EXAM CODE: ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM) By: Anna Victoria S.

de Los Santos, RN, RM

1. The female reproductive organ consists of both internal and external structures. The external structures are collectively known as a. Vulva or pudendum b. Perineum c. Hymen d. Myometrium

2. Known as the center of arousal and orgasm in the female a. Clitoris b. Vestibule c. Vagina d. Nipple

3. The Bartholins glands help lubricate tissues during intercourse. These glands are also known as a. Lactiferous glands b. Vulvovaginal glands c. Secreting glands d. Sexual glands

4. The main function of the pelvis is to: a. Enhance body shape b. Support and protect the reproductive and other pelvic organs c. Provide an ideal temperature for the ovaries d. Secrete female hormones

5. Hormone that initiates the menstrual cycle a. FSH b. Estrogen c. GnRH d. Androgen

6. In a 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs during what day a. Day 16 b. Day 14 c. Cannot be predicted d. Day 12

7. Cervical mucus during ovulation, also known as Spinnbarkeit, has the following characteristics except: a. Clear b. Thin c. Thick d. Elastic

8. What phase of the menstrual is the most favorable time for implantation of a fertilized ovum? a. Proliferative phase b. Luteal phase c. Ischemic phase d. Right after menstruation

9. During menstruation, a woman usually has a blood loss of a.30-80 mL b. 60-100 mL c. 50-100 mL d. No significant blood loss

10. A woman reports bleeding in between her menses. This is known as: a. Metrorrhagia b. Menorrhagia c. Dysmenorrhea d. Spotting

11. If a woman experiences abnormally heavy menstruation, she is experiencing a. Metrorrhagia b. Menorrhagia c. Dysmenorrhea d. Spotting

12. How many hours is an ovum capable of fertilization? a. 48-72 hours b. 25-48 hours c. 24-72 hours d. 12-24 hours

13. Zygote is best defined as a. The product of conception from implantation to 5-8 weeks b. Term used for the egg cell from its release from the ovaries to fertilization c. The product of conception from fertilization to implantation d. The product of conception from 5-8 weeks to term

14. Mitosis is the type of cell division that occurs a. After implantation b. 24 hours after fertilization c. During the 2nd trimester d. 1 week after fertilization

15. Implantation occurs how many days after fertilization? a. 8-10 days b. 2-3 days c. 4-6 days d. 12-14 days

16. These are the signs least indicative of pregnancy because it may indicate other medical conditions a. Positive signs b. Presumptive signs c. Probable signs d. Pregnancy signs

17. Fetal movement felt by the mother is an example of: a. Positive signs b. Presumptive signs c. Probable signs d. Pregnancy signs

18. The following are the positive signs of pregnancy except: a. Fetal movement felt by the examiner b. Presence of fetal heart sounds c. Positive pregnancy test d. Sonographic visualization of the fetal structure

19. During pregnancy, a mother becomes worried of the dark pigments on her face. The midwife should explain that a. The mother exposed herself under the sun too much b. This is called melasma and is a normal change during pregnancy c. This is called linea nigra and is a normal change during pregnancy d. This is called melasma and is a danger sign of pregnancy 20. First fetal movement may be felt by the mother during which month of the pregnancy a. 2nd month b. 6th month c. 4th month d. 1st month

21. This is a probable sign of pregnancy characterized by the softening of the cervix a. Hegars sign b. Chadwicks sign c. Goodells sign d. Ballottement

22. Braxton Hicks contractions are considered as a. Positive signs b. Presumptive signs c. Probable signs d. Pregnancy signs

23. This is the absence of menstruation and is a presumptive sign of pregnancy a. Amenorrhea b. Dysmenorrhea c. Menarche d. Menopause

24. The main purpose of the operculum during pregnancy is a. Helps prevent infection in the fetus and membranes b. Prevents leakage of amniotic fluid c. Prevents spotting which is a danger sign of pregnancy d. Helps in carrying the fetus to term

25. In a pregnant woman, body temperature normally a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remains the same d. Becomes poikilothermic

26. The following are normal cardiovascular changes during pregnancy except a. Increased blood pressure b. Increased blood volume c. Increased cardiac output d. Increased pulse rate

27. During which trimester of pregnancy does a mother usually fantasize about how her baby would look like? a. 1st trimester b. 2nd trimester c. 3rd trimester d. All of the above

