothing obvious would happen.
e. The nucleus will burst, but the cell will stay intact.
2. Under a light microscope, tiny dots can be seen in the cytoplasm of living plant and animal
cells. These are likely to be:
a. chloroplasts.
b. ribosomes.
c. mitochondria.
d. nuclei.
e. chromosomes.
4. A scientist who worked on a single-celled green plant (an alga) treated it with ultraviolet light
and produced mutant cells that did not contain chloroplasts. To keep these cells alive, the scientist
had to:
5. Cotyledons are the first leaves produced by the embryos of vascular plants. Which of the
following is NOT a physiological function of cotyledons?
6. The vessel elements of the xylem transport water and nutrients under negative pressure. Which
of the following is NOT characteristic of vessel elements?
a. Transpiration occurs from open stomata on leaves and stems during the day.
b. Turgor pressure in the sieve tubes of a fully expanded tomato leaf is higher
than the turgor in the sieve tubes of a developing tomato fruit.
c. Vessels transport water under negative pressure.
d. Carbohydrates move within the plant from sink to source.
e. The osmotic potential of the sieve tubes in a root tip is more negative than that
of the sieve tubes in the leaf.
8. Charles Darwin and his son Francis experimented with phototropism of grass seedlings by
placing a metal foil "blindfold" over different parts of the seedling's coleoptile. A simplified
version of their results is shown below. Which of the following statements best explains their
results?
a. The light signal is perceived a few millimetres below the tip, and these cells
cause the coleoptile to grow toward the light.
b. Both the seedling root and coleoptile perceive and respond to light in the same
manner.
c. A chemical messenger must travel from the base of the coleoptile to the tip.
d. The light signal is perceived at the tip of the coleoptile, but the growth
response occurs a few millimetres below the tip.
e. The coleoptile bends because cells on the side toward the light grow faster than
those on the shaded side.
a. Pea plants carrying the dwarf mutation would be expected to have higher
levels of gibberellin in their stems than normal plants.
b. If gibberellin is applied to the stems of dwarf pea plants, the stems elongate so
that plant reach normal height.
c. Dwarf pea plants have a mutation in the gibberellin biosynthetic pathway.
d. Normal pea plants respond to gibberellin by growing even taller.
e. The gibberellin produced by the fungus caused normal healthy rice plants to
become unusually tall.
11. In corn, the trait for tall plants (T) is dominant to the trait for dwarf plants (t) and the trait for
coloured kernels (C) is dominant to the trait for white kernels (c). In a particular cross of corn
plants, the probability of an offspring being tall is 0.5 and the probability of a kernel being
coloured is 0.75. Which of the following most probably represents the parental genotypes?
a. TtCc x TtCc
b. TtCc x ttCc
c. TtCc x ttcc
d. TTCc x ttCc
e. TTCc x TtCC
13. How do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with the diploid cell from which they were
derived?
a. They have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of DNA.
b. They have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
c. They have the same number of chromosomes and half the amount of DNA.
d. They have the same number of chromosomes and the same amount of DNA.
e. They have half the amount of cytoplasm and twice the amount of DNA.
15. When a doctor gives you an antibiotic when you are sick, he/she always tells you to keep
taking the antibiotic until it is all finished. The reason he/she tells you this is because:
a. animal diseases.
b. decomposing dead organic matter.
c. nitrogen processing in the soil.
d. food digestion in animals.
e. alcohol production in beer.
17. The secretion of a less than normal amount of the hormone gastrin would have which effect?
18. Food passing beyond the back teeth signals all of the following EXCEPT:
a. cellular respiration.
b. breathing movements.
c. neural control of exchange.
d. diffusion across membranes.
e. active transport of gases.
a. They have to pump large volumes of water through their gills to keep their
respiratory membranes moist.
b. The CO2 content of their tissues is much higher than that of terrestrial animals.
c. Their gills are covered with protective plates which make it more difficult for
them to process the oxygen from air.
d. They have to pump large volumes of water out of their gills because of water's
high oxygen content.
e. They have to pump large volumes of water through their gills because of
water's low oxygen content.
a. arteries
b. ventricles
c. capillaries
d. venules
e. veins
23. The series of mitotic divisions a zygote goes through immediately after fertilization is called:
a. cleavage.
b. blastomere.
