CONFLICT MANAGEMENT TWO MARKS BITS 1) The abbreviation for PDG is A) Popular dilemma Game B) Prisoners dilemma Game*

* C) Painters Dual Game D) Prisoners Dual Game 2) Conflict can be studied generally under the following heads. a) 1) individual conflict 2) Group conflict 3) Organizational conflict b) 1) individual conflict 2) inter-group conflict 3) inter organizational c) 1) inter individual 2) intra group 3) intra organizational d) 1) group conflict 2) inter group 3) intra group 3) Basically intra personal conflict can be related to two things. Which are the Two of the following 11) conflict arising due to divergent goals 22) conflict with puzzling question 33) conflict due to many changes 44) conflict arising out of multiple roles to be played a) 1&2 b) 1&3 c) 2&3 d) 1&4 4) Building understanding phase of the negotiate has three components. Arrange in the sequences. i) getting information ii) testing arguments and position iii)using tuning and position a) I,ii,iii b) iii,ii,I c) ii,I,iii d) I,iii,ii 5) The bargaining phase of the negotiation has three components. Arrange it in a order. i) getting and maintaining concessions ii) break dead lock iii) moving forwards an agreement a) iii,ii,I b) ii,I,iii c) ii,iii,I d)I,ii,iii 6) The closing phase of negotiation comprises three stages. Arrange in an order. i) renewing your negotiating experience ii) formulating and agreement iii) Ensuring implementation a) ii,iii,I b) ii,I,iii c)I,ii,iii d) iii,ii,i FOUR MARKS QUESTIONS : 1) Match the following. a) Incompatibility 1) deliberatively trying to prevent from attaining goals b) Blocking 2) Scratching the paint of a new ear c) Perception 3) Different understanding d) Non-verbal expression of 4) Mutually exclusive goals, values or conflict events i) a-2,b-3,c-4,d-1 ii) a-4,b-1,c-3,d-2 iii)a-1,b-2,c-4,d-3 iv)a-3,b-1,c-2,d-4

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 2) Collaboration develops the following? a) 1) sense of identity 2) sense of responsibility 3) Internal standards 4) excellence 5) individual creativity b) 1) Mutuality 2) Alternative ideas and solutions 3) Mutual ;support and reinforcement 4) Synergy 5) collective action c) 1) synergy 2) collective action 3) excellence 4) individual creativity 5) sense of identity d) 1) Mutuality 2) alternative ideas and solutions 3) mutual support and reinforcement 4) excellence 5) internal standards 3) Pick up the 5 appropriate positive consequences of conflicts a) 1)Major stimulant for change 2) group thinking is avoided 3) Creativity and innovation is improved 4) Cohesion & satisfaction 5) Minimum level of conflict is optimal b) 1) Diversion; of energy 2) Synergy 3) relationship groups 4) Performance increasing 5) stress is eased c) 1) Collective action 2) excellence 3) sense of identity 4) Talents are improved 5) Stress is eased d) 1) Mutuality 2) Creativity and innovation improves 3) major stimulant for charge 4) positive thinking 5) Group thinking is avoided 4) Which of the following is the correct sequence of interlocking conflict episodes as per pondys model i) perceived conflict/felt conflict ii) latent conflict iii)Manifest conflict iv) The aftermath of; the preceding conflict v) The conflict aftermath a) iii,ii,I,iv,v b) iii,iv,I,v,ii c) I,ii,iii,iv,v d) iv,ii,I,iii,v 5) Match the following? A) The conflict aftermath i) expressed through behavior B) Manifest Conflict ii) refers to underlying conditions C) Latent Conflict iii) Occurs with the awareness of the Existence of the latent condition D) Perceived Conflict iv) Becomes an environmental factor for the Next conflict episode E) the aftermath of the preceding v) Sets the stage for those that follow Conflict a) A_i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv,E-v b) A-v,B-iv,C-iii,D-ii,E-i c) A-iv,B-I,C-ii,D-iii,E-v d) A-ii,B-iv,C-v,D-iii,E-i 6) Generally three separate types of goal conflicts are identified. Pick up the three from the following a. approach-approach conflict b. approach-avoidance conflict c. intergoal conflict d. inter role conflict e. avoidance-avoidance conflict

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT a) I,ii,iii b) I,ii,v c) ii,iii,v d) iii,iv,v 7) Match the following A) personal-role conflict i) if a contractor asks a carpenter to do some Thing different from the instructions of the Architect B) Inter-role conflict ii) individual simultaneously perform many Role c) inter-sender role conflict iii)when the expected behavior is incompatiable with a persons own basic values and attitudes. a) A-iii,B-ii,C-I b) A-ii,B-iii,C-i c) A-I,B-ii,C-iii d) A-ii,B-I,C-iii 8) There are 5(five) most commonly cited reasons for interpersonal conflicts. Pick up from the following those appropriate word. f. personality difference g. perception h. clashes of values and interests i. reword systems j. power and status differences k. incompatible goals l. task interdependence m. scarcity of resources n. difference in perceptions 0. four additional ;sources as other reasons a) I,ii,iii,iv,v b) iii,iv,v,vi,vii c) I,ii,iii,v,viii d) iv,v,vi,vii,viii 9) The needs of inter-group conflict are shown in three differences. Pick up the appropriate 7(seven) of the ten following i) incompatible goals ii) task interdependence iii)power and status differences iv)clashes of values v) personality differences vi)resource allocation vii)competitive incentives & reward viii)line and staff conflict systems a) I,ii,iii,iv,v,vi,vii b) iii,iv,v,vi,vii,viii,xi c)iv,v,vi,vii,viii,ix.x d) I,ii,vi,vii,viii,ix,x 10) For conflict to exist between two organizations the following three conditions must be satisfied. Pick up the appropriate three form the following. i) Each of the organization must be present in the image of the responsible decision makers of the other. ii) A decision on; the part of either of the executives must effect the state of both organizations in value significant direction iii) A decision; on the part of either of the execution must affect the image of the state of the other in a direction that he considers as un favorable. iv) Unions must compete for members or jobs as in jurisdictional disputes. v) Controversy and conflict are inherent in the concept of line & staff. a) iii,iv,v b) I,ii,iv c) I,iv,v d) I,ii,iii

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 11) From the following identify three (3) consequences of destructive conflict i) Too much stress is created for individuals ii) Group think is avoided iii) Problems are brought out, identified, and clarified iv) Group decision making is reduced to a feeble walk v) Cooperation is replaced by infighting a) I,iv,v b)I,ii,iii c) ii,iii,iv d) ii,iv,v 12) Robbins had offered certain guidelines of conflict stimulation. Find out the four(4) appropriate techniques from the following i) communication ii) bringing in out sides iii) flexibility iv) issues one looked objectively v) restructure the organization vi) Encouraging competition a) I,ii,iii,iv b) ii,iii,iv,v c) iii,iv,v,vi d) I,ii,v,vi 13) Match the following of stimulation strategy of conflict A) Communication i) Breaking up old workgroups and departments to Re-organize them B) Bringing in out siders ii) The use of bonuses and incentive pay and awards For excellent performance c) Restructive the organization iii) Manipulate the message D) Encouraging competition iv) Introduction of heterogeneous people in to the Organization a) A-iii,B-iv,C-I,D-2 b) A-ii,B-iii,C-ii,D-i c) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-I d) A-I,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv 14) Arrange the following conflict resolution styled in the sequence. i) Compromising ii) Accommodating iii) Avoiding iv) Problem solving v) Completion a) ii,I,iii,iv,v b) v,iii,ii,I,iv c) v,iv,iii,ii,I d) iii.iv,v,ii,i 15) Match the following A) Problem Solving/confrontation i) Something style B) compromising ii) lose-lose style C) Accommodating iii)withdrawal D) Avoiding iv) E) Competition v) win-win style a) A-I,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv,E-v b) A-ii,B-iii,C-iv,D-I,E-v c) A-v,B-ii,C-I,D-iv,E-iii d) A-v,B-ii,C-I,D-iii,E-iv 16) Match the following conflict management strategies. A) Physical 1)Elimination the other party four opponents to and give up fight B) Dominance 2) To ask higher authority to help them arrive at A solution c) Compromise 3) Warning factors or parties are separated. D) Appeals procedures 4)Traditional way-no clean winner or loser

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 17) Match the following Conflict management strategy type of strategy A) Ignoring the conflict 1)avoidance B) Smoothing 2) containment C) Bargaining 3) Diffusion D) Redesigning the organization 4) Avoidance E) Imposing a solution 5) Confrontation a) A-1,A-2,C-3,D-4,E-5 b) A-eB-3,C-1,D-4,E-5 c) A-3,B-2,C-1,D-4,E-5 d) A-1,B-3,C-2,D-5,E-4 18) We --------------- for a concept bazaar but --------- a long term loan a) Bargain ,Seek b) bargain, apply c) Bargain, negotiate d) negotiate, bargaining 19) In the negotiation spectrum, the following five(5) are the external factors which emphasis that will rest on cooperation or conflict. Pick up the factors i) The nature of the issue at state ii) the relationship between the parties iii) The type of parties involved iv) The time available for the negotiation v) The balance of power vi) The Bach grade of the people vii) The education qualification a) I,ii,iii,iv,v b) ii,iii,iv,v,vi c) iii,iv,v,vi,vii d) iv,v,vi,vii,i 20) Match with the correct one. A) Aesthetic Type 1) A person influenced by things, financial, statistical and Factorial B) Analytical Type 2) A person focusing on how things look and feel. C) Intuitive Type 3) A person concerned about how he feel about what you Bargaining a) A-2,B-1,C-3 b) A-1,B-2,C-3 c) A-2,B-3,C-1 d) A-3,B-2,C-1 21) Match the correct one. Type the negotiating party Attitude A) Strong type 1) Commanding authorities B) Fence-straddling Type 2) Needs more time and likes to reach consensus Before taking any action C) The weak type 3) Reluctant to make any decisions a) A-3,B-2,C-1 b) A-2,B-3,C-1 c) A-1,B-3,C-2 d) A-1,B-2,C-3 22) There are a number of ways to describe the various procedures followed by negotiates. Arrange the following six procedures in an order. i) developing a strategy ii) Preparation iii) Building understanding iv) Getting started v) Bargaining vi) Closing a) ii,iii,iv,v,I,vi b)ii,I,iv,iii,v,vi c) I,ii,iv,iii,v,vi d) iii,ii,I,iv,v,vi

