NATIONAL LAW UNIVERSITY JODHPUR Section 2 Information Level Test (ILT)

Instructions: 1 mark for right answer, -1 mark penalty for wrong answer. 1. What makes 1911 important in modern Indian History a. Government of India Act passed b. Capital of the country shifts to Delhi from Calcutta c. Partition of Bengal d. Indian National Congress established A solar eclipse occurs when a. The moon comes in between the sun and the earth. b. The earth comes in between the sun and the moon. c. The sun comes between the earth and the moon d. One of the planets cuts off the light from the sun. The layer of atmosphere which enables wireless communications is a. Troposphere b. Stratosphere c. Ionosphere d. Exosphere

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Cotton and rice cannot be cultivated in the middle and the high altitudes because of the prevailing condition of a. Low temperature b. Low humidity c. Labour shortage d. High rainfall Which one of the following activities was common to both Sir Syed Ahmed Khan and Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya? a. Opposition to the principle of rule of majority b. Supporting the continuance of the British rule in India c. Opposition to the policies of the Indian National Congress d. Establishing an educational institution for higher learning Which one of the following factors was the most important one to prevent the king the ancient India from becoming an autocrat? a. He was regarded as the paid servant of the people b. He was in constant danger of being thrown out by his ambitious kith and kin c. He enforced but did not make laws already laid down in shastras d. He was obliged to act according to the advice of the minister The President of India can proclaim the state of emergency in case of a. Threatening of the security of India arising our of war or external or internal disturbances b. Failure of the constitutional machinery in a particular state c. Threatening of the financial stability or credit of the country d. Either of the above three situation The Secretary General of the U.N. is appointed by a. The General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council. b. The Security Council on the recommendation of the General Assembly. c. The International Court of Justice d. A special committee of the General Assembly. Bread and butter are complements. If the price of butter goes up, other things remaining the same, the consumption of butter a. Will go up b. Will remain unaffected c. Will go down d. Will remain uncertain Bombay high refers to a. Bombay Island c. Slopes of western ghat b. Sea bed off Bombay island d. Highest peak in Bombay

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A quantum of visible light is called a. Photon b. proton

c. Hyperon

d. Phonon

A radioactive substance gives off gamma rays when a. Its nucleus goes from a higher to a lower state of energy b. One of the orbital electron jumps from an orbit of higher energy to an orbit of lower energy c. An orbital electron jumps from an orbit of lower energy to a higher one d. Its nucleus goes from a state of lower energy to a higher one. An object is thrown vertically upward. At its highest point, the object has a. An upward velocity c. A downward velocity d. A downward acceleration Carbohydrates are used mainly for a. Building protoplasm b. Energy production c. Food storage d. Regulating body activities The Panama canal has shortened the distance between a. America and Europe b. North America and South America c. East and West USA d. Asia and Europe After the death of Hyder Ali his son Tipu Sultan a. Made peace with the English b. Fought against the English with greater vigour c. Made a joint front against the English with the help of the Marathas d. Surrendered his kingdom to the English. Which of the following statement does not describe the correct relationship between rights and duties. a. Rights are given by state and duties are imposed by the society b. Rights and duties are two facets of the same coin c. No rights can be enjoyed for all times to come unless we also perform the duties we owe to the state d. If we have rights to enjoy, we must have some corresponding duties to perform. All human beings are born free and all are equal in dignity and rights has been stated in. a. Declaration of human rights b. UN Charter c. Constitution of India d. French Constitution Which of the following statements describe the correct position of Rajya Sabha? a. Like lok sabha, it can be dissolved by the President b It is a permanent house, whose membership is also permanent c. t is a permanent house, which cannot be dissolved but one third of its members retire every second year. d. It is a permanent house and one third of its members retire every three years. The organization, which gives the youth of the country, an opportunity to receive military training in their spare time and make them available for service when required is a. National Cadet Corps b. Indian military Academy c. National Defence Academy d. Territorial Army d. An upward acceleration

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Part II
Instruction: Write on and about the following, each in three lines. Writing more may be penalized. Each question has two marks. 1. Sensex: 2. CBDT: 3. VSNL: 4. G-20: 5. UNCITRAL: .

6. Globailzation: . 7. Convergence: . 8. VRS: . 9. CII: .. 10. Anti-dumping measure: . 11. Integrated Circuit: 12. Venture Capital: . 13. Infrastructure Contract: . 14. FDI: .. 15. WIPO: ..

Section 3 Linguistic Competence Test (LCT)

Part I
Instruction : Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions. 2 mark of each correct answer Reverse discrimination, minority recruitment, racial quotas, and more generally, affirmative action are phrases that carry powerful emotional charges. But why should affirmative action, of all government policies, be so controversial? In a sense, affirmative action is like other government programs e.g., defence, conservation and public schools. Affirmative action programs are designed to achieve legitimate government objectives such as improved economic efficiency, reduced social tension and general betterment of the public welfare. While it cannot be denied that there is no guarantee that affirmative action will achieve these results, neither can it be denied that there are plausible, even powerful, sociological and economic arguments pointing to its likely success. Government programs, however, entail a cost; i.e., the expenditure of social or economic resources. Setting aside cases in which the specific user is charged a fee a service (toll roads and tuition at the state institutions), the burdens and benefits of publicly funded or mandates programs are widely shared. When an individual benefits personally from a government program, it is only because she or he is one member of a larger beneficiary class, e.g., a farmer; and most government revenue is obtained through a scheme of general taxation to which all are subject. Affirmative action programs are exception to this general rule, though not, as it might at first seem, because the beneficiaries of the programs are specific individuals. It is still the case that those who ultimately benefit from affirmative action do so only by virtue of their status as a member of a larger group, a particular minority. Rather the difference is the location of burden. In affirmative action, the burden of funding the program is not shared universally, and that is inherent in the nature of the case, as can be seen clearly in the case of affirmative action of employment. Often job promotions are allocated along a single dimension seniority. When an employee promotes a less senior worker from a minority group, the person disadvantaged by the move is easily identified. The worker with greatest seniority on a combined minority-non-minority list passed over for promotion. Now we are confronted with tow competing moral sentiments. On the one hand, there is the idea that those who have been unfairly disadvantaged by past discriminatory practices are entitled to some kind of assistance. On the other hand, is the feeling that no person ought to be deprived of what is rightfully his, even for the worthwhile service of his fellow humans. In this respect, disability due to past racial discrimination, at least in so far as there is no connection to the passed-over worker, is like a natural evil. When a villainous man willfully and with out any provocation strikes and injures another, there is not only the feeling that the injured person ought to be compensated but there is also consensus that the appropriate party to bear the cost is the one who inflicted the injury. Yet if the same innocent man stumbled and injured himself, it would be surprising to hear some one argue that the villainous man ought to be taxed for the injury simply because he might have tripped the victim had he been given the opportunity. There may very well be agreement that the victim should be aided in his recovery with money and personal assistance, and many will give

willingly, but there is also agreement that no one individual ought to be singled out and forced to do what must ultimately be considered an act of charity. Instruction: Tick the correct answer from the multiple choice given below each question. 1. The passage is primarily connected with a. Comparing affirmative action programs to other government programs b. Arguing that affirmative action programs are morally justified c. Analysing the basis for moral judgments about affirmative action programs d. Introducing the reader to the importance of affirmative action as a social issue e. Describing the benefits, which can be obtained through affirmative action programs The author mentions toll roads and tuition at state institution in order to a. Anticipate a possible objection based on counter examples b. Avoid a contradiction between moral sentiments c. Provide illustrations of common government programs d. Voice doubts about the social and economic value affirmative action e. Offer examples of government programs that are too costly With which of the following statements would the author most likely agree? a. Affirmative action programs should be discontinued because they place an unfair burden on nonminority persons who bear the cost of the programs b. Affirmative action programs may be able to achieve legitimate social and economic goals such as improved efficiency. c. Affirmative action programs are justified because they are the only way of correcting injustices created by past discrimination. d. Affirmative action programs must be redesigned so that society as a whole rather than particular individuals, bears the cost of the programs. e. Affirmative action programs should be abandoned because they serve no useful social function and place unfair burdens on particular individuals. The author most likely places the word funding in quotation narks in order to remind the reader that a. Affirmative action programs are costly in terms of government revenues b. Particular individuals may bar a disproportionate share of the burden of affirmative action c. The cost of most government programs is shared by society at large d. The beneficiaries of affirmative action are members of larger groups e. The cost of affirmative action is not only a monetary expenditure The villainous man introduced functions primarily as a. An illustration b. A counter example c. An authority d. An analogy e. A disclaimer According to the passage, affirmative action programs are different from most other government programs in which of the following ways? I. The goals the programs are designed to achieve II.The ways in which costs of the programs are distributed III. The ways in which benefits of the programs are allocated a. I only d. II and III only b. II only e. I, II and III c. III only

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Part II
Instruction: Write ten sentence on the following them. You may be penalized for writing more. 5 marks for maximum reward. Cost of democracy .

Part III
Instruction: I mark for correct answer and penalty of one mark for wrong answer. Encircle the correct choice 1. THE PHENOMENA OF PUBLIC EDUCATION IS ANOTHER EXMAPLE OF THE WORKING OF DEMOCRACY. a. The phenomena of public education is yet another example of democracy at work. b. The phenomenon of public education is another example of how the workings of democracy work. c. The phenomenon of public education is another example of democracy at work. d. Public education, a phenomenon, is another working example of democracy. OF THE TWO LEADERS, NEITHER TROTSKY NOR LENIN WAS MOST BRILLIANT. BUT EACH WORKED IN THEIR SPHERE FOR THE PARTY. a. was most brilliant, but each worked in their own sphere b. was most brilliant but each worked in his sphere c. was most brilliant but each worked in their won sphere worked d. was most brilliant but each worked in his sphere WHEN I OPENED THE HOOD AND SAW SMOKE POURING FROM THE ENGINE, I REALISED THAT I FORGOT TO ADD OIL. a. had realised that I forgot to add oil b. had realised that I forgotten to add oil c. had realised that I would to add oil d. realised that I had forgotten to add oil THE CAR RUNS OUITER WHEN I ADD A MORE HEAVY TRANSMISSION FLUID. a. The care runs more quietly when I add a heavier transmission fluid. b. The car runs quieter when I add a more heavier transmission fluid. c. The car runs more quietly when I add a more heavier transmission fluid. d. The car runs quieter when I add a heavier transmission fluid. THE STRAGER WAS AFFABLE, WITH GOOD MANNERS AND HAS A KEEN WIT. a. with good manners and a keen wit b. well mannered and keen witted c. good manners as well as keen witted d. and has good manners as well as keen wit THE PRISONER WAS EXPEDITED FROM CHANDIGARH TO JAIPUR a. From Chandigarh to Jaipur, the prisoner was expedited. b. The prisoner from Chandigarh was extradited c. The prisoner was extradited from Chandigarh to Jaipur d. From Chandigarh, the prisoner was expedited to Jaipur. MOST MEMBERS OF THE TRADE UNION REJECTED THE MINISTERS ADVICE THAT THEY RETURN TO WORK. a. that they return to work b. that the members return to work c. for them to return to work d. that they would return to work

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LAWYERS AND DOCTORS ALIKE BOTH AGREE THAT SOMETHING SHOULD BE DONE ABOUT THE RISE IN MEDICAL MAPRACTICE SUITS, WHICH ARE ON THE INCREASE. a. alike agree that something should be done about the rise in medical malpractice suits. b. both agree that something should be done about the increasing rise in medical malpractice suits. c. agree that something should be done about the rise in medical malpractice suits, which are increasing d. agree that something should be done about the rise in the number of medical malpractice suits. THE POSSIBILITY OF MASSIVE EARTHQUAKERS ARE REGARDED BY MOST RESIDENTW WITH A MIXTURE OF SKEPTICISM AND CAUTION. a. is regarded by most area residents with b. is regarded by most area residents as c. is mostly regarded by are residents with d. by most area residents is regarded with WHILE MANY CITIZENS FEEL POWERLESS TO INFLUENCE NATIONAL POLICY, IT IS A ACTUALLY EFFECTIVE TO WRITE TO A MEMBER OF THE PARLIAMENT WITH AN OPINION. a. writing to member of the Parliament with your opinion is actually effective. b. To write to a member of the Parliament with an opinion is effective c. That writing your opinion to a member of the Parliament is effective. d. The writing of an opinion to a member of the Parliament may be effective. PREMA, ALONG WITH HER OLDEST BROTHER, ARE GOING TO MAKE A LARGE REAL ESTATE INVESTMENT. a. Prema, along wither oldest brothers, are b. Prema, along with her oldest brothers, is c. Prema, in addition to her oldest brothers, are d. Prema, as well her oldest brothers, are THE COURT ORDERS REQUIREMENT THAT EACH TRANSIT WORKER RETURN TO WORK WAS GENERALLY IGNORED. a. that each transit worker return to work b. that each transit worker would return to work c. that each transit worker should return to work d. that each transit worker to return to work DESPITE HER HARSH CRITICISM OF THE COMETITION, THE ACTESS WAS AT THE CREMONY TOACCEPT HER AWARD. a. despite her harsh criticism of the competition b. always harshly criticising such competitions c. any competition was criticised yet d. in spite of criticising all such competitions

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Part IV
Instructions: I mark for correct answer and penalty of one mark for wrong answer. Find out the good word to replace the italicised part of the speech 1. I am habitually inclined to take chiefly the gloomy side of the things into consideration. . 2. This machine is easy to carry over long distance. . 3. A thick for surrounded us on all sides. . 4. Such negligence is not only blamable; it can be proceeded against in a court of law. . 5. He is a man who can be easily duped or fooled by any swindler. .

Section4 Reasoning Ability Test (RAT) Part I

Instruction: 2 marks for correct answer and penalties of 1 mark for wrong answer Read the statement and encircle the most appropriate answer from the multiple choices. 1. Statement: Total contributions of individuals to political parties were up 20 percent in the last parliamentary election over the previous election. Hence it is obvious that people are no longer as apathetic as they were, but are taking a greater interest in politics. Question: Which of the following, if true, would considerably weaken the preceding argument of the statement a. Per capita income of population increased by 15% during the intervening time. b. The average contribution per individual actually declined during the intervening period. c. Contributions made by large corporations to political parties declined during the intervening period. d. Fewer people voted in the last parliamentary election. e. Public leaders continue to warm citizens against the dangers of political apathy. 2. Statement: We must do something about the rising cost of our state prisons. It costs an average of Rs. 200 per day to maintain a prisoner in a state prison. But one can find good many places in t he cities and towns where people can have food and shelter at lesser cost. Questions: The argument above might be criticised in all of the following ways EXCEPT: a. It introduces an inappropriate analogy b. It relies on an unwarranted appeal to authority c. It fails to take account of costs which prisons have but other places like hotels, temporary shelters or rest centers do not have d. It is misuses numerical data e. It draws a faculty comparison 3. Statement: Since all crows that I have encountered have been black, it follows that the crows I will see in Jodhpur when I go to live there, shall also be black. Questions: Which of the following most closely parallel the reasoning of the preceding argument? a. Some birds are incapable of flight; there fore, crows are probably incapable of flight. b. Every ballet I have attended has failed to interest me; so theatrical production, which fails to interest me, must be a ballet. c. Since all cases of severe depression I have encountered were susceptible to treatment by chlorpromazine, there must be something in the chlorpromazine that adjusts the patients brain chemistry. d. Because every society has a word for justice, the concept of fair play must be inherent in the biological makeup of the human species. e. Since no medicine I have tried for my allergy has ever helped, this new product will probably not work either. 4. Statement: Either you severely punish a child who is bad or the child will grow up to be a criminal. Your child is just been bad. Therefore, you should punish the child severely Questions: All EXCEPT which of the following would be appropriate objection to the argument? a. What do you consider to be severe punishment? b. What do you mean by the term bad? c. Is it not your either-or premise on oversimplification? d. Dont your first and second premises contradict one another? e. In what way has this child been bad?

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Statement: We should abolish the public education system and allow schools to operate as autonomous units competing for students. Students will receive government funds in the form of voucher, which they can spend at eh school of their choice. This will force schools to compete for students by offering better and more varied educational services. As in private industry, only the schools that provide customer satisfaction will survive. Since schools that cannot attract students will close, we will see an overall improvement in the quality of education. Questions: Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the argument above? a. Schools will make sure that all parents and students are thoroughly informed about programs offered. b. Most students and parent will select a school based upon the convenience of its location. c. Students have different interests and different needs that can best be met by a variety of programs. d. By forcing schools to operate on cost effective basis, a voucher program would actually reduce total educational expenditures. e. Financial barriers shall limit the educational choices of students from poorer families.

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Statements: Opponents to the mayors plan for express bus lanes on the citys major commuter arteries objected that people could not be lured out of their automobiles in the way. The opponents were proved wrong; following implementation of the plan, but ridership rose dramatically, and there was corresponding drop in automobile traffic. Nonetheless, the plan failed to achieve its stated objective of reducing average commuting time. Question: Which of the following sentence would be the most logical continuation of this argument? a. The plans opponents failed to realize that many people would take advantage of improved but transportation. b. Unfortunately, politically attractive solutions do not always get results. c. The number of people a vehicle can transport varies directly with the size of the passenger compartment of the vehicle. d. Opponents cited an independent survey of city commuters showing that before the plans adoption only one out of every seven used commuter business. e. With the express lanes closed to private automobile traffic, the remaining cars were forced to use too few lanes and his created gigantic traffic tie-ups.

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Statement: I maintain that the best way to solve our companys present financial crisis is to bring out a new line of goods. I challenge anyone who disagrees with this proposed course of auction to show that it will not work. Question: A flaw in the preceding argument is that it a. Employs group classifications without regard to individuals b. Introduces an analogy which is weak c. Attempts to shift the burden of proof to those who would object to the plan d. Fails to provide statistical evidence to show that the plan will actually succeed e. Relies upon a discredited economic theory.

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Subject: That it is impossible to foretell the future is easily demonstrated. For if a person should foresee being injured by a mill wheel on the next day, the person would cancel the trip to the mill and remain at home in bed. Since the injury the next day by the mill wheel would not occur, it can not in any way be said that the future has been foretold. Question: Which of the following best explains the weakness in this argument? a. The author fails to explain how one could actually change the future. b. The author uses the word future in two different ways. c. The author does not explain how anyone could foresee the future. d. The argument is internally inconsistent e. The argument is circular.

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Rousseau assumed that human beings in the state of nature are characterized by a feeling of sympathy toward their fellow human being and other living creatures. In order to explain the existence of social ills, such as the exploitation of some human beings, Rousseau maintained that our natural feelings are crushed under the weight of unsympathetic social institutions. Question: Rousseaus argument described above would be most strengthened if it could be explained how a. Creatures naturally characterised by feelings of sympathy for all living creatures could crate unsympathetic social institutions. b. We can restructure our social institutions so that they will foster our natural sympathies for one another c. Modern reformers might lead the way to a life which is not inconsistent with the ideals of the state of nature d. Non-exploitative conduct could arise in conditions of the same nature e. A return to the state of nature from modern society might be accomplished

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Statement: Ms. Evangeline Rose argued that money and time invested in acquiring a professional degree are totally wasted. As evidence supporting her argument, she offered a case of a man who, at considerable expense of money and time, completed his law degree and then married and lived as a house-husband, taking care of their children and working part time at a day care center so his wife could pursue her career. Question: Which of the following closely parallels the logical reasoning of Ms. Roses statement a. A juvenile delinquent who insists that his behavior should be attributable to the fact that his parents did not love him. b. A member of at the parliament who votes large sums of money for military equipment, but who votes against programs designed to help to poor. c. A conscientious objector who bases his draft resistance on the premise that there can be no moral wars d. When a policeman is found guilty of murdering his wife, an opponent of police brutality who says, thats what these people mean by law and order e. A high schools senior who decides that rather than go to college he will enroll in a vocational training program to learn to be an electrician.

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Statement: same as above Question: Ms. Rose makes the unsupported assumption that a. An education in the law is useful only in pursuing law-related activities. b. What was not acceptable 25 years ago may very well be acceptable today. c. Wealth is more important than learning d. Professional success is a function of the quality of ones education e. Only study of law can be considered professional study.

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Statement: It is sometimes argued that we are reaching the limits of the earths capacity to supply our energy needs with fossil fuels. In the past ten years, however, as a result of technological progress making it possible to extract resources from even marginal wells and mines, yields from oil and coalfields have increased tremendously. There is no reason to believe that there is a limit to the earths capacity to supply our energy needs. Question: Which of the following statements most directly contradicts the conclusion drawn above? a. Even if we exhaust our supplies of fossil fuel, the earth can still be mined for uranium for nuclear fuel. b. The technology needs to extract fossil fuels from marginal sources is very expensive. c. Even given the improvements in technology, oil and coal are not renewable resources; so we will eventually exhaust our supplies of them. d. Most of the land under which marginal oil and coal supplies lie is more suitable for cultivation or pasturing than to production of fossil fuels. e. The fuels that are yielded by marginal sources tend to be high in sulphur and other undesirable elements, which aggravate the air pollution problem.