c. blastula.
d. blastocoel.
e. blastodisk.
a. hydroxyl group.
b. carbonyl group.
c. amino group.
d. ketone group.
e. carboxyl group.
a. The partial charges on the atoms in water are due to bond polarization.
b. The bond formed between the hydrogen of one molecule of water and the
oxygen of another is called a covalent bond.
c. Cations are positively-charged ions that have given up one or more electrons
from the valence shell.
d. Ionic bonds are involved in the formation of sodium chloride.
e. The hydrophobic effect can be viewed as a process that minimizes the surface
contact between non-polar molecules and polar molecules.
a. a triphosphopeptide.
b. a ribosugar.
c. deoxyadenosine triphosphate.
d. the nitrogenous base, adenine.
e. deoxythymidine triphosphate.
a. cellular respiration.
b. the citric acid cycle.
c. pyruvate oxidation.
d. glycolysis.
e. substrate-level phosphorylation.
31. Which of the following produces the most ATP per gram?
a. fats
b. glucose
c. proteins
d. glycogen or starch
e. carbohydrates
32. The enzymes of the citric acid (Krebs) cycle are located in the:
a. cytoplasm.
b. cristae of the mitochondrion.
c. matrix of the mitochondrion.
d. endoplasmic reticulum.
e. lysosome.
a. in the cytoplasm.
b. in the matrix of the mitochondrion.
c. in the endoplasmic reticulum.
d. in the space between the two mitochondrial membranes.
e. just inside the plasma membrane.
[The correct answer is...]
a. acetyl-coenzyme A
b. citric acid
c. NADH
d. fatty acids
e. lactic acid
35. Most of the water lost by the plant through transpiration exits through the stomatal pores.
Which of the following statements about transpiration and stomatal functioning is FALSE?
38. Which of the following labels in the diagram below of a leaf cross-section is NOT correct?
a. epidermal cell
b. palisade mesophyll cell
c. intercellular air space
d. spongy mesophyll cell
e. xylem cell
39. Increased levels of atmospheric CO2 result in the "greenhouse effect" and thus global climatic
warming. The graph below shows the effect of these changes on photosynthesis. Which of the
following statements about these processes is FALSE?
a. For most plants, temperatures over 40°C reduce photosynthesis.
b. At temperatures below 20°C, high atmospheric CO2 concentrations reduce
photosynthesis to values below those seen for plants growing in normal CO2
concentrations.
c. One result of increased levels of atmospheric CO2 will be to increase rates of
photosynthesis in most plants.
d. At high CO2 concentrations, the highest rates of photosynthesis are measured
at temperatures between 30° and 35°C.
e. CO2 concentration is normally rate-limiting for photosynthesis.
40. The two strands of the DNA double helix are held together by:
a. hydrogen bonds.
b. C=C double bonds.
c. hydrophobic bonds.
d. peptide bonds.
e. phosphodiester bonds.
a. one parental strand must be degraded to allow the other strand to be copied.
b. the parental strands come back together after the passage of the replication
fork.
c. origins of replication always give rise to single replication forks.
d. two replication forks diverge from each origin but one always lags behind the
other.
e. the parental strands must separate so that both can be copied.
42.
GTAGTAGGT
a. GTAGTAGGT
b. CAUCAUCCA
c. UCGUCGUUC
d. AUGAUGAAU
e. CATCATCCA
43. Choose the answer that has the following events of protein synthesis in the proper sequence.
46. Which of the following was NOT part of Darwin's explanation of natural selection?
47. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of a recessive allele for a
certain hereditary trait is 0.20. What percentage of the individuals in the next generation would be
expected to show the dominant trait?
a. 8%
b. 16%
c. 32%
d. 64%
e. 96%
49. If the fossil record has few or no intermediate forms, if there are long periods in which the
fossils underwent no morphological change, and if new forms arose very quickly, then evolution
of these new forms would be best described as:
a. punctuated equilibrium.
b. adaptive radiation.
c. gradualism.
d. convergent evolution.
e. due to stabilizing selection.
50. Which of the following are necessary for evolution by natural selection to take place?
i. Offspring resemble their parents more than other individuals in the population.
ii. Differences among individuals exist and lead to different numbers of
successful offspring being produced.
iii. Individuals adjust their development depending on the environment.
iv. Every individual has a desire to have many offspring.
v. Populations tend to grow faster than their food supplies.
a. i and ii
b. i and v
c. ii, iii, and iv
d. iii and v
e. All of the above.