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 23) ____ has identified three types of interdependence among groups. b) Williams.M c) Abeaham d) Abraham Zaleznik 24) Relationship; that exist between the nursing staff, surgeons, anesthesiology staff etc. is an example of . a) reciprocal interdependence b) sequential interdependence c) pooled interdependence 25) The output of; one becomes the input of another then it is called . a) reciprocal interdependence b) sequential interdependence c) pooled interdependence 26) A clash of domains caused by dividing expertise authority and roles is happened because of . a) line and staff conflict b) power distribution c) heterogeneity members d) communication distribution 27) -------------- resists new ideas a) the line b) the staff c) the boss d) the manager 28) ----------- over steps its authority, steals credit and fails to see the whole picture of organization a) the line b) the M.D c) the boss d) the staff 29) --------scientists have spent a lot of time energy exploring how dysfunctional inter-group conflicts effects those who experience it a) classical b) neo classical c) behavioral d) modern 30) Each group becomes more highly structured and organized. This outcome of conflict is an effect a) between competing groups b) within each competing group c) on the winning group d) on the losing group 31) --------- tends towards high inter-group cooperation and concern for the member needs and low concern for work and task accomplishment a) the losing group b) the group not; affected by conflict c) the winning group d) the win-lose group 32) Managers are manipulate messages in such a ways as to ---------- conflict a) climate b) bring the down the level of c) stimulate d) introduce 33) ---------- conflict resolution style is high on assertiveness and low on co-effectiveness a) avoiding b) accommodating c) Competition d) Problem Solving 6 CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 34) --------- conflict resolution style/strategy is associated ;with behavior such as withdrawal indifference, evasion, apathy, flight reliance upon fate and isolation a) Accommodating b) competition c)avoiding d)compromising 35) -------- conflict resolution style in low in assertiveness and high on cooperativeness a) Accommodating b) competition c) avoiding d) problem solving 36) In -------- conflict resolution style there is no distinct winner or loser because each party is excepted give up ;something of value for concussion a) collaboration b) avoiding c) compromising d) accommodating 37) The term negotiation also implies the involvement of at least ------ parties since we did not negotiate with ourselves a) One party b) two parties c) three parties d) five parties 38) We --------- for a concept bazaar but --------- a long term loan a) Bargain, seek b) bargain, apply c) Bargain, negotiate d) Negotiate, bargaining 39) The best achievable outcome in the bargaining objectives a) Top line objectives b) A bottom line objectives c) A target objective d) The realistic Objective 40) The lowest still; acceptable, outcome in the bargaining objective a) Top line objective b) A bottom line objective c) A target objective d) The realistic objective 41)The outcome with what you realistically expect to settle for in bargaining objectives is

a) Top line objective b) A bottom line objective c) A target objective d) The realistic objective 42) Ensuring implementation in the stage in --------- phase of negotiation a) bargaining b) closing c) building understanding d) getting started 43) setting the agenda is the second stage of --------- phase of negotiation a) getting started b) closing c) building understanding d) closing 44) testing arguments & position is; the second component of ------- phase of negotiation a) bargaining b) building understanding c) closing d) preparation 45) setting bargaining objectives is the first element of -------- phase of negotiation a) bargaining b) building understanding c) closing d) preparation 46) Collaborating, Compromising are the first two stages of -------a) bargaining b) building understanding c) closing d) preparation

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 47) Regardless of what is agreed, both parties will always express their satisfaction with the final deal, This is the symbol of a) implementing agreement b) identifying a good deal c) good collaboration d) good compromising

Conflict Management & Negotiation Skills Introduction & Meaning (Unit 1)

1. Conflict is a basic fact of life in ___________ (i) Books (ii) Groups & Organization* (iii) Computers (iv) Movies 2. Organizations consist of people with __________ (i) Same mentality (ii) Mentally handicapped (iii)Divergent personalities, perceptions and values* (iv) Computer wizards only 3. Managers who ignored the spreading conflict hoping that it would go away, realize that the work in the organizations has come to _______ (i) Halt* (ii) Increasing the growth (iii) Market (iv) All the three 4. Pick the odd one out The definition of conflict acknowledges (i)Awareness (ii) Opposition (iii) Scarcity (iv) Competition (v) Blockage 5. Conflict usually occurs when one party ________ that another party has frustrated or is about to frustrate (i) Assumes (ii) Celebrates (iii) Co-operates (iv) Perceives (v) frustrates 6. Match the following Latent or Overt (1) Conflict refers to deliberate behavior X deliberate tries to prevent Y from attaining his goals. If interference is not accidental the is conflict. Perception (2) One can express opposition by a shake of the head, by an indecent gesture, by writing a scathing memo, or by scratching the paint of a new car with a nail as it moves down the assembly line. Active or Passive (3) If X assumes and has goals incompatible with those of Y and X has no opportunity to frustrate the goal attainment of Y there is no conflict or vice versa. Blocking (4) One can sometimes counter the behavior of another by tactics such as dragging ones feet or withholding information. It is implicit what has

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT been said that perception of loss or of potential loss, accurate or inaccurate can create conflict. Verbal or Nonverbal (5) Conflict occurs when two or more parties pursue mutually exclusive goals values or events. It is based on the assumption that there are two or more parties whose interests or goals appear to be uncomfortable. Incompatibility (6)Conflict can exist at either level. Which can be hidden, but generally speaking conflict is the term that is limited to actual situations. 7. ________ means working together for a joint goal or mutual benefit if the goal is seen as shareable (i) Conflict (ii) Co-operation (iii) Collaboration (iv) ii & iii* (v) Competition 8. ____ & ____ are viewed as separate dimensions and not on the same continuum. (i) Conflict & co-operation* (ii) Co-operation & Collaboration (iii) Blocking & Incompatibility (iv) Low conflict & High Conflict 9. A union co-operating with the principal; of a college in switching off the gas plant in a laboratory prior to an employee strike. This is an example for (i) Conflict (ii) Co-operation* (iii) Perception (iv) All the three 10. Competition on the other hand, may involve considerable commonality of interests and ____ of opposing behavior (i) 50% (ii) limited amount* (iii) 100% (iv) 20.5% 11. ________ is one of the important feature of competitive situation. (i) Fixed or limited resource (ii) Blocking (iii) Perception (iv) Instability 12. Top management framing promotion policies, or a chess federation developing contest rules and schedules. This is the best example ;of (i) Competition* (ii) Conflict (iii) Instability (iv) Collaboration 13. ____ & ____ can result in distortions of perceptions and we- they feelings & attitudes. (i) Collaboration & Conflict (ii) Conflict & Competition (iii) Cohesion & Satisfaction (iv) All the three 14. Members of the group contest against each other. This (i) Inter-group (ii) Intra-group* (iii) :Individual Competition (iv) Conflict 15. Competion which occurs when one group is competing with the other group, This competition is called (i) intergroup* (ii) Intragroup (iii) Individual Competition (iv) Collaboration

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 16. Competition is when individuals work independently against an external standard. This competition is called (i) Intergroup (ii) Intragroup (iii) Individual Competition* (iv) Collaboration 17. _____ & _____ for excellence often creates a desire in the individual to find new ways of doing things. (i) Competition & Collaboration (ii) Individual Identity& Passion* (iii) Conflict & Cooperation (iv) (i) & (iii) 18. If the members fell that the goal is unshareable and can be achieved exclusively by only one, _____ situation emerge. (i) Competitive (ii) Conflicting (iii) Organisational (iv) Instability 19. _________ supplements what competition does. (i) Collaboration (ii) Conflict (iii) Games (iv) Organisations (v)Corporates. 20. Find the odd one out Competition develops (i) Individual Creativity (ii) Alternative Ideas & Solutions* (iii) Excellence (iv) Mutual support & reinforcement * (v) Individual autonomy 21. Find the odd one out Collaborations develop (i) Synergy (ii) Individual Creativity* (iii) Collective action (iv) Mutuality (v) Sense ;of responsibility* 22. In negative conflict individuals view others as _______ (i) Adversaries* (ii) Optimists (iii) Enthusiastic (iv) Opportunists 23. Without conflict organization would be apathetic; and Stagnant (i) True* (ii) False 24. Pick the odd one out Positive consequences of conflict (i) Diversion of Energy (ii) Creativity & Innovation (iii) Group think is avoided (iv) Cohesion & satisfaction 25. Pick the odd one out Negative consequence of Conflict (i) Stress in people (ii) Minimum level ;of conflict is optimal* (iii) Diversion of energy (iv) Instability & Chaos 26. In the given graph mention the relationship between level of intergroup conflict & Organisational performance at

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT Point A: _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ __ Point B: _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ __ Point C: _______________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ _

The Process of Conflict UNIT 2

1. According to _______ Conflict can be more readily understood if it is considered as dynamic process. (i) LR Pondy* (ii) Davis (iii) Mac Gregor (iv) KR Pondy 2. _______ indicates a series of events. (i) Competition (ii) Tracking game (iii) PDG (iv) Process* 3. The _______ of the preceding conflict episodes sets the stage for those that follow. (i) Perceived conflict (ii) Latent Conflict (iii) Manifest Conflict (iv) Aftermath* 4. _______ conflict refers to scarcity of resources, the drive for autonomy versus the need for control and divergence of personal or unit goals are examples. (i) Process of conflict (ii) latent conflict* (iii)Aftermath (iv) Process of conflict 5. ________ conflict occurs with the awareness of existence of the latent conditions. (i) Process of conflict (ii) lateen t conflict (iii) Perceived conflict* (iv) Conflict aftermath 6. ________ do not create conflict until someone notices that they are divergent. (i) Divergent goals* (ii) Incompatible goals (iii) Approach conflict (iv) Process of conflict 7. Perceived conflict does not always become ________ (i) felt conflict* (ii) divergent goals (iii) aftermath of preceding conflict (iv) Manifest conflict 8. _______ conflict is expressed through behavior (i) Perceived (ii) Latent (iii) Manifest* (iv) None of them. 9. Pondy suggests that the origins of _______ are informational, political, functional and social.

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT (i) Process of conflict (ii) manifest conflict (iii) organizational ;conflicts* (iv) none of ;them 10. The _____ becomes ;an environmental factor for the next conflict episode (i) Perceived conflicts (ii) manifest conflict (iii) conflict aftermath* (iv) pondys conflict model 11. Over the years three distinct philosophies that refer to different_____ attitudes toward conflict have been identified. (i) managerial* (ii) behavioral (iii) classical (iv) traditional. 12. ______ approach viewed conflict as an organizational abnormality and a potential dangerous process. (i) Classical* (ii) Behavioral (iii) Interractionist (iv) Abnormal 13. ________ attitude towards conflict was one of the fear and disdain (i) Managerial* (ii) Classical (iii) Modern (iv) Interactionist 14. ______ has also similar prejudiced view of conflict, but however, accepted the fact that conflict is natural occurrence in all organizations. (i) Behaviouralists* (ii) Classical (iii) Interractionist (iv) Pondy (v) SP Robbins 15. ______ had a broader view of conflict. It recognizes that in some cases conflict may be helpful, facilitative & functional. (i) Classical (ii)Behavioralists (iii) Interactionists* (iv) LR Pondy 16. In the words of _______ the behabvioral approach accepted conflict, the interactionist view encourages conflict on grounds that a harmonious, peaceful, tranquil and cooperative group is prone to becoming static, apathetic, and unresponsive to needs for change and innovation (i) SP Robbins* (ii) LR Pondy (iii) P. Drucker (iv) Frederick W Taylor. 17. PDG & Trucking game have become quite popular over the years due to (i) _______________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ (ii) ________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________ 18. The convenient way of studying conflict between two persons is to; present them with a ______ pay-off matrix. (i) One-by-three (ii) Two-by-two* (iii) three-by-three (iv) four-by-four 19. Example of Zero sum conflicts _____________________

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 20. PDG is an example of ________ situation (i) Zero sum conflict (ii) mixed motive situation* (iii) Pure conflict situation (iv) robbers cave experiment 21. The _______ experiment in Oklahoma is called the Robbers cave Experiment (i) 1945 (ii)1934 (iii)1954* (iv)1956 (v)1944 22. The experiment which had observed the interaction of boys in summer camps is (I) PDG (ii) tracking game (iii) Robbers cave experiment*(iv) Pay of Matrix 23. A minimal level of conflict is _________. These are the views of (i) Behaviouralists (ii) Interractionists* (iii) Cardiologists(iv) Psychologists 24. Perceived Conflict and Felt conflict become manifest conflict depends partly on the availability of resolution mechanisms such as administrative review procedures or appeal processes 25. Conflict is integral to _____________ (i) Competition (ii) Co-operation (iii) Collaboration* (iv) Nature of change 26. The emerging view of conflict is called as Interactionist view.