28. A pregnant mother reports that her husband has been craving for unusual foods ever since she got pregnant. The husband is experiencing

a. Psychological problem b. Couvade syndrome

c. False pregnancy

d. High estrogen levels

29. Tooth enamel deficiencies in the newborn is the teratogenic effect of a. Vitamin C b. Tetracycline c. Folic acid d. Vitamin E

30. The following has teratogenic effects on the embryo/fetus during the first trimester except: a. Cigarette smoking b. Syphillis c. Alcohol d. Narcotics

31. The following can address the discomfort caused by nausea and vomiting during pregnancy except a. Eating small frequent feedings b. Skipping dinner c. Eating dry toast upon arising d. Eating cereals upon arising

32. During pregnancy, a mother experiences leukorhea. Which of the following is not an appropriate management for this discomfort during pregnancy? a. Daily bath b. Wearing of cotton underwear c. Wearing of silk underwear d. Perineal care

33. The best way to prevent complications and promote a healthy outcome for both the mother and the infant is a. Observing a balanced diet throughout the pregnancy b. Regular prenatal care c. Avoiding exposure to teratogens

d. Regular intake of vitamins

34. Mrs. Osama had 3 pregnancies, the first was born at 39 weeks AOG, the second was delivered at 37 weeks but died of sepsis and the third was aborted at 4 weeks AOG. What is Mrs. Osamas OB score? a. G3P2 b. G2P3 c. G3P3 d. G3P1

35. TPAL method is used in determining a womans OB score. TPAL means a. Term, Post term, Abortion, Living b. Term, Position of fetus, Abortion, Living c. Term, Preterm, Abortion, Living d. Term, Prenatal care, Abortion, Living

36. The position for pelvic examination a. Prone b. Sims c. Trendelenberg d. Lithotomy

37. Mrs. Sandras LMP is June 25, 2007. Using Nageles rule, when is she expecting her baby? a. April 2, 2008 b. April3, 2008 c. March 2, 2008 d. March 30, 2008

38. Weight gain is normal during pregnancy as long as it is within a. 25-35 lbs b. 30-40 lbs c. 35-45 lbs d. 20-30 lbs

39. Which of the following heart rates should the midwife interpret as abnormal? a. 160 bpm b. 120 bpm c. 110 bpm d. 140 bpm

40. Coitus becomes contraindicated during pregnancy when a. The pregnant woman is nearing her EDC b. Libido of the woman has decreased c. The membranes ruptured d. The pregnancy is in the first trimester

41. This method of child birth stresses the important role of the husband a. Psychosexual method b. Traditional method c. Dick-Read method d. Bradley method

42. Complications of teenage pregnancy include the following except:

a. Uterine dysfunction

b. Pre-eclampsia

c. Low birth weight infant d. Breech presentation

43. The modified squatting position for the second stage of labor produces the following except a. Increased diameter outlet b. A shorter second stage c. Increased spinous diameter d. Decreased labial secretions

44. The highest number of neonatal deaths occur during the first ______ of life a. Month b. 24 hours c. Week d. Minute

45. Which of the following statements is not true? a. Severe anemia is a problem in malaria endemic areas b. Pregnant women have a higher density of the parasite c. Pregnant women are more predisposed to falciparum d. Antimalarial drugs are contraindicated during pregnancy

46. Long term control of glucose is verified by a. 2 hour post prandial glucose test b. Glucose tolerance test c. Glycosylated hemoglobin A determination d. All of these

47. The purpose of the endometrial cycle is a. To provide lubrication during sexual activity b. To produce cyclic menstruation c. To prepare implantation of fertilized ovum d. All of these

48. The following are true regarding Billings method except a. It is based on cervical mucus changes b. It is useful for women with irregular cycles c. It is approved by the Catholic Church d. It is a natural family planning method

49. Most frequent cause of morbidity in infants of diabetic mother is a. Hypoglycemia b. Hyperglycemia c. Respiratory distress d. Severe malformation

50. Biophysical profile aside from fetal heart rate acceleration and movement include the following except a. Amniotic fluid volume b. Fetal size c. Fetal tone d. Fetal breathing

51. If a woman was operated for breast cancer, the following relatives must be screened for breast cancer except her a. Mother b. In laws c. Daughters d. Sisters

52. The least possibility of trauma among procedures is in a. Midforceps delivery b. Vaginal delivery post cesarean section c. Delivery of very large infant d. Manual extraction of placenta

