Question Pool

Communicable Diseases

1. It is defined as an illness caused by an infectious agent or its toxic products that are transmitted
directly or indirectly to a well person through an agent, vector, or inanimate object.
A. Infection
B. Communicable disease
C. Contagious disease
D. Infectious disease

2. A type of disinfection done when the patient is no longer the source of infection is called?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Remittent disinfection
C. Terminal disinfection
D. Direct disinfection

3. This is an individual who/that harbours the organism and is capable of transmitting it to a

susceptible host but does not show manifestations of the disease
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Transfer
D. Inanimate objects

4. Is the destruction of pathogenic organisms outside the body through direct physical or chemical
means
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfection
C. Pasteurization
D. Dry heat

5. When will you consider that an infection is acquired in the hospital and called as
nosocomial?
A. When infection occurred upon admission
B. When infection is acquired before discharge
C. When infection is validated by the laboratory of the hospital
D. When the patient is within 14 days of hospital stay

6. 3. Presence of classical signs and symptoms that are highly specific to a certain
disease is known as:
A. Tell tall signs
B. Pathognomonic sign
 C. Distinctive sign
D. Fastigium sign

7. Which of the following causative agent are able to live in a non-nutritive environment
and is easily transmitted in the hospital?
A. S. aureus
B. P. aeruginosa
C. E. Coli
D. H. influenza

8. 8.The infection brought by normal biota of the body with low degree of virulence but
may take advantage when the body is immunocompromised:
A. Opportunistic infection
B. Nosocomial infection
C. True infection
D. Parasitic infection

9. When a disease can be easily transmitted from one person to another, such infection
is:
A. Communicable
B. Infectious
C. Contagious
D. Virulent

10.Which of the following statements are true?

A. All communicable diseases are infectious and contagious.
B. All contagious diseases are infectious but not all infectious are contagious.
C. Communicable diseases are all contagious but not infectious.
D. Infectious diseases are contagious and also communicable.

11.An organism that is capable of invading and multiplying in the body of the host:
A. Causative agent
B. Reservoir
C. Bacteria
D. Carrier

12.The infecting ability of a microorganism depends on its degree of:

A. Pathogenecity
B. Communicability
C. Teratogenecity
D. Epidemiology
13.Shigella species only requires 10 microorganisms to cause infection while Salmonella
must have 1,000 bacteria to initiate disease. This property of microorganism is known
as:
A. Viability
B. Toxigenecity
C. Virulence
D. Invasiveness

14.(Refer to number 16) Also, this directly proportional relationship of number and
infection refers to what property of the causative agent?
A. Dose
B. Antigenicity
C. Specificity
D. Mode of action

15.A person whose medical history and symptoms suggest that he may now have or be
developing some communicable disease is known as:
A. Patient
B. Carrier
C. Contact
D. Suspect

16.A special type of toxin found on the cell wall of the gram negative bacteria that
causes sepsis especially when they lyse themselves (suicide bomber):
A. Exotoxin
B. Enterotoxin
C. Endotoxin
D. Epitoxin

17.The type of exotoxin that is released in the GI tract that stimulates the vomiting center
of the body and exhibits its harmful effect by the inflammation of the intestinal tract:
A. Exotoxin
B. Enterotoxin
C. Endotoxin
D. Epitoxin

18.A non cellular microorganism that contains a nucleus of DNA and/or RNA with a
surrounding protein coat and are self-limiting. Also known as the ultimate parasite:
A. Virus
B. Protozoa
C. Amoeba
D. Bacteria

19.Which of the following is considered a fomite?

 A. Staphylococcus aureus carrier
B. Urinals
C. Mosquito
D. Hands

20.A vector that transmits a microorganism by harboring it to its system and serves as its
reservoir:
A. Mechanical vector
B. Biological vector
C. Accidental host
D. Intermediate vector

21.Level of prevention focused on the early sick and aimed to detect diseases at its early
state:
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quarternary

22.Which of the following is a primary level of disease prevention:

A. Mass screening
B. Contact tracing
C. Hand washing
D. Prompt treatment

23.It is the killing of microorganisms by chemical and physical means. It can be done
through dry heat, moist heat and radiation:
A. Disinfection
B. Sterilization
C. Sanitation
D. Disinfestation

24.The process of weakening microorganism through consecutive steps of freezing and

dessication. This process is used for making vaccine:
A. Use of formaldehyde
B. Lyophilization
C. Attenuation
D. Moist heat application

25.Clostridium tetani has the following characteristics, except:

A. Drum-stick in appearance and normal inhabitant of intestine
B. Aerobic, spore-forming rod shape bacteria
C. Found in soil fomites and excretion animals and human
D. Produces one of the most potent toxin
26. A child with measles (rubeola) is being admitted to the hospital. In preparing for the
admission of the child, which of the following will the nurse include in the plan of care?
A. contact precautions
B. enteric precautions
C. respiratory isolation
D. protective isolation

27. The pediatric nurse is caring for a hospitalized child with diagnosis of rubella (german
measles). The nurse reviews the physician's progress notes and reads that the child has
developed Forcheimer's sign. Based on this documentation, which of the following would
the nurse expect to note in the child?
A. petechial spots located on the palate
B. small blue spots noted on the buccal mucosa
C. a fiery red edematous rash in the cheek
D. swelling of the parotid gland

28. The pediatric nurse specialist provides an educational session to nursing students about
the childhood communicable diseases. A nursing student asks the pediatric nurse
specialist to describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common
complication of mumps. Which of the following signs and symptoms is indicative of the
most common complication of this communicable disease?
A. a red, swollen testicle
B. nuchal rigidity
C. pain
D. earache

29. An antigen is a substance which:

A. renders bacteria harmless
B. neutralizes certain toxins
C. produces local erythema
D. stimulates antibody production

30. The term enanthem refers to:

A. the toxin produced by a causative agent
B. the systemic symptoms of a disease
C. the rash on the skin
D. the eruption of rash on the mucosa

31. A weaken toxin is called:

A. Toxicide
B. Toxoid
C. Toxicoid
D. Toxicant
32. After business trip to an underdeveloped country 3 weeks ago, Chris is diagnosed with
hepatitis A. In completing the assessment, the nurse might expect which of the following
responses to be most likely associated with the client's contracting of the disease?
A. I went hunting to forests and swarmed by mosquitoes
B. three months ago, I ate oysters in Kenya
C. I drank lemonade from the roadside while on this trip
D. My business partner is a hepatitis carrier

33. The client has an order to receive purified protein derivatives (PPD) 0.1ml intradermally.
The nurse administers the medication utilizing a tuberculin syringe with a:
A. 26G, 5/8 inch needle inserted almost parallel to the skin with the bevel side up
B. 26G, 5/8 inch needle inserted at a 45deg. angle with bevel side up
C. 20G, 1 inch needle inserted almost parallel to the skin with the bevel side up
D. 20G, 1 inch needle inserted at a 45deg. angle with bevel side up

34. The nurse reading the PPD skin test for a client with no documented health problems.
The site has no induration and a 7mm area of ecchymosis. The nurse interprets that the
result is:
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. needs to be repeated
D. borderline

35. The client who is HIV positive has had a Mantoux test. The result shows a 6mm area of
induration. The nurse evaluates that this result as:
A. Negative
B. Borderline
C. Positive
D. needs to be repeated

36. The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which of the following
assessments, if made by the nurse, are not consistent with the usual clinical
presentation of tuberculosis?
A. nonproductive or productive cough
B. anorexia and weight loss
C. chills and night sweats
D. high grade fever

37. The client with TB is being started on anti-TB therapy with  Isoniazid (INH). The nurse
assesses that which of the following baseline studies has been completed before giving
the client the first dose?
A. coagulation times
B. electrolytes
C. serum creatinine
D. liver enzymes
38. 12. The nurse has given the client with tuberculosis instructions for proper handling and
disposal of respiratory secretions. The nurse evaluates that the client understands the
instruction if the client verbalizes to:
A. wash hands at least four times a day
B. turn the head to the side if coughing or sneezing
C. discard the used tissues in the plastic bag
D. brush the teeth and rinse the mouth once a day

39. The client has been taking Isoniazid for month and a half. The client complains to the
nurse about numbness, paresthesias, and tingling in the extremities. The  nurse
interprets that the client is experiencing:
A. small blood vessel spasm
B. impaired peripheral circulation
C. hypercalcemia
D. peripheral neuritis

40. The client with AIDS is diagnosed with cutaneous Kaposi's sarcoma. Based on this
diagnosis, the nurse understands that his has been determined by which of the
following?
A. appearance of reddish blue lesions noted on the skin
B. swelling in the lower extremities
C. punch biopsy of the cutaneous lesions
D. swelling in the genital area

41. Which of the following individuals is least likely at risk for the development of Kaposi's
sarcoma?
A. a man with a history of same sex partners
B. a renal transplant client
C. a client receiving antineoplastic medications
D. an individual working in an environment where exposure to asbestos exists