Type of Conflict (Unit -3)

1. _______ conflict is internal to the person and is probably the most difficult type of conflict to analyse. (a) Intergroup (b) Intrapersonal* (c) Intra individual (d) Inter group 2. In the words of ______ organizations are systems of medieval torture which suppress and subjugate their victim. (a) LR Pondy (b) Davis* (c) Chris Argyris (d) SP Robbins 3. There is no challenge for _______ fulfillment (a) Psychological* (b) Mental (c) Physical (d) Organisational 4. There is little chance to be ________ (a) Sensitive (b) Creative* (c) Innovative (d) Profit oriented. 5. The incongruity model developed by _______ postulates that there is lack of congruity between the needs of healthy individuals and the demands of the organization. (a) Chris Argyris* (b) Davis (c) LR Pondy (d) SP Robbins 6. As _______ grow they tend to be less responsive to the needs of the individual (a) Profits (b) Groups (c) Organisations* (d) Conflicts

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 7. Basically intrapersonal ;conflict can be related to two things: conflict arising due to ____ or conflict arising from out of multiple roles to be played daily (a) Interpersonal; reasons (b) Divergent goals* (c) Inter group reasons (d) Intra group reasons 8. _______ conflict occurs when a goal that an individual is attempting to achieve has both positive and negative features or when two or; more competing goals exist (a) Role (b) Goal* (c) Interpersonal (d) Intra individual 9. A person wants two ______ situations but can have only one. (a) Negetive (b) Relevant (c) Positive* (d) Avoiding 10. ________ type of conflict can be easily resolved because; a person faced with two negative goals may not choose either of them and may simply leave the situation. (a) Approach-approach (b) Approach-avoidance (c) Avoidance- avoidance* (d) Goal conflict 11. An individual occupies many different positions in an organizations and performs ____ roles. (a) Divergent (b) Different (C) Multiple* (d) Selected 12. Role conflict is the result of ____ role expectations. (a) Divergent* (b) Different (c) Multiple (d) Selected 13. As a part of the ______ he should have the corresponding values and attitudes. (a) Organisation (b) Management team* (c) Roles (d) Globe 14. Some of their customers expectations on product quality, delivery time and credit term may be inconsistent with company policies. This type of conflict is known as _____ (a) Interrole conflict (b) Intersender role conflict (c) Person role conflict (d) Intrarole conflict* 15. ______ arises when the expected behavior is incompatible with a persons own basic values and attitudes. (a) Conflict (b) Intersender role conflict (c) Person role conflict* (d) Interpersonal conflict 16. _______ type of conflict is the result of facing multiple roles. (a) Interrole conflict* (b) Intrarole conflict (c) Individual role conflict (d) Personal role conflict 17. _______ conflict involves two or more individuals rather than one individual. (a) Interrole (b) Interpersonal conflict* (c) Intrarole (d) Intersender role

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 18. an individual who perceives conflict is likely to act in a manner conveying ____ intentions. (a) Collaborative (b) Competitive (c) Conflict* (d) Avoiding 19. _______ conflicts develop usually because superiors try to control subordinates and subordinates tend to resist. (a) Lateral (b) Horizontal (c) Hierarchial (d) Vertical* 20. _____ conflicts arise from unequal ;distribution of power and status. (a) Intraindividual (b) Intergroup (c) Interpersonal* (d) Interorganisation 21. As pointed out by _______ organizations are political structures. (a) Abraham Zelenznik* (b) LR Pondy (c) SP Robbins (d) J. Thompson 22. Status inconsistencies lead to _____ (a) Competition (b) Conflict* (c) Collaboration (d) Task interdependence 23. Interpersonal conflict is almost automatic anytime there is ________ (a) Profit (b) Scarcity* (c) Inter personal relationship (d) Group 24. Intergroup conflicts over authority, _______ and resources are exceedingly common (a) Management (b) Groups (c) Jurisdiction* (d) Allocation of resources 25. Most of the departments in the organization compete for the _______ scarce resources and power. (a) Management (b) Scarcity (c) Allocation (d) Interdependence 26. Quite often the goals of one group are _______ with those of other groups. (a) Similar (b) Different (c) Inconsistent* (d) Interdependent 27. The ________ department might perceive its goals as being potentially incompatible with those of marketing. (a) Operation (b) Sales (c) Production* (d) Finance 28. Such escalating differences are _______ by-products of specialization. (a) Natural* (b) artificial (c) Profit oriented (d) Scarce 29. _______ interdependence refers to the dependence of one unit on another for resources or information. (a) Resource (b) Power & status (c) Goal (d) Task* 30. ______ has identified three types ;of interdependence among groups: pooled, sequential and reciprocal. (a) Task interdependence (b) Abraham Zalenznik (c) Intergroup conflict (d) J. Thompson.*

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 31. When interdependence is of a serial form wherein the output of one becomes the input of the another, then it is called ________ Interdependence. (a) Task (b) Sequential (c) Reciprocal (d) Personal interdependence. 32. _______ interdependence occurs when two or more groups are mutually interdependent in accomplishing the tasks. (a) Task (b) Sequential (c) Reciprocal* (d) Personal 33. Quite often ______ allocation is a bone of contention between organization members and groups. (a) Sales (b) Task (c) Resource* (d) Work 34. Conflict may be minimized if the organization is ______ and new resources are growing and allowing a share to each and every department. (a) Profiting (b) Planning (c) Allocating resources (d) Prospering* 35. ______ conflict is more likely to occur when the reward plan is tied to individual group performance rather than to overall organizational performance. (a) Intergroup* (b) Intragroup (c) Interpersonal (d) Individual 36. Today _______ differences are the most common type of intergroup conflict. (a) X and Y (b) Line and staff* (c) Status (d) Resource allocation 37. _______ people may value sophisticated designs while manufacturing people may prefer simple designs. (a) Sales (b) Operations (c) Engineering* (d) Finance 38. Arrange the below in sequential order. 1. Perceptions 2. Scarce resources 3. clashes of values and interests 4. power & statues difference 5. Personality difference. (a) 54321 (b) 12543 (c) 21435 (d) 51342* 39. Match the following. A) Heterogeneity of members a) Inadequate or unclear communication stimulates conflict because information is held back and parties do not know each others jobs. B) Communication distortion b) Personality differences such as background, education, age etc, lower the probability of interpersonal rapport and decrease the amount of collaboration between departments C) Participative decisionmaking c) When formalization is low the potential; for judictional disputes increases. Conflicts between departments are likely to florish in situations where they are not subjected to rules and regulations. D) Low formalization d) Joint decision making promotes conflict. It offers enough scope for the expression of existing disputes 16 CONFLICT MANAGEMENT and allows more occasions for differences to develop. (a) Aa Bb Cc Dd (b) Ab Ba Cd Dc (c) Ad Bc Ca Db (d) Ac Bd Cc Db 40. The phenomena in ______ conflict are much the same as those arising within an organization. (a) Intraorganisational (b) Interorganisational* (c) Interpersonal (d) Individual 41. The bases of interorganisational conflict are bases of _____ conflict (a) Intergroup* (b) Interpersonal (c) Intrapersonal (d) Intragroup 42. As pointed out by _____ many of the phenomena of intergroup conflict within the organization are almost indistinguishable of the phenomena that we might consider under interorganisational conflict. (a) SP Robbins (b) J. Thompson (c) March and Simon* (D)Abraham Z 43. Each of the organizations must be present in the image of a responsible ______ of the other. (a) Management (b) Decision maker* (c) Union management relationship (d) None of the above

44. Two organizations that do not affect each other cannot be in _____ and therefore cannot be in conflict. (a) Collaboration (b) Competition* (c) Dependence (d) None of the above 45. Match the following. A) Management-government a) Unions may compete for members or jobs, as in jurisdiction disputes. B) Inter-management b) The unions will be scrutinized by agents of the government for illegal activities like criminal activities discrimination, illegal strikes etc C) Inter-union c) Conflict between this are expressed in many forms like strikes, peaceful bargains, grievances, debates, loyalties, sabotage and absenteeism. D) Union-government d) Conflicts over political contributions, bribery, antitrust actions, fair trade etc come under this. E) Union-management e) Managements may compete against each other in way that they believe will enhance their position in the industry. (a) Ad Bb Ca Dc Ee (b) Ab Be Ca Dc Ed (c) Ad Be Ca Db Ec* (d) Aa Bb Cc Dd Ee 46. ______ conflict arises between employees or departments at the same level in an organization. (a) Vertical (b) Line and staff (c) Horizontal* (d) Intraorganizational

17

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 47. Controversy and conflict are inherent in the concept of _______ (a) Collaboration (b) Competition (c) Line and staff* (d) Vertical 48. ______ found that the staff employees who sere usually younger, had an upper level of education and came from different social backgrounds than line employees (a) SP Robbins (b) LR Pondy (c) Dalton* (d) Sheriff 49. The ________ manager prefers to run his own show. (a) Staff (b) Line* (c) HR (d) None of the above 50. The staff is loyal to a narrow specialty, line is loyal to the ______ (a) Management (b) Organization* (c) Managers (d) None of the above CONFLICT OUTCOMES ( UNIT 4) 1. ______ have spent a lot of time and energy exploring how dysfunctional intergroup conflict affects those who experience it. (a) Classical thinkers (b) Neoclassical thinkers (c) Behavioral scientists* (d) Interractionists 2. Each group demands more loyalty and conformity from its members tol be able to present a ________ (a) Academic advice (b) Solid front* (c) Better outcome (d) None of the above 3. Hostility toward the other group; increases while interaction and communication with the other group ______ (a) Increases (b) Decreases* (c) Decrease as well as increases (d) Remains neutral 4. The winning group retains its ______ and may become even more cohesive. (a) Hostility (b) Sympathy (c) Strength (d) Cohesion* 5. ______ will find psychological escapes, such as the judges were biased, judges didnt really understand our solution , the rules of the game were not explained to us etc. (a) Winner (b) judge (c) loser* (d) audience 6. Pick the one is NOT an effect within each competing groups. (a) Each group becomes more closely knit and elicits greater loyalty form its members; members close ranks and bury some of their internal differences (b) Group climate changes from informal, causal and playful to work and ask oriented; concern for members psychological needs declines, while concern for task accomplishment increases. (c) The winner tends towards high intragroup co-operation and concern for members needs and low concern for work and task accomplishment.* (d) Each group becomes more highly structured and organized.

