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Name: -

Duration - 60 Minutes
Marks - 100
(Please Select All Appropriate Answers)

1. Where are definitions used to create fields on a page in the user interface and
columns in application data tables stored?

a. PSFIELD
b. PSRECFIELD
c. PS_DBFIELD
d. PSDBFIELD

2. Where are the definitions that make up a PeopleSoft Application stored?


a. SYSTEM CATALOG
b. PEOPLETOOLS TABLES
c. APPLICATION TABLES
d. PEOPLETOOLS CATALOG

3. PeopleSoft has its own naming convention for system and non-system tables.
In the list below, RECORDNAME refers to the name of any table or record.
Referring to the above information, which one of the following identifies the
naming convention PeopleSoft uses for system tables?
a. PS_RECORDNAME
b. SYSRECORDNAME
c. PS$RECORDNAME
d. PSRECORDNAME
e. SYS_PSRECORDNAME

4. Where is the Application Data Cached?


a. Application server
b. Web server
c. Batch server
d. Browser Cache
e. None
5. What is the record field property that should be set to validate dates for < 30
days and > 30 days?
a. Setting %Date as constant
b. Required
c. Specifying Default using Record and Field values
d. Reasonable date
e. Validate date

6. Prompt Tables always validate against the underlying Record?


a. TRUE
b. FALSE

7. What are the requirements of an effective dated table?


a. Define EFFDT
b. Define EFF_STATUS
c. Define EFFDT as key, in ascending order
d. Define EFFDT, EFF_STATUS
e. Define EFFDT as key, in descending order

8. EFFDT cannot occur at what occurs levels?


a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
e. 4

9. What type of a field can have Auto Update?


a. CHAR
b. LONG CHAR
c. DATE
d. IMAGE
e. NUMBER

10. PeopleSoft tracks object changes using a system table. Which PeopleTools
System table is used to track object changes?
a. SYSRELEASE
b. SYSOBJECTS
c. PSRELEASE
d. PSOBJECTS
e. PSVERSIONS

11. Which of the following are true for Default Century option: Specify the last
two digits of a year, which is typically what users enter in a Date field. If you
enter 50 as your Default Century option
a. When a number 0 through 50 is entered as the year in a Date
field, the century defaults to 2000
b. If a number from 51 through 99 is entered in a Date field, the century
defaults to 2000.
c. If a number from 51 through 99 is entered in a Date field, the
century defaults to 1900.
d. When a number 0 through 50 is entered as the year in a Date field,
the century defaults to 1900.

12. Selecting Search Edit from Record Field Properties?


a. Validates a field for Data to be entered on save of search
dialog.
b. Allows to edit the search key.
c. Searches Edit fields for some values.
d. Option available only for Alternate Search Keys

13. When can a value be added in the underlying table?


a. Prompt Table with Edit
b. Translate Table Edit
c. Yes/No Edit
d. Prompt Table with No Edit
e. All of the above

14. Which of the following record definitions is NOT stored on the database and is
therefore NOT required to be built?
a. View
b. SQL Table
c. Derived/Work Record
d. Sub Record
e. Query View

15. Audits can be implemented at the following levels


a. FIELD
b. PAGE
c. COMPONENT
d. RECORD
e. FIELD & RECORD
16. What Fields are typically marked as required?
a. EFFDT
b. EFF_STATUS
c. CHECK BOX
d. RADIO BUTTON
e. All of the above

17. How many indexes are built if a record has 3 Search keys and 2 Alternate
Search Keys?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 0
d. 5
e. 1

18. What type of Index is created when more than a Search Key Field exists in a
Record?
a. Non-Clustered Index
b. Unique
c. Clustered Index
d. b,c ??
e. b,a ??

19. All related fields are display only?


a. TRUE
b. FALSE

20. All updateable fields at a scroll must be from the same record definition?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

21. What is the purpose of specifying search keys and alternate search key fields?
a. For Maintaining Data Integrity
b. Building the Basic and Advanced Filters for the Search Page
c. Building the List Box in the search page
d. All of the above
e. None

22. What are the Component Parameters specified while creating the Content
Reference?
a. Menu
b. Component
c. Market
d. Node Name
e. All of the Above
23. If a record in scroll are has no EFFDT field and a prompt in the scroll area has
EFFDT then the rows are retrieved based on
a. All rows are retrieved
b. Rows categorized against the system date.
c. Rows categorized by the EFFDT of the table writing to.
d. Current, active rows are retrievable.
e. None