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Statement: Everything a child does is the consequence of some prior experience. Therefore, a child psychologist must study the personal history of each patient. Question: The authors conclusion logically depends upon the premise that a. Everything that a child is doing that child has already done before

b. c. d. e. 14.

Every effect is causally generated by some previous effect Studying a childs personal history is the best way to learn about that childs parents A child will learn progressively more about the word because experience is cumulative It is possible to ensure that a child will grow up to be a mature, responsible adult

Statement: Some Alphas are not Gammas. All Beats are Gammas Question: Which of the following possibilities is logically correct? I. Some Alphas are not Betas II.No Gammas are Alphas III. All Gammas are Betas a. I only e. I, II & III b. II only c. I & II only d. I & III only

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Statement: Once at a conference on the philosophy of language , a professor delivered a lengthy and tiresome address, the central thesis of which was that yes and related slang words such as yeah can be used only to show agreement with a proposition. At the end of the paper a listener in the back of the auditorium stood up and shouted in a sarcastic voice, oh, yeah? This constituted a complete refutation of the paper. Question: The listener argued against the paper by a. offering a counter example b. pointing out an inconsistency c. presenting an analogy d. attaching the speakers character e. citing additional evidence

Part II
Instruction: For correct answer the reward is one mark, but for a wrong answer there a penalty of one mark 1. Two fathers and two sons into a hotel and ordered egg. Curry. There were only three eggs left out in the hotel. They placed the order for the same and enjoyed the food. They then found that each one of them had one full egg to their individual share. What is the relation, if any, between them? .. There were three wall pictures of A, B and c hanging on the wall. A is the brother of C. B is the father of A but c is not son of B. What is the relation between B and C, if any? .. A male has a pair of XY chromosome and a female has a pair of XX chromosome. What is the chance of a female child to be born from wedlock? .. Supposing there are only the following blood groups of human being, namely, O+, O, B+, B, AB+ and AB and supposing such blood groups are evenly distributed in the population of the city. If in a hospital one bottle of AB+ blood group is needed, how many people may be assembled at random to have a possibility one bottle of AB+ blood group? ..

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Section 5 Legal Aptitude Test (LAT)

Instruction: 1. 2. One or more principles are given applying which solve the problem. Right conclusions with appropriate reasons shall be awarded with (1 + 2), that is 3 marks. Right conclusions with no reasoning shall awarded ( + 0) or a mark. Right conclusion wrong reasoning will be awarded (

1) or a mark: Wrong conclusions but right reasoning will be awarded ( + 1) or a mark. No conclusion and wrong reasoning would be awarded ( + 1) or 1 marks.

1.

Principle: Two persons agree on the same thing in the same sense shall make a contract. Problem: A known was that B ahs two cars Ambassador and Maruti. B takes A from a party to make him reach home in his Ambassador car. While going they are discussing about the comparative advantages and disadvantages of the two cars. B suggests to sell his spacious car. While discussing he thinks Maruti is also quite comfortable and spacious. A asked for the price B replied Rs. hundred and twenty thousands, whereas B says he wished to sell only the Ambassador car. Both of them approach you asking you opinion whether it is a contract or not. Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: If one takes something from the possession of another without the others knowledge and consent one might commit theft. Problem: A has taken a book from Bs table without his knowledge and consent and forgets about the book, which is found in his bookshelf. If A a thief? Answer: 1 Conclusion: 2. Reason:..

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Principle: Supply of defective goods or providing inadequate services amounts to deceiving the consumer. The Consumer Court may ask in such cases to pay compensation to the consumer. Problem: An advocate goes on taking time from the court and delays the court decision. Can the client demand compensation from the consumer Court? Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: Wilful rash driving is an offence. Problem: A was driving his car after consuming liquor. The police books him on wilful negligent driving. Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: Whosoever without any legal authority twists any right of another person, commits a civil wrong called tort. He has to pay compensation. Problem: A voter was not allowed by the polling officer to cast his vote. The candidate for whom the voter wanted to cast his vote won the election. Can the voter demand compensation from the polling officer? Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: A master is liable for act of the servant if the servant has committed the action in the course of his employment. Problem: A room attendant of a hotel while preparing the bed in a room found the purse on the table and took out a thousand rupees from it. The room occupant demanded the money from the owner of the hotel. Answer: 1Conclusion

2. Reason:..

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Principle: Aiding, advising, helping, assisting, providing shelter too an offender is an offence in itself. Problem: X, a stranger, meets Y in the airport and requests him to pass on a packet of gift nicely packed to Z who Y knows. The airport police recover the packet from Y, which contains a dancing doll, inside, packed with cocaine. Is Y an abettor? Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: Once the acceptance is made a contract becomes enforceable. Problem: A goes to a site of apurva.com, which is engaged in selling of furniture. He browsed through the catalogue of furniture and wanted to click on a bookshelf requiring further information and price. He examined all the information and the price is a thousand, on which he clicked yes. But at that time the server was down and the message could not pass it bounced back. But X did not notice that. X insists on getting the furniture from apurva.com but the shop had already sold it to Y. Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: Master is liable for act of the servant if the act is done in the course of employment. If the husband suffers on account of an act of wife, the husband cannot ask any compensation from the wire. Problem: W is the housekeeper of the hotel and H is the caretaker. H and W are husband and wife. One day when W was cleaning the floor with some disinfectant in the second floor of the hotel, some mixture of water and disinfectant fell on the first floor where H was standing. He was wearing a suit on which the mixture fell. That discoloured the suit. Can H demand compensation from the owner of the hotel? Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: No one can pass a better title on goods than he himself has on that good. An agent can do whatever the principal can do. Problem: Jewellery Shop and Company buys gold and gold ornaments and also sells gold and new moments. This company buys gold from X worth Rs. One lakh in the form of ornaments. These ornaments were melted into gold bullion. This gold bullion was sold to Chanda and Company, another jeweller, who manufactured new ornaments from the gold and sold it to Ms. Agarwal. Ms. Agarwals title on the ornaments is now being questioned. Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: If a person without any authority prevents a person to proceed to any direction and is kept confined, he commits an offence of criminal confinement. Problem: The Municipality allowed a special permit to hold a marriage party blocking a part of a public road. The marriage party locked most of the roads and did not allow X, a passer-by, to cross the road. He brings a charge on criminal confinement against the head of the marriage party and other associates. Answer: 1Conclusion

2. Reason:..

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Principle: Any person using force to obtain the consent of the other party to a contract causes coercion. If coercion is caused in a contract, the party against whom the coercion is committed may terminate the contract. Problem: x, on gunpoint, wants to compel Y to sign a sale agreement of property. Y kicks X and throws his gun off. Then he sees the sale agreement and signs. Can Y afterwards avoid the contract? Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: None can be required to work against his/her will. If there is a contract of service entered into by both the parties freely, the party is bound to serve. A minor cannot enter into a contract but on his behalf his guardian can. Problem: A cinema company entered into a contract with the guardian of a child artist, for which some advanced has already been taken. The child artist is of ten years age. She does not want to work in the film. Can she avoid the contract? Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

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Principle: Any person who keeps dangerous animal must take adequate care to ensure safety to neighbours and visitors. Problem: X keeps a tiger in his house. One day ?Y comes to see X. Tiger moves around inside the house freely and is very friendly to members of the house. As soon as Y knocks the door of X Y heard howling of a tiger from inside. As soon as X opens the door, Y faints and suffers head injury from the fall. Y demands compensation. Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

15.

Principle: Life of a person cannot be taken away without the procedure established by law. Problem: A patient died in a rural primary health center because the center did not have life saving drugs. Can the hospital authority be asked to pay compensation to the family of the deceased? Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

16.

Principle: No country can dump their goods in another country to sell the goods for earning foreign exchange at a price lower than that prevailing in the homeland. On such goods the host country can impose discriminatory duty. Problem: A country exports stainless utensils to another country selling at a price lower than the cost price of such goods in the home country. Is there any argument of the exporting country against the discriminatory duty imposed by the host country? Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

17.

Principle: The employer is liable for the negligence of the employee. Problem: Sunrise nursing home requested a famous general surgeon practicing in Delhi to come and operate a patient requiring hernia operation. The doctor came with his staff nurses for the operation. Due to an oversight a

piece of napkin was kept in the lower abdomen and external stitching was done. The patient suffered for acute pain after three days of the operation and was to be re-operated. The patient after being cured demanded compensation from the nursing home owner. Answer: 1Conclusion 2. Reason:..

2002
National Law University, Jodhpur Admission Test Paper
Instructions 1. 2. 3. 4. Read the instructions carefully. The paper contains adequate space for answering all questions. Therefore you do not require any extra papers. Blank pages at the back are kept for rough work, which must remain with the book and should not be detached. As soon as the first bell rings, start with writing your roll numbers at all indicated pages and please ensure that all the pages in the question paper are legibly printed. There are 32 pages including he front and back cover. The question paper is divided into five sections. Section 1 on Mathematical Aptitude. Test (MAT) has 16 questions; Section 2 on Information Level Test (ILT) has two parts Part I has 19 questions and part 2 has 13 questions; Section 3 is on Linguistic Competence Test (LCT), which has four parts Part 1 has 6 questions, Part 2 has 1 question, Part 3 has 15 questions and Part 4 has 6 questions: Section 4 is on Reasoning Ability Test (RAT) it has two parts Part 1 has 12 questions and Part 2 has 8 questions; the fifth Section is the last section, which is on Legal Aptitude Test (LAT) it has two parts, Part 1 has 10 questions and Part 2 has 5 questions. Thus totally the question paper the 111 questions to be answer in 120 minutes, You are not to keep anything in your possession except a pen. You do not require calculator or any other electronic equipment. Nothing shall be allowed in the Examination Room except a pen, pencil and a rubber. In case of any malpractice a attempt to malpractice, which would include talking to neighbour, copying or attempting to copy, the center in-charge shall seize the paper and turn the candidate out of the examination center and send a detailed report to the University. Signature Centre In-charge National Entrance Test (NET)

5. 6. 7.

Roll No. of the Candidate:

National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test (NET) Mark Sheet
Section Part No. of Questions Max. Marks per Total Mark Section total Marks Answered

MAT ILT LCT

RAT LAT Total

Pt. 1 Pt. 2 Pt. 1 Pt. 2 Pt. 3 Pt. 4 Pt. 1 Pt. 2 Pt. 1 Pt. 2

16 19 13 6 1 15 6 12 8 10 5 111

Questions 2 1 2 2 5 1 1 2 2 3 3

s 32 19 26 12 5 15 6 24 16 30 15

Chairman National Entrance Test Committee

Section 1 Mathematical Aptitude Test (MAT)

Instructions: For correct answer 2 marks, for wrong answer there shall be penalty of 1 mark. Encircle the correct choice from the multiple choices provided each problem. 1. In 1999, Vandhana read 10 Tamil books and 7 Hindi books. In 2000, she read twice as may Hindi books as Tamil books. If 60% of the books that she read during the 2 years were Hindi, how many Tamil and Hindi books did she read in the 2000? a. 16 b. 26 c. 32 d. 39 e. 48 A sols a commodity allowing 20% discount from the list price on which another 10% discount for cash-down payment. He got a profit of 20%. How much percent was loaded on cost price to make the list price? a. 100/3% b. 250/3% c. 200/3% d. 280/3% e. None of the above A jar contains only red and blue marbles. The ratio of the number of red marbles to the number of blue marbles is 5:3. What percent of the marbles are blue? a. 37.5% b. 50% c. 60^ d. 62.5% e. 80% In a cistern there are two in-let taps. If separately opened in that empty cistern. The first fills in 30 minutes and second in 50 minutes. An outlet tap provided in the bottom of that cistern empties the full cistern in 15 minutes. In a fuil cistern, how much time will be required to empty the cistern if all the three taps are kept open? a. 60 minutes b. 75 minutes c. 40 minutes c. 90 minutes d. None of above. On a certain committee having some members from south India and some from North India, 2/3 of there members are men, and 3/8 of the men are North Indians. If 3/5 of the committee members are South Indians, what fraction of the members are North Indian women? a. 3/20 b. 11/60 c. d. e. 5/12 Anu lives home at 11 a.m. and rides to Mathews house to return his bicycle. She travels at 12 miles per hour (m.p.h) and arrives at 11.30 a.m. She turns right around and walks back home. How fast does she walk if she returns home at 1 p.m. a. 5 m.p.h b. 6 m.p.h c. 4 m.p.h d. 3 m.p.h e. None of the above

2.

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7.

Shyam has 4 times as many books as Ram and 5 times as many as Prem. If Prem has more than 40 books, what is the least number of books that Shyam can have? a. 240 b. 220 c. 210 d. 205 e. 200 At a certain University of the number of applicants failed to meet minimum standards and were rejected immediately. Of those who met the standards, 2/5 were accepted. If 1200 applicants were accepted how may applied? a. 4200 b. 3800 c. 4400 d. 4000 e. None of the above During his second week on the job, Janardhan earned Rs. 110/-. This represented a 25% increase over his earnings of the previous week. How much did he earn during his first week of work? a. Rs. 82.50 b. Rs. 85.00 c. Rs. 88.00 c. Rs. 137.00 e. Rs. 146.67 If 2/3 of the workers in an office ar non-smokers, what is the ratio of smokers to non-smokers? a. 2 : 5 b. 1 : 2 c. 3 : 5 d. 2 : 3 e. 3 : 2 In the afternoon, Smitha read 100 pages at the rate of 60 pages per hour; in the evening, when she was tired, she read another 100 pages at the rate of 40 pages per hour. In pages per hour, what was her average rate of reading for the day? a. 45 b. 48 c. 50 d. 52 e. 55 On a certain project-work of students the only grades awarded were 75 and 100. If 85 students completed the project-work and the average of their grades was 85, how many earned 100? a. 34 b. 40 c. 45 d. 51 e. 60 How many positive integers less than 100 have a remainder of 3 when divided by 7? a. 13 b. 14 c. 15 d. 12 e. None of the above at Papas Discount Hardware everything is sold of 20% less than the price marked. If Papa buys tool kits for Rs. 80/- each, what price should he mark them if he wants to make 20% profit? a. Rs 96 b. Rs. 100 c. Rs. 120 d. Rs. 125 e. None of above If x years ago Jason was 12, and x years from now he will be 2x years old. How old will he be 3xy years from now? a. 18 b. 24 c. 30 d. 54 e. None of the above A Cafeteria has a special lunch consisting of soup or salad, a sandwich, coffee or tea, and a dessert. If the menu lists contain 3 soups, 2 salads, 8 sandwiches and 7 desserts, how many different lunches can you choose? (Note: Two lunches are different if they differ in any aspect). a. 22 b. 280 c. 336 d. 560 e. 672

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Section 2 Information Level Test (ILT) Part I

Instructions: 1 mark for right answer, penalty of one mark (1) for wrong answer. Encircle the right choice from the multiple choices. 1. If cheetah (leopard) is the fastest animal on four legs, which is the fastest creature on two legs? a. Pengiun b. Ostich c. Humming d. Kangaroo

2. 3. 4.

Which element, after Oxygen, is most abundant earths crust? a. Nickel b. Aluminium c. Iron Which is the largest constellation in the galaxy? a. Hydra b. Andromeda Which of the following is not correctly matched? a. First plan --- 1951-1956 c. Eighth Plan--- 1992 1997 c. Akash Ganga b. Seventh Plan ---1985-1990 d. Ninth Plan---1992-1997

d. Silicon d. Great Bear

5.

The man pollutants emitted from the exhaust of a Petrol engine are i) Carbon monoxide ii) Nitrogen monoxide iii) Unburnt hydrocarbons a. i, ii and iii b. I and iii only c. I only d. I and ii only

6.

A blue chip company denotes a. Producing computer hardware b. Manufacturing designer jewellery c. With high return high capital appreciation and low risk d. Which produces goods primarily for exports Uranium-238 is a. Enriched Uranium b. Natural Uranium c. Atom Bomb c Cricket d. Useless Uranium d. Tennis

7. 8. 9.

Chinaman is a term which is used in sport a. Golf b. Badminton

What is Biopsy? a. Painless method of diagnosing disease b. Separation of dissolved substance using semi-permeable members c. Method to correct the inherited disorder d. Procedure of obtaining tissues from affected parts Who is called as Frontier Gandhi. a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Abul Kalam Azad Liquid Oxygen is used as a. Nitrogenous fertilizer c. Bleaching agent c. Lala Lajpat Rai b. Dehydrating agent d. Rocket fuel d. Calcutta d. Abdul Gaffar Khan

10. 11.

12. 13.

Where did the so called Block hole tragedy (20 June 1756) take place? a. Murshidabad b. Dacca c. Monghyr Dual economy means existence of a. Public and Private sector c. Modernity and tradition b. MNCs from two countries d. Efficiency and corruption

14. 15.

The demand for Pakistan was raised for the first time during the viceroyalty of a. Lord Wavell b. Lord Linlithgo c. Lord Reading The abbreviation of DRDO refers to a. Department of Rural Development Organisation b. Defence Records and Data Organisation c. Department for Reasearch and Development in Oceanography d. Defence Reasearcg and Development Organisation

d. Lord Curzon

16.

As per the Constitution of India, a citizen of India should not be less than _____ of age of become the President of India a. 30 years b. 35 years c. 40 years d. 45 years Which is the National Apex body for assessment, monitoring and control of water and air pollution? a. Ministry of Environment b. Ministry of Science and Technology

17.

c. Central Pollution and Control Board 18. 19. Palk Strait intervenes India and a. Pakistan b. Mynamar

d. Supreme Court c. Sri Lanka d. Maldives d. Bahadur Shah II

Which Mughal Emperor paid for his own tomb by doing religious calligraphy? a. Aurangazeb b. Sahjahan c. Akbar

Part II
Instructions: Write on and about the following, each in three lines. Writing more may be penalized. Each question has two marks. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. Franchise. SAARC.. Euro... NHRC V. S. Naipaul Economic Recession. Anthrax. AlQaida. Demarche Letter of credit Double barrel quotation Bicameral legislature. Inquest.

Section 3 Linquistic Competence Test (LCT) Part I

Instructions: Read the passage carefully and encircle the correct choice from the multiple choices to specific questions given below. 2 mark for each correct answer. Life our political society, the university is under severer attack today and perhaps for the same reason namely, that we had accomplished much of what we have set out to do in this generation, that we have done so imperfectly and while we, have been doing so, we have said a lot of things that simply are not true. For example we had earnestly declared that full equality of opportunity in universities exists for everyone regardless of economic circumstance, race or religion. This has never been true. When it was least true, the assertion was not attacked. Now, that it is nearly true, not only the assertion but also the university itself is locked in mortal combat with the seekers of perfection. In another sense, the university has failed. It has stored great quantities of knowledge; it leaches more people; and despite its failures, it teaches them better. It is in the application of this knowledge that the failure has come. On the great branches of knowledge the Science, Social Science and humanities the sciences are applied sometimes almost as soon as they are learned. Strenuous and occasionally successful efforts are made to apply the social sciences, but almost never are the humanities well applied. We do not use Philosophy in defining our conduct. We do not use literature as the source of real and vicarious experience to save us the trouble of living every life again on our own.