18

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 7. Pick; the one, which are NOT the effects on losing group. (a) If loss is accepted , the losing group tends to splinter, unresolved conflicts come to the surface and fights break out, all in the effort to find the causes for the loss (b) The loser tends toward low intragroup co-operation, low concern for members needs and high concern for recouping by working harder. (c) The loser is; more tense and ready to work harder, and desperate to find someone or something to blame-the leader, itself, the judges who decided against it, the rules of the game. (d) Hostility towards the other group ;increases while interaction and communication with the other group decreases, thus it becomes easier to maintain negative stereotypes and more difficult to correct perceptual distortions.* 8. _________ , members show We feelings. (a) Party (b) Group (c) Within the group* (d) Between groups 9. _______ enemys win increases tension; and conflict. (a) Within the groups (b) Between groups* (c) Within parties (d) Between parties

Conflict Management (Unit 5)

1. _______ may be harmful to an organization but at times it may be useful. (a) Competition (b) Conflict* (c) Collaboration (d) Resolution 2. It is _______ conflict when group thinking is avoided. (a) Destructive (b) Constructive* (c) Group (d) Within groups 3. It is ______ conflict when focus on short range goals at the cost of long range goals. (a) Destructive* (b) Constructive (c) Within groups (d) Between groups 4. The ______ should seek a level of conflict appropriate to; the existing conditions. (a) Groups (b) Winning groups (c) Managers* (d) Group members 5. Conflict is not always _______ (a) Positive (b) Negative* (c) Profit oriented (d) Harmful 6. Stimulating competition and conflict, sometimes can have a galvanizing effect on the progress of ______ (a) Management (b) Organization* (c) Collaborations (d) Existing conditions. 7. An environment devoid of _____ and challenge can be unbearable to human beings (a) Innovation (b) Creation (c) Novelty* (d) Origination 8. The effective manager must determine the most effective level of conflict _____ for the organization.

19

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT (a) Minimisation (b) Maximaization (c0 Required level (d) Optimal level* 9. Situations in which conflict is too low generally involves people who are afraid to ___________ (a) Sit in the boat (b) rock the boat* (c) Sail in the boat (d) Fish in the boat 10. _______ had offered certain guidelines in communication, bringing in outsiders, restructure the organization, encouraging competition. (a) SP Robbins* (b) EH Schein (c) LR Pondy (d) Kenneth W Thomas. 11. Ambigucus or _____ messages encourage conflict. (a) Misleading (b) Unclear (c) Vague (d) Threatening* 12. Match the following A) Communication a) Changing the structure of an organization is an excellent way of creating conflict. B) Bringing in outsiders b) The use of bonuses, incentive pay and awards for excellent performance will stimulate competition. C) Restructure the organization c) Managers can redirect messages and alter channels to encourage conflict. D) Encouraging the competition. d) a commonly used method of shaking up a stagnant unit organizations is to bring in people whose backgrounds, attitudes, values and management styles vary significantly from the prevalent norms. (a) Aa Bb Cc Dd (b) Ab Bd Ca Dc (c) Ac Bd Cb Da (d) ASc Bd Ca Db* 13. Match the following A) Competition a) There is no distinct between winner or loser because each party is expected to give up something of value for a concession. B) Avoiding b) Parties will be generous and self sacrificing. C) Accommodating c) Parties openly share information, attempt to listen and develop empathy. D) Compromising d) This style is power oriented and is associated with direct physical aggression and heavy reliance on punishment, to gain control over weapons like fights, arguments, intimidation to achieve their goals. E) Problem solving e) This strategy is associated with behaviors such as withdrawal, indifference, evasion, apathy, fight reliance upon fate and isolation. (a) Ae Bc Ca Db Ed (b) Aa Bb Ca Db Ed (c) Ad Be Cc Dd Ee (d) Ad Be Cb Da Ec* 14. ______ suggested five styles of conflict resolution: competitive, sharing, avoidant, collaborative and accommodating.

20

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT (a) Pondy (b) Robbins (c) Thompson* (d) David 15. The competitive style is high on _____ and low on co-operativeness. (a) confidence (b) Aggressiveness (c) Assertiveness* (d) Boldness 16. Parties will be generous and self-sacrificing in ____ style. (a) competition (b) Avoiding (c) accommodating* (d) Compromising 17. ______ is a traditional method of resolving conflicts. (a) Avoiding (b) compromising* (c) Withdrawal (d) smoothing 18. Arrange the below in sequential order Problem solving is characterized by the following. 11. Other party is seen as a mutual problem solver. 22. Conflict is viewed as a non zero sum game 33. Issues are looked as objectively. 44. Parties pursue joint outcomes. (a) 3421 (b) 1234 (c) 2143 (d) 2314 19. ______ may work when the two groups are not required to interact while achieving targets. (a) Withdrawal (b) Physical separation* (c) Dominance (d) Member roatation 20. ______ after conducting research on executive decision-making in major corporations in America, found the chief executive to be the most widely employed arbiter of disagreement. (a) Robbins (b) Pondy (c) stagner* (d) Thompson. 21. ______ helps in attaining a temporary solution and provides enough time for more fundamental conflict resolution afterwards. (a) Dominance (b) Withdrawal (c) Separation* (d) Member rotation. 22. _____ is a traditional way of putting out fires. (a) Appeals procedure (b) compromise* (c) Avoiding (d) Withdrawal 23.Compromise may also ;involve _____ interventions as total group or representative negotiating & voting. (a) Second party (b) Third party* (c) First party (d) Fourth party 24. ______ found that many organizations have reduced interdepartmental conflicts by setting up special liaisons between the conflicting departments (a) Researchers (b) surveys (c) Lawrence and Lorch* (d) SP Robbins 25. The potential for conflict is very great in situations where two departments have to work in an ______ fashion and share scarce resources. (a) Compromising (b) Physical separation

21

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT (c) Interdependence* (d) Appeals procedure. 26. One way to resolve conflict is to reduce _____ is by moving from reciprocal to sequential or form sequential to pooled interdependence. . (a) Dependence (b) Dominance (c) Structural changes (d) Interdependence* 27. Changes in _____ also could be used effectively to reduce or eliminate conflict. (a) Artificial layout (b) Financial layout (c) Physical layout* (d)Superordinate goal 28. A _____ goal is common goal that appeals ;to all the parties involved and cannot be accomplished by the resources of any single party separately. (a) Appeals procedure (b) Superordinate goals* (c) Incompatible(d) Organization 29. _____ and their collegues stimulated conflict by encouraging rivalry between groups at boys camp. (a) Robbins (b) Pondy (c) Sherifs* (d) Thompson 30. In the words of _____ a strong enemy is a great unifying force, in the face of a common threat and overriding common purpose of victory or survival, the conflicting claims of the group fall into the background and are swallowed up into the single, measurable, overriding end of winning conflicts. (a) Pondy (b) Sherif (c) Boulding* (d) Thompson 31. _____ is a healthy approach in that it recognizes that usually neither party is completely right or wrong, granting a concession is not interpreted as a sign of weakness (a) Problem solving* (b) Compromising (c)Appeals procedure (D) Member rotation 32. _____ level managers may step in and say All right, you, guys, thats the end of it, no more. (a) middle level (b) immediate upper level (c) higherlevel* (d) line managers . 33. _____ is all about the pieces to be cut from the pie ( a zero sum game where either side gains at the expenses of the other ) (a) intergrative bargaining (b) distributive bargaining* bargaining (d) problem solving 34. In contrast to distributive bargaining approach that used problemsolving techniques to find _____ outcomes. (a) Win-lose (b) Win-win* (c) Lose win (d) Lose lose 35. ______ often tend to concede small initial concession and keeping this ;in mind, parties in a conflictful situation should proceed cautiously. (a) staff members (b) Bargainers* (c) Opponents (d) Ombudsman 22 CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 36. ______ after all requires cool rationability rather than emotional game playing. (a) effective bargainings* (b) Negotiation (c) Smoothing (d) avoidance

The Basics Of Successful Negotiation ( Unit 6)

1. ________ have a more comprehensive and useful understanding of what negotiation is than the ordinary executive. (a) Unskilled negotiators (b) Skilled negotiaters* (c) Bargainers (d) Ombudsman 2. The term _____ in popular usage refers to a variety of transactions in which the terms of exchange are not fixed, but evolve in the course of people getting together to do business with one another. (a) Successful negotiation (b) Bargaining (c) Negotiation* (d) Conflict 3. There may well be more than two, as when the government becomes involved in ____ negotiations to avert a strike, or a number of countries get together to negotiate a multilateral treaty. (a) Union-union (b) Management (c) Union-management* (d) Different conflict 4. Any _____ must therefore involve both cooperation and conflict.

(a) Problem (b) Collaboration (c) Negotiation* (d) Joint problem solving 5. In everyday speech, _____ is sometimes employed interchangeably with negotiation. (a) Bargaining* (b) Negotiation(c) Joint problem solving (d) Compromising 6. In ____ type of negotiation one partys gain is automatically the other partys loss. (a) Bargaining* (b) Joint problem solving distributive bargaining (d) Integrative bargaining 7. If the partys combine to take a larger pie, even though their relative shares remains the same, they both obtain more. This is _____ situation. (a) Win-win (b) Win lose (c) Lose-win (d) Lose-lose 8. Arrange the below in sequential order. (1) the relationship between the parties (2) the type of parties involved (3) the balance of power (4) the time available for the negotiation (5) the nature of issues at stake (a) 54321 (b) 53412 (c) 51243* (d) 52134 9. Single issues encourage_______. (a) negotiation (b) Negotiation spectrum (c) Collective bargaining (d) Bargaining 10. Multiple issues combined in a package deal, have more potential for ______