53. The general functions of the nervous system include which of the following?
i. integration
ii. motor output
iii. sensory input
a. i only
b. ii only
c. iii only
d. i and ii only
e. i, ii, and iii only
55. The region of the brain that integrates visceral activities, body temperature, and heartbeat is
the:
a. medulla oblongata.
b. hypothalamus.
c. cerebrum.
d. cerebellum.
e. corpus callosum.
56. The traditional concept of succession includes the idea of an equilibrium state called a climax
community. Ecologists now think there may be no such thing as a climax community because:
57. In the human-induced process called acid precipitation, the main biogeochemical cycles that
are altered are the __________ cycles and one effect in lakes is to __________ populations of
nitrifying bacteria.
58. Which of the following statements about food chains and energy flow through ecosystems is
FALSE?
a. A single organism can feed at several trophic levels.
b. Detritivores feed at all trophic levels except the producer level.
c. The lower the trophic level at which an organism feeds, the more energy
available.
d. Food webs include two or more food chains.
e. All organisms that are not producers are consumers.
59. The actual rate of growth of a population is the difference between the:
60. Which of the following has most probably had the greatest impact on human population
growth over the past 10,000 years?
a. The move from a nomadic way of life to growing and cultivating crops in a
fixed location which occurred approximately 8,000 to 10,000 years ago.
b. The improvements to housing, sanitation, and health that occurred during the
Industrial Revolution.
c. The control of human diseases, such as small pox, measles, and malaria.
d. The increase in food production through the use of fertilizers, mechanization,
plant and animal breeding, pest control, and irrigation.
e. development of technologies to transport people and materials efficiently and
to process and communicate enormous amounts of information.
卑诗省、育空、主机
课程指南
11 和 12 年级生物
11 级 (20 生物学 )
1 -调整和变化
2 -微生物:病毒
3 -微生物:王国 Monera
4 -微生物:KingdomProtista
5 --Mycology
6 植物生物学:绿藻类、Mosses,蕨类
7 植物生物学:裸子植物
t 他 "知识目标 " 为使各单位在下面. 这些