24. Parent Record property in the Record Properties is used for?


a. To create Parent/Child Relationship
b. Ensures online cross-reference utilities will correctly identify
the relationships among records.
c. Enforce Data Integrity
d. Efficient buffer performance
e. None

25. If a Page references a field from a record, the component processor will select
every column and all rows of data subordinate to the search key for storage in
the application server buffer except
a. Level 0 with non search keys, Related Fields, Derieved/Work Field
b. Level 1 with search keys, Related Fields, Derieved/Work Field
c. Level 2 with search keys, Related Fields, Derieved/Work Field
d. Level 3 with search keys, Related Fields, Derieved/Work Field
e. Level 0 with search keys, Related Fields, Derieved/Work Field

26. What is the default port set for PeopleCode Debugger in Configuration
Manager?
a. 9500
b. 9000
c. 7000
d. 9010
e. 6100

27. Views do not need?


a. Defaults
b. Audits
c. Descending Key
d. Alternate Search Keys
e. a, b

28. Secondary page inherits the buffer level of the control from where it was
launched?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

29. How do you set up table-sharing in PeopleTools applications?


a. Add the field, SETID, as a key field to each table you want to
share, and then define the set control field.
b. Add the field, BUSINESS_UNIT, as a key field to each table you want to
share, and then define the set control field.
c. Add the field, SETID, as a key field to each table you want to share
d. Add the fields, BUSINESS_UNIT and SETID, as key fields to each table
you want to share.
e. Add the field, BUSINESS_UNIT, as a key field to each table you want to
share.

30. You are asked to perform some security-related tasks. You determine the
quickest method to do this is using the Data Mover utility and the
GRANT_USER and ENCRYPT_PASSWORD commands. However, to perform
these commands you must login to Data Mover in bootstrap mode. Referring
to the above, how do you launch Data Mover in bootstrap mode?
a. Login using the SYSADM user ID and password.
b. Login using the database access ID and password.
c. Login using your regular user ID without a password.
d. Login using your regular user ID and password, and execute SET
BOOTSTRAP.
e. Login using your regular user ID and password.

31. What are the different types of Configuration Templates available while
creating a Application Server Domain thru PSADMIN Utility?
a. LARGE, MEDIUM , SMALL
b. DEVELOPER, LARGE, MEDIUM, SMALL
c. LARGE, DEFAULT, MEDIUM, SMALL
d. LARGE, DEFAULT, SMALL
e. DEVELOPER

32. What are the high-level keys available on many control tables?
a. SETID
b. BUSINESSUNIT
c. RECORDID
d. INSTANCEID
e. TRANSACTIONID
33. If a component is set to Interactive Processing and One of the Page is set to
deferred Processing then the Page performs
a. Deferred Processing
b. Interactive Processing
c. Expert Entry
d. Error
e. None

34. PeopleCode variables (global, component, local, and parameter), method, and
property names can now be up to _______ characters long
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 500
d. 1500

35. PeopleCode attached with Push Button can be associated with which of the
following events?
a. Field Edit
b. Field Change
c. Save Edit
d. Field Edit, Field Change
e. Field Edit, Field Change, Save Edit

36. Activate Event is Valid for following


a. Standard
b. Secondary
c. Standard, Secondary &Sub Page
d. Standard & Secondary

37. A PeopleCode program is automatically saved to a file while you’re working on


it. This checkpoint will NOT occur at which the following times:
a. Every 10 keystrokes.
b. Every 5 Minutes
c. On a save command, just prior to the save being executed
d. When another PeopleCode program is selected to be edited

38. Interlink data type can be declared as


a. Global
b. Local
c. Global & Component
d. Component & Local
(SAME IS TRUE FOR JavaObject, TransformData,XmlNode)

39. The following APIObject data type objects can’t be declared as Global:
a. Session
b. PSMessages collection
c. PSMessage
d. Query classes
e. All Tree classes (trees, tree structures, nodes, levels, and so on.)
f. JavaObject
All other ApiObject data type objects must be declared as Global

40. DoSave( ) can be called from one of the following events


a. FieldEdit, FieldChange, MenuItemSelected
b. MenuItemSelected, SavePrechange & SavePostChange
c. SaveEdit , SavePostChange, Workflow
d. SaveEdit, SavePreChange, SavePostChange, and Workflow

41. Display Characteristics are associated with which PeopleCode event


a. RowInit
b. Field Change
c. Field Edit
d. A&B
e. A&C

42. What is the maximum length for any PeopleCode function name?

a. 8
b. 10
c. 18
d. 32
(the correct option as per PeopleBook is 30)

43. In an Application Engine Program, Maximum number of Actions in a Step?

a. 8
b. 6
c. 7 (SQL & Call Section can’t be together)
d. 9

44. In an Application Engine Program Call Section – Action it is possible to leave


the Program ID with blank Value in certain cases?

a. True
b. False

45. PeopleSoft allows multiple long fields per State Record?

a. True
b. False

46. Let us take a Temp Table TMP_TAO.


In People Tools options the following instance settings are done
Temp Table Instances (Total) : 5
Temp Table Instances (Online): 4
In AE1 App Engine Program the instance count to TMP_TAO is 3
In AE2 App Engine Program the instance count to TMP_TAO is 5.