42. The clinic nurse assesses the skin of the client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. Which of
the following characteristics is not associated with this skin disorder?
A. discoloration and pitting of the nails
B. silvery white, scaly patches on the scalp, elbows, knees, and sacral regions
C. complaints of pruritus
D. red purplish, scaly lesions

43. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with herpes zoster. Which of the following
characteristics does the nurse expect to note when assessing the lesions of this
infection?
A. a generalized body rash
B. small, blue-white spots with a red base
C. a fiery red, edematous rash on the cheeks
D. clustered skin vesicles
44. The nurse manager is panning in the clinical assignments for the day. Which of the
following staff members would not be assigned to the client with herpes zoster?
A. the nurse who had chicken pox during child hood
B. the new nurse who never had german measles
C. the nurse who never had enteric fever
D. the new nurse who had flu vaccine

45. The nurse plans to instruct a client with candidiasis (thrush) of the oral cavity about how
to care for the disorder. Which of the following is not a component of instructions?
A. to rinse the mouth four times daily with a commercial mouthwash
B. to avoid spicy foods
C. to avoid citrus fruits and hot liquids
D. to eat foods that are liquid

46. The clinic nurse inspects the skin of client suspect of having scabies. Which of the
following assessment findings would the nurse note if this disorder were present?
A. the appearance of vesicles or pustules with a thick, honey colored crust
B. the presence of white patches scattered about the trunk
C. multiple straight or wavy, threadlike lines beneath the skin
D. patchy hair loss and round neck macules with scales

47. The best physical unit in a hospital for isolation for a person with an air-borne infection
is:
A. any ward that provides a distance barrier of six feet between beds
B. an open ward with cubicles
C. a private room with a bath
D. a mixed infection floor with adequate ventilation

48. The reason why medical personnel wear isolation gowns when caring for a person with
an airborne infection is to:
A. minimize atmospheric contamination
B. protect patient from secondary infection
C. keep one's uniform free from gross contamination
D. complete the isolation technique

49. Which among the following is not mandatory in the completion of the Personal Protective
Equipments (PPEs)?
A. Cap
B. Mask
C. Gown
D. Gloves

50. In covering the mouth when coughing or sneezing, which among the following is
acceptable?
A. Cover your mouth with a handkerchief
B. Turn to your side and cough or sneeze at the sleeves of your shirt
 C. Cover your mouth using your hands
D. Turn your back to the person you are speaking to when you cough or sneeze

51. Of what value is cleaning the hands with soap and water?
A. the germicidal effect is high
B. the bacterial flora is reduced to zero
C. many microorganisms are removed
D. protective sebaceous material is removed

52. Immunity means:

A. presence of red blood cells
B. protection against disease for life
C. resistance of the host to a disease
D. resistance to pathogenic organism

53. A foreign substance which stimulates the formation of antibodies after a given length of
time is called an:
A. Agglutin
B. Allergen
C. Antigen
D. Antisera

54. A synonym for measles is:

A. Rubeola
B. Rubella
C. herpes simplex
D. herpes zoster

55. The enanthem in measles is called:

A. forcscheimer's spots
B. koplik's spots
C. rose spots
D. petechial spots

56. A complication of measles which might lead to personality changes is:

A. Chorea
B. Myelitis
C. Encephalitis
D. Conjunctivitis

57. The primary human reservoir for Staphylococcus aureus is:

A. adult genitalia
B. blood
C. skin
D. feces

58. The best example of medical asepsis is:

A. hand washing
B. use of sterile instruments
C. drawing medication into syringe
 D. autoclaving

59. Which of the following is not a symptom of localized infection?

A. Redness
B. Edema
C. restricted movement of the affected body part
D. lymph node enlargement

60. When the nurse teaches about "safe sex" practices, it should be stated that the proper
use of condom includes:
A. using petroleum jelly as a lubricant
B. using saliva as lubricant
C. leaving space at condom tip
D. all of the above

61. A common opportunistic infection that affects AIDS patient and causes white patches on
the tongue and oral mucosa is:
A. Histoplasmosis
B. herpes simplex
C. toxoplasmosis
D. candida albicans

62. Kaposis's sarcoma often presents as

A. lung infection
B. a CNS infection
C. blister on the skin
D. a "bruise" or large area of plaque in the skin

63. The best method for you to prevent exposure to HIV while at work is to:
A. know the HIV status of every patient
B. keep yourself in good health
C. always use gloves when likely to come into contact with body fluids
D. use personal protective equipment exactly as recommended at all times