8 植物生物学:angiosperms 目标是从 明和 11 年级的学习成果(1996)12
9 -动物生物学:Porifera,Cnidaria 生物学、 (教育部、技能培训、卑诗省).
全部版本的 11 和 12 年级的课程可在文件:
10 -动物生物学: http://www.bced.gov.bc.ca/irp/biology/apa11.htm
Platyhelminthes,Nematoda,
Annelida 以及
11 -动物生物学: http://www.bced.gov.bc.ca/irp/biology/apa12.htm
Mollusca,Echinodermata
12 -动物生物学:Arthropoda 进一步资料:
13 -动物生物学:Chordata- 卑诗省教育部
subphylumVertebrata 教育和培训部扩展
14 -生态学 教育部培训和育空
12 年级 ( 生物 30 )
细胞生物学
一 . 细胞结构
B . 细胞化合物
C . -分子生物学
D . DNA
e . --蛋白质合成
F . 癌
G . 运输跨越细胞膜
H . -酶
人类生物学
一 . -消化系统
J . -循环系统:血液循环和
K . -循环系统:心脏结构及功能
L . -呼吸器官
M . -神经系统:Neuron,冲动的一代,
与反射弧
N . -神经系统:神经师
系统和大脑
O . -泌尿系统
P . -生殖系统
11 级 (20 生物 学 )
一、适应变化
预计学生会:
• 描述 DNA 的基本结构
• 在 DNA 鉴定的作用演变
• 解释变化中的作用和有性生殖的发展
• 自然选择过程描述
• 建议的情况下,人口 allelic 频率可以改变,包括基因漂移,不同移民突变、自然选择
• 区分,举例说明趋同,差异,speciation
• 与此相反,逐步改变模式与平衡模式的演进笑声
• 在发展中的作用确定灭绝
2 微生物 (电脑 )
预计学生会:
• 描述了病毒的基本结构
• 用于评估证据,把病毒生物或非生物
• 与此相反的,比较 lyticlysogenic 周期
• 描述人体的基本路线抵御病毒攻击
• 举例说明如何减少病毒的感染机会病
• 确定病毒的具体实例,让
• 评估病毒对人类健康的影响
预计学生会:
• 描述基本结构的细胞 prokaryotic
• 审查委员王国 Monera 和描述特征,把它们
• 用实例 Moneran 多样性方面:形式、分配、精虫、生态作用、营养与人类疾病
• 区分发酵,有氧呼吸,光合作用,Monerans
• 对比的方法,使他们的细菌分解食物和寄生虫
• 结果显示,技术准备动盘
• 显示正确使用复合显微镜
• 效益评估各种抗生素、消毒剂和抗菌剂对细菌文化
• 解释适应过程,成为细菌对抗生素抗药性
• 举例说明有益细菌的作用
4 微生物 (KingdomProtista)
预计学生会:
• 审查委员王国 Protista,描述特征,把它们
• 编写湿发动幻灯片
• 浮游植物和浮游动物的区别观察生活 protists
• 与此相反,一个细胞 prokaryotic(MONERAN)细胞的遗传(protist)
• 表明了病原 protist 知识的生命周期可以用来控制其蔓延
• 结构调整涉及到不同的角色 protists 食物链
5mycology
预计学生会:
• 英国真菌研究的描述和特点,把它们
• 结果显示,技术准备文化
• 用科学的方法设计实验
• 评估显示,适合各种真菌的生长条件
• 关于修改<真菌的生态系统中的作用不同
预计学生会:
• 绿色藻类研究、松下、蕨类、描述特征,把每个
• 解剖表明正确使用显微镜
• 解释比较利益代
• 采用单细胞的例子,殖民地,结合绿色藻类的多样性说明
• 描述绿色藻类生态作用,空气、蕨类
• 描述空气作用的植物为先驱
• 与此相反,蕨类、苔藓如何适应陆地环境
7 植物生理 (裸子植物 )
预计学生会:
• 描述特征,把裸子植物
• 说明裸子植物适合生存的环境,对于土地:世代交替,针、种子、花粉、细胞治疗
• 解释的作用是增加中小学 meristems
• 评估经济和生态重要性裸子植物
8 植物生物学 (angiosperms)
预计学生会:
• angiosperms 研究和描述特征,把它们
• 与此相反的方式比较 angiosperms 裸子植物适应土地和环境
• 样品和使用区分 monocotsdicots
9 动物生物学 (Porifera,Cnidaria)
预计学生会:
10 动物生理 (Platyhelminthes,Nematoda,Annelida)
预计学生会:
• 研究成员 PhylumPlatyhelminthes,PhylumNematoda,PhylumAnnelida,描述特征,把每个
• 安全技术及示范正确剖析
• 相反的结构特征 platyhelminthes、昆虫病原线虫、节肢动物
• 检查身体,并解释变革,必须有士气,成为寄生
• 生态知识展示 platyhelminthes 的作用,昆虫病原线虫、节肢动物
• 评价一个成功的寄生虫的特点
• 比较 platyhelminthes、昆虫病原线虫、节肢动物进化方面变化