How many instances are created to TMP_TAO ?

a. 8
b. 17
c. 13 (5+3+5) refer to Temporary Table in App Engine
d. 12

47. The physical, dedicated tables are locked at the time the Application Engine
program is loaded into memory?

a. True
b. False

48. PeopleSoft’s hub to handle complex system-to-system interactions.


a. Application Server
b. Web Server
c. Integration Broker
d. Integration Engine

49. From the following statements which one is NOT true about Pub Broker:
a. Pub Broker Dispatcher polls message queue at 15-second intervals (by
default)
b. Pub Broker Handler gets NEW publications from the Dispatcher
c. Pub Broker is invoked after Pub Contractor Handler evaluates
routing rules and writes contract(s)
d. Pub Broker
e. Interacts with Pub Message Queue, Routing Rules, Pub Contract Queue

50. Non-Repudiation property can be set


a. PIA-.PeopleTools->Integration Broker->Node Definition
b. Application Designer->Message Channel->Properties
c. Application Designer->Message ->Properties
d. PIA-.PeopleTools->Integration Broker->Monitor->Message Details

51. Which is a record that PeopleTools adds to every level of the Message
Structure during processing
a. PSCAMA
b. PSCODESET
c. PSNODEPROP
d. PSGATEWAY

52. The main attributes of a Component Interface (CI) are

a. Component Search Keys, Peoplecode Functions and Fields & Scrolls


b. Keys, Properties & Collections and Methods only
c. Name, Properties & Collections and Methods only
d. Keys, Properties & Collections, Methods and Name
e. a and b only

53. Which of the following are TRUE when a Component Interface (CI) is created
on component that has “Add” action enabled

a. Get keys, Create keys and Find keys gets created automatically
b. Get keys and Find keys are only created
c. Only the standard methods are created for the CI
d. The Create method alone gets created for the CI
e. The Create method is created along with the other Standard
methods for the CI

54. With reference to the Component Interface Tester which of the following is
NOT TRUE

a. GetExisting option is equivalent to opening a record in


Update/Display Mode only
b. Create New option is equivalent to creating a new record in Add mode
online
c. GetExisting option is equivalent to opening a record in Update/Display
or Correction mode online
d. Find option is equivalent to searching a record
e. When a record is saved a return value of 1 indicates success
55. In Configuration Manager, the Connect ID edit box must contain a value or
the user can't sign on to the system in a two-tier environment
a. True
b. False

56. The DB User mentioned in Connect ID should have permission to which Three
PeopleSoft Tables?

a. PSACCESPRFL
b. PSXLATITEM
c. PSSTATUS
d. PSAUDIT
e. PSOPRDEFN

57. What is the configuration file that contains the entire collection configuration
values for a given application server domain?

a. PSAPPSRV.CFG
b. PSPRCS.CFG
c. PSNTSRV.CFG
d. PSAPPDOM.CFG

58. PSWORKLIST record is used for workflow routing . It should contains


minimum of
a. 6 keys in Ascending orders
b. 6 keys in Descending orders
c. 5 keys in Ascending orders
d. 6 keys in descending can be Alternate search key
59. TriggerBusinessEvent is used for triggering the workflow and its written on
workflow event. TriggerBusinessEvent has the syntax
a. TriggerBusinessEvent(BusProcess, BusActivity, BusStep ,BusEvent,);
b. TriggerBusinessEvent(BusProcess,BusActivity,BusEvent);
c. TriggerBusinessEvent(BusProcess,BusActivity,BusEvent,BusStep);
d. TriggerBusinessEvent(BusProcess,BusActivity, BusStep );

60. What the following command will do?


psadmin -p start -d hrdmo

a. Starts the Application Server


b. Starts an AE Process
c. Starts a Web Server Process
d. Starts a Process Scheduler

Psadmin –p IS FOR PROCESS SCHEDULER AND


Psadmin –c IS FOR APPS SERVER