23

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT (a) Bargaining (b) Negotiation (c) Joint problem solving* (d) Profit 11. Once trust diminishes and antagonism develops the relationship will deteriorate and make further _____ more difficult. (a) Bargaining (b) Joint problem solving (c) Negotiation* (d) Conflict 12. _______ is always a key factor in negotiations, no matter what financial or technical matters are involved. (a) Compromising (b) Human element* (c) Balance of power (d) Time 13. ______ always act in irrational and unexpected ways. (a) Management (b) Unions (c) People* (d) Employees 14. The _______ company goes on strike when the company is actually owned by employees. (a) Dell (b) Microsoft (c) South bend Lathe* (d) East bend lathe 15. ________ and habitual bargainers often use such time constraints to force others into agreement. (a) Ombudsman (b) Takers* (c) Negotiators (d) Opponents 16. There is more of a tendency toward _______. (a) Bargaining (b) Negotiating (c) Joint problem solving* (d) Avoiding 17. Match the following A) Analytical type a) These people tend to make decisions very quickly because they operate on primary instinct. B) Aesthetic type b) all things financial, statistical most profoundly influence this type of person factual. C) Intuitive type c) This type focuses on how3 things look and feel and what kind of visceral impact they have. (a) Aa Bb Cc (b) Ab Bc Ca (c) Ab Ba Cb (d) Ac Bb Ca 18. Many artists, writers, actors, designers and other people who work in creative occupations tend to be _______ types. (a) Analytical type (b) Aesthetic type* (c) Intuitive type (d) None of the above 19. Lawyers, for example often spend a lot of time analyzing a clients problems and often spend a lot of time analyzing a clients problems and then must make an-the-spot decisions when they try the case in front of a jury. (a) Analytical type (b) Aesthetic type (c) Intuitive type* (d) The strong type 20. Match the following A) The strong type a) This type makes decisions quickly and confidently. 24 CONFLICT MANAGEMENT B) The fence straddling type b) This type needs more time and like to reach a consensus before taking any decision. C) The week type c) They stall, they stammer, they beg for more information and more time. (a) Ac, Bb, Ca (b) Ab, Bc, Ca (c) Aa, Bb, Cc* (d) Aa, Bc, Ca 21. _______ analyze complicated information rapidly but some times, when they pass judgement too quickly their hasty decisions turn out to be wrong. (a) The aesthetic type (b) The strong type* (c) The weak type (d) The intuitive type 22. When a ______ leaves a negotiation to consult with others, he often comes back to bargaining table with all kinds of changes and variations. (a) Weak type (b) Intuitive type (c) Fence straddler* (d) Analytical type + strong type 23. ______ whether analytical, aesthetic or intuitive make for unfortunate negotiators and are reluctant ;to make any decisions. (a) Strong type (b) Weak type* (c) Fence straddler (d) Employee. 24. For _______ decision making is nerve-wracking for them, they are prone to bad habits such as nail biting and squinting. (a) Strong type (b) Weak type* (c) Analytical type (d) Aesthetic type 25. Pick the odd one out.

The following subjects are to be avoided so you dont attack your opponents self (a) Jokes (b) Negetive opinions on hobbies, movies, books, or interests unless you know for sure that opponent agrees. (c) Anything to do with religion or politics. (d) Wealth* 26. The more your opponent wants _______, the quicker and stronger your opponents emotional response will be (a) Recognition (b) Goodwill (c) Wealth* (d) Self preservation 27. _______ simply means doing your opponent a favour. (a) Wealth (b) Recognition (c) Goodwill* (d) Self preservation 28. Pick the odd one out. (a) Cultivate a personal touch (b) Express your appreciation] (c) Point out any errors your opponent makes, as early in the negotiation as possible and as tactfully as possible. (d) Goodwill ensures that your opponent will like you*

25

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT

Managing The Negotiation Process ( Unit 7)

1. An approach in ______ handling where the effort is to help both the parties achieve their personal goals. (a) Conflict* (b) Bargaining (c) Negotiation (d) None of the above 2. An approach to conflict resolution by aiming at maintaining the _______ relationship at all costs. (a) Intrapersonal (b) Intergroup (c) Interpersonal* (d) Interorganisational 3. Match the following. A) Preparation a) In which each party decides what strategy and style to use. B) Developing a Strategy b) In which each side presents their initial demand or case C) Getting started c) In which the negotiators identify the issues and range of objectives for each issue. D) Building understanding d) In which final agreement is reached or the negotiations are terminated short of an agreement. E) Bargaining e) In which each party tries to get concession. F) Closing f) In which the negotiators justify their position and try to weigh up the others position. (a) Aa, Bb, Cc, Dc, Ee, Ff (b) Ad, Bc, Ca, Df, Eb, Fe (c) Ac, Ba, Cb, Df, Ee, Fd* (d) Ac,BA, Cf, De, Eb, Fd 4. Some of these stages are more relevant to ______ negotiations between teams or organizations than to informal discussions between individual managers. (a) Formal* (b) Informal (c) Better (d) Repeated 5. ______ is essential in negotiation. (a) Planning (b) Good preparation* (c) Patience (d) Bargaining skills 6. Arrange the below in sequential order. There are three basic elements in any preparation. 1). Assesing the other sides case 2). Assesing relative strengths and weaknesses 3) . Setting bargaining objectives (a) 123 (b) 321 (c) 312 * (d) 213 7. Match the following. A) A top line objective a) the lowest but still acceptable B) A bottom line objective b) what you realistically expect to settle for C) A Target objective c) the best achievable outcome (a) Aa Bc Cb (b) Ac Bb Ca (c) Ac BA Cb (d) Ab Bc Ca 8. Bargaining normally takes place between the ______ objectives of the two negotiators whereas agreement takes place between the parties _______

26

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT (a) Bottom line, target line (b) Bottom line, top line (c) Top line, ;bottom line* (d) Top line, target line 9. After deciding the ______ objectives one should not get wrapped up in contemplating what one can win when one forgets to calculate what one can lose (a) Topline (b) Bottomline (c) Bargaining* (d) Targeted 10. If you have little to ______ your down risk is small (a) Win (b) Lose* (c) Win-lose (d) Forgo 11. Finally, in negotiation, firmness and clarity are ______ (a) weakness (b) strength* (c) Useful (d) Useless 12. _______ your overall strategy is an important part of preparing to negotiate. (a) Collaborating (b) Accomodating (c) Planning* (d) Financing 13. Match the following. A) Collaborating a) This approach to conflict is to manage it by maintaining interpersonal relationships and ensuring that both parties to the conflict achieved their personal goals. B) Compromising b) This approach assumes that win-win solution is not possible. C) accommodating c) This approach to conflict involves maintaining the interpersonal relationship at all costs, with loittle or no concern for the personal goals of the parties involved. D) Controlling d) This approach to conflict is to take the necessary steps to ensure that his or her personal goals are met whatever the cost to the relationship. E) Avoiding e) Personal goals are usually not met nor is the interpersonal relationship maintained. (a) Ab Bc Ca De Ed (b) Aa Bd Ce Dc Eb (c) Aa Bb Cc Dd Ee* (d) Ad Be Cb Da Ec 13. _______ is a power oriented approach in which you see whatever power seems appropriate to defend a position, which you believe, is correct or simply attempt to win (a) avoiding (b) Compromising (c) Collaborating (d) Controlling*. 14. _______ is a crutial factor in negotiation. (a) Conflict (b) Planning (c) Timing* (d) Competition 15. The subject, scope and purpose therefore need to be agreed before _______ (a) Bargaining (b) Conflict (c) Negotiation* (d) Setting agenda 16. Pick the odd one out. These phase of the negotiation has three components.

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT (a) Testing arguments (b) Getting information (c) Using timing and adjournments. (d) Selective use of statistics* 17. In a negotiation, information is _______ (a) Useful (b) Power* (c) Utilised (d) Experience 18. ______ can be used as powerful aids to negotiation. (a) Bargaining (b) Joint problem solving (c) Adjournment* (d) conflict. 19. Pick the odd one out. Bargaining has three components (a) Breaking deadlock (b) Moving towards an agreement (c) Getting and making concessions (d) Hidden agenda* 20. The latest extreme form of ______ assistance is conciliation, in which a conciliator works with the two parties to help them treat agreement. (a) First party (b) Second party (c) Third party* (d) Fourth party 21. ______ is the most powerful and risky form of third-party intervention. (a) Arbitration* (b) Deadlocks (c) Information (d) Bargaining 22. The closer a negotiation is to reaching an agreement, the more ______ a discussion needs to be handled. (a) Carefully (b) Intelligently (c) Sensitively* (d) Emotionally 23. Pick the odd one out. The closing phase of a negotiation comprises three stages. (a) Formulating an agreement (b) Ensuring implementation Renewing your negotiation experience (d) More time to settle to case* 24. _______ should not be fudged by producing vague or ambiguous forms of words in order to achieve apparent agreement. (a) Issues (b) resolved (c) Unresolved* (d) Agreements 25. While it is perfectly possible to have a win-lose finish there is little doubt that the successful negotiator aims for one which can be described as _______ (a) Lose-win (b) Win-win (c) Lose lose (d) Win lose

Overcoming Problems In Negotiation Unit 8

1. _____ has many psychological effects on our body (a) Conflict (b) Negotiation (c) anger* (d) Behavior 2. You can use anger in negotiation technique as _______ (a) Average anger (b) Limited anger (c) Unlimited anger (d) Controlled anger*

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 3. Usually when the discussions are at a standstill, both you and your opponent are prone to get angry because youll each blame the other for ______ a) Conflicting b) Not profiting from the discussions. c) Blocking progress* d) their behavior 4. In some situations you can tactfully state that your opponents ______ is what is blocking the agreement. a) Comments b) Anger c) criticism d) Unreasonableness* 5. Pick the odd one out. a) Anger is temporary emotion and its usually entirely curable by la good dose of time b) Remedy the situation. If youve somehow personally slighted your opponent, a simple, sincere apology will do. Dont be reluctant to apologize and dont let pride or stubbornness stand in your way. c) Send someone to bargain in your place. d) If your opponent is furious over something youve said or done, you may have to make a concession or tow to regain his goodwill and get the negotiating back on course. e) Show that there is no reason for your opponents anger. f) Take a deep breath and count to ten* 6. Pick the odd one out. The fears youll face in negotiation usually centre around three subjects a) Fear or loss b) Fear of losing prestige* c) Fear of the unknown .` d) Fear of failure 7. Many negotiations hinge on the _______ something of value money, a dream house, a raise, or even a good deal. a) Fear of gaining b) Fear of losing* c) Fear of motivating d) Fear of failure 8. Pick the odd one out. There are several ways to deal with this fear] 1a) Acknowledge your fear instead of repressing it. But dont be obsessive. 2b) Make sure your notes or files are in order before you begin. 3c) Mentally reherse your negotiations before you go in. Dress for the negotiation in clothes that make you fell good about yourself. 4d) Be frank* 5e) Your opponent wont detect your fear unless you show it. 9. ________ diminishes with time. a) Experience b) Knowledge c) failure d) Time* 10. Pick the odd one out. a) Race, gender, ethnic background or religion b) Age c) Profession d) any gesture your opponent can your opponent can construe as physically threatening*

29

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 11. Pick the odd one out. Agents can help with a) financing b) finding a home c) Preparing your home d) Making an offer* 12. Once youve decided on your terms you must include them in a written offer form, sometimes referred to as ______ a) Affidavit b) Bond paper c) Purchase agreement* d) Offer letter 13. The two major reasons most people fail to ask for a raise are fear of ______ and fear of being turned down. a) Being conscious b) Losing their jobs* c) Creating a bad impression d) Being branded as fit for nothing.