• 展示人类疾病的知识,是由非昆虫病原线虫分
11 动物生理 (Mollusca,Echinodermata)
预计学生会:
12 动物生理 (Arthropoda)
预计学生会:
• PhylumArthropoda 的研究和描述特征,把它们
• 对照班成员有两个或两个以上的节肢动物
• 展示的知识,以适应地球环境的节肢动物
• 升值表现的重要节肢动物的生态和经济多元化
13 动物生理 (Chordata-subphylumVertebrata)
预计学生会:
• 审查委员脊椎动物与描述特征,把它们
• 对照班成员有两个或两个以上的脊椎动物
• 相反的结构和功能的装置的 endoskeleton
• 展示知识的各种生态作用脊椎动物
14 - 生态学
预计学生会:
• 描述因素,限制和控制人口增长
• 显示人口周期性波动的原因
• 简单的解决人口问题的基础上改变少、死亡率、移民、移民
• 收集、展示、诠释数据
• 确定和描述一个金字塔能源在能源流经生态系统
• 展示知识的过程中继承
• 比较光合作用和细胞呼吸方面的算法、产品、化学方程式、负责 organelles
• 说明细胞呼吸和光合作用的作用
12 年级 ( 生物 30)
一 细胞生物学 (细胞结构 )
预计学生会:
• 描述细胞的结构和功能如下:
o 细胞膜
o 线粒体
o 粗顺利 endoplasmicreticulum
o ribosomes
o Golgi 机构
o 水泡变
o vacuoles
o lysosomes
o 核信封
o 核心
o 细胞核
o 染色体
• 细胞间的识别功能结构
• 细胞结构图,确定电子毁损
B 细胞生物学 (化合物电池 )
预计学生会:
• 水形容两极分化的结果氢原子力
• 说明水是溶剂的作用,调节温度、润滑
• 区分酸、基地、带,并指出,必须发扬对生物系统
C 细胞生物学 (分子生物学 )
预计学生会:
• 展示知识的综合应用和有机聚合物水解
• 区分碳水化合物、脂肪、蛋白质、核酸方面的化学结构
• 认识糖类的经验公式
• 区分单、双、多糖
• 区分淀粉、纤维素、糖原
• 碳水化合物的主要功能清单
• 与此相反,饱和脂肪和脂肪酸的分子结构
• 描述地点的重要性,并说明如下人体:中性脂肪、类固醇、phospholipids
• 以此确定普遍氨基酸及胺、硫酸(羧基)、R 小组
• 区分初等、中等、高等教育、结构完整的蛋白质
• 蛋白质的主要功能清单
• 与一般的分子结构的自动保障作用,为"能源货币"细胞
D 细胞生物学 (DNA)
预计学生会:
e 电池及应用程序 (蛋白质合成 )
预计学生会:
F 电池及应用程序 (癌症 )
预计学生会:
• 对于癌症描述:
o 核心异常
o 混乱和失控的增长(anaplasia)
o 缺乏联系限制
o vascularization
o 移转
• 清单 7 危险信号,表明可能有癌症
• 区分原始的基因和基因
• 用实例说明了发起者和推动者的角色癌发生
• 显示了解如何才能实现病毒癌发生
• 收集、展示、诠释数据
G 电池及应用程序 (交通跨越细胞膜 )
预计学生会:
• 应用知识解释有机分子的结构和功能的变化,薄膜纸模型
• 细胞膜为何被称为"地渗透"
• 比较和对比:传播、交通便利、渗透性、积极运输
• 解释因素,影响了整个细胞膜传播速度
• 生物学描述,包括与 phagocytosispinocytosis,与此相反,exocytosis
• hypertonic 预期效果,isotonic,hypotonic 环境对动物细胞
• 表现出的关系和意义的认识,以面积数量、规模与范围,细胞
H 电池及应用程序 (酶)
预计学生会:
• 理解表现如下:新陈代谢、酶、基质,coenzyme,活化能量
• 为查明来源腺功能与甲状腺素、甲状腺素对代谢
• 解释"锁与钥匙"的行动模式 enzymatic
• 确定维生素的生化反应的作用
• 区分酶的作用和共同的生化反应酶
• 应用知识的解释影响酶蛋白的活动酸碱、温度、基质浓度、酶浓度、抑制剂竞争、重金属
• 用科学的方法设计实验
一 -人类生物学 (消化系统 )
预计学生会:
• 并确定了各职能如下:
o 口
o 舌头
o 牙齿
o 唾液腺肿痛
o 咽头
o epiglottis
o 食管
o 心脏 sphincter
o 胃癌
o pyloricsphincter
o 十二指肠
o 肝癌
o 胆
o 胰脏
o 小肠
o 附录
o 大肠(科隆)
o 直肠
o 肛门
• 以下是腺消化酶的来源,并说明这些反应促进消化:
o 唾液腺淀粉酶
o 胰腺淀粉酶
o proteases(pepsin、胰蛋白酶)
o lipase
o peptidase
o Maltase
o nuclease
• 被形容和蠕动
• 鉴定部门和行动来消化医学、胰腺、肠和饮料
• 消息来源说,为查明腺功能胰岛素
• 解释的作用,全在乳化脂肪
• 肝功能六大名单
• 解剖表明正确使用显微镜
• 研究如何把小肠消化吸收的专门
• 描述功能的大肠杆菌科隆
J - 人类生物学 (循环系统 -- 血液循环和 )
预计学生会:
• 描述和区分五种血管
• 识别功能,让每:
o subclavian 脉络
o 颈脉
o 动脉血管
o 肠系膜动脉
o 后来发现,维纳莱 Cava
o 肺血管
o 肝地
o 肝门精神
o 肾脏脉络
o iliac 脉络
o 心脏脉络
o 主动脉
• 安全技术及示范正确剖析
• 肺循环和系统区分
• 确定和描述的结构不同,在胚胎和成人流通体系
• 展示了知识的途径,通过血液细胞的主动脉和身体回到左心室
• 等离子体的主要成分名单
• 识别功能,使淋巴微血管、纹理、节点
• 描述形状、功能、起源和红血细胞、白血球、血小板
• 显示正确使用显微镜大院
• 说明抗原和抗体作用
• 描述毛细管-组织液交流
预计学生会:
• 识别功能,让每:
o 左和右 atria
o 左和右的脑室
o 心脏脉络
o 后来发现,维纳莱 Cava
o 主动脉
o 肺脉络
o 肺主干
o atrioventricular 阀门
o chordaetendineae
o
半月球阀门
o
鼻腔
• 描述的位置和作用 sa 景区、双节点、Purkinje 纤维
• 描述了自主调节神经系统的心跳
• 涉及因素影响,调节血压,低血压和高血压
• 测量血压表现
• 区分收缩压力和舒张
L - 人类生物学 (呼吸系统 )
预计学生会:
• 识别功能,让每:
o 喉癌
o 气管
o 气管
o bronchioles
o 气管
o 肋骨和膈
o 膜膜
o 胸腔
• 解释作用在呼吸道粘液和 cilia
• 解释关系的结构和功能气管
• 与此相反,在力学过程和吸吸
• 描述互动肺膜膜、排骨、膈在呼吸过程
• 解释作用在二氧化碳和氢离子的刺激延髓呼吸中心
• 描述在氧气和二氧化碳交换内外呼吸
• 区分运输氧和二氧化碳在血液中的作用 Oxyhemoglobin 解释,carbaminohemoglobin、
血红蛋白减少、盐离子
M - 人类生物学 (神经系统 -- 神经原 ,产生冲动、反射局 )
预计学生会:
• 识别功能,让每:科学家、细胞组织,Axon
• 区分感官、汽车、结构和功能方面 interneurons
• 解释传输的神经原的神经冲动通过利用下列职权:
o 休息和行动可能
o 消解和 repolarization
o 钠和钾大门
o 钠钾泵
o 回收期
o 门槛("全或无反应")
• 与结构的神经纤维 myelinated 传导冲动的速度
• 鉴定的主要内容有 synapse
• 解释的过程中,推动跨越 synapse
• 展示知识 neurotransmitters 细分的连结颚
• 反射弧的结构是如何运作
预计学生会:
• 相反的,中央和地方的职能和周边神经系统
• 区分功能的同情和自主神经系统的交感神经师
• 确定并说明其来源腺的刺激作用,"打、飞行"的反应
• 识别功能,让每:
o 延髓
o 大脑
o thalamus
o 小脑
o 甲状腺
o 头 callosum
• 丘脑和垂体解释神经内分泌相互作用控制中心
O - 人类生物学 (泌尿系统 )
预计学生会:
• 识别功能,让每:
o 肾脏
o 输尿管
o 尿道
o 泌尿膀胱
o 肾皮质
o 肾延髓
o 肾髋
• 识别功能,让每:
o nephron
o glomerulus
o 鲍曼的物品
o Afferent 和 efferentarterioles
o 毛细管 peritubular 网
o 接近和迂回不直接疼痛
o 收集管道
o 河套的 Henle
• 相反,在肾动脉血液和肾脏方面对尿素和葡萄糖含量
• 找出源头,一面为青少年保健项目,并阐释这些荷尔蒙醛固酮管制
• 与青少年保健项目,醛固酮,nephron 钠和水的管理水平的血液
P - 人类生物学 (生殖系统 )
预计学生会:
• 识别功能,让每:
o 睾丸(seminiferous 肾小管细胞和 interstitial)
o 附睾
o ductusdeferens(固网)
o 前列腺
o Cowper 的一生
o 基本水泡变
o 阴茎
o尿道
• 道路上表现出知识的精子的肛门疼痛 seminiferous 开幕
• 名单基本功能液
• 鉴定尾巴,midpiece 团长、国家和精子成熟 acrosome 职务
• 睾丸功能描述
• 显示控制知识水平的睾丸内分泌系统
• 并确定了各职能如下:
o 卵巢(卵泡及黄头)
o oviducts(输卵管内)
o 子宫
o 子宫颈癌
o Vagina
o 阴蒂
• 雌黄激素的功能说明
• 描述事件的顺序、子宫卵巢周期
• 展示知识的控制和子宫卵巢荷尔蒙周期
• 知识反馈机制,表明了积极参与 oxytocin
• 描述激素变化,因植入
APPENDIX A: PRESCRIBED
LEARNING OUTCOMES
The Prescribed Learning Outcomes for Grade 12 are listed under each of the following organizers:
The Prescribed Learning Outcomes for Biology 12 have been coded for
ease of reference for those compiling provincial exams.
