Hema Notes

1. All of the following will imply systematic error except: A. 10X rule B. 2:2 S C. R 4S D. 8 1 S 2. Which of these is an antiglycolytic agent? A. Sodium Fluoride B. EDTA C. Citrate D. Heparin

Regrine Lagarteja

3. The hepatic phase of hematopoiesis begins around the ___ week of gestation. A. 8 to 9 B. 4 to 5 C. 7 to 8 D. 19 to 20 4. if an object is focused at the center of the field of vision of a microscope, and the object does not change its position even if the objectives are shifted, then the microscope is said to be: A. parcentric B. refractory C. immobilized D. irradiated 5. All of the following may result to a 10X rule violation, except: A. change in the reagent lot B. change in the photodetector of a machine C. change in the control material lot D. change in the med tech performing the exam due to changes in work shift 6. Which of these statements is true? A. QC is an important part of the QA program. B. QA is not related to QC. C. QA and QC are synonymous. D. QA is part of QC. 7. Which of these phases is not part of definitive hematopoiesis? A. hepatic B. mesoblastic C. myeloid

D. medullary 8. Multilineagefactor which stimulates growth and maturation of erythrocytes, granulocytes, monocytes and megakaryocytes. A. G CSF B. lL- 3 C. Kit ligand D. lL 6 9. This reflects the RBC diameter on a Wright stained blood film. A. MCH B. MCV C. MCHC D. RDW 10. Choose the correct pair. A. basophilicnormoblast : metarubricyte B. pronormoblast : reddish cytoplasm C. rubliblast : pyknotic / condensed nucleus D. polychromaticnormoblast : color associated with stained hemoglobin 11. The site for primitive hematopoiesis is the: A. bone marrow B. spleen C. liver D. yolk sac 12. Flow cytometric analysis of immature cells showed CD38 and CD71 positively. Which can be inferred from the markers present? A. Cells are immature with commitment to the lymphoid series. B. Cells are destined for myeloid differentiation. C. Cells are immature with commitment to the erythroid lineage. D. These are stem cells which have yet to show differentiation. 13. All of these will result to a hematoma, except: A. inadequate pressure at venipuncture site B. When the bevel of the needle is only partially in the vein C. when the needle goes through the vein D. multiple draw by evacuated technique 14. This is considered to be first fully matured organ in a fetus. A. bone marrow B. thymus C. liver

D. spleen 15. Which of these is true regarding extravascular hemolysis? A. it is always pathologic if it occurs in a normal person B. this is the minor physiologic pathway in most individuals C. it occurs in an organ D. it occurs inside a blood vessel 16. T, B and NK cells come from this lineage: l. lympiod ll. erythroid lll. Myeloid lV.megakaryocytic 17. Nucleoli are usually more prominent in these 2 RBC stages: A. polychromaticnormoblast and metarubricyte B. prorubricyte and reticulocyte C. pronormoblast and prorubricyte D. reticulocyte and rubriblast 18. The tourniquet should be applied: A. 2 to 4 inches below the arterial puncture site and left on for no longer than 1 minute before the arterial puncture is performed B. 2 to 4 inches below the venipuncture site and left on for no longer than 1 minute before the venipuncture is performed C. 2 to 4 cm above the venipuncture site and left on for no longer than 1 minute after the venipuncture is performed D. 2 to 4 inches above the venipuncture site and left on for no longer than 1 minute before the venipuncture is performed. 19. All of the following are appropriate sites for venipuncture, except: A. mediancubital B. basilica C. cephalic D.brachiocephalic 20. Which of these is the most immature RBC precursor? A. basophilicnormoblast B. polychromaticnormoblast C. metarubricyte D. rubriblast 21. What is the normal size of the central pallor in a mature RBC? A. one fourth

B. three fourths C. one third D. two thirds 22. Which of these statements is incorrect? A. The MCH is the most clinically significant of all the RBC indices. B. The RDW is increased if there is an abnormality in the size of the RBC. C. Central pallor is seen in abnormal RBCs. D. MPV is computed manually in a routine CBC. 23. Which of the following may be expressed as standard deviation or coefficient of variation? A. precision B. accuracy C. positive predictive value D. negative predictive value 24. Cells that line the external surface of venous sinuses in the bone marrow and provide support for developing hematopoietic stem cells are called: A. reticular cells B. Kupffer cells C. Macrophages D. Adipose cells 25. The orthochromatic erythroblast is also known as: A. metarubricyte B. prorubricyte C. rubriblast D. reticulocyte 26. Variation in RBC size is known as: A. anisochromia B. anisocytosis C. poikilocytosis D. basophilia 27. These are surface markers found on cell membranes: A. RDW B. Lj C. MCV D. CD