The great tasks of the university in the next generation are to search the past to form the future to begin an earnest search for a new and relevant set values and to learn use the knowledge; we have the questions that come before us. The university should use one-fourth of a students time in his undergraduate years and organize it into course, which might be called history, and literature and philosophy and anything else appropriate and organized around these primary problems. The difference between a primary problem and a secondary or even a tertiary problem is that primary problems tend to be around for a long time, whereas the less important ones get solved. One primary problem is that of interfering with what some call human destiny and others call biological development, which is party the result of genetic circumstance and party the result of accidental environmental able to interfere chemically with the actual development often individual and perhaps biologically with his genes. Obviously, there are benefits both to individuals and to society from eliminating, or at least improving, mentally and physically deformed persons. On the other hand, there could be very serious consequences if this knowledge were used with the premeditation to produce superior and subordinate classes; each genetically prepared to carry out a predetermined mission. This can be done, but what happens to free will and the rights of the individual? Here we have a primary problem that will still exist when we are all dead. Of course, the traditional faculty members would say but the students wont learn enough to move to a higher class of learning, And certainly they would not learn anything we are in the habit of making them learn but they would learn some other things. Surely, in the other three quarts of their time, they would learn what they would usually do, and that might even learn to thing about it by carrying new habits into their more conventional courses. The advantages would be overwhelmingly greater than the disadvantages. After all, the purpose of education is not only to impart knowledge but to teach students to use the knowledge that they either have or will find to teach them to ask and seek answers for important questions. 1. The author suggest that the university greatest shortcoming is its failure to a. Attempt to provide the equal opportunity for all. b. Offer courses in philosophy and the humanities c. Prepare students adequately for professional studies. d. Help the students see the relevance of the humanities to real problems. e. Require students to include in their curriculum liberal arts courses. It can be inferred that the author presupposes that the reader will regard a course in. Literature as a course a. With little or no practical value b. Of interest only to academic scholars. c. Required by most universities for graduation d. Uniquely relevant to todays primary problems e. Uses to teach student good writing skills. Which of the following questions does the author answer in the passage? a. What are some of the secondary problems faced by the past generation? b. How can we improve the performance of our political society? c. Has any particular educational institution tried the proposal introduced by the author? d. What is the possible objection to the proposal offered in the passage? e. Why is the university of today is a better imparter of knowledge than the university of past? With which of the following statement about the use of scientific techniques to change an individuals genetic makeup would the author least likely agree? a. Society has no right to use such techniques without the consent of the individual. b. Such techniques can have a positive benefit for the individual in some cases. c. Use of such techniques may be appropriate even though society, but not the individual benefits. d. The question of the use of such techniques must be placed in a philosophical as well as a scientific context. e. The answers to questions about the use of such techniques will have important implications for the structure of our society The primary purpose of the passage to a. Discuss a problem and propose a solution b. Analyse a system and defend it. c. Present both sides of an issue and allow the reader to draw a conclusion. d. Outline a new idea and criticize it. e. Raise several questions and provide answers to them. The development discussed in the passage is primarily a problem of

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a. Political philosophy c. Scientific philosophy e. Practical politics

b. Educational philosophy d. Practical science

Part II
Instructions: Write ten lines on the following theme. You may be penalised for writing more. 5 marks for maximum reward. Where there is no vision, people perish . Part III Instructions: 1 mark for correct choice and penalty of one mark for wrong choice. Unit 1: Encircle the correct choice. 1. THE NUMBER OF ADULTS IN THE UNITED STATES WHO ARE ILLITERATE IS RISING. BUT IT IS PROBABLY ONLY TEMPORARY. a. The number of adults in the United States who are illiterate is rising, but it is probably only temporary. b. The number of adults in the United States who are illiterate is rising, but is only temporary. c. The number of adults in the United States who are illiterate is rising, but it is temporary. d. The number of adults in the United States who are illiterate is rising, but the increase is probably a temporary one. ALTHOUGH MOST PHYSICIANS AGREE THAT EXERCISE IS NECESSARY FOR PHYSICAL AND MENTAL WELL BEING THEY CAUTION AGAINST DOING TOO MUCH TOO SOON. a. They caution against doing too much too soon. b. They too soon caution against doing too much. c. But cautioning against doing too much too soon. d. Yet caution against doing too much too soon. HURTLING TRHOUGH SOPACE DAISY SAW A SHOOTING STAR AND WAS TANSFIXED BY THE RARE BEAUTY OF THIS SIGHT. a. Hurtling though space, Daisy saw a shooting and was transfixed by the rare beauty of this sight b. Daisy saw a shooting star and was transfixed by the rare beauty of this sight hurtling through the space. c. Daisy saw a shooting star hurtling through the space and was transfixed by the rare beauty of this sight. d. Daisy saw, hurtling though the space a shooting star and was fixed by the rare beauty of this sight. TITETAN RUGS ARE SO EXPENSIVE BECAUSE THE WEAVER STILL PURSUES HIS ART AS THEY HAVE FOR CENTURIES, BY HAND DYENING ALL THIR WOOL AND THEN KNOTTING EACH THREAD INDIVIDUALLY TO ACHIEVE A UNIQUE PATTERN FOR EVERY PIECE. a. The weaver still pursues his art as they have. b. The weaver still pursues his art as he has. c. Weaver still pursues their art as they have. d. Weaver still pursues their art as was done. JUST AS WILLIAM SAKESPEAR WAS THE PRE-EMINENT POET OF ENGLAND, SO ROBERT FROST WAS THE PRE-EMINENT POET OF THE UNITED STATES. a. Just as William Shakespeare was the pre-eminent of England, so Robert Frost. b. Just like William Shakespeare was the pre-eminent poet of England so Robert Frost. c. As William Shakespeare was the pre-eminent poet of England, Robert Frost. d. Just as Englands pre-eminent poet was William Shakespeare, Robert Frost.

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Unit 2: Encircle the correct meaning 6. ATAVISM

a. Resemblance to remove ancestors. c. The science of prolonging human life 7. CANT a. Singing through the nose: c. Begging a penny whistle. PANACEA a. Laudatory discourse. c. Nature worship

B. Ancestor worship d. The science of the soul. b. Temporary catchword. D. Name of a place b. Universal remedy. d. A positive assertion

8.

Unit 3: Fill in the blank 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. London is on _____Thame. _____writer in Mathew Arnold, killed the poet The letter was written _____blue ink. He has disposed _____ his property. The Truck collided _____ a tree. She has taken _____ her mother. The police rounded _____ all the bad characters of the locality.

Part IV
Instructions: 1 1 mark for correct answer and penalty of one mark for wrong answer. Find out the good word to replace the italicized par of the speech 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. He is the one who adapts himself according to the circumstances putting an expediency before principlepolitical time server. The plant is having a tendency to grow downwards. He is suffering from an irresistible urge to steal. He is usually rejecting all belief in religion or morals. He was given a blank paper to write his won terms on. He is a believer in the creed of fellowship and fellow sympathy and compassion in life.

Section 4 Reasoning Ability Test (RAT)

Part I
Instructions: 2 marks for correct choice and penalty of 1 mark for wrong choice. Read the statement, the question following and encircle the right answer. 1. Statement: We are not expected to carry the memory of our misdeeds forever. Many adults still bear the burden of unwanted memories of childhood and adolescence. These memories often steal more time and energy than that are worth. Some are illusory, others are insignificant and sometime they weigh heavily on the mind simply because we never got the facts straight when we drag up bad memories and take a good look at them, they often turn out to be exaggerated and can be laid at rest.

Question: Which of the following is definitely true and follows from the statement of facts given above? a. Memories of some misdeeds of childhood make many adults feel guilty. b. Few people make attempts to have an objective examination of the so-called misdeeds of their childhood or adolescence. c. Almost every adult spends more time and energy of the memories of misdeeds done in an earlier part of the life. d. Children are severely punished for their misdeeds. 2. Statement: Capital Punishment has been called murder by the state by many. The plea for abolition of capital punishment dates back at least to the early period of this century by enlightened liberals. Human Society continues to be considerably violent but the State cannot afford to do so. Police firing on unarmed crowds is a more gruesome from of murder by the State. Question: Which of the following is definitely false, contradicts the given facts a. b. c. d. 3. Capital punishment is nothing but murder by the State. Capital Punishment has not succeeded as a deterrent. Persona who murder should not be punished. Hanging is illegal and unsocial.

Statement: A report says- the number of bus accidents is more than that of car accident. The number of car accident is less than the number of truck accident; the number of truck accident is less than the number of bus accident. Question: Which of the following conclusion do you draw from report. a. b. c. d. There are more buses on roads There are more trucks on roads Truck drivers are very careless. None of these

4.

Statement: The content of water is greater than fats, the plasma is more than proteins, and proteins are more than plasma. Question: Which constitutes the major portion of human body? a. Fats b. Water c. Plasma d. Proteins

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Statement: During one year the sales of a cooperative milk society are Rs. 41,000/-. During the succeeding year, the sales increased to Rs. 52,000/-. It is claimed that there is a 50% increase in the saleable proceeds of the milk handled by it. Question: If we are to arrive at a conclusion to know whether there has been any improvement in its functioning what we must enquire? a. The quality of milk maintained b. Price stability is maintained c. Expenditure is increased. d. Expenditure is decreased. Statement: Only Gentlemen can become members of the club. Many of the members of the club are officers. Some of the officers have been invited for dinner. Questions: Based on the above statement, which one is the correct conclusion drawn: a. b. c. d. All the members of the club have been invited for dinner. Some of the offices are not gentleman All gentleman are members of the club. Only gentleman have been invited for dinner.

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Statement: Artists are generally whimsical. Some of them are frustrated. Frustrated people are prone to be drug addicts. Question: Based on this statement, which of the conclusion is true?

a. b. c. d. 8.

All frustrated people are drug addicts. Some artists may be drug addicts All drug addicts are artists. Frustrated people are whimsical.

Statement: My father and my four brothers took up law practice and become bald within five years. My uncle took up medicine and he is not bald. I do not want to become bald. So I will take up medicine. Question: Which of the following statement is based on the same logic? a. Everything who has money buys a car. I do not have money. So I will not buy a car. b. My colleagues in the office who see films on TV in their houses were injured. I do not want to be injured. So I will not watch film in the theatre. c. Everybody who does not read becomes ignorant. So I will read. d. Seeing different colours in different dimensions on the video will harm my eyesight. So I have decided to wear special glasses while watching video.

9.

Statement: The problem of educated unemployment is closely related to the education pattern prevailing in the country. Our educational system produces unemployable young men and women. Question: Which statement contradicts the above facts? a. b. c. d. Our educational pattern is faulty. Unemployment has no relation with education with educational system. Educational system should be job-oriented. Young men and women are educated and prepared for definite jobs. 10. Statement: A thief steals a case and five persons witness that they have seen him stealing. The thief says that he will bring fifty persons who will say that they have not seen him stealing. Question: a. The thief cannot be believed without proper witness. b. The witness given by fifty persons is invalid, as they have not seen him stealing. c. The witness given by five persons must be believed as they have a given the witness first. d. Witness given by fifty persons is more correct as they are more in number.

11.

Statement: In a school out of all the members 30 are males. Some of the female teachers can sing. While no male can sing, the Principal invited six persona to a party by drawing lots. It was found that no member in the party could sing. Question: Which of the following conclusions can be definitely drawn? Which is the only possibility definitely drawn from given statement? a. b. c. d. Some of the invitees were male and some were female who could not sing. Only males were invited to the party. Only females who could not sing were invited to the party. None of the above

12.

Statement: Females are inferior to males, said Aristotle. Actually it is not true. The true statement would be that females are different from males. More research is required this regard. Question: What conclusion can be drawn from above lines? a. b. c. d. Females may be inferior to males. Aristotle was a male chauvinist. Nothing can be said about the superiority of males unless research is done. Research is required to clearly tell the difference between males and females.

Part II

Instruction: Below are given passages followed by several possible inference, which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. Examine each inference separately and decide upon the degree of truth or falsity. Encircle (A) if the inference is definitely true i.e., if properly follows from the statement of facts given; (B) if the inference is probably true, though not definitely true in the light of the facts given; (C) if the data is inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false; (D) if the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given; and (E) if the inference is definitely false i.e., it contradicts the given facts. For correct choice 2 marks, penalty of 1 mark for wrong choice. Read the Passage: A leading economist suggest that only those projects should be included in a five year plan for which the detailed project reports are ready instead of proliferation of III-defined projects shoes cost is deliberately under-estimated by vested interests lobbying for as many per schemes as possible, which is a deficiency of the planning process. 1. First Inference: Project costs are properly estimated are certainly well planned projects. a. b. c. d. e. Second Inference: To set the planning process in motion, it is necessary to have more and more projects included in five year plans, regardless whether they are well defined or otherwise. a. b. c. d. e. Third Inference: Inclusion of well-defined projects in a five-year plan ensues scientific planning. a. b. c. d. e. Fourth Inference: Under estimation of cost of ill planned projects is a result of selfish motive. a. b. c. d. e. Read the Passage- Those involved in setting up multi-crore alumina complex in the tribal region must make every effort to see that the unskilled jobs go to local people. In the past, the tribal have not derived sufficient benefit from industrial units though they have to surrender their lands for them. At times they also have not been adequately compensated for giving it up. 5. First inference: Wherever tribal surrender their land for setting up heavy industries, they were not adequately paid. a. b. c. d. e. Second inference: Taking the past experience into account, it is feared that t he tribal may not get the unskilled jobs in the new alumina projects. a. b. c. d. e. Third inference: Those who suffer because of setting up of new industrial unit should get preferential treatment when it comes to giving jobs in the industrial unit to be set up. a. b. c. d. e. Fourth inference: Tribal can do only unskilled jobs. a. b. d. e. c.

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Section 5 Legal Aptitude Test (LAT) Part I

Instruction: One or more principles are given, applying which solve the problem. Right conclusion with appropriate reasons shall be awarded with (1 + 2) i.e., 3 marks. Right conclusions with no reasoning shall be awarded (1/2 + 2) i.e., 3 marks. Right conclusion wrong reasoning will be awarded (1/2 1) or 1/2 mark.

Wrong conclusions but right reasoning will be awarded (1/2 + 1) or a mark. No conclusion but right reasoning would be awarded (0+1) or 1 mark. Wrong conclusion and wrong reasoning would be awarded ( + 1) or 1 mark.

1.

Principle: Without lawful authority, if a person is restricted from moving in a direction in which he is entitled to move, it move, it amounts to an offence of wrongful restraint. Problem: In view of the religious procession scheduled to taken through the streets of the city, police erected barricades on the mail road and prevent the traffic movement. Consequently, A who had to reach the airport couldnt reach in time. Conclusion Reason:..

2.

Principle: If a person authorized another to act on his behalf, for all the acts done under such authority, the former is liable. Problem: A instructs his driver B to drive his vehicle from the office back to home. He is also instructed not to carry any unauthorized person in the car. B one day while driving empty car back to home picks hp his friend, who stays are short distance from the home. In the course of driving the car to that extra distance he collides with the vehicle of C. Is A liable to Compensate to Cs loss? Conclusion Reason:..

3.

Principle: Unless there is damage to a right recognized in law, there is no legal remedy. Problem: A goes to cost his vote in the elections. B the returning officer denies him the chance under the mistaken impression that his name is not included in the list of voters. However, the candidate to whom A thinks of casting the vote looses by a large majority. Has A any remedy? Conclusion. Reason:..

4.

Principle: Every partner in a partnership firm is liable for the ct of every other partner during the course of business of the partnership firm. Problem: A a partner in the firm XYZ with another partner B takes loan from a bank for the partnership firm. A misuses the fund for his personal use. B is a very resourceful person. Can the Bank demand the entire money from B? Conclusion. Reason:..

5.

Principle: For all acts done by a agent on behalf of the principal, the later is liable. Problem: A left his car in the yard of B without payment. The storage was intended too be for a short time. The car remained there for several months. After unsuccessful efforts to communicate with A, B repaired the car and sold to Z. Can A claim the car? Conclusion. Reason:..

6.

Principle: A minor is not liable to anybody on any agreement.

Problem: A a minor agreed with B to become a tenant of the house and pay Rs. 1,000 for the furniture therein. He paid Rs. 500 in cash and gave a promissory note for the balance. The minor occupied the premises and used the furniture for sometime but refused to pay the remaining balance. Can B initiate proceedings in order to collect the remaining balance? Conclusion. Reason:.. 7. Principle: If any person makes false statement and causes loss of reputation of another, he is liable for defamation. Problem: A was in service of B and sought employment under C. C wrote a letter to B asking his opinion about the character of A. In reply, B wrote to C stating that A is untrustworthy and inefficient. Can A proceed against B on defamation? Conclusion. Reason:.. 8. Principle: No one has the right to utilize or convert anthers property. If a person dishonestly misuses or converts anothers property for his/her own use, he/she is liable for punishment. Problem: A finds a ring on the road belonging to B. A picks up the ring and sells it to C. Is A guilty? Conclusion. Reason:.. 9. Principle: A persons who knowingly accepts the consequences or suffers harm subsequently cannot seek any legal remedy. Problem: A was employed in the stone quarry of X. A worked for three months with full knowledge of the fact that he was exposed to danger by reason of the practice in swinging, stones over the quarrymens heads by means of crane. Buy the fail or a stone A was injured. Can A proceed against X and seek any remedy? Conclusion. Reason:.. 10. Principle: Every person arrested by police shall be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours of the arrest. Problem: P was arrested by the police on suspicion of his involvement in the commission of a murder on Saturday at 4 p.m. He was produced before the magistrate on Monday at 11 a.m. Can P sue the police? Conclusion. Reason:..

Part II
Instruction: A problem is given without providing principle. You have to decide and give probable principle. Marking system is as given in the previous part. 11. Problem: A purchases from B a car on the statement of the seller that the car can run 15 k.m. per litre of petrol. It is found that the car cannot run more that 13 k.m. A wants to return the car and get back the money. Decision.

Principle:.

12.

Problem: R stores water in a big tank in his field for agricultural purposes. Due to heavy rains the tank overflows and causes extensive damage to the standing crops of neighbouring farmers. Decision. Principle:.

13.

Problem: A shopkeeper sold a bottle of sealed soft drink to Mr. A. The bottle contained contaminated soft drink. A suffered illness after consuming the soft drink. The shopkeeper pleads that he is not responsible. The manufacturer argues that the bottle was not purchased by A from them. So manufacturer was not liable to a. Has A any remedy, if against whom? Decision. Principle:.

14.

Problem: The speed limit drive in a road is given in the road signs showing 65 k.m. per hour. X drives his car on that road at 70 k.n. per hour. He argues that he drives safe and there is no injury or inconvenience to any body. Can he be fined by the traffic police? Decision. Principle:.

15.

Problem: There is a warehouse in a factory. The owner suffers pilferage very night. On the advise of the experts, a very high compound wall with 10 feet height is constructed with 4 feet bugged wire over the wall on iron angles. The bugged wire is charged with electric current every night after 10 p.m. One day. Y a thief tried to enter into the compound and is hit by the current and fell on the roadside, dead. Is the owner of the factory responsible? Decision. Principle:.

2003
Roll No. of the Candidate:

National Law University, Jodhpur, UG Admission Test Paper 2003 Instructions

1. 2. 3. Read the instructions carefully. ENTER THE ROLL NO. ON THE COVER PAGE AND ON PAGE 3. AT THE APPROPRIATE PLACE. The paper contains adequate space for answering all questions. Therefore you do not require any extra papers. Blank pages at the back are kept for rough work, which must remain with the book and should not be detached. As soon as the first bell rings, start writing your roll numbers at all indicated pages. Ensure that all the pages in the question paper are legibly printed. There are 36 pages including the front and back cover.

4.

The question paper is divided into five sections. Section I on Linguistic Competence Test (LCT) has Six parts. Part I has 10 questions, Part I has 10 questions, Part II has 1 question, Part III has 1 question and Part IV, V and VI have 5 questions each. Section II on Mathematical Aptitude Test (MAT) has one Part with 20 questions. Section III on Information Level Test (ILT) has two parts Part I has 15 questions and Part 2 has 20 questions; Section IV on Reasoning Ability Test (RAT) has 15 questions. Section V, the last section on Legal Aptitude Test (LAT) has 15 questions. Totally the question paper has 112 questions carrying 200 marks to be answered in 120 minutes. You do not require calculator, mobile phone or any other electronic equipment. Nothing shall be allowed in the Examination Room except a pen, pencil and a rubber. In case of any malpractice or attempt to malpractice, which would include talking to neighbours, copying or attempting to copy, the centre in-charge shall seize the paper and turn the candidate out of examination centre and send a detailed report to the University. Signature Centre in-charge National Entrance Test (NET 2003)

5. 6. 7.