• cell membrane
• mitochondria
• smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum
• ribosomes
• Golgi bodies
• vesicles
• vacuoles
• lysosomes
• nuclear envelope
• nucleus
• nucleolus
• chromosomes
B3. distinguish among acids, bases, and buffers, and indicate the
importance of pH to biological systems
C8. describe the location and explain the importance of the following
in the human body: neutral fats, steroids, phospholipids
C9. draw a generalized amino acid and identify the amine, acid
(carboxyl), and R-groups
C12. relate the general structure of the ATP molecule to its role as
the "energy currency" of cells
Cell Biology (DNA)
D1. name the four bases in DNA and describe the structure of DNA
using the following terms:
• "unzipping"
• complementary base pairing
• joining of adjacent nucleotides
E2. determine the sequence of amino acids coded for by a specific DNA
sequence, given a table of mRNA codons
• abnormal nuclei
• disorganized and uncontrolled growth (anaplasia)
• lack of contact inhibition
• vascularization
• metastasis
F2. list the seven danger signals that may indicate the presence of cancer
H2. identify the source gland for thyroxin and relate the function of
thyroxin to metabolism
I2. relate the following digestive enzymes to their glandular sources and describe the digestive
reactions they promote:
• salivary amylase
• pancreatic amylase
• proteases (pepsin, trypsin)
• lipase
• peptidase
• maltase
• nuclease
I5. identify the source gland for and describe the function of
insulin
J1. describe and differentiate among the five types of blood vessels
K2. describe the location and functions of the SA node, AV node, and Purkinje fibres
• larynx
• trachea
• bronchi
• bronchioles
• alveoli
• diaphragm and ribs
• pleural membranes
• thoracic cavity
L2. explain the roles of cilia and mucus in the respiratory tract
M4. relate the structure of a myelinated nerve fibre to the speed of impulse conduction
N3. identify the source gland for adrenalin and explain its role in
the "fight or flight" response
N5. explain how the hypothalamus and pituitary gland interact as the neuroendocrine control
centre
• kidney
• ureter
• urethra
• urinary bladder
• renal cortex
• renal medulla
• renal pelvis
• nephron
• glomerulus
• Bowman's capsule
• afferent and efferent arterioles
• peritubular capillary network
• proximal and distal convoluted tubules
• collecting duct
• loop of Henle
O3. contrast the blood in the renal artery and the renal vein with respect to urea and glucose
content
O4. identify the source glands for ADH and aldosterone and explain
how these hormones are regulated
P2. demonstrate a knowledge of the path of sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the urethral
opening
P4. identify the tail, midpiece, head, and acrosome of a mature sperm
and state their functions
P9. describe the sequence of events in the ovarian and uterine cycles
P10. demonstrate knowledge of the control of the ovarian and uterine
cycles by hormones
Table of Contents
What is Appendix B?
A Grade Collection is the format used to organize the provincially recommended learning
resources by grade and by curriculum organizer. It can be regarded as a "starter set" of basic
resources to deliver the curriculum. In many cases, the Grade Collection provides a choice of
more than one resource to support curriculum organizers, enabling teachers to select
resources that best suit different teaching and learning styles.
There may be prescribed learning outcomes either partially or not at all supported by learning
resources at this time. Many of these are best met by teacher-developed activities. Teachers
may also wish to supplement Grade Collection resources with locally selected materials.