64. Unmarried elderly people may be at high risk fro contracting HIV because
A. they are most likely to have multiple partners
B. because they are less inclined to use condoms because pregnancy is not an
issue
C. they do not think they are risk for AIDS
D. sexuality is often not assessed by health care providers for this group

65. Antiretroviral therapy is begun when

A. the first opportunistic infection occurs
B. an individual is found to be HIV positive
C. weight loss begins to occur along with fatigue
D. CD4 cell count drops to 500 cells/mL

66. The cause of AIDS is:

A. the presence of HIV in the body
B. suppression of the immune response by HIV
 C. a defect in a person's immune system
D. replication of HIV

67. CD4+ T-cell levels tend to be elevated in a client with which of the following conditions?
A. an autoimmune disorder
B. cancer
C. AIDS
D. Allergies

68. Which of the following actions of the nurse would be least likely to result in a client
comfort when attending an STD clinic?
A. addressing the client by name
B. standing with your arms crossed as you talk with the client
C. making eye contact appropriate for client's culture
D. asking the nature of the problem in an area that maintains privacy

69. What is the most common and serious complication of gonorrhea infection among
women?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. acute septicaemia
C. sterility
D. kidney failure

70. What is the test done to verify the presence of gonorrhea in women?
A. pelvic exam
B. cervical culture
C. cervical biopsy
D. ultrasound of the reproductive organs

71. Which of the following is an example of a non-specific body defense?

A. Cellular immunity
B. Antibodies
C. Inflammatory response
D. Phagocytes

72. Of the following bodily defences against infection, which one is an example of a specific
defense?
A. Lymphocyte formation
B. Intact skin
C. Nasal cilia
D. Stomach acid

73. A protein that is capable of invading the body is called a/an?

A. Antigen
B. Interferon
C. Complement
D. Antibody

74. Which of the following describes humoral immunity?

A. It is mediated by the T-cell system
 B. It primarily defends against fungal infections
C. It aids the production of lymphokines
D. It is mediated by anti-bodies produced by the B lymphocytes

75. Immunity obtained as a result of experiencing an illness is known as:

A. Active natural immunity
B. Passive natural immunity
C. Active acquired immunity
D. Passive acquired immunity

76. Microorganisms have the ability to invade the body tissues and proliferate
causing infection. One factor is virulence of organism. What is the other factor?
A. Weakness of the body
B. Resistance of the host
C. Resistance of the organism
D. Weakness of the organism

77. As a result of sharing a needle with an HIV-positive Person A, Person B became

infected. In the chain of infection, before person B became infected, the reservoir
was:
A. Person A
B. Person B
C. The dirty needle
D. The hole made by the needle into Person B’s skin

78. As a result of sharing a needle with an HIV-positive person (Person A), Person B
becomes infected. In the chain of infection, before Person B became infected,
the portal of exit for the virus was:
A. Person A’s needle puncture site
B. Person B’s needle puncture site
C. Peron A’s blood
D. The needle

79. The nurse is caring for different clients in the hospital. Which of the following
would be the most susceptible to acquiring an infection?
A. A 45-year old female with an abdominal pain
B. An 18-year old male with a cast and a broken leg
C. A 78-year old male with dehydration and excoriated skin
D. A 23-year old female recovering from facial injuries sustained from a car accident

80 – 85. Situation: You are a caring for a 25-year old female client who comes in the
Emergency room complaining of nausea and severe abdominal pain associated with vomiting.
You noted an enlargement in her abdominal area. There is significant increase in the WBC
count in the routine CBC showing significant eosinophillia.

80. With knowledge of the signs and symptoms, what laboratory diagnostic exam would you
expect the doctor to request for next?
A. Urinalysis
B. Fecalysis
 C. Lipid Profile
D. Pregnancy test

81. The client has a history of eating fresh vegetables that uses “night soil” as a fertilizer.
Which helminth is thought to be associated with such?
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Necator americanus
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Strongyloides stercoralis

82. The common name of this helminth is:

A. Giant intestinal round worm
B. New world hookworm
C. Old world hookworm
D. Beef tapeworm

83. Which of the following developmental stages of this parasite is ingested to the
intestines?
A. Unfertilised ova
B. Embryonated ova
C. Larval stage
D. Adult

84. Treatment of this helminth may include:

A. Albendazole
B. Piperazine citrate
C. Pyrantel pamoate
D. All of the above

85. Complications of contracting the disease may include:

A. Cholangitis
B. Malnutrition
C. Biliary tract obstruction
D. All of the above

86.