Roll No. of the Candidate

National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test (NET 2003) Mark-Sheet

Section

Part

No. of Questions 20 15 20 10 1 1 5 5 5 15 15 112

MAT ILT LCT

RAT LAT Total

Pt. 1 Pt. 2 Pt. 1 Pt. 2 Pt. 3 Pt. 4 Pt. 5 Pt. 6 Pt. 1 Pt. 1

Max. Marks per Question 2 2 1 1 10 10 2 1 1 2 2

Total Marks 40 30 20 10 10 10 10 5 5 30 30 200

Section Total

Marks Awarded

Faculty Co-ordinator National Entrance Test 2003

Section I Linguistic Competence Test

Part I
Encircle the correct choice. (One mark for correct answer and one negative mark for wrong answer). 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Her father arrives home ____ six oclock. a. At b. On We are going to visit the cottage ____ Sunday. a. On b. At c. In c. In d. During d. During d. At d. On d. Over d. To d. To d. On d. Up d. In

She got married ____ the year after her graduation. a. On b. During c. In ____ night, Bangalore is a dazzling city. a. At b. By We sat ____ grass (To understand volume). a. On b. In Injured girl had a bad cut ____ the left leg. a. On b. Over Huge waves are crashing ____ the rocks below. a. Over b. At The thief snatched her handbag and ran____. a. Away b. Off The terrorist below ____ dam. a. Of b. Off The celebrations results ____ a serious riot. a. To b. At c. During c. At c. At c. On c. Out c. Out c. From

Part II
Write a precise of the following passage with a suitable title in about one-third of the size of the passage: (10 Marks allotted to Appropriate title 2 marks, Correct compostion 3 marks, Correct thematic presentation 5 marks) Prof. Irving Younger of the Cornell University suggested that our judges should evolve the doctrine that no law-is validly enacted unless legislators voting for it have read it. By this test 95 per cent of the law passed by the Indian Parliament and the State legislatures would have to be invalidated. The national conscience has to be aroused to such a degree that it will cease to tolerate falsehood and dishonesty in public life. Standards of ethics and decency in public life are less easy to enforce by law than by public opinion. Obedience to values which is enforced not by the machinery of clean public life. What India today badly needs, and sadly lacks, is not political leadership but moral leadership, which can lead to a renaissance of true Indian culture. Many young people have been saying that they could run the country much better than the old politicians who have immatured with age. It is difficult to believe that we are living in the same country, which produced the galaxy of talent and character at the time when we gained our independence. It is vicious circle. Men of talent and integrity will not enter public life because of the fifth and the stench; and yet public life cannot be cleansed unless men of talent and integrity enter it. I have great hopes in our young men and women. To the youth of this country I would like to make an earnest appeal to enter public life and would commend for their consideration three maxims:

You must not desert the ship because you cannot control the winds. It is better to try to do something and fail, rather than try to do nothing and succeed. For the rebirth of morality in Indian politics, the period of gestation will prove lengthy and the delivery promises to be painful, but you cannot dedicate your life to a greater cause.

If experts imbued with a spirit of dedication and wisdom were to be inducted into the cabinet and were to be allowed the requisite freedom of action, they could transform this country into one of the great economic powers. Disraeli said, Money is not the measure of a men, but it is often the means of finding out how small he is. By this measure, our politicians must be among the smallest on earth. Our political scene presents an incredible army of pudding-headed mercenaries. We must somehow replace them by men of honour and knowledge. (433 words)

Part III
Write a story based on the following tips in not more than 15 lines. (Writing more than 15 lines will invite negative marking): A. B. C. D. E. F. Two friends, a fox and a crocodile. Crocodile keen to educate its seven children. The cunning Fox pleaded having a school in the Foxs hole. Seven children of the crocodile given to Fox for education. Crocodile visiting daily at the mouth of Foxs hole to see the children. Cunning fox eats them one by one.

Part IV
Read the following passage and answer the questions thereafter in a sentence: (Correct answer will carry two marks and a wrong answer will invite one negative mark. mark will be deducted for wrong composition in an otherwise correct answer). Next, should each of the Law Lords write a separate opinion of his own? Or should there be only one judgment in which all agree? Up to Lord Reids death in 1975 the great majority of the Law Lords were in favour of separate judgments, each writing his own. Lord Reid said that he found that when the Law Lords gave only one judgment there was a tendency for the lower courts to approach that judgment as if it were an Act of Parliament. He said that, in one case, it led to an absolute disaster. But since 1975 the pendulum has been swinging strongly against separate judgments. It has gathered momentum in the last two or three years. Time after time, in cases of the first importance, there has only been one judgment. Time after time the lower courts have felt bound by that one judgment and by all the sayings in that judgment. They are called obiter dicta. They are really sayings just by the way, as if an aside. Yet they are treated as binding. I do not think that is right. Should the Law Lords seek to do justice? Or should they prefer certainty? In the 1950s, under the influence of Lord Simonds, the law was static. But under Lord Reid it became moderately progressive. Nowadays the Law Lords have varying views. Some are for certainty rather than justice. Some are for progress rather than standing still. I have made my own view clear time our of mind. I would always strive to do justice. Certainty, I regard, often, as will-o-the-wisp. The judgments of the Law Lords are still called speeches. This is because the Lord used always to sit in the Legislative Chamber of the House of Lords. The Law Lords, in giving, their opinions, gave them as if they were in a debate. In coming to a decision, the motion was put to the House just as after a debate. For instance: That the decision of the Court of Appeal to affirmed. Those in favor say Aye. Those against say Nay. They Ayes have it, sometime. But at other times the decision is reversed. Nowadays the judgments are never speeches. The House sits in a Committee Room, not in the Legislative Chamber. That is to hear the arguments. But when they given their judgments, they sit in the Chamber itself. Instead of being speeches, they are essays. They are never delivered by word of mouth. They are only handed out to the parties. They are sometimes so complicated that they cannot be readily understood on a first reading. They have to be studied and analyzed word-by-word. All this inevitably leads to long sentences. Every statement of principle has to be qualified by exceptions of some kind or other. Then practitioners and academics pore over them to approve - to comment or to criticize. Always of course with respect. That is the catchword with which the Law Lords on occasion reverse the court below. They differ with respect sometimes with great respect, occasionally with the utmost possible respect. It is just a polite way of saying that they wholeheartedly disagree.

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Why judgments of the Law Lords were called speeches? ________________________________________________________________________________________ Why the author stated, instead of being speeches, they are essays? _________________________________________________________________________________________ Why Lord Reid in one case thought Law Lords writing separate opinion led to an absolute disaster? _________________________________________________________________________________________ What are obiter dicta? ________________________________________________________________________________________ Why was law static in 1950s? _________________________________________________________________________________________

Part V
In order to combine the two sentences given, some suggestions as to start with (starter) is given in A, B and C. Encircle the appropriate answer specified thereafter. Correct answer will carry one mark and wrong answer will invite one negative mark 1. Do you need two tickets! Please stand in the queue. Starter: (A) If you need.. (B) In case you need (C) Should you need. Answer a. Only A & B b. Only B & C c. Only A & C e. None of the above.

d. All the three

2.

Quality of the fabric was not impressing. We changed our plan of purchasing. Starter: (A) Quality of fabric (B) We changed our. (C) In spite of unimpressing Answer a. Only A & B b. Only B & C c. Only C d. Only A e. All the three Madhuri has been consistent in her studies. Her performance in the examination was nothing else but excellent. Starter: (A) Despite being consistent in her studies (B) Madhuris performance in the examination was nothing else excellent because . (C) Because Madhuri was only consistent and not intelligent her performance Answer: a. Only A b. Only B & C c. Only A & C d. All the above e. None of the above He always delays in taking any action. It makes others suffer a lot. Starter: (A) His taking action on time makes (B) Others suffer a lot because of . (C) On account of his procrastination Answer: a. Only B & C b. Only A & B c. Only B & C d. Only A & C e. None of the above How much you speak is less important. What is more important is how relevant you speak. Starter: (A) How relevant you speak is (B) How much you speak is as important (C) How relevant you speak is not as important Answer: a. Only A b. Only B c. Only C d. All the three e. None.

3.

4.

5.

Part VI
Encircle the good word that may approximately replace the word in capital letters without altering the meaning. (each correct answer will carry one mark and wrong answer will invite one negative mark). 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. REMINISCENT of the behavior of our primitive ancestors. a. Agnostic b. Atavistic c. Acerbic HAPPENING by chance a. Abrogate b. Adventitious c. Astringent d. Ambient d. Acquiescence

UNDERMINING a foreign government through subversion by intelligence service. a. Divulge b. Disseminate c. Destabilize d. Diatribe ARGUE tediously about the same point. a. Berate b. Bust EXTREME Brazenness. a. Chutzpah b. Belligerence c. Bandy c. Coquetry d. Belabor d. Churlishness

Section II Mathematical Aptitude Test (MAT)

Instructions: For correct answer 2 marks, for wrong answer shall invite 1 negative mark. Encircle the correct choice from the multiple choices provided to each problem. 1. A can do a piece of work in 25 days. B can do the same work in 20 days. They are together for 5 days and A goes away. In how many days, will B be able to finish the remaining work? a. 17 days b. 11 days c. 10 days d. 13 days A pipe can fill a cistern in sic hours. Due to a leak in the bottom of cistern, it requires seven hours to fill. When the cistern is full, in how many hours will it be empty by the leak? a. 42 hours b. 40 hours c. 43 hours d. 45 hours A train is running at 72 kph. It it crosses a pole in 15 seconds, what shall be the length of the train? a. 210 meter b. 300 meter c. 320 meter d. 250 meter When two trains were running in the same direction at 90 kph. And 70 kph. Respectively, the faster trrain passed a man standing in the door of the slower train in 36 seconds. Find the length of the faster train? a. 100 meter b. 150 meter c. 190 meter d. 200 meter Two natural numbers which differ by 3 and whose square a sum of 117 area. 3 and 9 b. 5 and 4 c. 6 and 9 d. 3 and 7

2.

3. 4.

5. 6. 7.

How many 5 digit multiples of 11 are there, if 5 digits are 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 in same order? a. 12 b. 13 c. 10 d. None If a classroom is 7 meter long, 6.5 meter wide and 4 meter high. It has one door of 3 meter 1.4 meter and three windows, each measuring 2 meter 1 meter. Interior walls are to be color washed, which costs Rs. 5.25 per sq. meter. Cost of color washing of the room isa. Rs. 500.50 b. Rs. 513.50 c. Rs. 510.50 d. Rs. 515.50 The sale price of an article including the sale tax is Rs. 616. The rate of sales tax is 10%. If the shopkeeper has made a profit of 12%, then the cost price of the article isa. 500 b. 515 c. 550 d. 600 After having spent 35% of the money on machinery, 40% on raw material and 10% on staff, a person is left with Rs. 60,000. The total amount of money spent on machinery and raw material isa. 1,76,000 b. 1,70,000 c. 3,00,000 d. 3,40,000

8.

9.

10.

In a science talent examination, 50% of the candidates fail in Mathematics and 50% fail in Physics. 20% fail in both of these subjects. Percentage of candidates who pass in both Mathematics and Physics isa. 0% b. 20% c. 25% c. 50% Ravi sells an article at a gain of 12.5%. If he had sold it at Rs. 22.50 more, he would have gained 25%. Cost price of the Article isa. 162 b. 140 c. 196 d. 180 Qutab Minar casts a shadow of 150 meter long. At the same time, Vikas Minar casts a shadow of 120 meter long on the ground. If the height of Vikas Minar is 80 meter, then the height of Qutab Minar isa. 80 meter b. 100 meter c. 120 meter d. 150 meter If two numbers are in the ratio of 6 : 13 and there LCM is 312, then the sum of the number is a. 75 b. 57 c. 76 d. 67 Two numbers are in the ratio of 2 : 3. If 8 is added to both the numbers, then the ratio becomes 3 : 4. The numbers are a. 15 and 20 b. 16 and 24 c. 13 and 17 d. 17 and 9 Value of (1/42) is a. 2 b. 1/2 c. 1/16 c. (a + b) (a2 ab + b2) d. 16 d. (a b) (a2 + ab + b2)

11.

12.

13. 14.

15. 16. 17.

A3 + B3 can be factorized as a. (a + b) (a2 + ab + b2) b. (a b) (a2 ab + b2)

Three consecutive numbers such that twice the first, three times the second and four times the third together make 182. The numbers in question are a. 18, 19 and 20 b. 19, 20 and 21 c. 20, 21 and 22 d. 21, 22 and 23 A sum of the digits in a two-digit number is 5. If 9 is subtracted from the number, result is the number with the digits reversed. The number is a. 23 b. 32 c. 41 d. 14 If 9 workers can prepare 135 garlands in three hours, then the number of workers needed to prepare 270 garlands in one hour will be a. 27 b. 18 c. 36 d. 54 In a mixture of 45 liters, ratio of milk and water 4 : 1, how much water must be added to make the ration 3 : 2? a. 10 liter b. 15 liter c. 17 liter d. 20 liter

18.

19.

20.

Section III Information Level Test (ILT)

Part I
Explain the following in not more than 15 words. (2 mark each). 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. Quiet diplomacy________________________________________________________________________ Golden Rights__________________________________________________________________________ Doctrine of lapse________________________________________________________________________ Super conductivity_______________________________________________________________________ Straight fertilizers_______________________________________________________________________ MFN________________________________________________________________________________ NTB________________________________________________________________________________ Kurdish Issue___________________________________________________________________________

9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

NPT__________________________________________________________________________________ Simputer_______________________________________________________________________________ Mangroves_____________________________________________________________________________ Aphelil_________________________________________________________________________________ Consolidated Fund_______________________________________________________________________ Call Money_____________________________________________________________________________ Demontage_____________________________________________________________________________

Part II
Instructions: 1 mark for right answer, penalty of one mark (1) for wrong answer. Encircle the right choice from the multiple choices. 1. 2. 3. 4. Lala Rajput Rai suffered fatal injuries during the demonstration against the a. Cripps Mission b. Simmons Commission c. Jalianwalabagh Massacre d. Rowlatt Act Following place does not belong to Iraq: a. Kir kuk b. Mosul c. Al Basra d. Doha d. White

An astronaut traveling in a satellite would find the color of the sky. a. Blue b. Black c. Orange Birth rate means number of children born. a. Per 100 people c. Per 100 of the living population b. Per 100 people d. Per 1000 of the

5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

An island country which is close to Arctic circle, but warned by hot water springs is: a. England b. Iceland c. Ireland d. Madagascar Southern most port of World is: a. Cape of Good Hope b. Cape Horn c. Colombo d. Wellington d. Lord William d. Vitamin C d. November 26, 1950

White Mutiny of the European soldiers in India occurred during the tenure of: a. Lord Mayo b. Lord Dalhousie c. Lord Canning Vitamin that is necessary for normal blood coagulation in animals is: a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin E When was the Constitution of India adopted? a. January 26, 1950 b. January 26, 1949 c. November 26, 1949

Which of the following is the first transgenic or genetically engineered crop in India? a. Bt. Cotton b. C-40 Potato c. IRD 8 Paddy d. T-26 Tea Percentage of fat present in cow milk: a. 15% b. 10.5% c. 6% d. 3.5%

Which of the following is the most responsible factor for bringing about origin of new species? a. Isolation b. Mutation c. Sexual reproduction d. Natural Which of the following is not due to air pollution? a. Global warming c. Smog b. Depletion ozonosphere d. Forming or rainbow.

14.

Which company has launched e-chapels to empower the Indian farmers by setting up internet kiosks in remote villages? a. Airtel b. Tata c. ITC d. LML Which cricketer recently created a record by capturing 500 wickets in one-day cricket? a. Brett Lee b. Chaminda Vaas c. Wasim Akram d. Share Warne Who holds world record for scoring highest runs in test cricket? a. Sunil Gavaskar b. Geoffrey Boycott c. Allan Border Almatti dam has been built across the river: a. Tungabhadra b. Godavari Who is the founder of city of Agra? a. Mohd. Bin Tuglaq b. Allaudin Khilji A cotton fiber is obtained from the a. Stem b. Leaf The warmest sea amongst the following is: a. Tasman sea b. Baltic sea c. Krishna c. Sikander Lodi c. Fruit c. Beaufort sea d. Gary Sobers d. Sharaswati d. Ibrahim Lodi d. Seed d. Red Sea

15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Section IV Reasoning Aptitude Test (RAT)

Instruction: 2 marks for correct choice and penalty of 1 mark for wrong choice. Directions: Below in the given passage followed by several inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage, decide upon the degree of truth or falsehood. Then choose your answer accordingly by encircling the right answer according to you from the alternatives provided. Passage: The caffeine in one mornings coffee or tea may improve the complex reasoning ability of extroverts but has the opposite effect on introverts. More than 700 people were given caffeine equal to no more than three cups of the coffee and then tested on world analogies, sentence completion, and identification of antonyms. The researchers believe that the caffeine was beneficial to the extroverts in the morning because they take longer to wake up. Introvert is more alert in the morning and become over stimulated by the drug, which interferes with the reasoning power. 1. The adverse affect on the reasoning power of introverts is not due to caffeine. This statement is: a. Definitely true b. Probably true c. Either inadequate d. Probably false e. Definitely false Caffeine has great early in the morning. This statement is: a. Definitely true b. Probably true c. Definitely False e. Data Inadequate Extrovert doesnt find caffeine beneficial in the evening. This statement is: a. Data inadequate b. Definitely true c. Probably false e. Probably true. d. Probably false

2.

3.

d. Probably false

4.

Complex reasoning ability is made up of word analogies, sentence completion and identification antonyms. This statement is: a. Probably false b. Definitely False c. Definitely true d. Probably true e. Data Inadequate. Caffeine affects reasoning ability of people to drink tea or coffee. This statement is: a. Probability true b. Definitely true c. Probably false d. Definitely false e. Date Inadequate.

5.

Directions: In the following questions two statements are given followed by two inferences A and B. Assuming the statements are true, determine or encircle your answer. 6. Statements: A. All liquor is water. Inference: A. No liquor is bitter. Judgment: a. Only inference A follows. b. Both inference A and B follow. 7. Statements: A. Some Doctors are fools. Inference: A. Some Doctors are rich. Judgment: a. Only inference A follows. c. Both A and B follow. 8. Statements: A. Some swords are sharp. Inference: A. Some rusty things are sharp. Judgment: a. Only inference A follows. c. Both A and B follow. B. No water is bitter. B. No bitter thing is liquor b. Only inference B follows. d. No inference follows. B. Some fools are rich. B. Some rich are Doctors. b. Only inference B follows. d. Neither A or B follow. B. All swords are rusty. B. Some rusty things are not sharp. b. Only inference B follows. d. Neither nor B follow.

Directions: In each question below there is a statement followed two assumptions A and B. You have to consider the statement and the assumptions and judge which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. 9. Statement: The patients condition would improve after the operation. Assumptions: A. A patient can be operated upon in this condition. B. The patient cannot be operated in this condition. Judgment: a. Only assumption A is implicit. c. Both assumptions A and B are implicit. 10. b. Only assumption B is implicit. d. Neither assumption A nor B is implicit.

Statement: You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation. Assumptions: A. The performance of the individual generally is not known at the time of the appointment. B. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period. Judgment: a. Only assumption A is implicit. c. Both assumptions A and B are implicit. b. Only assumption B is implicit. d. Neither assumption A nor B is implicit.

Directions: In each question below two statements are given with four possible conclusions. You have to judge and encircle which of the conclusions you find logical. 11. Statements: A. The patients who were suffering from malaria were given aspirin. B. All patients who were given aspirin were suffering from typhoid.

Possible conclusions: A. No other medicine was available except aspirin. B. All typhoid patients had malaria. C. The malaria patients had typhoid as well. D. The symptoms of both diseases are the same. Judgment: a. Only assumption A is implicit. c. Both assumptions A and B are implicit. 10. b. Only assumption B is implicit. d. Neither assumption A nor B is implicit.

Statement: You are hereby appointed as a programmer with a probation period of one year and your performance will be reviewed at the end of the period for confirmation. Assumption: A. The performance of the individual generally is not known at the time of the appointment. B. Generally an individual tries to prove his worth in the probation period. Judgment: a. Only assumption A is implicit. c. Both assumptions A and B are implicit. b. Only assumption B is implicit. d. Neither assumption A nor B is implicit.

Directions: In each question below two statements are given with four possible conclusions. You have to judge and encircle which of the conclusions you find logical. 11. Statements: A. The patients who were suffering from malaria were given aspirin B. All patients who were given aspiring were suffering from typhoid. Possible conclusions: A. No other medicine was available except aspirin. B. All typhoid patients had malaria. C. The malaria patients had typhoid as well. D. The symptoms of both diseases are the same. Judgment: a. Only Conclusion A follows. c. Either B or C follows. e. Only C follows. 12. b. Only conclusion B follows. d. Only D follows.

Statements: A. All persons who wear caps are either bald or rheumatic. B. All baldies are business tycoons. Possible conclusions: A. Some business tycoons wear caps. B. All business tycoons suffer from rheumatism. C. Some rheumatic persons are business tycoons. D. No person who wears a cap is rheumatic as well as bald. Judgment: a. Only A and B follow. b. Only B and C follow. e. Only A, B and D follow. c. Only A and C follow. d. Only A and B follow.

Directions: In the following questions a statement or a group of statements is given followed by conclusion. Judge the conclusion, which logically follows from the given statement. 13. Statement/Group of Statements: The Government is soon going to introduce a bill, which would permit instituting private universities under very strict directions.