53. The most common bacteria causing puerperal infection is a. Clostridium perfinges b. Anaerobic staphylococcus c. E. coli d. Anaerobic streptococcus

54. After external rotation of the head and spontaneous delivery of shoulders do not occur, one should do the following except a. Hook the fingers in the axillae b. Apply gentle downward traction on the head until anterior shoulder is under symphysis c. Follow with upward movement to deliver posterior shoulder d. Apply moderate pressure on the uterine fundus

55. Which of the following factors increase perinatal mortality in breech deliveries? a. Prematurity b. Congenital anomalies c. Prolapsed cord d. All of these

56. The possibility of diabetes mellitus should be considered in the following conditions except: a. Previous baby more than 4 kilograms b. History of infant with congenital anomaly c. History of polyhydramios d. History of twins in the family

57. In cephalic presentation, it is _____ presentation when the orbital ridge and anterior fontanel presents a. Brow b. Face c. Sinciput d. Vertex

58. Which of the following conditions is prostaglandin considered relatively safe to use? a. To hasten laborb. For induction of delayed menstruation c. To ripen the cervix d. To correct postpartum atony

59. For high risk patients, FHT should be checked every ____ minutes during first stage a. 60 b. 15 c. 10 d. 30

60. Post oral glucose screening for gestational diabetes is recommended for all of the following except a. Patients over 30 years old History of still births b. History of use of antiasthma drugs c. Family history of diabetes d.

61. Methods of estimating blood loss in pregnant women are the following except a. Urinary output b. Furosemide test c. BP and PR values d. Visual

62. Which of the following immunizations is contraindicated during pregnancy? a. Typhoid b. Mumps c. Influenza d. Poliomyelitis

63. Which of the following antenatal factors is/are proven to predispose to postpartum pelvic infections? a. Premature rupture of membranesb. Malnutrition c. Anemia d. All of these

64. If there is doubt as to the presence of tubal pregnancy, which single procedure is done? a. Culdoscopy b. Culdocentesis c. Laparotomy d. Culpotomy

65. Which of these favor growth of anaerobic bacteria? a. Devitalized tissue b. Blood and serum collection c. Foreign body d. All of these

66. Repeat internal exam is not to be done when a. Malpresentation is suspected b. Membranes have ruptured c. Prior to transport to referral center d. Contractions are weak and irregular

67. The most common gynecologic complaint/s is/are a. Vaginal discharge b. Bleeding c. Pain d. All of these

68. Adherent placenta may result in which of these? a. Infection b. Severe hemorrhage c. Perforation d. All of these

69. The reproductive function of women is directed towards which of the following? a. Delivery of the fetus b. Nourishment of the fetus c. Achievement of pregnancy d. All of these

70. The following contain 23 autosomes and one sex chromosome except a. Spermatids b. Mature oocyte c. Primary spermatocyte d. Secondary spermatocyte

71. A 30 week pregnant multigravida called you because she had painless vaginal bleeding and about 3 glassfuls. You will do all of these except a. Bring a blood donor b. Do an internal exam c. Insert an IV fluid d. Bring to a hospital

72. Higher levels of HCG are found in all of the following except a. Multifetal pregnancy b. Hydrocephalic pregnancy c. Hydatidiform mole d. Erythroblatosis

73. The benefit of having a woman with fetus in breech presentation in a hospital is a. There are more assistants b. The midwife does not know breech delivery c. Immediate surgery is available if there is cord prolapse d. To avoid malpractice suit

74. If HbsAg of a pregnant mother is positive, the following are done except a. Breastfeeding is not allowed c. Baby is given recombinant vaccine

b. Baby is given Hepatitis B immunoglobulin d. Mother is given immunoglobulin

75. Ultrasonography during the first trimester is useful for all except a. Embryo identification b. Detection of congenital anomalies c. Determining fetal number d. Locating the gestational sac

76. Which antibacterial is avoided during pregnancy? a. Penicillins b. Tetracycline c. Nitrofurantoin d. Clindamycin

77. Fetal complication/s of severe anemia is/are a. Low birth weight b. Small for gestational age c. Stillbirth d. All of these

78. The most useful index of the quality of obstetrics care is the a. Maternal mortality rate b. Rate of stillbirths c. Neonatal mortality rate d. Perinatal mortality rate