Customer Relationship Management

1. CRM stands for ______ a) Customer Relationship Maintenance b) Customer Relation managing c) Customer Relationship Management* d) None 2. In E-CRM, E stands for ____ a) Electricity b) Electronic* c) Electoral d) None 3. CRM is more than just a set of ______ a) Customer b) Consumer c) Technologies* d) None 4. CRM acquisition and deployment of _____ about customer to enable a company to sell more of their products. a) Knowledge* b) Talent c) Efficiency d) None 5. CRM begins with in-depth analysis of customers _____ and attributes to achieve task. a) Behavior* b) look c) natures d) None 6. Managing _____ also implies customers interaction a) Reaction b) nature c) relationship* d) None 7. One important dimension of CRM is ______ a) Processing b) Time c) Customer d) None 8. The age of _____ replaced the intimacy of direct sales force in many organizations a) Moss marketing b) Mass marketing* c) Mass d) None 9. Marketing major goal was to push ______ a) Shares b) markets c) a & b* d) Product 10. In ____ year the advancement of technology and refinement in direct mail and Telemarketing.

30

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT a) 1980s* b) 1990s c) 1970s d) None 11. ______ Recognized the need to interact more with customers. a) Target marketing* b) Shoot marketing c) Big business d) None 12. The first variable is ______ and analysis one has to know what the customer wants needs and values. a) Information* b) Talent c) Sharpness d) None 13. The buccess of customer-centrtic business strategy is measured nor only by shareof-markets but by _____ a) Share-of-customers* b) shares c) customer d) None 14. MMM stands for _____ a) Mass-Media-Mass b) Mass-Medias-Marketing* c) Mass-Mass-Mass d) None 15. API Stands for ______ a) Application b) Project c) None d) application Program Interface* 16. OLTP stands for ____ a) A System b) a-process c) None d) Online Transaction Processing* 17. _______ is a information about the data stored in warehouse a) Meta data* b) Meta info c) Meta log d) None 18. EJB stands for ______ a) Executive Information* b) E information c) None d) E -I- system 19. A private network inside a company or organization is called ______ a) internet b) intreanet* c) network d) extranet 20. ERP stands for __________ a) Enterprise resources planning* b) Enterprise resource plant c) None d) Enterprise-up 21. _______ is the most time sensitive among the other in CRM a) Win back or save b) Prospecting c) Loyalty d) None 22. _______ is the effort to win new first time customers. a) Prospecting * b) Win back or save c) loyalty d) None 23. ______ is the category in which it is most difficult to gain accurate measures a) Prospecting b) loyalty c) win back or save d) None

31

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 24. The CRM consist of _______ phases. a) 3* b) 2 c) 4 d) 5 25. OLAP is acronomy for ______ a) Online analytical processing. b) On line analytical processing* c) On line anal product d) None 26. The ______ phase develops a model of the behavior of target customer a) Planning phase b) assessment phase c) Execution phase* d) none 27. In ______m phase marketing decides how best to approach the defined in the assessment stage. a) Planning phase* b) assessment phase c) Executions phase d) none 28. The _____ phase of the cycle is where an organization puts all this knowledge to work using all of the customer touch points available a) planning phase b) execution phase* c) assessment phase d) none 29. In CRM an _____ is a blue print created to define the solution to a problem. a) Architecture* b) classes c) none d) processing 30. CIC stands for ______ a) customer interaction center* b) customer intersecting center c) A & B d) none 31. ______ is what happens when we combine the broad reach of the internet with vast resources a) E-business* b) business c) buying d) selling 32. EDI stands for ______ a) Electronic data interchanging* b) electronic days interchange c) None d) electronic projects. 33. The _______ has made possible for business to interact directly ;with both the suppliers and end users. a) Intranet b) web hosting c) Internet* d) network 34.B2B stands for ______ a) Business b) business to buyers c) A&B d) None* 35. ISP stands for _____ a) Internet service provider* b) Internet service product c) Intra net service d) None 36. ATM is acronym for _____ a) Automatic teller machine* b) automatic talk machine

32

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT c) Automatic teller mechanism d) no 37.B2c stands for _____ a) Business to care center b) Business to call center c) Business to customer* d) None 38. The customer credit card no will be protected through ______ device a)Code b) Customer to bankers* c) Customer to banking d) none 39. C2B stands for _____ a) Customer to bank b) customers to bankers c) customer to banking d)none * 40. Technology is not a part of E-business where E-business _____ on technology a) died b) live* c) no d) maybe 41. C2C stands for ________ a) call to customer b) customer to call c) customer to care d) none* 42. The internet thus eliminating the _______ and reducing cost by a great deal a) middle b) middle men* c) upper men d) none 43. The lack of is a major cause for concern to be slow a) band width b) slow c) great d) speed 44. The size of the transactions over the net was at Rs ______ crore by the end of 1999 approximately. a) 8 b) 10* c) 15 d) 0 45. The transaction over net is expected to cross $300 billions by the year ______ a) 2001 b) 2000 c) 2002* d) 2005 46. _______ allows organization to do this more effectively and profitable a) technology* b) economy c) business d) none 47. The _____ is often linked to a high speed digital highway with millions passing every minute. a) internet* b) extant c) intranet d) none 48. URL stands for ______ a) uniform resources locatotaring b) uniform resources location c) uniform resource locator* d) none 49. ROI stands for ______ a) return on investment* b) regional organization c) return organizations d) none

33

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 50. In the beginning we did every thing manually to speed up the work we _____ it. a) Computerized* b) network c) new machinery d) none 51. _____ is a multifaceted blategy that helps companies understand, anticipated and manage customer needs. 52. _______ Professionals have a tremendous opportunity to become endless of customer centric business strategy. a) IT* b) dowers c) doctors d) None 53. ______ was enabled through technological improvement in TV, Radio, and the printed press, all of which created simple powerful means to communicate. a) Mass marketing* b) Target marketing c) Profit marketing d) None 54. CRM is that is moved the relationship between producer and ______ one or more step towards a personal interaction. a) Customer* b) Business c) Carrier d) None 55. _____ is the next step in the evolution. a) CRM* b) ARM c) DRM d) None 56. The scale is measure of what is known about the customers behaviors and values. a) customer b) knowledge c) profit d) None 57. Customer relationship reduces advertising cost? a) True* b) False c) May be d) None 58. CRM allows all types of ______ it serves at different points in their cycle. a) customers* b) Business c) couriers d) None 59. With effective CRM both customers and suppliers will _____ a) Loss b) Win c) dies d) none 60. _____ is what happens when we combine the broad reach of the internet with vast resources of technical information technology system. a) E- Business* b) E-bizz c) E-customers d) None 61. SSL is acronym for ____ a) Secured socket Layer* b) Socket Secured Language c) a & b d) None 62. CRM makes it easier to target specific customer by focusing on their needs. a) true* b) false c) may be d) none 63. ______ really means, the extension of business system and providing an easy- to-use interface. a) e-business* b) e-word c) cyphotography d) none

34

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 64. There are _____ no of types of business that can be carried over internet. a) 4* b) 3 c) 2 d)5 65. The ability to perform functions in parallel is called _______ a) parallel b) parasllelism * c) paraligory d) None 66. _____ includes data elements description, data types descriptions, attributes and properties domain description. a) Meta data b) Meta tagging c) a & b d) None 67. A technique that brings the vendors message directly to a marget segment, which has been identified by _______ a) direct marketing* b) indirect marketing c) mass marketing d) none 68. _______ is a centralized were house that services the entire organization in the need of dates a) enterprises b) data ware house* c) enterprises d) none 69. CRM makes it easier to track the effectiveness of a given task? a) Fase b) True* c) may be d) None 70. _____ term used to describe the art/science of selecting a data base of a potential of customers for a given product a) Database house b) Mass market c) Direct marketing d) None 71. ________ is the process of utilizing the results of data exploration to adjust or enhance business strategies. a) data ware house b) data mining* c) data bound d) none 72. The business techniques of associating like to customer pure houses a) cross selling b) direct selling c) a & b d) none 73. Due to E-commerce customer relationship is increased? a) false b) may be c) true d) none 74. ________ are to exist when customer enthusiastically do business over net. a) Relationship* b) carrier c) relation d) none 75. Major part of commercial traction is exchange of ______ a) Money * b) silver c) products d) none 76.For common an E-commerce is known as ______ of products a) Buying & selling* b) buying & buying c) a & b d) none 77. Even in E-commerce, merchants have to _____ deliver the products to the customers a) physically* b) on internet c) mentally d) none

35

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 78. E-commerce reduces the cost? a) true* b) false c) may be d) none 79. FTP refers for to_______ a) File Transfer Protocol* b) Format Transfer Product c) Formatting Transfer Programming d) None 80. _____ plays a key role by transferring fonds between buyers and silvers a) Financial institute* b) organization c) Govt. d) None 81. HTTP defers to _______ a) Hyper Text Protocol b) Hypertext Text Protocol c) Hypertext Transfer Protocol* d) None 82. CRM speeds the time it takes to develop; and market a product ? a) False b) May be c) True * d) None 83. DNS is acronym for ______ a) Data Naming System b) Data Name source c) Domain Name System d) None 84. The success of ecommerce depends upon network ______ a) Infrastructure* b) Structure c) protocols d) None 85. E-commerce increases the speed of service and delivery ? a) False b) True * c) May be d) None 86. The number of internet uses world-wide is expected to exceed _____ million in 2002 a) 130-6 million b) 140-2 million c) 139-5* d) None 87. CRM market size in the traditional sense is rather ______ in indirect correctly a) small* b) Big c) Normal d) None 88. E-commerce search and retrieve information in support of human and decision making ? a) False b) True * c) May be d) None 89. _____ is the effort to win new first time customers a) Prospecting * b) Loyality c) A & B d) None 90. The CRM consists of ______ no of phases. a)2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 91. E-mail through transfer service provider is available since a) August 15,1995* b) August 14,1995 c) August 16, 1996 d) August 19,1997 36 CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 92. FTP applications are used for ______ a) Browsing b) Downloading files* c) Searching d) None 93. In CRM improves use of customer channel, thus making the most of each contract with customer. a) True * b) False c) may be d) None 94. DNS servers are responsible for translating the IP address to domain name a) False b) True * c) May be d) None 95. IP protocols is acronym for ______ a) Internet protocol b) Interval prizes c) Intranet Phase d) None 96. Modem speed is measured in ______ a) BHP b) BPS * c) BDS d) None 97. The new economy has brought more than just technological change to the _____ a) Business* b) Customer c) Relationship d) none 98. TCP is acronym for ______ a) Transaction contract protocol b) Transaction Control Protocol* c) Transmission contracting product d) None 99. The ______ allows file sharing with one or more parties a) Internet * b) Business c) a & b d) None 100. E-commerce improves the quality of goods and breviaries ? a) True* b) False c) May be d) None Secured E-Commerce Transaction. 1. _______ can re-formats and transform your data making it safer on its trip between computers. a) Crypto graphy* b) geography c) security d) None

2. SMTP is acronym for _____ a) simple master tax property b) None c)Simple Mail Transfer Protocol* d) Simple Main Transfer Protocol 3.We receive the correct _____ key to decrypt the messages. a) Crypto* b) Message c) Data d) None 4. _____ is a collection of techniques that transforms data in ways that are hard to read by some one. a) Crypto* b) Message c) Data d) None