Conclusions: A. Government gives directions to establish anything in private sector. B. Directions can be issued by the Government without informing the Parliament. C. Demand for more Universities has been stopped up. D. Unless and until the directions are given, the Private universities can charge any face. E. We have some private universities even now. Judgment: a. A and B follow. e. None follow. 14. b. B and C follow. c. A, B and C follow. d. All A, B, C, D follow

Statement/Group of Statements: None but rich can afford air travel. Some of those travel by air become sick. Conclusions: A. All rich persons travel by air. C. All the rich persons become sick. Judgment: a. Only A follows. e. None follows. b. Only B follows. B. Those who travel by air become Sick. D. All those who travel by air are rich. c. Only C follows. d. Only d follows.

Directions: For each of the following statements there are probable two inference given. Judge by encircling the appropriate one, which you think correct. 15. Statement: It is quarter past four by my watch. Inferences: A. My watch is out of order. Judgment: a. Only inference A follows. c. Both the inferences are follow. B. My watch keeps correct time. b. Only inference B follows. d. Neither of the inferences follows.

Section V Legal Aptitude Test (LAT)

I. 1. Give your decision with reasons in the following fact situations. Reasons must not exceed two sentences. Rajni found a mobile phone near her college vehicle-parking stand. She was, in fact contemplating of selling her mobile phone to raise some funds for taking some private tuition. She soon sold the mobile phone, which she found. Ramesh, one of her classmates was the owner of that mobile phone and he argued that Rajni did not have the authority to sell the phone. Rajni however argued that she did the same act, which she would have done in respect of her own mobile phone. Decide. _________________________________________________________________________________________ Kavya came across a beautiful Ganesha idol made of sandalwood in an exhibition. After returning home, she sent and e-mail to the organizers of the exhibition asking them whether they would sell the Ganesha idol and what would be the price for the same. The organizers replied, We would not sell for anything less than Rs. 10,000. Kavya wrote back saying I accept. In the meantime, the organizers sold the same idol for Rs. 12,000/to another person. Kavya demanded the idol or Rupees two thousand, that is, the extra money taken by the organizers. Decide. ________________________________________________________________________________________ A person dropped a coin or Rs. 5 as instructed on a automatic vending machine to get a cup of coffee. But no coffee came out. Do you think that the owner of the machine would be responsible for such coin eaten by the machine? Decide. ________________________________________________________________________________________ Raju saw his uncles car in the village. Thereafter he wrote to his uncle that he would be willing to buy that. Uncle had instructed his selling agent not to sell that car to any one else after receiving the letter from his

2.

3.

4.

nephew. By mistake the car was sold to someone else by his agent. Raju asked the police to recover his car from the purchaser. Decide. _________________________________________________________________________________________ 5. Rama Rao, a merchant from Bangalore was on a tour in Jaisalmer. He came across a shop, which was selling dry fruits. Rao saw some oats, which were good and decide to purchase the same. After returning to Bangalore, he wrote a letter to the shop in Jaisalmer asking them to send one quintal of good oats. After about 15 days, he receives one quintal of oats, but he found them to be very old. He rejected the consignment and asked them for return of the money paid by him. They replied saying that oats would become good only when they were old. But he wanted new oats, which according to him were good. Decide with reasons. _________________________________________________________________________________________ Nandini, agreed with Jodhpur Cultural Society to sing in their society for a period of 10 days. The Society agreed to pay her Rs. 1,000 every day. Nandini performed for 5 days. Thereafter, she went to Jaipur for some other program without informing Jodhpur Cultural Society. Therefore, they cancelled her program for the remaining days. Nandini claimed her remuneration for the five days during which time she sang at the Society. Society did not pay suggesting they had to face problems and sustained loss for canceling her program. They want to pay damage. Decide. _________________________________________________________________________________________ B was driving his car at 90 kmph. In the suburban areas of city of Pune. He saw an aged villager crossing the road without looking to any side slowly with his bull. B blew the horn. The villager got startled and failed to move. B applied double brake but could not help knocking the villager. What wrong, if any B has committed?

6.

7.

8. Vishal, a famous artist was requested by Arun, an industrialist to draw the portrait of his deceased wife and paid Rs. 20,000 in advance and agreed to pay when the work was completed, as sum of Rs. 2 lakhs. When the portrait was half dranw, Vishal died due to heart attack. His son also a fine artist completed his fathers work and demanded the money from Arun. Arun refused to pay and to accept the portrait drawn by Vishals son and also demanded the advance to be returned.

9.

Ramesh was the owner of a motorcar. He lent his car to his brother-in-law, Vimal for driving for a few days. Vimals neighbour, Maish, a big industrialist saw the car and liked it and immediately offered Vimal a good amount against the car. Vimal sold the car to Manish against Rs. 5 lakhs. Ramesh wanted the car back. _________________________________________________________________________________________ Shankar and Sohail jointly promised to pay Rs. 5,000 to a gardener for the work he did in their resorts. Gardener demanded money only from Sohail. But Sohail argued that since both of them had jointly promised, gardener must demand money from both or more. _________________________________________________________________________________________ Arun, an industrialist had a warehouse fenced by six concrete wall. But still there were occasions of regular pilferages. His watch and warn.

10.

11.

2004
Roll No. of the candidate:

National Law University, Jodhpur Admission Test Paper, 2004 Instructions

1. 2.

Read the instructions carefully. The questions in this paper are arranged in two books, Book No. 1 contains two sections. Question no. 1-48 in Section 1 and question no. 49-84 is in Section 2. This book is required to be answered in the computer assessment sheet. Book No. 2 contains three sections. Questions no. 85-94 in Section 1, question no. 95 is Section 2 and question no. 96-115 in Section 3. Responses to questions in Book 1 are to be answered in the computer assessment sheet with dark lead pencil. Warning: Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet cannot be assessed. Book 2 contains adequate space for answering all the questions. Therefore you do not require any extra paper. Blank pages at the back are kept for rough work, which must remain with the book and should not be detached. As soon as the first bell rings, start with writing you roll numbers on the cover page, page no. 3 and the computer assessment sheet. Please ensure that all the pages in the question paper are legibly printed. There are 32 pages including the front and back cover. You are not to keep anything in your possession except writing instruments like a pen, dark lead pencil. You can however keep on eraser and a sharpener. Calculator, cell phones or any other electronic equipment are not allowed inside the examination hall. In case of any malpractice or attempt to malpractice, which would include talking to neighbors, copying or attempting to copy, the center in-charge shall seize the paper and expel the candidate and send a detailed report to the University along with the seized paper in a separate packet Signature Center in-charge National Entrance Test (NET)

3. 4. 5.

6.

7.

Roll No. of the Candidates:

National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test (NET), 2004 Mark-Sheet
Book 1 Section 1 Section 2 Book 2 Section 1 Section 2 Section 3 Total No. of Questio ns 48 36 10 1 20 115 Correct Respon ses @ 2 Marks @ 1 Marks @ 2 Marks @ 8 Marks @ 2 Marks 200 Total Incorrect Respon se @ 1 Marks @1 Marks Total Negative Net Total

Chairman National Entrance Test Committee

Book 1 Section 1
Instructions: Correct answer to Questions no. 1 to 48 will carry 2 marks each and for wrong answer there shall be a penalty of 1 mark each. Fill up the appropriate circle against the number of the question with dark lead pencil on the computer assessment sheet. 1. The railway platform of Kanpur is 131 meters long. In how many seconds is it cleared by Kalka Mail having 69 meters length and traveling at the speed of 45 k.m. per hour? a. 20 seconds b. 16 seconds c. 12 seconds d. none The total cost price of two items is Rs. 10,200/- and their selling prices are equal. If one of the items is sold at a loss of 12% and another is sold at a loss of 18%, what is the copst price of the item, which is sold at a loss of 18%? a. Rs. 4,920 b. Rs. 5,820 c. 5,280 d. None Two straight rods PA and QB revolve about the point P and Q. The rod PA makes 12 complete revolutions in 1 minute while the rod QB makes 10 complete revolutions in 1 minute. If they start parallel pointing the same way, after what interval they would be again parallel and pointing the same way? a. 10 seconds b. 12 seconds c. 30 seconds d. never The jogging track in a sports complex is 726 meters in circumference. Suresh and his wife start from the same point and walk in the opposite directions at 4.5 km/h and 3.75 km/h respectively. After what interval of time would they meet again? An uneducated retailer marks all his goods at 50% above the cost price and thinking that he will still make 25% profit, offers a discount of 25% profit, offers a discount of 25% on the marked price. What is his actual profit in percentage on sale? a. 25% b. 20% c. 12.5% d. none A can do a certain work in the same time in which B and C together can do it. If A and B together can do in 10 days, and C alone in 50 days, in what time B alone can do it? a. 25 days b. 30 days c. 40 days d. none I forgot the last digits of a 7 digit, telephone number. If I randomly dial final three digits after correctly dialing first four digits, then what is the chance of dialing the correct number? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 1000 c. 1 in 10,000 d. none

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

A grocer mixes 26 kg of tea, which costs him Rs. 20 per kg, with 30 kg of tea, which costs him Rs. 36 per kg. He then sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per kg. What is his gain or loss in percentage? a. 25% of profit b. 12.25% of profit c. 5% of profit d. none If a + b + c = 0, what is the value of (c + a) (a + b) (a + b) (b + c)? ( a + b) a. 1 b. 0 c. c 2 2 2 If a + b + c = 20 and a + b + c = 0 then, what is the value of ab + bc + ca? a. 10 b. 20 c. + 10

9.

d. none d. none

10. 11.

The present age of the father is equal to the age of his children taken together. After 9 years of age of the father will be equal to the sum of the age of the first two children. Three years after that, it would be equal to the sum of the age of the eldest and the youngest children. Again after three years it would be equal to the sum of the two youngest children. What is the present age of the youngest child? a. 9 years b. 8 years c. 3 years d. none A shopkeeper has a stock worth Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 100 in cash in the morning. He gave Rs. 20 to his son and contributed Rs. 11 to puja. At the end of the day he found that he has a stock of Rs. 750 and cash of Rs. 450. What is his net revenue for the day? a. Rs. 319 b. Rs. 121 c. Rs. 131 d. none All the students of the batch opted psychology, business studies or both, 73% of the students opted psychology and 62% opted for business studies. If there are 220 students how many of them opted for both the subjects? a. 35 b. 77 c. 80 d. none Find the greatest number that will divide 55, 127 and 175 so as to leave the same remainder in each case. a. 6 b. 8 c. 24 d. none In a survey of 2000 students, 48% drink coffee(C), 54% tea (T) and 64% milk (M). Of the total, 28% drink C & T, 32% T & M and 30% C & M. 6% do not like any of the three. How many drink T & M not C? a. 360 b. 280 c. 160 d. none How many terms of the series 1, 4, 7, .. should be taken so that their sum is 715? a. 20 b. 22 c. 24 d. none A person saves each year Rs. 200 more than what he saved in the preceding year. He saves Rs. 400 in the first year. How many years he would take to save Rs. 2,00,000 (approximately)? a. 36 years b. 40 years c. 43 years d. none A man is plucking fruit from the highest branch of the tree with a bamboo-stick. Length of the stick is twice his horizontal distance from the tree. What is the angle made by the bamboo with the horizon? a. 30 b. 60 c. 45 d. None A man walks southwards from the North pole. After three days he turns 90 to the right and continues walking. After another three days he again turns 90 to the right and continue walking for another three days. He is facing which direction? a. West b. East c. North d. None What is the sun of the series 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 99, 100? a. 4040 b. 5050 c. 6060 d. None

12.

13.

14. 15.

16. 17.

18.

19.

20. 21.

Problem: Facing south Dinesh walked 50 meters before turning to his left to walk 30 meters. From this point, he turns towards north and walked for 30 meters more before reaching his friends house. To return to his house, he turned left and walked straight 30 meters. How far is Dineshs house from his starting point? a. 20 meters b. 25 meters c. 30 meters d. none Problem: Consider a group including four female students, Reena, Beena, Meena and Neena who stand in a row, Reena and Beena stand in the sixth and seventh position respectively from the left, Meena and Neena stand in the fourth and fifth position respectively from the right. When Beena and Meena exchange their positions Beena will be the fifteenth from the left. What is Reenas position from the right? a. 6 b. 13 c. 14 d. 18

22.

23.

In a certain system of coding the word PANEL is written as NCLGJ, In that system of coding, what would be the code for the word QUEST? a. SUGSV b. TSEUQ c. RAPEN d. NONE Study the following diagram and answer the question: Figure What is the sum of numbers, which belongs to two figure only? a. 20 b. 25 b. 16

24.

d. None

25.

P, Q, R, S, T & U are members of a club. There is one married couple in the group. S is the only married female. P and R are two ladies. U is brother of P and not married. T is the sister of U. Who is the married couple? a. U & S b. Q & S c. P & R d. None

Instructions: Read the questions 26 to 30 and identify the conclusion that follows: 26. Statement 1: The sum of the angles of a triangle is 180 Statement 2: PQR is a right-angles triangle with angle Q equal to 90 Conclusion: Angle r is 30 a. Conclusion necessarily follows b. Conclusion is remote c. Conclusion does not follow d. Conclusion drawn is doubtful Statement 1: Government employee is politically neutral. Statement 2: Amit is an IAS officer in Chandigarh. Statement 3: The Chief Minister of Punjab is a congressman. Conclusion: Amit must join the congress party. a. Conclusion necessarily follows b. Conclusion is remote c. Conclusion does not follow d. Conclusion drawn is doubtful Statement 1: All shops are books. Statement 2: No book is costly. Conclusion: No shop is costly. Statement 1: All Cats are books. Statement 2: All books are singers. Conclusions: All cats are singers. a. Right conclusion b. Remote conclusion Statement 1: Most tanks are guns. Statement 2: Some guns are stones. Conclusion: Some stones are tanks. a. Right Conclusion b. Remote conclusion

27.

28.

29.

c. Wrong conclusion

d. None

30.

c. Wrong conclusion

d. None

31.

Statement 1: Artist is generally whimsical. Statement 2: Some of them are frustrated. Statement 3: Frustrated people are prone to be drug addicts. Based on the above statements, which conclusion follows? a. All frustrated people are drug addicts b. Some artists may be drug addicts c. All drug addicts are artists d. Frustrated people are whimsical In the following five statements, three statements fall in a set logically related. Find out of the most logical set. A Ramesh and Sita are married B Ramesh and Sita are paired in a game C Ramesh knows Sita well D Ramesh likes Sita E Only married couple are paired in the game F None of those paired in the game are married a. BDF b. ABE c. AEF d. ACD

32.

33.

Gita said, Naresh became a better boser since he started meditation. Radha replied. Impossible, a boxers most important asset is aggression. What did Radha intend to say? (a) Naresh could not be a boxer as he has no aggression. (b) Naresh could not take to meditation as he was a boxer. (c) Meditation has nothing to do with boxing practice. (d) Meditation tends to make person less aggressive. The motor vehicle departments report suggests that the number of bus accidents is more than that of the car accidents; the number of car accidents is less than that of truck accidents and the number of truck accidents is less than bus accidents. Which conclusion can you draw from the report? a. There are more buses on the roads b. There are more trucks on the roads c. Cars are maintained better d. None. The Prime Minister said that government could fight against the communal forces only if it gets fully support from the minorities. Which of the following is the most appropriate assumption of the Prime Minister in the above statement? a. Communal elements hinder the growth of the nation. b. Communal elements hide amongst minorities. c. Minorities must be serious to fight against communalism d. All What is the most probable assumption in the statement, Balance diet is good for health? a. All people take defective diet. b. Most people take defective diet. c. People desire to have good health. d. None. When asked, Should the Government of India control the Press? Anil has a positive response. What is the underlying stand of him? a. Government has the right to control everything. b. Uncontrolled print media does not serve public interest. c. He does not agree that media should be the fourth pillar. d. None. What the major premise of an argument to lead to conclusion that this car can run fast? a. All small cars run fast. b. Some small cars run fast c. This is not a small car d. None When one concludes that apple has iron content, what should be the major argument from which such a conclusion is drawn? a. Iron is good for heath b. Fruits having iron content are reddish c. Apple is good for health d. None A party composed of three fathers, three sons, two grandsons and one great grandson of a family. How many members of that family are there in party? a. 9 b. 7 c. 4 d. None

34.

35

36.

37.

38.

39.

40.

Instructions: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 41 to 48: We are constantly told that information technology will take us to a gleaming gigabyte infested other world called Cyberspace, Baloney! The Industrial Revolution did not take us to Motorspace: it brought motors into our lives. The information Revolution will do the same, introducing new tools, which we will use to serve our ancient human needs. This new movement is not about multimedia, virtual reality or even the mighty World wide Web. It is about an emerging information marketplace in which computers and their users everywhere will buy, sell and freely exchange information and information work. When people talk about information, they think of the traditional content of books, newspapers, television and radio, which represent about 5% of the U.S. economy. No one talks about information work-the activity people and machines perform when they transform information, which accounts for 60% of the U.S. economy. Information work will take many guises in the information marketplace. Imagine a doctor in Sri Lanka examination a homeless person in a San Francisco clinic who is connected by means of a few electrodes to a diagnostic kiosk with a nurse standing by. The doctor provides human information work-his medical diagnostic skill for $ 2.00 a visit. The information marketplace will bring this and many other new tools into our lives through electronic bulldozers and electronic proximity.

In the industrial era, mechanical bulldozers allowed workers to throw away their shovels and offload their muscle work on machines. Today, we squint our eyes and scorch our brains in front of inscrutable mail headers and pages of impenetrable text. We are still shoveling with our eyes and brains but dismiss the drudgery because our siliconstudded shovels make us fell modem. It is time we shed the shovels and exploited electronic bulldozers. New tools like e-forms will make this easier than it sounds. To fill in a travel form, for example, all I have to type or say out loud is Computer take us to Athens this weekend. My machine knows that us means two and that we prefer business class. It calls the airline computer and after a few exchanges, the machines complete the booking. It takes me three seconds to give my command and it takes the machines ten minutes to finish the job a 20,000% productivity gain. Electronic bulldozer tools like this will get much of our information work done. We will increase our productivity further by making our machines truly easier to use. One good way is to speak to them. Speech understanding systems are finally becoming technologically mature and affordable. The changes arising from the second major new force-electronic proximity will be just as large. As the information marketplace develops. We will be closer to a thousand times more people than we were with the automobile. Within a decade, half a billion people and machines will be squeezed with into one gigantic electronic city block. The closeness will lead to powerful benefits through group work and tele work but also to info predators and new kinds of crimes. I dont expect the ratio of good to bad will change; the angles and devils are within us, not in our machines. Electronic proximity will strengthen tribalism. Ethnic groups scattered across the globe will have a way to unite, perhaps even extending the meaning of a nation from a land mass to an ethnic network. At the same time, electronic proximity will strengthen diversity, because when people from different ethnic groups meet within a tribe of classical music buffs, for example, they will go to know one another within that subgroup. This wont lead to a universal global culture but a thin veneer of shared norms. It will also give rise to new projects that have worthy human purposes like a Virtual Compassion Corps, which could match the providers of human help with those worldwide who need it. Electronic proximity will ultimately lead to the increased democratization not so much because information will traverse national borders but because even totalitarian nations will want to participate in the major new economic force of the 21st century. To do so, they will have to play by the rules of engagement made by the predominantly democratic nations that will establish information marketplace. The information marketplace will create problems too. Unless we intervene, it will increase the gap between the rich and the poor nations because the rich will be able to afford the electronic bulldozers, while the poor will not. Electronic proximity will inundate us with info junk, creating a need for human intermediaries who can help us find what we want. And electronic proximity will be perceived by some as a license to attack cultures that took thousands of years to build. National leaders will no doubt use politics and technology to protect their cultures against such info-assaults. They will also need to negotiate how to handle cross border information violations as they did earlier with international crime and trade. Because of the widespread changes it will foster, the Information Revolution will earn its place in history as the socio-economic movement, following Agrarian and Industrial Revolution. May be then, having understood the plough, the motor and the computer, we will dare to go beyond artifacts and embark upon the fourth revolution-striving to understand ourselves. 41. According to the passage, if the information marketplace develops, then how many times more people are we likely to be close to? a. 100 times b. 1000 times c. 20,000 times d. 10,000 times As inferred from the passage, the first major socio-economic movement was a. Tribalism b. Democratization c. Diversity As inferred from the passage, the first major socio-economic movement was a. Industrial Revolution b. Information Revolution c. Agrarian Revolution Which of the following is not true, according to the passage? a. Travel e-form gives a productivity gain of 20,000% b. We have not fully understood ourselves c. Books, TV and Radio account for 5% of the US economy d. Within, a decade, half a billion people will form an electronic city block. In the passage, the author wishes to go to a. Rome b. San Francisco c. Athens d. Sri Lanka d. Universal global culture d. Electronic Revolution

42. 43. 44.

45.

46.