79. Which of the following is derived from the mesoderm? a. Pancreas b. Liver c. Kidney d. Brain

80. Together with general anesthesia, the following drugs are used for uterine relaxation and repositioning postpartum uterine inversion except a. Ritodrine b. Magnesium sulfate c. Terbutaline d. Oxytocin

81. The following are effects of severe asthma in pregnancy except a. Preterm labor b. Abortions c. Low birth weight d. Congenital anomalies

82. The type of pelvis with an almost circular inlet with wide pubic arc and curved sacrum is a. Platypelloid b. Android c. Gynecoid d. Anthropoid

83. Which of the following is/are contraindication/s for the use of injectable contraceptives? a. Obese patients b. History of jaundice c. Irregular menstrual cycle d. All of these

84. The following are true regarding transformation zone of the cervix except a. It is important to get samples from this area during a Pap smear b. In older women, this goes within the endocervix 85. Which portion of the blastocyst will give rise to the embryo? c. This is not involved in malignancy

d. It is the junction of squamous and columnar epithelium

a. Outer cell mass

b. Trophoblast

c. Inner cell mass

d. Blastomere

86. Which is the principal area involved in puerperal sepsis a. Placental site b. Endometrium c. Myometrium d. Decidua

87. After a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery, the patient has respiratory distress, cyanosis, vaginal bleeding and coagulation defect. Diagnosis is a. Sepsis b. Heart failure c. Aspiration pneumonia d. Amniotic fluid embolism

88. Which of the following is derived from the endoderm? a. Brain b. Skin c. Uterus d. Pancreas

89. Complete expulsion or extraction of a fetus from a mother is considered birth except a. Gestational age of 20 weeks or more b. Umbilical cord has been cut c. Crown to heel length of 20 centimeters d. Fetus is 500 grams or more

90. The most common sexually transmitted bacterial disease in women is a. Syphillis b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Tricomonas vaginalis d. Gonorrhea

91. When the cephalic prominent and back of the baby are on the same side, the head is a. Engaged b. Flexed c. Extended d. Military attitude

92. Fetal heart tones should be observed a. 1 minute after uterine contractions b. During uterine contractions c. During uterine relaxation d. Immediately after uterine contractions

93. A woman who has threatened abortion has increased risk of the following except a. Preterm delivery b. Low birth weight of infant c. Perinatal death d. Congenital malformation

94. If a postpartum patient is brought to the health center in shock due to blood loss, the midwife will do the following except a. Insert IV fluids b. Give vasoconstrictor injection c. Give oxygen d. Call the physician

95. Modified Ritgens maneuver gives which of the following advantages? a. It allows controlled delivery of the head b. It favors extension c. It helps prevent lacerations d. All of these

96. If a patient is diagnosed as having twin pregnancy, the following measures are acceptable except a. Limited physical activity b. Cesarean section c. Preparation for transfusion d. Hospital delivery

97. The greatest transverse diameter of the fetal head is the ____ diameter a. Biparietal b. Occipitofrontal c. Suboccipito bregmatic d. Bitemporal

98. A woman comes to the clinic on the 10th day of her menstrual cycle. She wants to use contraceptive pills for family planning. You will advise the following except a. Wait for her next cycle b. Start taking contraceptive pills c. Advise use of condom for this month d. Advise the couple to abstain until the next menses

99. The functional life span of the corpus luteum is

a. 10 days

b. 20 days

c. 14 days

d. 7 days

100. A nurse who intends to practice in a remote barrio must be good at which of the following? a. Risk assessment these b. Community mobilization c. Emergency management and referral d. All of

Never be afraid to try something new coz life gets boring when you stay within the limits of what you already know Life is too short to have no fun and yet too precious to waste! Reach for your dreams RNs!

EXAM CODE: OBSTETRICS By: Anna Victoria S. De Los Santos, RN, RM

1. Baseline mammography according to American Cancer Society should be done by age a. 45-45 b. 25-30 c. 35-40 d. 30-35

2. The endoderm gives rise to the following except a. Thyroid gland b. Respiratory tract c. Gastrointestinal tract d. Urinary tract

3. Low oxygenation of umbilical vein blood is compensated by the following except a. Increased fetal cardiac output b. Increased oxygen carrying capacity of fetal hemoglobin c. Higher fetal hemoglobin d. Larger heart proportion to body

4. A 32 weeks pregnant multigravida patient has profuse vaginal bleeding without pain. The most likely diagnosis is a. Abruptio placenta b. Uterine rupture c. Placenta previa d. Cervical carcinoma