37

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 5. The modern internet first appeared in the earls a) 1980s* b) 1990 c) 1970 d) none 6. Data you send could be _____ by other person routing host before it arrives at its destination. a) Modify* b) Delete c) Adds d) None 7. There are ______ number of crypto keys system existing a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 8. _______ is a string of digit what generating is called a) key* b) data c) change d) none 9. ECB is acronym for ______ a) Equal code Business b) Electronic Code c) Electronic Code Book* d)None 10. CBC is acronym for _____ a) Cipher block chaining b) Cipher Block Chatting c) a & b d) None 11. CFB is acronym for _____ a) Cipher feed back* b) Cipher feed Block c) Cipherter Feed back d) None 12. OFB refers to _____ a) Output Feed back* b) Output Block c) a & b d) None 13. An Encryptical connection between private networks over a public networks is called _______ a) Virtual Private networks* b) Networks c) Physical Network d) None 14. A connectionless transport protocol that does not guarantee of data is _____ a) UDP* b) SMTP c) TCP/IP d) HTTP 15. UDP stands for _____ a) User Data Project b) Using Data Packet c) User Datagram Protocol* d) None 16. A credit-card-size authentication devices that remote user carries is called_____ a) Tokens* b) cards c) Machines d) None 17. _______ is a method invoking a single secret key for both encryption and decryption a) systematic Encryption b) System Process c) Symmetric Encryption* d)None 18. a credit-card-size authentication device containing a microprocessor and data which is ready _____ a) Smart card* b) Visa Card c) Card d) None

38

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 19. PPP is acronym is _____ a) Post Office Protocol b) Point to Point Protocol* c) a & b d) None 20. A protocol for transferring IP packets over serial lines is _____ a) PPP* b) HTTP c) POP d) IP 21. _____ key that use keeps secret ? a) private key b) secret key c) a or b* d) None 22._____ key that allows the user to world to known a) public key* b) private key c) a or b d) None 23. _______ is a method for providing a users identify such as username and password a) Authentication* b) Passwords c) usernames d) None 24. _____ is single numeric or string value a) key* b) data c) value d) None 25. An internal entity or trusted third party that issues signs, revokes and manages digital certificates are called _____ a) Certificate authority* b) certificates c) Certificate value d) None 26. The science of transforming readable text in cipher text and back again is called ____ a) Cryptography* b) geography c) Function d) None 27. The process of tuning readable text into cipher text is ______ a) Encryption* b) decryption c) Normal d) None 28. The process of transforming cipher text into cipher text is ______ a) Decryption* b) encryption c) Data d) None 29. An Electronic document that verifies the owner of public key is _____ a) digital certificate* b) certificate c) Digital d) None 30______ is the client software that peo0ple use to access the web. a) Browser* b) Servers c) Pages d) None 31. _____ identifiers each web page. The browser requests a page by sending the pages address to the server a) Address b) Information c) URL* d) None 32. _____ are generally written in document mark up language called HTML. a) Pages* b) data c) URL d) None 33. To make the internet transaction work we need a way of establishing____ so that customers can safely communicate with venders.

39

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT a) Keys* b) Software c) Browsers d) None 34. ______ is one application that has brought the internet with every ones reach. a) WWW* b) Transaction c) Packaging d) None 35. CGI stands for _____ a) Common Gate way Interface* b) common Gate Interaction C) Cobol general Interface d) None 36.____ over run is a situation in which an attacker exploits a bug in the software. a) Buffer b) Un Buffer c) a & b* d) None 37. _____ is the simplest mechanism, based entirely on the contents of functional packets a) Packet wall b) packet-un filter c) Packet Filter* d) None 38. ______ control determines the types of internet services. a) Service* b) Protocol Filter c) Govt. services d) firewall 39. An ____ site can be as simple as a catalog page with phone number. a) e-commerce site* b) web commerce c) a & b d) None 40. One of the component of e-commerce business are product catalog. a) False b) True * c) may be d) None 41. SET refers to _______ a) Secures Electronic Training b) Security Electronic c) Secure Electronic Transfer* d) None 42. Good business relationships are built on _____ overtime. a) Trust* b) Knowledge c) Safe guard d) None 43. The major components of e-commerce business is transaction security. a) False b) maybe c) True* d) None 44. _____ is the most important part of e-commerce from customer point of view. a) Product catalog* b) electronic c) a & b d) None 45. ______ enables an administrator to grant access privileges to a specific user at a specific IP address. a) Client-Authentication* b) users password c) Users username d) None 46. _____ Control protects an organization from security treats by specifying and enforcing a) Access Control* b) Distributive Access c) a & b d) None

40

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 47.______ access to all functionality of management tools. a) Read/write* b) user edit c) Read only d) Monitor Only 48. One of the components of e-commerce business is order processing ? a) True * b) False c) May be d) None 49. _____ access level; the ability to modify user information only access to all other Functionality is read only. a) Read only b) User credit* c) Read/write d) None 50. ______ is an area where product selections are called and kept in e-commerce site. a) shopping cart* b) Ware house cart c) Data cart d) None

Supply Chain Managemet

1. MRP is acronym for ______ a) Maximum resources Planning b) Manufacturing resources Protocol c) Manufacturing Resources Planning* d) None 2. The education for resource management was founded in ____ a) 1955 b) 1956 c) 1957* d) 1958 3. In the year 1967 IBM helped to bring to market the first _____ operating system. a) Management* b) Internet c) DOS d) UNIX 4. JIT is acronym for _____ a) just in time* b) Justified in timings c) a & b d) none 5. MOS is acronym for ____ a) Mass operating system b) Mask Operation size c) Market operating sizing d) Management Operating System* 6. In _____ year dickling and others brought sales operations planning to the management tool box. a) 1984 b) 1985* c) 1986 d) None 7. The advances in computer tools encourages quick decision making as the information become ____ a) In accessible b) accessible* c) a & b d) None 8. In the beginning of the 1990s the focus was shifted to material; which become the driving force for ______ a) Profit and losses b) losses c) Profitability* d) None 9. Many companies found their material had grown 60 to 70% of their goals sold while the labor cost declined to ______

41

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT a) 10 to 20%* b) 20 to 30% c) 30%to 40% ` d) None 10. The model of What do I need, what do I have, what do I need to get and when is back bone of the ______ a) Supply chain management* b) gole chain management c) supply Chaining maintenance d) none 11. New advances in ______ allows the calculations to be completed very quickly communicated electronically all along the supply chain. a) Internet* b) networking c) technology d) None 12. The theory of constraint is a management phyclosophy developed in the early ____ a) 1990s b) 1980s* c) 1970s d) None 13. TOC is acronym for ____ a) Theory constraint* b) Theory of Constrium c) Theory of constitution d) none 14. The TOC developed out of ;information system called ot ? a) True * b) False c) may be d) None 15. OPT is acronym for _____ a) option production training b) optimized production technology* c) options profit task d) None 16. APS is acronym for _____ a) Advanced Planning and schedule* b) Auto plan and service c) a & b d) None 17. ____ is father of sales and operationsplanning a) Dickling* b) Dick Thomos c) Dick Mario d) None 18. On the other side of the supply chain click here the ____ network. a) Production b) Network c) Distribution * d) None 19. In the effective supply chain relationship, the _____ should provide a win-win situation for both parties. a) Partnership* b) Production c) a & b d) None 20. _____ said that 94% of the problems associated with business are process problems. a) EV Edwards* b) Dickling c) Edward smith d) None 21. The key element of sales and operations planning include New Product Planning. a) False b) True* c) may be d) None 22. company could afford to keep inventory on hand to satisfy customer _____ a) demand* b) supply` c) chain d) None 42 CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 23. Product life cycle measured in _____ a) Years* b) Months c) Days d) None 24. All calculations before the advert of the ____ were done by hand. a) Production Manager* b) Seller c) Internet d) None 25. _____ knows the ;importance of every part irrespective of size and cost. a) Production Manager* b) Seller c) Bayer d) owner of product 26. The key element of sales and operations planning include Supply Planning. a) True* b) False c) May be d) None 27. In ____ management language all operations were placed on critical path. a) Project* b) Manufacturing c) Production d) None 28. The ____ were able to gain; control over their material purchase and order only what was needed. a) Companies* b) Production c) Financial sensitive d) None 29. The process of What is ;needed, what is available what is required and when us it is accomplished by each link of the ____ a) supply b) Chain c) Supply chain* d) None 30. There are no clear links between the development of IT and development of _____ a) Management* b) Production ` c) Manufacturing d) None 31. The key element of sales and operations planning include Financial Planning. a) False b) True * c) may be d) None

32. More and more companies find out that in addition to their production or services operation they also in project ______ a) Management* b) Manufacturing c) Production d) None 33. In _____ management it is the people who are the main resources and it is the human factor that dominates the length of an operation of a task. a) Project* b) Production c) Manufacturing d) None 34. Managing the human capacity is much more ____ then machines. a) Easier* b) Complex c) a & b d) None 35. All enterprise resources Planning Packages have a management ____ module a) accounting* b) No accounts c) Balance d) None 36. ____ made similar accusations towa4rds the traditional cost accounting. a) Activity based costing* b) Activity account c) Costing d) None

43

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 37. It resources were ____ then budget and schedule would not be required for production. a) Unlimited b) Limited c) a & b d) None 38. Sales and marketing do their analysis of market needs and for caste_____ a) Customer* b) Owner demand c) Manufacturing d) None 39. _____ planning defines the resources and strategies available to meet demand. a) Supply* b) demand c) Financial d) None 40._____ planning is where the business plan, the inventory plan, and the receive, cost and margins are brought. a) Financial* b) Sound c) Production d) None 41. The elements of sales and operation begin and end with _____ a) Seller b) Demand c) Customer* d) Manufactures 42. Sales and operations planning provides alignment of product planning a) True* b) False c) May be d) None 43. Any organization refers the behaviors of its ____ a) Sincerely b) Talent c) Leadership* d) None 44. SOP is acronym for _____ a) simple operations power b) Sales Operation Planning c) Sales operations Plant* d) None 45. The _____ company must position itself in a competitive supply ;chain and the different supply chains will complete against each owner. a) Individual b) Multi company c) a & b* d) None 46. The important thing is sales and operations to provide financial planning. a) True * b) False c) May be d) None 47. _____ planning is the main driver in sales and operations planning. a) Demand* b) Financial c) Market d) None 48. The important thing in sales and operations planning provides supply planning a) False b) True* c) May be d) None 49. Most of companies will focus their time and effort in planning and _____ a variety of different activities. a) Managing* b) Manufacturing c) Production d) None 50. The important thing in sales and operations planning provides demand planning. a) False b) True* c) May be d) None