The fourth revolution will concern a. Virtual compassion c. Self discovery

b. Mastering the mystery of the life and death d. Overcoming the gap between the poor and the rich

47.

According the passage, the information technology movement is all about a. Advent of the World Wide Web in our lives b. Fulfillment our needs more productivity c. An emerging information marketplace d. Virtual reality One good way to increase our productivity would be to a. Use electronic bulldozers b. Use Voice activated machines c. Use electronic forms for everyday life d. Create universal work cultures.

48.

Section 2
Instructions: Correct answer for questions 49 to 84 will carry 1 mark each and there shall be penalty of one mark ( 1) for wrong answer. Fill up the appropriate circle against the number of the question with dark lead pencil on the computer assessment sheet. 49. 50. 51. 52. Identify the founder/s of the Hindustan Times. a. Chitranjan Das b. Motilal Nehru c. Both d. None d. Annie Besant

Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress? a. A O Hume b. George Yule c. Sir William Wedderburn

Who was the president of the Indian National Congress at the time of Indias independence? a. Rajendra Prasad b. J B Kriplani c. Abul Kalam Khan d. Pandit Nehru Who is called Morning star of Social Reformation in India? a. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar b. Raja Ram Mohan Roy c. Swami Vivekananda d. Henry Vivian Derezio During Non-cooperative Movement the violence at Chauri Chaura compelled Mahatma Gandhi to halt the movement. Where is Chauri Chaura situated? a. Benaras b. Gorakhpur c. Allahabad d. Meerut Which Smriti discuss about Forensic Law? a. Narad Smriti b. Yajvalkya Smriti Which famous poet is called Parrot of India? a. Sheikh Sadi b. Amir Khusro c. Manu Smriti c. Khalil Gibran d. None d. None

53.

54. 55. 56. 57.

What was the title under which the Mahabharata was translated into Persian during the reign of Akbar? a. Chach Namah b. Tuti Namah c. Yudh Namah d. Razm Namah So long as the millions live in hunger and ignorance, I hold every man a traitor, who having been educated at their expense, pay not the least heed to them. Who made this statement? a. Mahatma Gandhi b. G. K. Gokhale c. Swami Vivekanand d. Subhas Chandra Bose Which of the following ruler donated land for the construction of the Golden temple in Amritsar? a. Shah Jahan b. Ranjit Singh c. Akbar d. Jahangir Who is called the propounder of Black Hole Theory? a. Stephen Hawkins b. Charles Naif c. S Chandrashekhar d. C V Raman

58. 59. 60.

Recently the Italian Scientists announced that they have succeeded in creating worlds first cloned horse. What is the name given to it? a. Charlie b. Agnes c. Hercules d. Promotes The brilliant blue coloring of which sea inspired C V Raman to work on the scattering of light and eventually discover the Raman effect? a. Indian ocean b. Red sea c. Mediterranean sea d. Pacific ocean

61.

62.

Why does a drop of liquid assume a spherical shape? a. Because intermolecular forces are weak in liquids b. Because intermolecular forces are strong in liquids c. Because a sphere has the largest space for a given volume d. Because a sphere has the least space for a given volume Dry Ice is: a. Super cooled ice c. Solid Carbon dioxide b. Solidified Ammonia d. Solid water with Zero humidity d. Sulva Sutra d. Rice barn d. Vanuatu Island d. Palakkad

63.

64. 65. 66. 67. 68.

Which ancient Indian Mathematical work deals with Geometry? a. Griha Sutra b. Kalpa Sutra c. Parva Sutra The chief ingredient of the mosquito repellant cream is derived from a. Tulsi b. Neem c. Lemon The worlds first marine post office has been set up in: a. Soloman Island b. Fiji c. Seychelles In January 2004, where occurred the world water conference? a. Singapore b. Jakarta c. Hague

Which cellular service provider has launched a new campaign called Express Yourself? a. Idea b. Hutch c. Air Tel d. None of these

Directions: Each sentence in the following questions has four underlined portions marked A, B, C and D. Choose the portion that must be changed for the sentence to be correct. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. River was pollution (A) is often indicate (B) by (C) algae distribution (D). a. A b. B c. C Which (A) determines a (B) good meal varies (C) from country to (D) country. a. A b. B c. C d. D d. D

The way of communication (A) has (B) changed dramatically (C) since (D) last century. a. A b. B c. C d. D Gandhiji lived a noble life of fasting (A) and poverty (B) in order to work for peaceful (C) and independence (D). a. A b. B c. C d. D The first year of childs life is (A) characterized (B) in (C) rapid physical (D) growth. a. A b. B c. C d. D

From questions 74 to 78 select the pair that best expresses the relationship similar to the one expressed in the original pair. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. PUNY : MAMMOTH = a. Large : Untidy TEPID : HOT = a. Winter : Summer EMULATE : MEMICK = a. Imitate : Parody TADPOLE : FROG = a. Bee : Flower b. Beautiful : Small b. Pat : Slap b. Slander : Defame b. Star : Moon c. Compact : Clumsy c. Storm : Rain c. Express : Imply c. Caterpillar : Butterfly c. Fixture : Gum c. Powerful d. Stable : Unstable d. Topple : Tumble d. Praise : Blame d. River : Sea d. Bullets : Armory d. Far away

STAPPLER: STATIONERY = a. Tape : Paper b. Pins: Needles Find out the similar meaning to APATHY a. Sympathy b. Indifference

80. 81.

Find out the similar word to SLOT a. Heavy b. Inclined Find out the opposite word to LUSCENT a. Dull b. Shining

c. Laziness c. Moonlight

d. To hit directly d. Sunray

Direction: Find out the proper word to fill in the blank in the following sentences: 82. 83. 84. You must atone _______ your scene. a. On b. for Dont ascribe any motive _______ my action. a. Into b. for In have no aspiration _______ riches. a. For b. on c. in c. in c. to d. to d. to d. in

Book 2 Section I
Instructions: Write on and about the following, each in three lines (20 words). Writing more may be penalized. Each question has two marks. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. Phalcon Tikrit. Loya Jirga Sedna Dada Dadi bonds Ten Sports. Mr. Horst Koehler . Cancun. Nanotechnology. Ozone Hole

Section 2
95. Write a precise not exceeding 125 words on the following passage with a suitable caption. Writint more may be penalized. (2 + 6 = 8 Marks) In a historic judgment delivered on August 6, 2003, the Supreme Court of India ruled that government employees had no fundamental, legal, moral or equitable right to go on strike even for a just cause. Disposing off a batch of six petitions challenging the dismissal. From service of 1.7 lakh Tamil Nadu government employees, a Bench consisting of Mr. Justice, M.B.Shah and Mr. Justice. A. R. Lakshmanan, observed that apart from statutory rights, Government employees cannot claim that they can hold the society at ransom by going on strike. The Bench made it clear that even if there was injustice, they had to resort to the machinery provided under different statutory provisions for redressal of their grievance. The Court observed: Strike as a weapon is mostly misused which results in chaos and total misadministration. Strike affects society as a whole and particularly when two lakh employees go on strike en masse, the entire administration comes to a grinding halt. The Bench recalled the Supreme Courts decision in the All India Bank Employees Association case in 1962 in which it was held that trade unions had no guaranteed rights to an effective collective bargaining or to strike, either as collective bargaining or to strike, either as collective bargaining or to strike, either as part of collective bargaining or otherwise.

It was the opinion of the Court that a strike does more harm that any justice. Sufferer is the society public at large. The Bench also reiterated its earlier observation that the fundamental rights of the people as a whole could not be subservient to the claim of the fundamental right of an individual or only a section of people. In the case of strike by a teacher, the entire educational system suffers; many students are prevented from appearing in their examinations which ultimately affect their whole career. In case of strike by doctors, innocent patients suffer, if transport employees go on strike, the entire movement of society comes to a standstill and business is adversely affected. Occasionally, public property is either destroyed or damaged creating bitterness among the public against those who are on strike. The Bench agreed with submission of the senior counsel for Tamil Nadu. Mr. K.K. Venugopal that approximately 90 per cent of the amount collected from direct tax was spent on the salary of about 12 lakh government employees. And in a society where there was large-scale unemployment and a number of qualified persons were eagerly waiting for jobs, strikes could not be justified on any equitable ground. The Judges said that apart from being conscious of rights, we have to be fully aware of our duties, responsibilities and effective methods for discharging the same. For redressing their grievance, instead of going on strike, if employees do some more word honestly, diligently and efficiently, such gesture would not only be appreciated by the authority but also by the people at large. Reacting to the Supreme Court judgment, the CPM observed that judgment in one stroke deprived lakhs of government employees of their basic right to go on strike. It was contrary to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution and the ILO Conventions to which India was a party. The CPI demanded the review of the judgment, describing the order as unacceptable and aimed at scuttling the workers and employees legitimate activities and democratic rights. Various trade unions criticized the judgment for imposing what they called a blanket ban on the right to strike. ..

Section 3
Instructions: One or more principles are given, applying which solve the problem. Right conclusion with appropriate reasons shall be awarded with full 2 marks. Right conclusion with no reason or right reason without conclusion shall be awarded 1 mark. Right conclusion with wrong reason or wrong conclusion with right reason would have 0 mark. Wrong conclusion and wrong reason together or alone would attract penalty of 1 mark. 96. Principle: If a professional doesnt take care like an ordinary prudent person, he is guilty of negligence and shall have to pay compensation to those who suffer. Fact: Kapoor, a businessman appointed a surgeon Dr. K. S. Pratap for completing surgery to remote deformation in leg of his son, Amit. During the surgery an attendant nurse left a small needle inside, which resulted in a serious abyss requiring second operation. After the second operation, leg was shortened. Has the doctor committed any wrong? Decision Reason 97. Principle: Every person has a right to defence his/her body. Fact: Ramesh found Satish heralding a bamboo stick and running towards him to beat. Ramesh collected another stick and beat him severly, due to which Satish fell down and broke his leg. Has Ramesh committed any wrong? Decision Reason.

98.

Principle: No one can be allowed to be enriched/benefited without a cause. Fact: Ramu, a milkman delivered a liter of milk every day to Changanis house. All family members of Changani went out of station for couple of days. Ramu was not informed about the same. Ghosal, who is next-door neighbor, consumed that milk. Ramu came to know from another person about the incident and demanded the price of milk from Ghosal. Decision Reason.

99.

Principle: Innocent mistake may be a good defence, though absence of care is not. Fact: A peon of Telegraph Company delivered the telegram to Mrs. Ambani. She opened the telegram and read the content without looking at the name of the addressee. The content of the telegram was as follows: son dies in road accident. She became senseless and fell on the ground and suffered injury. The telegram was actually delivered in the wrong address. Is the telegraph company responsible for any wrong? Decision Reason.

100. Principle: No one is responsible for unforeseen circumstance, but liable for not taking due care. Fact: Rahul, aged about 19 years, was playing cricket with his friend in housing societies land where they live. While playing he made a good shot, which hit a window of a new Maruti car and broke the window. Has Rahul to pay for? Decision Reason. 101. Principle A person is liable for committing public nuisance. Fact: Patel and Banerjee were not in good terms. Banerjees servant threw the domestic waste materials in the lane in front of Patel gate. Is Banerjee responsible for such an act? Decision Reason. 102. Principle: Servants negligence is masters responsibility.

Fact: In a shopping complex, Amit Ali has dry fruits shop in the basement. The shopping complex observed closer on Saturday. Abeera Co. manages the complex. The watchman forgot to closet he wheel of reservoir on Friday night and the water overflowed. No one noticed that accident. The water damaged the fruits in the shop of Amit Ali. From whom, if any, Amir Ali may recover his loss? Decision Reason. 103. Principle: If one asserts, it cannot be denied. Information to the public is not assertion unless acted upon . Fact: Pantaloon Company advertised in the newspaper that until December 31st, the company offers one trouser free for the purchase of one trouser. Smite saw in a pantaloon show room a trouser attached with a price tag. In a packet undermath it was written if you purchase this trouser then you will get one trouser free of cost. Smite when approached the shop counter, the shop owner said that she would only get one trouser since the offer was till the previous day i.e. December 31st as was advertised. Can Smita get the additional trouser? Decision Reason.

104. Principle: Terms and conditions in a deal must be clear and legible. Facts: Hameer saw the advertisement of Reliance India Mobile and it was written that all calls made from Reliance mobile to any destination would be charged @40 p. per min. When he was filing up the form, he found some small illegible print. On enquiry, he was told that it was unimportant and insignificant. After wards the company charged @ 2.50 per min per call against a call for Mizoram. The company now suggests that call to seven sister states would be @ 2.50 per minute, which was in the form that Hameer could not read. Is Hameer required to pay @ 2.50 per minute for call, which he made? Decision Reason. 105. Principle: If in a deal one can dominate the other because of their relation, the dominating party cannot be allowed to reap unreasonable benefit. The weaker party is allowed to cancel the deal. Facts: Gangubai is a religious type of lady and not aware of worldly affairs. She owned a property in the prime location of the city. One, Sidharth, a promoter, purchased the land at one-forth of the market price. Gangubai came to know afterwards that the market price of the land was four times. Can she demand the balance amount? Decision Reason. 106. Principle: Social obligation is not deal. Fact: Kausal advised his daughter to study law from CLU, Delhi and promised to bear all the expenses, which she would incur the course of study. She decided to marry one of her classmates, because of which Kausal stopped all the support, CLU, Delhi demands the money from Kausal. Has he pay the balance of the fee? Decision Reason. 107. Principle: Terms and conditions in a deal are required to be now to both the parties to the deal and must also be reasonable. Fact: On the backside of a ticket, Akash Airlines Company had mentioned that they would not be responsible for any loss of hand baggage unless separately insured and disclosed. Peter traveled by Akash Airlines from Delhi to Mumbai and lost his Laptop en route. Can he recover the money from Airlines? Decision Reason. 108. Principle: If a person finds any goods, he or she must take care of the goods as if goods belonged to self. Fact: Amar found a Reliance mobile phone on street and he started calling all of his friends in USA. He found the owner after ten days. The owner demanded the bill amounting to Rs. 5,000 as against the calls made during those ten days. Can the owner recover the amount? Decision Reason. 109. Principle: No one shall benefit at the cost of another. Fact: Aravind had to pay Rs. 100 to Raghu. Instead, he paid by mistake the money to Ram. Ram purchased a lottery ticket in that Rs. 100 and won Rs. 5,00,000. Can Aravind recover Rs. 5,00,000? Decision

Reason. Instructions: Facts are given without providing principle. You have to decide and give probable principle. Marking system is as given in the previous part. 110. Fact: Karan was walking down the M.G. Road and saw a beautiful shirt displayed on a window of the Bombay Dyeing showroom. When he went inside the asked for the shirt, he was informed that another person, Kavya also wanted the same shirt and they had only one piece. Karan insisted that the shirt must be sold to him and Kavya also has the same demand. Decision Reason. 111. Fact: Pooja wanted to sell her house to Pavan and asked him to reply whether or not he would be interested in purchasing the house within two days. However, the very next day, Raman showed interest in purchasing the house from Pooja and Pooja also agreed to sell her house to Raman. Pavan intimated Pooja that he would purchasing the property on the second day. Who will get the house? Decision Reason. 112. Fact: Suresh advertised in a newspaper that he would be selling his bike for Rs. 30,000. Mahesh replied that he would be interested to buy that bike for Rs. 25,000. Suresh refused. Immediately after Mahesh reviewed his position and agreed to purchase the bike @ Rs. 30,000. Is Suresh bound to sell? Decision Reason. 113. Fact: Asha asked her servant, John to purchase ten packets of Maggie from the market. John purchased the same and the shopkeeper gave two toy cars as free gift along John from the job for this act. Is Ashas decision correct? Decision Reason. 114. Facts: Brijesh gave his Motor Bike for repair to MB Repairers. Brijesh came back in the same evening and drove away the bike without the knowledge of the MB Repairers. Has Brijesh committed any wrong? Decision Reason. 115. Fact: Ravindra, a reputed courier agency agreed to deliver all the letters and parcels of an educational institution, CLU. Ravindra however, used to deliver the letters to Desert Aviation to send the parcels to far off places. One of the parcels given by CLU was lost in air crash. Therefore, CLU wants to recover the loss incurred from the Desert Aviation. Is it possible? Decision Reason.

2005
Booklet Series Booklet Serial No. Roll No. of the candidate:

National Law University, Jodhpur National Entrance Test, 2005

Total Marks 600 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. Read the instructions carefully. This test paper contains one hundred fifty questions with multiple-choice answers. Entire test paper is divided into five sections, each section having thirty questions. For each correct answer four marks shall be awarded and for every wrong answer one mark shall be deducted. Candidates are required to fill in details in the computer assessment sheet with HB pencil. Improper shading in the computer assessment sheet or mutilation of the sheet would render it invalid. Candidates are required to record answers in the computer assessment sheet as instructed. This test is of two hours. First bell wing ring five minutes before commencement of the test. As soon as the first bell rings candidate should write roll number at places prescribed in the test paper and fill in the details as required in the computer assessment sheet. Before commencing to write your answers make sure that your booklet is legibly printed and contains one hundred fifty questions. You can use blank pages at the end of his booklet for rough work. Candidates are required not to keep in their possession anything except pen, pencil, sharpener and eraser. Electronic gadgets such as calculator, cell phone, think pad etc. are not allowed in the examination hall. In case of any malpractice or attempt to use malpractice, which would include taking to neighbours, copying or using unfair means, the center in-charge shall seize the paper and expel the candidate and cause a detailed report to be sent to University along with the seized paper in a separate packet. Signature Center-in-charge National Entrance Test (NET) Instructions

7. 8. 9.

Section I Information Level Test (ILT)

1. Match the Congress sessions with the significant ideological formulations: A. Lucknow Session, 1916 B. Lahore Session, 1929 C. Karachi Session, 1931 D. Faizpur Session, 1936 Rights Codes: A B C D 1. G F H E 2. F G H E 3. F H E G 4. H G F E E. Full democracy F. Congress-League Pact G. Purna Swaraj Resolution H. Adoption of Fundamental

2.

According to the estimate of W. H. Moreland, the population of India in 1600 A. D. was: a. 80 million b. 100 million c. 120 million d. 125 million

3.

The Mughal emperor who issued a firman to the East India Company in 1717 A. D. to trade freely in Bengal was: a. Bahadur Shah b. Shah Jahan c. Farukh Siyar d. Jahadar Shah The Central Hindu School at Banaras, which served as a nucleus of the Banaras Hindu University, was established by: a. Madan Mohan Malviya b. Mrs. Annie Besant c. Bhagwan Das d. Swami Shradhananda Name the Mauryan ruler who was also known as Amitraghata: a. Chandragupta b. Bindusara c. Ashoka Who was the first president of the All-India Trade Union Congress? a. S. A. Dange b. Jawahar Lal Nehru c. Lala Lajpat Rai d. Brihadratha d. Lala Hardayal

4.

5. 6. 7. 8.

Who among the following Viceroys became a victim of one of the convicts during his visit to the Andamans? a. Lytton b. Ripon c. Curzon d. Mayo Arrange the following events in the chonological order: 1. Champaran Satyagrah 2. Launcing of the Khilafat Movement 3. Reunion of the Congress 4. Nagpur session of the Congress Codes: a. 3, 1, 2, 4 b. 3, 1, 2, 4 c. 1, 3, 4, 2 d. 1, 4, 3, 2

9. 10. 11. 12.

Who among the following played an important role in the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact? a. Motilal Nehru b. Tej Bahadur Sapru c. Madan Mohan Malviya d. Gopal Hari Deshmukh Who was the founder of the newspaper The Tribune ? a. Robert Knight b. Dayal singh c. Lord Macauley Who among the following is known as parrot of India? a. Sarojini Naidu b. Amir Khusro c. Tansen d. S N Bannerjee d. Raja Man Singh

What is the percentage fixed for the strength of Council of Ministers qua the membership of Parliament and the State Legislatures after the Constitution Ninety First Amendment Act, 2003? a. 10% b. 15% c. 12.5% d. 20% Which of the following issue was in the news recently relating to Indian-Pakistan relations, which was subsequently taken to the World bank by Pakistan against the wishes of India? a. Tulbul Navigation Project b. Sir Creek c. Baglihar Dam Construction d. Siachen conflict Deficit Financial means: a. Government expenditure minus revenue receipts b. Government expenditure minus borrowing c. Budget deficit minus borrowing and liabilities d. Budget surplus The foreign exchange reserves of the country consists of: a. Foreign currency assets held by the RBI b. Gold holding of the RBI c. Special drawing rights d. All the above The headquarters of the World Trade Organization is in: Which one of the following is not true of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999: a. Removal of quantitative restrictions on imports b. Introducing of new chapter for boosting exports c. Indian Companies are at liberty to access ADR/GDR d. There is no negative limit for FDI

13.