5. Which of the following organisms causing maternal infection is implicated as cause of abortion?

a. Trichomonas vaginalis

b. Chlamydia trochemates

c. Neisseria gonorrhea

d. Herpes simplex

6. Application of 1% tetracycline ointment to the eyes of the newborn prevents ____ infection a. Gonococcal b. HIV c. Enterococcal d. All of these

7. Which of the following produces thick, scanty, cellular cervical mucus? a. FSH b. LH c. Estrogen d. Progestin

8. A 12 year old was a victim of rape. The best method to prevent pregnancy is a. Insert an intrauterine device b. Perform menstrual regulation c. Give as acid douche d. Give 4 tablets of high dose contraceptive pills

9. The most important reason why a grandmultipara is advised hospital delivery is the risk for a. Abnormal presentation b. Postpartum hemorrhage c. Prolapse of cord d. Hypertensive complications

10. The birth rate is defined as the number of: a. Births per 1,000 population b. Births per 10,000 population c. Births per 100,000 population d. Live birth per 10,000 population

11. Which of the following factors is directly related to the maternal mortality rate? a. Age b. Race c. Parity d. Socioeconomic status

12. Almost without exception, the endocrine changes of pregnancy are consequences of a. Maternal ovarian function b. Uterine hormone production c. Production of amniotic fluid hormones d. Fetal placental function

13. Transition between childhood and maturity a. Menarche b. Puberty c. Menopause d. Climacteric

14. After delivery, which of the following portions of the deciduas remain to give rise to the new endometrium? a. Zona compacta b. Zona spongiosa c. Zona functionalis d. Zona bosalis

15. With a vertex presentation, all sutures are palpable during labor except a. Frontal suture b. Sagittal suture c. Coronal suture d. Lambdoidal suture

16. Hazards of diagnostic radiation include: a. The increased potential for mutation or malignancy b. Acne c. Resultant osteopenia d. Hypothyroidism in the infant

17. Flattened oval shape, transverse diameter of inlet greater than the anterior-posterior diameter a. Gynecoid b. Android c. Anthropoid d. Platypelloid

18. Which pure pelvic shape (Caldwell-Moloy Classification) has the poorest prognosis for vaginal delivery? a. Gynecoid b. Android c. Anthropoid d. Platypelloid

19. Midpelvic capacity may be precisely determined by a. The clinical measurement of ischial spine prominence b. The clinical measurement of side wall convergence c. The clinical measurement of the sacral concavity d. Imaging studies

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20. Which of the following return to their pre-pregnant condition (size or appearance) after delivery? a. Cervix b. Lower uterine segment c. Vagina and hymen d. Abdominal wall

21. Colostrum has more ____ than mature milk a. Protein b. Fat c. Sugar d. Minerals

22. The mean duration of a normal pregnancy from the first day of the last normal menstrual period is about a. 250 days b. 260 days c. 270 days d. 280 days

23. Which of the following contributes to the difficulty in determining gestational age? a. Menstrual cycle significantly longer than 30 days b. Irregular menstrual cycles c. Use of steroidal contraceptives d. Presence of an intrauterine device

24. Which of the following laboratory tests should be repeated at every prenatal visit? a. Hematocrit b. Urine test for protein c. Urine test for glucose d. Serologic test for syphilis

25. Smoking during pregnancy is associated with an increased incidence of: 1. Perinatal death 2. Maternal hypertension 3. Low birth weight infants 4. Diabetes in pregnancy

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 3

26. Which of the following is more common early in pregnancy than late in pregnancy? 1. Backache 2. Fatigue 3. Heart burn 4. Headache 5. Hemorrhoids

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 3, 4 and 5

27. The identification of which of the following in amniotic fluid suggests that respiratory distress syndrome is less likely to develop? a. Phosphatidylglycerol b. Lecithin c. Sphingomyelin d. Phosphatidylinositol

28. Fetal blood carbon dioxide tension and plasma lactain concentration ____ with gestational age a. Increase b. Decrease c. Do not change d. None of the above

29. If the cervix is one fourth of its original length, it is effaced a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 100 percent

30. For which types of delivery is pudendal block likely to provide adequate anesthesia? a. Cesarean section b. Midforceps delivery c. Low forceps delivery d. Spontaneous delivery

31. Which organ is frequently found to be injured during traumatic vaginal deliveries of breech presentation? a. Liver b. Adrenal glands c. Spleen d. Spinal cord and brain