Under the provincial continuous submissions process, suppliers advise the ministry about
newly developed resources as soon as they are released. Resources judged to have a
potentially significant match to the learning outcomes for individual IRPs are evaluated by
practising classroom teachers who are trained by ministry staff to use provincial evaluation
criteria. Resources selected for provincial recommendation receive Ministerial Order and are
added to the existing Grade Collections. The ministry updates the Grade Collections on a
regular basis on the ministry web site at
http://www.bced.gov.bc.ca/irp_resources/lr/resource/gradcoll.htm. Please check this site for
the most current and up-to-date version of Appendix B.
Learning resources will retain their recommended status for a minimum of five years after
which time they may be withdrawn from the Grade Collections, thereby terminating their
provincially recommended status. Decisions regarding the withdrawal of learning resources
will be based on, but not limited to, considerations of curriculum support, currency, and
availability. Schools may continue to use a learning resource after withdrawal provided local
school board approval is obtained.
How can teachers choose learning resources to meet their classroom needs?
The Ministry of Education has developed a variety of tools and guidelines to assist teachers
with the selection of learning resources. These include:
Content
The foremost consideration for selection is the curriculum to be taught. Prospective resources
must adequately support the particular learning objectives that the teacher wants to address.
Teachers will determine whether a resource will effectively support any given learning
outcomes within a curriculum organizer. This can only be done by examining descriptive
information regarding that resource; acquiring additional information about the material from
the supplier, published reviews, or colleagues; and by examining the resource first-hand.
Instructional Design
When selecting learning resources, teachers must keep in mind the individual learning styles
and abilities of their students, as well as anticipate the students they may have in the future.
Resources should support a variety of special audiences, including gifted, learning disabled,
mildly intellectually disabled, and ESL students. The instructional design of a resource
includes the organization and presentation techniques; the methods used to introduce,
develop, and summarize concepts; and the vocabulary level. The suitability of all of these
should be considered for the intended audience.
Teachers should also consider their own teaching styles and select resources that will
complement them. The list of recommended resources contains materials that range from
prescriptive or self-contained resources, to open-ended resources that require considerable
teacher preparation. There are recommended materials for teachers with varying levels and
experience with a particular subject, as well as those that strongly support particular teaching
styles.
Technical Design
While the instructional design of a package will determine the conceptual organization, it is
the technical design that brings that structure into reality. Good technical design enhances
student access and understanding. Poor technical quality creates barriers to learning.
Teachers should consider the quality of photographs and illustrations, font size and page
layout, and durability. In the case of video, audible and age appropriate narration and
variation in presentation style should be considered. When selecting digital resources,
interactivity, feedback, constructive engagement, usability, and functionality are important.
Social Considerations
The intent of any Social Considerations screening process, be it at the local or provincial
level, is not to remove controversy, but to ensure that controversial views and opinions are
presented in a contextual framework.
All resources on the ministry's recommended list have been thoroughly screened for social
concerns from a provincial perspective. However, teachers must consider the appropriateness
of any resource from the perspective of the local community.
Media
When selecting resources, teachers should consider the advantages of various media. Some
topics may be best taught using a specific medium. For example, video may be the most
appropriate medium when teaching a particular, observable skill, since it provides a visual
model that can be played over and over or viewed in slow motion for detailed analysis. Video
can also bring otherwise unavailable experiences into the classroom and reveal "unseen
worlds" to students. Software may be particularly useful when students are expected to
develop critical-thinking skills through the manipulation of a simulation, or where safety or
repetition are factors. Print or CD-ROM resources can best be used to provide extensive
background information on a given topic. Once again, teachers must consider the needs of
their individual students, some of whom may learn better from the use of one medium than
another.
As part of the selection process, teachers should be aware of school and district funding
policies and procedures to determine how much money is available for their needs. Funding
for various purposes, including the purchase of learning resources, is provided to school
districts.
Existing Materials
Prior to selecting and purchasing new learning resources, an inventory of those resources
that are already available should be established through consultation with the school and
district resource centres. In some districts, this can be facilitated through the use of district
and school resource management and tracking systems. Such systems usually involve a
computer database program (and possibly bar-coding) to help keep track of a multitude of
titles. If such a system is put on-line, then teachers can check the availability of a particular
resource via computer.