14.

15.

16. 17.

18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

Who among the following Indian economists has done pioneering work on national income: a. P. N. Dhar b. Jagdish c. V. K. R. V. Rao d. Prof. Shenoi Among the organized industry, the oldest is: a. Cotton textiles b. Sugar The Terms TRIPS and TRIMS are related to: a. NAFTA b. SAPTA c. Paper c. EFTA d. Iron & steel d. WTO

Which of the following is the most important source of revenue for the States in India: a. Excise Duties b. Land Revenue c. Sales Tax d. Professional Tax The brand ambassador for Bank of Rajasthan is: a. Sachin Tendulkar b. Preity Zinta c. Hema Malini d. Amitabh Bachhan

Who among the following was holding the offer of Vice-President of India, who passed away while in office? a. Dr. Zakir Hussain b. Shri Krishna Kant c. Shri Gopal Swarup Pathak d. Shri B. D. Jatti Which one of the following help in aerating the soil? a. Microfauna b. Mesofauna c. Macrofauna Which of the following glands in human body is popularly called Adams Apple? a. Adrenal b. Thyroid c. Liver Match column I with column II Column I Column II A. Dalton E. Definition of an element B. Madam Curie F. Periodic Table C. Robert Boyle G. Atomic Thoery D. Mendeleev H. Radio Activity a. A-E, B-F, C-G, D-H b. A-G, B-H, C-E, D-F c. A-H, B-F, C-G, D-E Which one of the following country won Indian Oil Asia Cup 2004? a. India b. Pakistan c. Sri Lanka Australia won its 28th Davis Cup title in: a. October, 2003 b. November, 2004 c. January, 2005 d. All of the above d. Thymus

d. A-G, B-H, C-F, D-E d. Bangladesh d. March, 2005

27. 28. 29. 30.

Which one of the following does not belong to future missile projects under process in India? a. Sagarika b. Dhanush c. Barak d. Vinashak Which one of the following medicine was recently in news for effective and safe prevention of HIV transmission from mother to unborn child during birth? a. Rantidine b. Nevirapine c. Atenol d. Bextra

Section II Language Comprehension Test (LCT)

Direction: Q31-Q35: Read the following passage carefully and give the correct answers from among the alternatives given below each question. It was first photograph that I had ever seen, and it fascinated me. I can remember holding it at every angle in order to catch the flickering light from the oil lamp on the dresser. The man in the photograph was unsmiling, but his eyes were kind. I had never met him before but I felt that I knew him. One evening when I was looking at the photograph, as I always did before I went to sleep, I noticed a shadow across the mans thin face. I moved the photograph so that the shadow lay perfectly around his hollow cheek. How different he looked! That night I could not sleep, thinking about the letter I would write. First I would tell him that I was eleven years old, and if he had a little girl of my age, she would write to me instead of him. I knew he was a busy man. Then I would explain to him the real purpose of my letter. I would tell him how wonderful he looked with the shadow that I had seen across his photograph, and I would most carefully suggest that he grows whiskers.

Four months later when I met him at the train station near my home in Westfield, New York, he was wearing a full beard. He was so much taller than I had imagined from my tiny photograph. Ladies and gentlemen, he said I have no speech to make and no time to make it in. I appear before you that I may see you and that I may see you and you may see me. Then he picked me right up and kissed me on both cheeks. The whiskers scratched. Do you think I look better, my little friend? he asked me. My name is Grace Bedell, and the man in the photograph was Abraham Lincoin. 31. What is the authors main purpose in the passage? a. To explain how Grace Bedell took photograph of Abraham Lincoin. b. To explain why Abraham Lincoin wore a beard. c. To explain why the first photograph were significant in American life. d. To explain why Westfield is an important city. The word fascinated in the first paragraph could best be replaced by: a. interested b. frightened c. confused The word flickering in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to: a. burning constantly b. burning unsteadily c. burning very dimly The man in the photograph a. was smiling b. had a beard c. had a round fat face d. disgusted d. burning brightly d. looked kind

32. 33. 34. 35.

What did Grace Bedell do every night before she went to sleep? a. She wrote letters b. She looked at the photograph c. She made figures on the wall d. She read stories

Direction: Q36-Q45: In the following paragraph some spaces have been left blank and numbered 36 to 45. The most appropriate word to fit in each blank has been given as one of the four alternatives against the corresponding number given below the paragraph. The alternative with the most appropriate word is the answer. The Constitution envisages the establishment of a welfare state at the federal level as well as the state___36___. In welfare state the primary duty of the government is to secure the___37___of the people. Providing adequate medical facilities for the people is an essential part of the ___38___undertaken by the government in a welfare state. The government discharges this obligation by running hospitals and health ___39___ which provide ___ 40 ___ care to the person seeking to avail those facilities. Article 21 imposes an obligation on the state to ___ 41 ___ the right to ___ 42 ___ of every person. Preservation of human life is thus of paramount importance. The ___ 43 ___ hospitals run by the state and the medical officers employed therein are duty bound to extend medical assistance for preserving human life. Failure on the part of a government hospital to provide timely medical treatment to a person in need of such treatment results in ___44___ of his right to life ___ 45 ___ under Article 21. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. a. legislature a. benefit a. duties a. centers a. professional a. safeguard a. liberty a. local a. violation b. level b. welfare b. obligations b. functions b. medical b. jeopardize b. life b. charitable b. guaranteed c. machinery c. rights c. services c. care c. services c. enhance c. living c. government c. nullified d. government d. obligations d. statute d. medicines d. affectionate d. propagate d. dignity d. central d. motivated

Direction: Q46-Q50: Choose the correct analogy. 46. 47. Ballad : Song Credit : Movie b. Shutter : Darkness c. Novel : Chapter b. Entrapment : Game d. Antidote : Illness b. Arrangement : Flowers d. Graduation : Studies b. Bow : Violinist b. Plumber : Wrench c. Bed : Patient c. Judge : Courtroom d. Pistol : Anger d. Player : Locker d. Portrait : Painting

Rehearsal : Performance a. Engagement : Marriage c. Applause : Audience Retirement : Service a. Employment : Salary c. Contract : Agreement Scalpel : Surgeon a. Pen : Reader Umpire : Playfield a. Carpenter : Cabinet

48.

49. 50.

Direction: Q51-Q55: Rearrange the following sentences. Out of six, the first and the last sentence are in order. Four sentence in between have to be arranged. Out of four given alternatives choose the one, which rearrange sentences in the best possible manner. 51. Eradication of corruption in public office and elsewhere is an intricate and delicate task. (P) it is difficult to prove the charge (Q) Those conventions must be respected. (R) The law is not effective in dealing with corruption (S) So some conventions will have to be built. This is possible if we are men of integrity having honesty of purpose. a. PSQR b. RPSQ c. SQPR d. RSQR Progress and success are attained in slow degrees. (P) But slow progress makes one grow impatient, disheartened and discouraged. (Q) The general tendency is to find fault with the system. (R) It is for this reason that people condemn and criticize the government. (S) People expect miracles and nothing short of a magical transformation can convince them. However, we must realize the truth that perfection is attained in slow proportions to the amount of labour put in by us. a. PSQR b. QPSR c. RSPQ d. SQRP He had suddenly realized that his life was passing and (P) That in twenty years perhaps he would be dead. (Q) That he had not understood anything. (R) He realized that he was trapped in a treadmill. (S) That he never had time to watch it pass. Without having done anything except achieving a certain standing in the world. a. RSPQ b. RPQS c. SPQR

52.

53.

d. SRPQ

54.

The Police Department of the Government of Rajasthan shall take steps to. (P) Ensure that the law laid by this court in the matter of protection of human rights of citizens as against action by the police. (Q) By issuing necessary circulars in that regard. (R) And the responsibility is placed on the Superintendent of Police. (S) It must be brought to the notice of all Superintendents of Police in the Districts soon after the decision is given. To ensure compliance with the said circulars by the sub-ordinate police personnel under his charge. a. PQRS b. PSQR c. SRQP d. QRSP There is a kind of war hysteria in India. (P) We are sure to feel upset. (Q) In fact these are discussions and not protesting (R) Why should others accuse us to protesting. (S) There has been aggression on our country.

55.

Being democratic we have the right to discussion. a. QPRS b. PQRS

c. SPRQ

d. RSPQ

Direction: Q56-Q60: Choose the correct meaning of the following idioms and phrases. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. Dare devil a. A type of devil A bunch of fives a. Anger b. A dangerous game b. Fist c. A reckless person c. Flowers c. A brave man c. Ineffective speech c. To feel jealous d. Trekking d. Beauty d. A cunning man d. An interview d. To feel happy

A wolf in sheeps clothing a. Hypocrite b. A coward Maiden speech a. Speech by a maid To look blue a. To feel depressed b. The very first speech b. To feel angry

Section III Reasoning Ability Test (RAT)

Direction: Q61-Q65: In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by two conclusions numbered A and B. You are to take the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide to correct answer from four choices. 61. Statements: Smoking is dangerous. Rash driving is dangerous. Conclusion: A. Rash driving is smoking B. Smoking is rash driving a. Only conclusion A follows b. Only conclusion B follows c. Neither A not B follows d. Both A and B follows Statements: Some cooks are young. All boys are young. Conclusion: A. Some boys are cooks. B. Some cooks are boys. a. Only conclusion A follows b. Only conclusion B follows c. Neither A nor B follows d. Both A and B follows Statements: Stories are interesting. All interesting incidents are rumors. Conclusion: A. Stories are rumors. B. Rumors are stories. a. Only conclusion A follows b. Only conclusion A follows c. Neither A nor B follows d. Both A and B follows Statements: Doctors serve their country. Engineers are not doctors. Conclusion: A. Engineers do not serve their country. B. Some engineers serve their country. a. Only conclusion A follows b. Only conclusion B follows c. Neither A nor B follows d. Both A and B follows Statements: All travelers are men. All men are graduates. Conclusion: A. All men are travelers. B. All travelers are graduates. a. Only conclusion A follows b. Only conclusion B follows c. Neither A nor B follows d. Both A and B follows

62.

63.

64.

65.

Direction: Q66-Q70: In each of the following questions, a conclusion is made out of two assumptions. You are required to consider each assumption first and decide about the conclusion offered from the set of four answers i.e., true, false, irrelevant and uncertain.

66.

Assumption (i) Airplanes have no wings. (ii) Animals have no wings. Conclusions: Therefore, airplanes are animals. a. True b. False

c. Irrelevant

d. Uncertain

67.

Assumption (i) No member over 30 can participate in summit. (ii) Krishna Participated. Conclusion: So, Krishna is less than 30 years of Age. a. True b. False c. Irrelevant Assumption (i) I know a police officer. (ii) He drinks too much. Conclusion: Therefore, all police officers drink too much. a. True b. False c. Irrelevant Assumption (i) Carbohydrates are helpful in the formation of body. (ii) Growing children are in need of nutrition. Conclusion: So, carbohydrates are necessary for growing children. a. True b. False c. Irrelevant Assumption (i) P is behind M and N (ii) Q is behind P. Conclusion: Therefore Q is behind M. a. True b. False

d. Uncertain

68.

d. Uncertain

69.

d. Uncertain

70.

c. Irrelevant

d. Uncertain

Direction: Q71-Q76: In each of the following questions, a statement is followed by two-arguments numbered X and Y. Consider each statement and the arguments that follow and decide which of the argument is forceful, choose from the four answers given under each question. 71. Statement: Should our country leave democracy? Arguments: X. Yes, as elections are giving hung Parliament every time. Y. No, dictatorship will be even worse. a. Argument X is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. d. Both X and Y are forceful. Statement: Should India go for only two major political parties? Arguments: X. Yes, because so many parties are leading to a hung Parliament at the centre. Y. No, it will effect revenue collection in the country. a. Argument X is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. d. Both X and Y are forceful. Statement: Should liquor be banned throughout the country? Arguments: X. Yes, as it will minimize road accidents. Y. No, it will effect revenue collection in the country. a. Argument X is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. d. Both X and Y are forceful. Statement: Should national highways in India be given to private companies, for maintenance? Arguments: X. Yes, because they will maintain it better than government agencies. Y. No, because they are meant for public a. Argument X is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. d. Both X and Y are forceful. Statement: Open book system should be introduced in the examination. Arguments: X. Yes, because it will eradicate mass copying from examination system. Y. No, because then all students will get first division without much hard work. a. Argument X is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. d. Both X and Y are forceful. Statement: Should India take the services of a European coach for its national hockey team? Arguments: X. Yes, because Asian hockey is dying. Y. No, because Europeans will learn about Indian hockey skills by doing so. a. Argument X is forceful. b. Argument Y is forceful c. Neither X nor Y is forceful. d. Both X and Y are forceful.

72.

73.

74.

75.

76.

Directions: Q77-Q81: Questions herein below are based on the following statement. (1) A, B, C are children of Mr. A and Mrs. Z. (2) D, E, F are children of Mr. and Mrs. Z (3) F and A are married and G and H are their children. (4) I and J are children of Mr. and Mrs. X (5) I is married to C and has three children named K, L and M. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. How is B related to M? a. Brother How is B related to G? a. Brother-in-law How is B related to A? a. Maternal Uncle F and J are related as: a. Uncle and Cousin D realtes to H as: a. Mother b. Uncle b. Maternal Uncle b. Father b. Brother-in-law b. Sister c. Brother-in-law c. Father-in-law c. Brother c. Brother c. Aunt d. Maternal Uncle d. Cousin d. Cousin d. Father and d. Brother

Direction: Q82-Q83:- In the following questions, a group of statements is followed by some conclusions. Choose the conclusions, which logically follows the given statements. 82. Statement: I. I watch TV only if I am bored. II. I am never bored when I have my brothers company. III. Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along. Conclusions: If I am bored, I seek my brothers company If I am bored, I do not watch TV If I am bored, I watch TV If I am not with my brother then I watch TV Statement: I. Shyam is not the father of Hari. II. Hari is the brother of Shyam. Conclusions: Shyam is the son of Suresh. Hari is the brother of Shyam. Suresh is the father of Hari. Shyam has no children. A recent study found that school-age children who participate in school related sports activities fight less during school and school related activities than those children who do not participate. It was concluded that sports must satisfy aggressive impulses, which would otherwise be released through fighting. Which of the following if true weakens the conclusion referred to in the above passage. a. School related adults always supervise sports activities. b. Children who participated in school related activities tend to be more aggressive physically than those who do not participate. c. Supervisor of school related sports activities tend to be more aggressive than those who do not participate. d. Most schools suspend those who fight during school or school related activities from the school sports team. Because heroin addicts usually have one or more needle marks on their arms, and Rajiv has some needle mark on his arm, it follows that Rajiv is probably a heroin addict. Which of the following most closely parallel the reasoning used in the question: a. Because patients with malaria usually have high fever and Ram is a patient with malaria, Ram probably has a high fever. b. Because doctors have high income and people with high income pay high taxes, doctors probably pay high taxes. c. Because patients with malaria usually have high fever, malaria and probably causes fever. d. Because students are usually under twenty-five years old and Heena is under twenty-five year old, Heena is probably a student.

a. b. c. d. 83. a. b. c. d. 84.

85.

86.

Taking advantage of the absence of his parents, Prabhat decide to call his friends at home for a party. Which of the following assumptions did Prabhat make while taking the above decision? (1) His parents would not come back immediately. (2) His friends will accept his invitation. (3) There will be enough food in the home to feed friends. a. All three b. Only 2 and 3 c. Only 1 and 3 d. Only 1 and 2 In the following question selects an alternative which third statement is implied by the first two statement is implied by the first two statements: a. All oranges are black. All figs are oranges. So all figs are black. b. All dogs are mad. All sick persons are mad. So all sick persons are dogs. c. No man can fly. No kite can fly. So all man are kites. d. All windows are dogs. Some doors are dogs. So all windows are doors. The fathers of five students A, B, C, D, E have different professions i.e. teaching, music, medicine, law and architecture. As father is not an architect but Es father is a singer. Bs father teaches while Cs father practices medicine. Ds father is not a lawyer. Whose father is lawyer? a. As b. Bs c. Cs d. Es An executive magistrate is a powerful person in a region. The correct explanation for this premise is that: A. He is like the Governor in the state B. He is like the Chief Minister in the State C. He controls the political system of the region D. He can malign the masses of the region a. Only A and B are correct b. Only C and D are correct c. A, B, C and D are all correct d. None of A, B, C and D are correct Choose the correct letter that follows in the series: A, C, f, J, O? a. P b. Q c. U d. V

87.

88.

89.

90.

Section IV Mathematical Ability Test (MAT)

91. The population of a town increases 10% annually. If the population of the town were 60,000 in 2005, what would be the population of the town in the year 2008? a. 66,000 b. 78,880 c. 77,770 d. 79,860 The value of a machine depreciates at the rate of 10% after each year. What is its purchase price, if at the end of 3 years its value is only Rs. 8748? a. 10,000 b. 11,000 c. 12,000 d. 13,000 A guava tree was planted 2 years ago. It increases at the rate of 20% per annum. If at present, the height of the tree is 540 cm, what was its height when the tree was planted? a. 255 cm b. 375 cm c. 295 cm d. 395 cm Mustard oil is now being sold at Rs. 15 per kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 13 per kg. Find, by how much percent must a family reduce its consumption to keep the expenditure fixed. a. 12.55% b. 13.33% c. 14.33% d. 12.33% Mr. X spends 75% of his income. His income is increased by 20% and he increased his expenditure by 10%. His savings are increased by: a. 10% b. 25% c. 38 % d. 50% The average age of 30 students in a class is 9 years. If teachers age is included. The average age becomes 10 years. What is the age of the teacher? a. 25 years b. 30 years c. 40 years d. 50 years a. 25 98. b. 16 c. 5 d. 8

92.

93.

94.

95.

96.

97. In a survey 60% of those surveyed owned a car and 80% of those surveyed owned a T.V. If 55% owned both a car and a T.V., what percent of those surveyed owned either a car or a T.V.? a. 60 b. 85 c. 75 d. 70

99.