32. Which of the following methods is most reliable in determining whether the fetal head will navigate the pelvis successfully? a. Radiography b. Clinical pelvimetry c. Ultrasound d. Trial of labor

33. Elongation in the occipitofrontal diameter of the fetal head is referred to as a. Brachycephaly b. Kinesiocephaly c. Dolichocephaly d. Platycephaly

34. Which of the following uterine defects least likely leads to uterine rupture?

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a. Pregnancy in an incompletely developed uterus or uterine horn b. Placenta accrete

c. Choriocarcinoma d. Sacculation of an adherent retroverted uterus

35. In which of the following situations could midforceps delivery be a substitute for cesarean section? 1. Fetal distress 2. Prolapse of the umbilical cord a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3 3. Maternal exhaustion 4. Secondary arrest of labor due to conduction of anesthesia d. 3 and 4

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

36. Which of the following constitutes correct technique when incising the uterus for cesarean delivery? 1. The uterine incision is made 2 cm above the detached bladder 2. The incision is began transversely and made with a scalpel 3. The incision is extended laterally and upward with a scalpel 4. The incision should never exceed 8 cms in length a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 3 and 4

37. Which of the following statements about routine management of a patient after cesarean delivery is correct? a. A complete blood count is preferred over a hematocrit b. Initial blood testing is performed 2 days after the surgery c. Blood transfusion should be immediately instituted if initial hematocit is low d. If the patient is stable and no further blood loss is anticipated, iron therapy is preferable than transfusion

38. Persistent fever post partum should alert the midwife for the possibility of a. Parametrial phlegmon b. Sheehans syndrome c. Occult episiotomy infection d. Milk fever

39. Hemorrhage late in the purperium is best treated by a. Prompt curettage b. Oxytocin c. Hysterectomy d. Fundal massage

40. The determination of the degree of prematurity or immaturity should be based on a. Fetal length b. Fetal weight c. Fetal gestational age d. Reported date of the LMP

41. Which of the following statements about missed abortion is correct? a. Signs of a threatened abortion always occur at the time of fetal death b. The uterus begins to regress inside at the time of fetal death c. Most missed abortions terminate spontaneously d. Maternal coagulopathy secondary to missed abortion usually occurs when the fetus has died early in gestation

42. The demographic group at greater risk for the development of Hydatidiform mole includes women a. of European origin b. less than 20 years old c. with a history of previous mole d. with a history of ovarian cyst

43. Spontaneous expulsion of Hydatidiform mole is most likely to occur around what month of pregnancy? a. Third b. Fourth c. Fifth d. Sixth

44. The best time to counsel a diabetic about drug usage and glucose control in pregnancy would be a. Before she gets pregnant b. During the first trimester c. During the early second trimester d. During the third trimester

45. Which of the following is classified as an inborn error of metabolism? a. Downs syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Phenylketonuria d. Fragile X syndrome

46. In which type of monozygotic twinning do two distinct placentas of a single fused placenta develop? a. Diamnionic, dichorionic b. Diamnionic, monochorionic c. Monoamnionic, monochorionic d. Conjoined

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47. Which of the following therapies have been found to be beneficial in improving pregnancy outcomes in patients with major anatomic abnormalities of the reproductive tract? a. Progestational agents b. Cerclage c. B-mimetic drugs d. Metroplasty

48. Which of the following contraceptive techniques is probably contraindicated for women with sickle cell disease? a. Oral contraceptive b. Diaphragm c. Condom d. Spermicidal jelly

49. Which of the following statements about cardiac disease in pregnancy is correct? a. It occurs in about 10 percent of pregnancies b. Prognosis is independent from the psychologic and socioeconomic situation of the patient and her family c. Cardiac decompensation seldom occurs after the 32nd week d. Cardiac failure can occur during the puerperium

50. Which of the following parameters presently offers the most information about fetal well-being in a woman with diabetes? a. 24-hour urinary estriol b. Plasma estriol c. Non-stress test d. Glycocylated hemoglobin A

51. Which of the following reversible contraceptive methods is the best choice for women with overt diabetes? a. Intrauterine device b. Estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives c. Barrier methods d. Rhythm methods

52. Which of the following is recommended for the treatment of all forms of uncomplicated gonorrhea during pregnancy? a. Aqueous procaine penicillin plus probenecid b. Ampicillin c. Amoxicillin d. Tetracycline