28. Which of this is the correct order of draw during a venipuncture procedure? A. yello fluoride no additive green citrate B. yellow light blue red green lavender gray C. any order of draw is acceptable D. yellow gray heparin no additive light blue 29. The appropriate dilution of bleach to be used in controlling laboratory infection is: A. 1:5 B. 1:100 C. 1:10 D. 1:2 30. Which of the following is consistent with a hematopoietic stem cell? A. CD 34 negative and CD 38 positive B. high expression of HLA DR C. CD 34 positive and low HLA DR D. CD 10 positive 31. All of these are changes observed in the nucleus of hematopoietic stem cells, except: A. chromatin condensation B. loss of nucleus C. decrease in size of nucleus D. appearance of granules 32. During the fifth month of fetal development, hematopoiesis begins in the: A. liver B. spleen C. yolk sac D. bone marrow 33. All of the following are interpreted as out of control followed by rejection of the tests, except: A. 1 2s B. 1 3s C. 2 2s D. R 4s 34. This described the closeness of a measurement to the true or actual value. A. primary standard

B. precision C. accuracy D. secondary standard 35. Characteristics of differentiated hematopoietic cells except: A. loss of nucleoli B. appearance of cytoplasm granules C. increasednucleo cytoplasm ratio D. decreasing cell size 36. Which of this is best used to visualize reticulocytes? A. Wright B. Vital stain C. Romanowsky D. Giemsa 37. Which of this does not characterize the nuclear chromatin of RBCs during its maturation? A. coarse B. clumped C. fine D. condensed 38. The most commonly used control charts in the clinical laboratory is the: A. Improved Neubauer B. Westgard C. Multirule D. Levey Jennings 39. All of the following do not occur in the medullary phase, except: A. yellow marrow replaces red marrow in long bones B. yolk sac begins to disappear C. recognizable clusters of developing erythroblasts, granulocytes and monocytes begin to form D. myeloid: erythroid ratio reaches 3:1 40. In doing capillary collection, the lancet must not be inserted more than 2 mm because it can cause: A. hematoma B. phlebitis C. osteomyelitis D. hemoconcentration 41. As one one ages, the size of the thymus:

A. depends on the rate of development of infection B. increases C. decreases D. stays the same 42. This is an increased concentration of larger molecules and analytes in the blood due to a shift in water balance. A. hemoconcentration B. transfixation C. hematoma D. allergies 43. The number of nucleli is: A. directly proportional to the amount of protein synthesis that occurs in the cell B. increased in mature, normal RBCs C. indirectly proportional to the amount of protein synthesis that occurs in the cell D. not significant in assessing the cells maturity 44. Which of these is not a characteristic of extravascular hemolysis? A. it occurs in the bloodstream B. haptoglobin and hemopexin are involved C. it occurs outside the macrophage D. iron is picked up by transferrin 45. A patients current WBC count is 25,000/cu.mm. Seeing the elevated value, the med tech on duty retrieved the previous WBC count of the patient for comparison. Which process did the med tech just perform? A. accuracy check B. delta check C. internal quality control D. calibration 46. In a Wright stained flim, reticulocytes stain: A. blue gray B. yellow green C. red orange D. blue black 47. Which of these vessels is located on the upper forearm and on the thumb side of the hand? A. mediancubital B. radial

C. cephalic D. basilica 48. This is the last RBC stage in which the cell is capable of undergoing mitosis, although likely only early in the stage. A. rubriblast B. basophilic erythroblast C. polychromaticnormoblast D. metarubricyte 49. Active red marrow hematopoiesis occurs in the following, except: A. sternum B. iliac crest C. kidney D. skull 50. The largest lymphoid organ in the body is the: A. spleen B. liver C. yolk sac D. bone marrow 51. Which of the following is true regarding the mesoblastic phase of hematopoiesis? A. hematopoiesis occurs intravascularly B. start of definitive hematopoiesis C. beginning synthesis of fetal hemoglobin (HbF) D. peaks within 4 to 5 weeks age of gestation 52. The fist S in MSDS stands for: A. spleen B. serum C. safety D. sheet 53. This is the coordinated effort to organize the various activities in the laboratory to provide the best possible service to the patient and the physician. A. Lj B. Westgard C. QC D. QA 54. theory surrounding the source of stem cells which says that individual cell lineages have a specific stem cell

A. polyphyletic B. monophyletic C. stochastic D. instructive 55. Which of the following is true? A. Systematic errors only affect accuracy. B. Reference ranges are predetermined and uniform throughout the world. C. Random errors have a more profound impact than systematic errors. D. Calibrators and control materials are interchangeable 56. All of this are fates of hematopoietic stem cells, except: A. increase in basphilia B. apoptosis C. differentiation D. self renewal 57. Choose the incorrect pair. A. syncope : fainting B. ecchymosis : hematoma C. basilica : venipuncture site D. radial : arterial puncture site 58. Which of this is not a function of erythropoietin? A. decreased in apoptosis B. increase of rate of surviving cells entering the circulation C. delays the time for reticulocytes to be released D. increase in hemoglobin production 59. All of this are requirements for a quality specimen, except: A. correctanitcogulant and preservative B. proper patient preparation C. timed specimen drawn randomly D. proper patient identification 60. Which of this shows the correct order of RBC maturation (from most immature to the most mature)? A. pronormoblast basophilic erythroblast polychromatic normoblast metarubricyte reticulocyte mature RBC B. myeloblast promyelocyte myelocyte metamyelocyte stab PM N

C. rubliblast prorubricyte myelocyte metarubricyte reticulocyte mature RBC D. proerythroblast prorubricyte metarubricyte polychromatic normoblast reticulocyte mature RBC

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