The average temperature for Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday was 40 degree centigrade. The average temperature for Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday was 41 degree centigrade. If the temperature on Thursday was 42 degree centigrade, what was the temperature on Monday? a. 25 degree centigrade b. 29 degree centigrade c. 39 degree centigrade d. 43 degree centigrade c. 13400 d. 11025

100. The sum of 13 + 23 + 33 + 43 + . 203 is: a. 44100 b. 14400

101. A train runs between two Stations X & Y. While going from X to Y, its average speed is 100 km/hr. And while coming back from Y to X, its average speed is 150 km/hr. What is the average speed during the whole journey? a. 110 km/hr b. 120 km/hr c. 130 km/hr d. 140 km/hr 102. The ratio between two numbers is 2:3. If each number is increased by 4, the ratio between them becomes 5:7. What are the number? a. 14 and 20 b. 16 and 24 c. 19 and 32 d. 20 and 23 103. A college boy 1.4 meters tall casts a shadow 1.2 meters long at the same time when the college building casts a shadow 5.4 meters long. What is the height of the college building? a. 5.2 meters b. 5.8 meters c. 6.3 meters d. 7.3 meters 104. One third of Rams savings in National Saving Certificate is equal to one half of his saving in Public Provident Fund. If he has Rs. 50,000 as total savings, how much has he saved in Public Provident Fund? a. 20,000 b. 30,000 c. 20,050 d. 27,000 105. An insect climbs up a 10 meters high pole. It climbs up 3 meters in the first minute but slips down 2 meters in the second minute, again climbs up 3 meters in the third minute and slip down 2 meters in the fourth minute and so on. It reaches the top of the pole in: a. 17 Min. b. 19 Min. c. 15 Min. d. 20 Min. 106. The ratio between two numbers is 3 : 4. If their L.C.M. is 180, what are the numbers? a. 44 and 48 b. 45 and 60 c. 44 and 46 d. 60 and 62 107. A sum of Rs. 430 has been distributed among 45 people consisting of men, women and children. The amounts given to men, women and children are in the ratio 12 : 15 : 16. But, the amount received by each man, woman and child are in the ratio 6 : 5 : 4. What is the amount each man, each woman and each child receives? a. Rs. 12, Rs. 10 and Rs. 8 b. Rs. 11, Rs. 9 and Rs. 10 c. Rs. 10, Rs. 9 and Rs. 8 d. Rs. 14, Rs. 13 and Rs. 10 108. Three partners A, B and C agree to divide the profit or losses in the ratio of 1.50 : 1.75 : 2.25. If, in a particular year, they earn a profit of Rs. 66,000, the share of each partner is: a. Rs. 18,000, Rs. 21,000, Rs. 27,000 b. Rs. 17,000, Rs. 22,000 and Rs. 27000 c. Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 22,000 and Rs. 28,000 d. Rs. 19,000, Rs. 21000 and 26,000 109. If 8 men working 9 hours a day can build a wall 18 meters long, 2 meters broad and 12 meters high in 10 days, how many men will be required to build a wall 32 meters long, 3 meters broad and 9 meters high, by working 6 hours a day, in 8 days? a. 40 b. 35 c. 30 d. 25 110. A trader allows 10% discount. What price should he mark on an article, which costs him Rs. 200 to gain 26% on the cost price? a. 200 b. 250 c. 280 d. 260 111. ****** tones of coat, when each is running 9 hours a day; how much coal will be required for 8 engines, each running 12 hours a day, it being given that 3 engines of the former type consume as much as 4 engines of latter type? a. 25 tonnes b. 20 tonnes c. 18 tonnes d. 24 tonnes 112. A can do a piece of work in 10 day, B in 12 days and C in 15 days. All being together, but A leaves the work after 2 days and B leaves 3 days before the work is finished. How long did the work last? a. 5 days b. 6 days c. 7 days d. 9 days 113. What is the value of the following expression? (1 + x) (1 + x2) (1 + x4) (1 + x8) (1 x) = ?

a. 1 + x16

b. 1 x16

c. x16 1

d. x8 + 1

114. Ms. Radhika drove at an average speed of 50 km/hour for the first two hours of her trip. For the next three hours, she averaged 20 km/hour. What was Ms. Radhikas average speed for the five-hour trip? a. 30 km/hour b. 32 km/hour c. 34 km/hour d. 36 km/hour 115. If X is the number satisfying 2<X<3 and Y is a number satisfying 7<Y<8, which of the following expressions will have the largest value? a. X2Y b. XY2 c. 5XY d. X2/Y 116. Water is poured into an empty cylindrical tank at a constant rate for 5 minutes. After the water has been poured into the tank, the depth of the water is 7 feet. The radius of the tank is 10 feet. Which of the following is the best approximately for the rate at which the water was poured into the tank. a. 44 cubic feet/minute b. 140 cubic feet/minute c. 440 cubic feet/minute d. 700 cubic feet/minute 117. Which of the following sets of numbers can be used as the lengths of the sides of a triangle? I. [5, 7, 12] II. [2, 4, 10] III/ [5, 7, 9] a. Only I b. Only III c. Only I and III d. All the three 118. If a rectangle has length L and the width is one half of the length, then the area of rectangle is: a. L b. L2 c. L2 d. 2L 119. If a + 2b = 6 and ab = 5 what is the value of 2/a + 1/b: 1 1 3 a. b. c. 3 2 2 120. What percentage of the numbers from 1 to 50 have squares that end in digit 1? a. 5 b. 10 c. 11

d.

5 2

d. 20

Section V Legal Aptitude Test (LAT)

Direction: In this section every question is appended with facts and principles, and multiple-choice answers. You are required to read the facts carefully, then read the principles, apply the principles in the given facts and make choice as to the most appropriate answer from the given four answers. 121. Facts: Raghuram owns a chemical factory in Delhi. During the process of making chemicals the factory drains out a lot of sewage. In course of time the chemicals contained in the sewage contaminated the source of underground water. Principle: If any person intentionally contaminated any source of public water in such a way that it becomes non-consumable, he shall be punished. a. b. c. d. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. Raghuram has committed offence because such contamination is due to working of his employees. Raghuram has committed an offence because his factory is liable for contaminating the ground water, and he owns the factory. Raghuram has not committed an offense. None of the above.

122. Facts: Akbar enters into an agreement with Birbal that if he pays Akbar a premium of Rs. 500 per annum and Birbals house is devastated by fire within one year of entering into agreement. Akbar shall make good the loss suffered by Birbal. Principle: if any person enters into wagering or betting agreements, such agreements would be illegal and cannot be given for enforcing obligations. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. The agreement entered into between Akbar and Birbal is a wagering agreement and even if Birbalss house is devastated by fire he cannot claim price of the house against Akbar.

b. The agreement entered into between Akbar and Birbal is a valid contract and can be enforced if Birbals house is devastated by fire within one year of entering this agreement. c. Akbar and Birbal are betting thus this agreement is not a contract. d. None of the above 123. Facts: Parliament enacted a law, which according to a lawyer is not complete. The lawyer files a write petition against the Parliament for enacting such an incomplete law and wants a direction from the Court that Parliament should re-enact the law. Principle: Writ petitions can be filed against the State and the Court may issue mandamus against the government. According to Article 12 of the Constitution of India, the State includes the Government and Parliament of India and Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. No write would lie against the Parliament, as the Court has no authority to direct the Parliament to enact or re-enact a law because it provided by the principle of separation of power. b. Parliament is State within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution and as such writ petition would lie against the Parliament. c. No writ would lie against the Parliament because Parliament can alter even the Constitution of India. d. None of the above.

124.

Facts: A competent court sentenced a convict to undergo rigorous imprisonment for seven years. The Jailor puts this prisoner for breaking stories and also puts him as lobourer for construction operation inside the Jail. The prisoner has not given any consent for doing such manual work. The prisoner challenges such forced work and labour as violative of his fundamental right under Article 23 of the Constitution. Principle: Article 23 reads, that traffic in human beings and beggar and other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law, Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from imposing compulsory service for public purposes, and in imposing such service the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or any of them. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. The Prisoner cannot be asked to do forced labour without his consent. b. The Jailor has committed an offence by putting the prisoner to work against his will. c. The Jailor has committed to offence. d. The court has passed an illegal sentencing order because such punishments are proscribed by the Constitution. 125. Facts: Kundan a Scientist discovers that turmeric has healing properties, for his findings he applies for the grants of a Patent. Principle: Patent is a legal monopoly granted for invention. It is required that thing invented must be novel, non obvious and industrially useful. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following a. Kundan would get a Patent because he has invented something, which is industrially useful. b. Kundan would not get a Patent because his research is not in the interest of India. c. dan would get a Patent because he has put research in finding healing properties of turmeric. d. dan would not get a Patent because his research is obvious.

126. Facts: Shivam used a mark to brand all his cows so that his cows could be identified. Bhupendra also started
using the same mark to brand his cows with the intention that at grazing field cows could mix up and he can take Shivams good breed cows. Principle: Trade Mark is a mark used by business people to distinguish their product from that of others. In order to be a Trade Mark it must be used in the course of trade. Any person using Trade Mark of others for his products shall be punished. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Bhupendra must be punished because he used Trade Mark of Shivam. b. Bhupendra cannot be punished because he has branded his cows.

c. Bhupendra cannot be punished for using this mark because it is not a Trade Mark. d. Shivam and Bhupendra both must be punished because branding cows is punishable. 127. Facts: Ramdin enters into an agreement with Vishal under which Vishal undertook to kill Ramdin when Ramdin is asleep. For this act, Ramdin deposited Rs. 5,000 with a bank, which Vishal could withdraw once he has performed the aforesaid task. Vishal kills Ramdin according to terms of agreement. Principle: Law of Contract mandates that two or more people are free to create mutual rights and obligations provided such rights and obligations are not opposed to public policy. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Vishal must get Rs. 5,000 because he has performed his task. b. Vishal must be prosecuted because he has killed Ramdin. c. Vishal must not be prosecuted because Ramdin consented to be killed. d. Vishal msut be prosecuted for killing Ramdin but he should get Rs. 5,000 as agreed by Ramdin.

128. Facts: X, a muslim scarifies a cow on Bakra-id believing it to be a part of his religious rites. However, there was
a law of general prohibition on slaughter of cows. X, was prosecuted for slaughtering cow. Principle: Every person is entitled to freedom of conscience and to profess, practice and propagate his religion subject to public order, morality and health. Answer: a. X cannot be prosecuted as killing of cow on Bakra-Id has the Muslim religious sanction. b. X can be prosecuted as the state has a right to regulate the freedom of the religion in the interests of the public order. c. X can be prosecuted as the slaughtering of cow hurts other communitys religious sentiments. d. X can be prosecuted, as the slaughtering of cow is cruelty to animals.

129. Facts: S was hiding being a bus to catch some rabbits. M also came to the same place for hunting with his
gun. When M noticed some movements behind the bus he thought it was an animal and fired a shot due to which S, was killed. Can M be prosecuted for murder? Principle: A person is guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder if the act by which the death is caused is done with the intention of causing death. Answer: a. M, would not be liable for murder because he did not have the intention to kill, S. b. M, shall be liable for murder because he should have taken care to find out the target before shooting. c. M shall not be liable for murder because M was not expecting to identify the target before shooting. d. M shall be liable for murder because for whatever reason S, was killed. 130. Facts: X, opened a saving bank account in a local bank and Y, his neighbour helped him to complete the formalities. Subsequently X, used to entrust money to Y along with his passbook. One day X, discovered that Y, instead of crediting the money to his account was pocketing it and he made the entries in the passbook without authorization. Principle: A person who knows that he is dishonestly and fraudulently inducing the other person to part with property, which inducement causes or is likely to cause harm to other in reputation or property is said to cheat. Which one of the following is correct? a. Y has not cheated X, as the bank did not authorize the entries in the passbook. b. Y, cheated X, as he dishonestly pocketed the money. c. Y. has not cheated X, as it was the duty of X to deposit the money himself. d. None of the above. 131. Facts: Ganesh is a well-known artist and his paintings has earned recognition worldwide. One day he paints a picture titled mother earth wherein he depicted a naked woman and from her womb a plant is coming out. He puts this painting in exhibition. Principle: Whoever sells, lets to hire, distributes, publicity exhibits or in any manner puts into circulation, or for purposes of sale, hire, distribution, public exhibition or circulation, makes, produces or has in his possession any obscene book, pamphlet, paper shall be punished.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Ganesh must be punished. b. Ganesh cannot be punished because his painting is an act and it cannot be called obscene. c. Ganesh has made a painting, which portrays a naked woman and is indeed obscene thus he must be punished. d. Ganesh has abused his freedom of expression by painting an obscene picture thus he must be punished.

132.

Facts: Anand saw a great fire near his house; he started pulling down houses in order to prevent the conflagration from spreading. In this process he pulled down two houses in his neighbourhood. Principle: Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that it is likely to cause harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Anand has committed offence of destroying property of others. b. Anand has committed no offence. c. Anand is liable to pay compensation. d. Anand is not liable to pay compensation. 133. Facts: Anthony is a woodcutter. One day when he was at work a number of children flocked him and asked him to make a cricket bat for them. Without listening to them he continued to chop woods using a heavy axe. Suddenly a piece of chopped wood flew and struck one child who was standing just two feet away from him as a result of which the child lost his one eye. Principle: Nothing is an offence, which is done by accident or misfortune and without any criminal intention or knowledge in the doing of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means and without proper care and caution. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Anthony is liable for causing injury to child. b. Anthony is not liable because it was merely an accident. c. Anthony is not liable because children flocked to him. d. None of the above. 134. Facts: A Law teacher saw a good programme relating to wild life and environment protection on National Geographic Channel. He recorded the programme and showed it to his college students. He charged students paltry sums to meet expenses towards recording and editing of this programme. National Geographic Channel field suit against the teacher for infringing their Copyright. Principle: No broadcast reproducing right to performers right shall be deemed to be infringed by the making of any sound recording or visual recording for the private use of the person thanking such recording, or solely for purposes of bona fide teaching or research. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. The law teacher ahs infringed Copyright of National Geographic Channel. b. The law teacher has used this programme for teaching purposes thus he has no infringed Copyright. c. The law teacher has been contributed from students thus it is a commercial show thereby he has infringed Copyright. d. None of the above. 135. Facts: A cable operator shows a new film on his cable and transmission of the film takes place at 2 a.m., when all the subscribers of the cable operator are sleeping. The producer of the film prosecutes the cable operator for infringement of copyright of his film. The cable operator takes the plea that though the film was shown yet nobody has seen the film: as such there is no infringement of Copyright. Principle: Copyright in any work of literature, art, drama, cinematography etc. would be infringed. If an unauthorized publication takes place. Publication shall mean communicating such work of people, meaning thereby, making any work available for display or diffusion other than by issuing copies of such work. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Since film was shown at a time when people were sleeping, there is no publication.

b. Communication does not require actual act of watching, making available for watching is enough for publication. c. For infringement of Copyright it is required that there must be authorized publication. d. None of the above. 136. Facts: Alexander deals in coconut oil only and having showroom and offices all around the country. The registered office is Banglore. One day he received a call from Suresh, a merchant from Delhi. Suresh is a dealer in edible oils. Suresh said, please send me 1,000 tons of oil and without stating which oil he wants, he put down he phone. Principle: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void. Choose which one of the following action Alexander should take. a. Alexander should immediately supply 1,000 tons of coconut oil, as a contract has taken place. b. Alexander should not supply any oil because Suresh has not made it clear as to which oil he wants. c. Alexander should call up Suresh and ask him which oil he wants. d. None of the above. 137. Facts: Shyama agrees to sell to Meena a specific cargo of goods supposed to be on its way from England to Bombay. Shyama is a recognized importer of various commodities and she confirms her dealing quite in advance. In the present case, it turned out that, before the day of the bargain the ship conveying the cargo had been cast away and the goods lost and this was not within the knowledge of Shyama and Meena. Due to this event Meena suffered loss. She asked Shyama to compensate her or supply goods on the agreed price. Shyama refused. Principle: Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void. However an erroneous opinion as to the value of the things which forms the subject matter of the agreement, is not be deemed a mistake as to a matter of fact, Choose the most appropriate answer from the following a. Court would award damages to Meena. b. Shyama should buy the specific cargo and supply the same to Meena. c. If Shyama supplies the cargo, she cannot claim difference as to market price on the date of supply and as on the date of agreement. d. None of the above. 138. Facts: Ramesh entered into a contract with Suresh under which he sold his house for Rs. 5 lakh. This contract was signed and registered on 15 February, 2005. On 20 February, 2005 a suit was filed by legal heirs of Ramesh to get the contract dated 15 February, 2005 annulled by the Court on the ground that Ramesh is not of sound mind. The Court found that Ramesh was suffering from acute depression resulting in forgetfulness and had orientation problems and was put on medicines for neurotic and psychiatric ailments since 10 Feburary, 2005. Principle: Only persons of sound mind can enter into a contract. A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a contract, if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgement as to its effect upon his interests. A person, who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind, may make a contract when he is of sound mind. A person, who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind, may not make a contract when he is of unsound mind. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following. a. Ramesh is competent to enter into contract dated 15 February, 2005. b. Ramesh was of sound mind when he entered into the contract. c. Ramesh cannot be considered of sound mind on 15 February, 2005. d. Under all circumstances the contract entered between Ramesh and Suresh is valid. 139. Facts: A, a man who consumed too much liquor at his friends birthday party, entered into a altercation with X a cigarette vender and took a knife out of his pocket and injured X. The injury proved fatal. A, is charged for the offence of murder. Principle: A person who is voluntarily intoxicated is liable for his act, as if a person having the knowledge does the act and intention to do while a person involuntarily intoxicated can claim immunity for the act. Can A take the defence of intoxication?

a. b. c. d.

No, because it was voluntarily. Yes, because it was involuntarily. Depends on the full circumstances of the case. None of the above is correct.

140. Facts: X, was walking on a lonely road when he came face to fact with Y. Y took out a knife from his pocket and threatened X, and asked him to hand over his gold ring and purse. X, took out his revolver. On seeing it, Y started running away. Even then Y, was running away from the spot, X shot Y on his legs and injured him. Principle: A person is allowed to defend his body or property by the use of reasonable force if he apprehends danger to his body or property by the act of other person. Which of the following is correct? a. X, can defend himself against the act of Y, as he apprehends danger to his life. b. X, cannot defend himself as there was no reasonable apprehension of danger when Y, started running away. c. X, can defend himself as Y, was a thief. d. None of the above. 141. Facts: X, has tamed his dog so that he understands his language. In order to take revenge from Y, x conspires with his dog to kill Y. Principle: When two or more persons agree to do an illegal act or an act, which is legal by illegal means, such agreement amounts to criminal conspiracy. Which of the following is correct? a. X, is guilty of conspiracy for killing Y. b. X, is not guilty because the required number of persons are not present. c. X, is guilty because conspiracy with a tamed dog that understands the language is there. d. None of the above. 142. Facts: X, is Ys servant. On his way to his masters house to report for duty, he stops at a roadside teashop to have tea. There he see Z, and starts shouting in front of the other customers that Z, was a dishonest person, which in fact he was not. Principles: I. If a person by his act lowers the reputation of another in the eyes of right thinking people, the person whose reputation is under attack can sue for damages. II. Master if liable for the act of the servant done in the course of employment, however the master is not liable if the act of the servant is not connected with his employment. Which one of the following is correct? a. Y, is liable for defaming Z, as X, was his servant. b. Y, is not liable for damages as he is a very poor person. c. X, is liable for defamation as his act of defaming Z, as in no way connected with his employment with Y. d. None of the above

143.

Facts: A, an Indian has property worth Rs. 100 crores in Iran, which the Govt. of Iran his nationalized. A filed a case in the highest Court of Iran to recover his property, but lost it. A, now wants to file a suit in the International Court of Justice (I.C.J). Both India and Iran have accepted the compulsory jurisdiction of the I.C.J. Principle: Only States (nations) can be parties to be dispute before the I.C.J. Answer: a. A can file a suit against Iran in the I.C.J., as he is an India. b. A can file a suit against Iran in the I.C.J. only if Iran allows him to file. c. A cannot file a suit against Iran in the I.C.J. d. A can file a suit against Iran on behalf of India in the I.C.J. 144. Facts: Ms. Rosa applied for a job in response to an advertisement placed by Navin & Co., a private concern, in the Hindustan Times. Despite the fact that Rosa, was fully qualified for the job, she was not called for the

interview as the employer thought that since a woman has to maintain a family, he should prefer a man to a woman who has no corresponding liability. Principle: State shall not discriminate between any person in the matters of employment on the grounds of sex. Answer: a. Rosa cannot be employed, as she is inferior to a man. b. Rosa cannot be employed, as the number of unemployed men in the country would increase. c. Rosa does not have a right to be employed, as Navin & Co. is a private company. d. Rosa cannot be employed, as her proper place is her home. 145. Facts: In pursuance of an order passed by the Supreme Court of India, the Govt. of Delhi bans all light motor vehicles, which do not conform in Euro-II norms. Arvind Motors, an auto-dealer challenges the ban as it violates his right to carry his business. Principle: Every citizen of India has a fundamental right to carry on any trade or business or profession of his choice subject to the imposition of reasonable restriction by the state. Answer: a. The Govt. of Delhi has a superior right and the ban is justified. b. The ban is justified, as the right of Arvind Motors to carry his business is not absolute. c. The ban is not justified, as the Govt. of Delhi cannot deprive any person of his right to carry on his business. d. None of the above. 146. Facts: A, B and C form a partnership firm. All the partners being in capital Rs. 10 lakhs each. It is agreed that instead of their shares in the profits of the firm. B and C will continue to charge interest @ of 12% per annum on their capital irrespective of the fact whether the firm is making profits or not. Principle: Partnership is the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried on by all or any of them acting for all. Answer: a. A, B and C form a valid partnership firm. b. A, B and C does not form a valid partnership firm. c. The firm will be valid only if A also agrees to charge interest as the same rate instead of his share in the profits. d. None of the above. 147. Facts: Kamiah, a student leader in the Faculty of Law, JNU University, Jodhpur assaulted a teacher injuring him seriously. Kamiah was arrested by police and prosecuted for the offence of causing grievous hurt. Subsequently, the Dean, Faculty of Law rusticated Kumiah from the Faculty of Law of 5 years. Kamiah challenges the rustication. Principle: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice. Answer: a. Kamiah will succeed as he is prosecuted and punished for the same offence twice. b. Kamiah cannot succeed, as he ought to have known that he can be rusticated as well as punished for the assault. c. Kamiah cannot succeed, as rustication from Faculty of Law does not amount to punishment. d. None of the above Directions: Q148-Q150: Following questions pertain to common understanding of legal words and terminology. Choose correct answer from the choices given under each question. 148. ******* liberty of the individual, which cannot be deprived of except according to the procedure established by: a. The Parliament b. The Judiciary c. Law d. The President 149. Sub justice means: a. That which is finally decided by a Court. b. Something still not under judicial consideration. c. Something, which cannot be decided by judiciary but only by the Parliament.

d. Under judicial consideration. 150. X is appointed by the Court to represent a poor litigant. X is called: a. Amicus Curiae b. Advocate for poor c. Legal aid advocate d. None of the above