53. Which of the following structures is not richly supplied with nerve fibers? a. Labia minora b. Labia majora c. Hymen d. Clitoris

54. During pregnancy, which portion of the uterus forms the lower uterine segment? a. External cervical os b. Isthmus c. Fundus d. Cornua

55. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the development of the human ovum? a. Migration, division, maturation b. Migration, maturation, division c. Division, maturation, migration d. Maturation, migration, division

56. In oogenesis, the haploid number of chromosomes first appears in the a. Primitive germ cell b. Primary oocyte c. Secondary oocyte d. Oogonium

57. The temperature elevation seen just before or during ovulation is primarily caused by a. Intraperitoneal irritation from the released ovum b. A thermogenic effect of FSH c. A thermogenic effect of progesterone d. A sympathetic neutral response to ovum release

58. Surgical ablation of the corpus luteum of early pregnancy a. Predisposes the patient to spontaneous abortion c. Removes the sole endogenous source of progesterone d. Interferes with implantation of the embryo

b. Requires that the patient be treated with exogenous progestin

59. Which type of intrauterine device (IUD) may be effective when use of another type of IUD has caused bleeding or cramping? a. Lippes loop b. Copper T c. CU 7 d. Progestasert

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60. The use of intrauterine device is usually discouraged in women 1. of no parity 2. of high parity 3. at risk of developing infections of the pelvic viscera 4. who smoke

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 3

d. 3 and 4

61. Which of the following statement about breastfeeding and contraception is correct? 1. For nursing mothers, ovulation during the first 10 weeks after delivery is unlikely 2. Breastfeeding provides excellent contraception until the first menstrual period 3. Oral contraceptives may impair milk production 4. Intrauterine devices should not be used by a woman who is breastfeeding a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 2, 3 and 4

62. Which of the following is the most cost-effective method of female sterilization? a. Hysterectomy b. Tubal sterilization c. Hysteroscopic tubal occlusion

63. Which of the following statements about vasectomy is correct? 1. The cost is approximately one-fifth that of tubal sterilization 2. The failure rate is 1 in 100 3. Sterility is immediate 4. Restoration of fertility occurs in over 90 percent of all cases of surgical reversal a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 4 only

64. Which of the following statements about male contraception is correct? a. Storage of sperm prior to vasectomy has had excellent results b. Antibodies to sperm are rarely found after vasectomy in humans c. Vasectomy predisposes to atherosclerosis d. A safe and effective reversible male contraceptive is yet to be developed

65. Which of the following statements about the hymen is correct? a. Among women, there is a marked similarity in the shape and consistency of the hymen b. The surfaces of the hymen are covered by stratified squamous epithelium c. The hymen is comprised mainly of muscle d. In virgins, the hymen covers the labia minora

66. Which of the following does not mean the same as the others? a. Vulva b. External generative organs c. Organs providing ovulation, fertilization and implantation d. Pudenda

67. Which of the following organs is erectile? a. Clitoris b. Frenulum c. Labia majora d. Labia minora

68. To prevent the transmission of AIDS, it may be said a. The same antepartum and peripartum measures as for Hepatitis B should be applied b. There is no prevention c. Infants should not be suctioned using bulb techniques d. Ventilatory support for preterm infants of AIDS mothers should not be given

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69. Which of the following statements about delivery and postpartum care in cases of maternal Herpes correct? a. All women with history of Herpes must undergo cesarean delivery b. If the membranes have already been ruptured, cesarean delivery provides no protection to the fetus c. The neonate must be monitored more closely than usual d. Breastfeeding by infected mothers should not be allowed

70. The fetal parathyroid gland begins to elaborate parathormone by what time in gestation? a. End of the first trimester b. End of the second trimester c. Middle of the third trimester d. end of the third trimester

71. The uterine enlargement in pregnancy is most marked in the a. Cervix b. Lower uterine segment c. Fundus d. Uterine cornua

72. Which of the following changes occur in the oviduct during pregnancy? a. The musculature undergoes marked hypertrophy b. The epithelium proliferates significantly c. Decidual cells may develop in the stoma of the endosalphinx d. A continuous decidual membrane is formed

73. The most useful measure of renal function during pregnancy is a. Plasma urea concentration b. Plasma creatinine concentration c. Creatinine clearance d. Urine concentration tests