44

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT

Pre-Final MT/MSc (IT)-V 1. CRM stands for ____ a) Customer Realationship

Maintenance b) Customer Relation Managing c) Customer Relationship Management* d) None 2. CRM is more than just a set of ____ a) Customer b) Consumer c) Technologies* d) None 3. One important dimension of CRMis _____ a) Processing b) Time* c) Customer d) None 4. API stands for ______ a) Application b) Project c) None d) Application Program Interface* 5. OLTP stands for _____ a) a system b) a-process c) None d) Online Transaction Processing* 6. ERP stands for _____ a) Enterprise Resources Planning * b) Enterprise resource plant c) none d)Enterprise-up 7. The CRM consist of _____ phases a)3* b) 2 c) 4 d) 5 8. OLAP is acronomy for ______ a) Online analytical processing* b) Online analytical processing c) Online anal product d) None 9. CIC stands for _____ a) Customer Interaction Center* b) customer intersecting center c) A & B d) none 10. B2B stands for ____ a) Business* b) business to buyers c) A & B d) none 11.URL stands for _____ a) uniform resources locatotaring b) uniform resources location c) uniform resource locator* d) none 12. HTTP refers to ____ a) Hyper Text Protocol ` b) Hypertext Text protocol c) Hypertext Transfer Protocol* d) None 13. Ecommerce search and retrieve information in support of human and decision making 45 CONFLICT MANAGEMENT a) False b) True c) May be d) None 14. IP protocols is acronym for ____ a) Internet protocol* b) Interval prizes c) Intranet phase d) None 15. Modem speed is measured in ______ a) Bhp b) BPS * c) BDS d) None 16. TCP is acronym for _____ a) Transaction contract protocol b) Transaction Control Protocol* c) Transmission contracting product d) None 17. ______ can re-formats and transform your data making it safer on its trip between computers. a) Cryptography* b) geography c) security d) None 18. SMTP is acronym for ______ a) simple master tax property b) None c) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol d) Simple Main Transfer 19. There are ______ number of crypto keys system existing a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 20. ECB is acronym for _____ a) Equal code Business b) Electronic Code c) Electronic code Book* d)none 21. An Encryptical connection between private networks over a public networks is called a) Virtual Private networks* b) Networks c) physical Network d) None 22. A connectionless transport protocol that does not guarantee of data is _____ a) UDP b) SMTP c) TCP/IP d) HTTP 23.UDP stands for _____ a) User data Project b) Using Data Packet c) User Datagram Protocol* d)None 24. PPP is acronym is ______ A) Post office Protocol* b) Point to Point Protocol c) a & b d) None

25. A protocol for transferring IP packets over serial lines is ______ a) PPP * b) HTTP c) POP d) IP 26. _____ key that allows the user to world to known a) public key* b) private key c) a or b d) None 27. certificates are called ______ a) Certificate authority b) Certificates c) certificate value d) None

46

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 28. The process of transforming cipher text into readable text is ______ a) Decryption* b) Encryption c) Data d)None 29. _____ is the client software that people use to access the web. a) Browser* b) Servers c) Pages d) None 30. ______ are generally written in document markup language called HTML a) Pages* b) Data c) URI d) none 31. CGI stands for ______ a) Common Gate way Interface* b) Common Gate Interaction c) Cobol general Interface d) None 32. MRP is acronym for ______ a) Maximum resources planning b) Manufacturing Resources Protocol c) Manufacturing Resources Planning* d) None 33. JIT is acronym for ______ a) just in time* b) Justified in timings c) a & b d) None 34. The model of What do I need, what do I have, what do I need to get and when is back bone of the _____ a) supply chain management b) gole chain management c) supply chaining maintenance d) None 35. The key element of sales and operations planning include Supply Planning. a) True* b) False c) May be d) None 36. the key element of sales and operation planning include Financial Planning. a) False b) True* c) May be d) None 37. More and more companies find out that in addition to the4ir production or services operation they also in project _____ a) Management b) Manufacturing c) Production d) None 38. SOP is acronym for _____ a) Simple operations power b) Sales Operation Planning* c) Sales operations Plant d) None 39. Most of companies will focus their time and effort in planning and _____ a variety of different activities a) Managing b) Manufacturing c) Production d) none 40. The important thing in sales and operations planning provides demand planning. a) False b) True c) May be d) None

47

CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 41. The important thing in sales and operations planning provides demand planning. a) False b) True c) May be d) None

Part - B
1. The following operations specifies _____ I. Generating random keys II. Key up dates III. Choosing key strengths a) Security considerations* b) Security features c) Non security features d)None 2. The following systems are relative to ____ I. Central authority II. Hierarchical authority III. Web of trust a) certificate systems b) Authorizes systems * c) Unauthorized systems d) None 3. Following issues related to ____ security I. Non reputation versus desirability II. Public key distributing III .Mailing list handling a) LAN b) ATM c) E-Mail d) None 4. The following tools specifies _____ I. Export controls II. Key recovery III. Industry exemptions a) Decryption b) encryption c) Algorithm d) None 5. Encryption basically has two parts ____ and a) Public key, Private key b) Algorithm, Key* c) secret key, Private key d) None 6. the two types of major authentication methods ____ and ____ a) User, Client * b) Source, Destination c) Encryption, Decryption d) None 7. The following controls & specifies _____ I. Service control II. Direction control III. Behavior a) Software controls b) Network controls c) Firewalls controls Access* d) None 8. Service control for packet filters is ____ and for circuit filters ____ a) Strong, Partial b) Strong, Strong* c) Partial, Partial d) None 9. The following elements are essential for ____ I). Browsers II) URLs III) Servers IV) Pages a) LAN b) WEB* c) Internet d) None 10. The following operations specifies _____ of the web server I. Host setup II. CGI attacks III. Buffer overruns a)Benefits b) Vulnerabilities* c) Encryption d) None

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT 11. The principle properties that cryptography ensures: I. Confidential and Authentication II. Authentication and Un authorization III. Integrity and security IV. Scrutiny a) I and III b) I, II and III c) II and IV d) I, III and IV 12. Secured communications should be objected to I. Strong, secret and uneasy communications II. Secret authentication and easy communication III. Procurement cost, secret and Un authorized IV All of the above a) I and II b) II and III c) Only II d) IV 13. The data is not secret unless the ____ is secret a) algorithm b) Key* c) Users d) None 14.Which of the following is not a way of secret key delivery a) Paper distribution b) writable media c) Hardware docking d) None* 15. DES uses ____ key a) Public b) Private c) Secret* d) Duplicate 16.____ hides pattern in the plain text by combining each original text with encrypted text before encrypting a) CFB b) OFB c) CBC d) ECB 17. RSA uses ____ key a) Public* b) Private c) Secret d) duplicate 18. MIME stands for a) Multipurpose Internet Mail Expansion b) Multipurpose Integrity Mail Extension c) Multipurpose Intranet Mail Extension d) Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension* 19. In SKIPJACK algorithm data block sizes _____ and key sizes ____ a) 64,56 b) 64,128 c) 64,80* d) None 20. Which of the following is not a element of CRM implementation a) Strategy b) Segmentation c) Software* d) Process

Part - C
1. The cipher text of MANIPAL with the key 10 will be a) AOBWDOZ* b) XKYTAKW c) YKXTBKW d) XKYTBKW 2. CDXNWTC will be the decrypted text of cipher text MANIPAL a) Public key encryption* b) RSA c) DES d) None 3. Service control and behavior controls are supported by I. Packet filters and application gateway strongly

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT II. application gateway strongly and circuit filters partially III. circuit filters strongly packet filters partially IV Only Application gateway strongly a) I or III b) II and III c) Only IV d) I and IV* 4. Set A Set B Algorithms : RC4 and Rivest cipher # 2 Algorithms : DES Key length : 40 bits Key length : 56 bits a) Set A describes high weight crypto b) Set A describes Light weight crypto* Set B describes Light weight crypto Set B describes Medium weight crypto c) Set A describes Medium weight crypto d) None Set B describes Light weight crypto 5. Set A Set B I. Product Catalog I. Purchasing guidelines II. Shipping Cart II. Statements of availability III. Transaction security III. Privacy IV. Order processing a) Set A describes components of E-commerce business* Set B describes elements of Privacy policy b) Set A describes elements of Privacy policy Set B describes elements of Public policy c) Set A describes elements of public policy Set B describes elements of Privacy policy d) None 6. The following statement specifies _____ algorithm I. Take two la5rge primes, p and q II. Compute their product n=pq; n is called the modules III. choose a number, e, such that e<n and relatively prime to (p-1) (q-1), which means e and (p-1) (q-1) have no common factors except 1. IV. Find another number d such that (ed-1) is divisible by)p-1) (q-1). The values of 3 and d are called the Public and Private exponents, respectively. The Public key is a pain (n,e); the private key is (n,d). The factor p and q may be kept with the private key, or destroyed. a) DES b) RSA* c) SET d) None 7. Set A Set B I. Key Aging I. Ensure controlled access to Internet services II. Key Revocation II. Protect a distributed enterprise network from III. Operation Overview outsiders a)Set A describes security objectives Set B describes Activities to maintain security over time b) Set A describes Activities to maintain security over time Set B describes security objectives c) Set A describes firewall features d) None

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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT Set B describes Security features 8. Specify the priority order for web form security services I. Transaction secrecy II. Vendor authentication III. Customer authentication IV. Transaction Integrity a) I,II, III, IV b) III, I, II, IV* c) IV, III, II, I d) None 9. The following attacks related to ___ I. Intruder in the middle attacks II. Known key attacks III. Clogging Defense a) Cryptography protocols* b) Encryption protocols c) Decryption protocols d) None 10. The following operations specifies _____ I. Single join II. Single leave III. Multiple join IV. Multiple leave a) Group Creation* b) Group Destruction c) Group Implementation d)None 11. Match the following Sets Set A Set B A. Stage I X. Mass Marketing B. Stage II Y. Target Marketing C. Stage III Z. Customer Realationship Management a) A-X, B-Y, C-Z* b) A-Z, B-Y, C-X c) A-X, B-Y, C-X d) None 12. Set A Set B I. Assessment I. Marketing Automation II. Planning II. Sales force Automation III. Execution III. Customer Sevice a) Set A describes various phases of CRM cycle Set B describes implementation elements of CRM b) Set A describes various phases of CRM cycle Set B describes CRM essential business processes c) Set A describes implementation elements of CRM Set B describes CRM essential business processes d) None 13. Set A Set B I. Internet usage I. Achieve Market Leadership II. Bandwidth II. Build Customer Loyalty III. Cyber laws III. Create New Products and Services. a) Set A describes e-business barriers in India* b) Set a describes benefits of e-business Set B describes benefits of e-business Set B describes e-business barriers in India c) Set A describes types of E-business d) None Set B describes benefits of e-business 14. Match the following sets about sales & operation planning implementation. Set A Set B
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CONFLICT MANAGEMENT A. Phase I X. Developing the foundation B. Phase II Y. Competitive advantage C. Phase III Z. Integrating and streamlining a) A-X, B-Y, C-Z b) A-X, B-Z, C-Y c) A-Z, B-Y,CX* d) None 15. Set A Set B I. New Product Planning I. Delivery performance II. Demand Planning II. Order fulfillment lead-time III. Supply Planning III. Perfect Order fulfillment

a) Set A describes elements of sales & Operations planning* Set B describes performance measurements of SCOR b) Set a describes performance measurements of SCOR Set B describes elements of sales & operations planning c) Set A describes elements of sales & operations planning Set B describes sales & operations planning implementation methods d) None. 52