74. Which term is not synonymous with the others? a. Interspinous diameter b. Plane of least pelvic dimensions c. Transverse diameter of midplane d. Plane of greatest pelvic dimensions

75. Which of the following fetal lies is most unstable? a. Longitudinal b. Oblique c. Transverse d. All of the above

76. Ripening phase of the cervix occurs during the ____ of labor a. Prelabor phase b. First stage c. Second stage d. Third stage

77. How long does it take for the entire endometrium to be regenerated after delivery? a. 1 week b. 2 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 4 weeks

78. Which articles of clothing should be avoided in pregnancy? a. Jeans b. Constricting garters c. Pantyhose d. High-heeled shoes

79. Which method of monitoring the fetal heart rate is most accurate? a. Ultrasound Doppler principle b. Internal spiral electrode c. Phonocardiography d. Fetal electrocardiogram

80. Direct causes of fetal nerve injury during delivery include 1. Traction in the axillae 2. Oblique traction to the fetal head a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 3. Pressure on the uterine fundus 4. Poorly timed episiotomy d. 1 and 3

81. Which of the following is proven to be of benefit in the treatment of aspiration pneumonitis? 1. Suction of the pharynx and trachea 2. Saline lavage 3. Steroids 4. Oxygen 5. Antibiotics

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a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 1 and 4

d. 2 and 4

82. The most common cause of serious blood loss in obstetrics is a. A low implanted placenta b. Postpartum hemorrhage c. Placental abruption d. Ectopic pregnancy

83. The standard diagnostic exam used for confirmation of deep vein thrombosis in pregnancy is a. Impedance plethysmography b. Intravenous pyelogram c. Doppler flow measurement d. Venography

84. What percentage of newborn infants has a recognizable anomaly? a. Less than 1 percent b. 3 to 5 percent c. nearby 10 percent d. 25 percent

85. Which of the following is not a bleeding complication during the first trimester of pregnancy? a. Abortion b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Placenta previa d. H-mole

86. When pregnancy takes place in the fallopian tube, it is called a. Normal pregnancy b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Fertilization d. Abortion

87. Which of the following is not a precipitating cause of extrauterine pregnancy? a. Poor personal hygiene b. Salphingitis c. Hypertrophy of the fallopian tube d. Weak sperm

88. In which type of extrauterine pregnancy can conception continue to term? a. Tubal b. Ovarian c. Abdominal d. Cervical

89. The sign of tubal pregnancy excludes a. Sharp stabbing pain b. Rigid abdomen c. Signs and symptoms of shock d. None of the above

90. When the uterus is removed, the surgical procedure is a. Hysterostomy b. Hysterectomy c. TAHBSO d. Oophorectomy

91. Which of the following is excluded in the etiology of H mole? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Malnutrition c. Uncircumcised male partner d. Lack of personal hygiene

92. Signs and symptoms of normal pregnancy not manifested in H mole excludes a. Positive pregnancy test b. Able to palpate fetal parts c. Absence of fetal heats tones d. Skeletal lining can be visualized by X-ray

93. Which of the following procedures is done to remove H mole in the uterine cavity? a. Suction curettage b. Hysterectomy c. Hysterostomy d. All of them

94. Home pregnancy test may give false negative results in ____% of patients a. 25 b. 35 c. 10 d. 45

95. Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of maternal immune idiopathic thrombocytopenia is correct? a. Administration of corticosteroids to the another assume adequate fetal platelet count b. There is strong correlation between fetal and maternal platelet count c. In mothers with severe thrombocytopenia, cesarean delivery is the safest for the mother and the fetus d. Intrapartum fetal platelet counts may be added patient management

96. When labor is prolonged and the buttocks become swollen, breech presentation may be hard to differentiate from

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a. Cephalic with caput b. Shoulder presentation

c. Ancephalic fetus d. Face presentation

97. Which is the last important reason for cesarean section in breech presentation? a. Hyperextended head b. Big baby c. Request for sterilization d. Low implantation

98. The portion of the pelvis below the linea terminalis is the a. Midplane b. Outlet c. False pelvis d. True pelvis

99. The most common organism causing mastitis is a. Gardnella vaginalis b. Streptococcus c. E. coli d. Staphyloccocus aureus

100. The line from the sacral promontory to the inner surface of the symphysis pubis is a. Diagonal conjugate b. Obstetric conjugate c. True conjugate d. Oblique diameter

I m always praying for your success RNs! God bless in your board exams!

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