Documenti di Didattica
Documenti di Professioni
Documenti di Cultura
TECHNICAL Page 1
The fuselage has a circular cross section and is pressurized in all areas except:
- Nose radome
- Wheel wells
- Air conditioning compartments
- Tail cone AOM 1.1/1 P4
In the absence of air pressure, and independently of any electrical supply, the pack valve is spring-loaded
closed. It remains open in the absence of electrical supply, provided it is pneumatically supplied.
AOM 1.2 P1
4. How to operate packs, engines and wing anti-ice during volcanic ash encountered?
a. Engine and wing anti-ice on. All packs high flow to increase stall margin.
b. Engine and wing anti-ice on. All packs off to prevent volcanic dust in aircraft.
c. Engine and wing anti-ice off. All packs off to gain more thrust.
d. Engine and wing anti-ice off. All packs as required. Ans. a
- Turn on engine and wing anti-ice system and place all air conditioning packs to high flow to further
improve engine stall margin by increasing bleed air flow.
- It may be possible to stabilize one or more engines at idle thrust setting where the EGT will remain
within limits. An attempt should be made to keep at least one engine operating at idle and within limits
to provide electrical power and bleed air for cabin pressurization until clear of the volcanic dust. AOM VOL2
3.3/10 p2
Max cooling is obtained by fully closing the temperature control valve and fully opening the heat exchanger
cooling air-modulating flap.
AOM 1.2 P2
6. How is the temperature in each cabin zone controlled?
a. By the pack controller adjusting the pack discharge temperature
b. By opening or closing the hot air valve
c. By modulating the trim air valve to mix the hot air with cold air from the pack
d. By modulating the pack temperature control valve Ans. c
Individual zone temperature control is achieved by mixing the hot trim air with cold air from the packs.
The controller received signals from pack outlet temperature, compartment ambient temperature and
required temperature selected with the COMP TEMP selectors.
The trim air valve is then modulated by the controller to mix hot trim air from the hot air manifold with cooled
air from the pack to obtain required temperature for each compartment (zone).
The hot air manifold is supplied from pneumatic manifold downstream of pack valves through one hot air
supply valve that regulates the supply pressure at 4 PSI above cabin pressure. AOM 1.2 P2
7. Which case causes the pack valve to close by pneumatic pressure?
a. An overheat occurs at the compressor temperature outlet or turbine inlet
b. Pneumatic pressure is not supply to the Pack
c. Engine fire handle is pulled
d. Engine start selector is at CRANK, START A or START B Ans. a
Pack valve P/B in auto mode, the valve will close when:
- The ENG fire handle is pulled
- Outflow valve P/Bs are selected OFF
- ENG START selector is at CONT RELIGHT position and one of the two start valves is open
- ENG START selector is at CRANK, START A or START B position
- Over temperature occurs at compressor outlet or turbine inlet (pack valve closes pneumatically)
The valve is closed by spring force if not pneumatically supplied
The valve is closed by pneumatic pressure when overheat occurs at compressor outlet or turbine inlet of the
pack.
8. Which statement is true after setting PACK mode SEL P/B to MAN and setting the PACK MAN CTL switch
toward cold?
a. Trim air valve moves toward close position
b. Pack temperature control valve moves toward closed position
c. Pack valve moves toward closed position
d. Hot air valve closes
Ans. b
10. What will caused the cargo compartment ISOL valve to close automatically?
a. Trim air overheat condition
b. A disagreement between P/B and the actual ISOL valve position
c. Smoke is detected in a cargo compartment
d. Fan for air extraction in the cargo compartment has stopped Ans. c
- OFFR (P/B out, white OFF light on). The isolation valve closes and the fan stops. The smoke detection
circuit is reset.
- FAULT (amber). Indicates disagreement between P/B selection and actual valve position.
An emergency ram air inlet, which is located forward of the air conditioning pack 1 cooling air inlet, provides
for ventilation of the pressurized fuselage with ram air. The opening of the ram air inlet is only authorized in
flight when the cabin differential pressure is lower than 1 psi.
When cabin pressure is in AUTO mode, the FWD and AFT outflow valves will open simultaneously to permit
unrestricted ventilation. AOM 1.2 P2, 14
13. Where does the airflow for cooling and ventilating of the avionics equipment come from?
a. Cooling air distribute duct in the cockpit
b. Air in the avionics compartment
c. Air from outside the aircraft which is drawn by the blower
d. a. and b. are correct Ans. d
Airflow for cooling and ventilation of avionics equipment is either from cooling air distribute duct in the
cockpit or drawn from air in the avionics compartment by the blower. The air is directed to the circuit breaker
panels, all panels in the cockpit and all equipment in the avionics compartment.
After cooling all equipment, air is directed towards either three positions overboard valve or the inboard
valve which discharges air to forward cargo under floor area. AOM 1.2 P4
14. What are the positions of the inboard and overboard valve while aircraft is on ground and ENG stopped?
a. Inboard and overboard valve closed
b. Inboard valve opened and overboard valve closed
c. Inboard valve closed and overboard valve opened
d. Inboard valve opened and overboard valve partially opened Ans. c
The operating condition of the two valves depending on flight phase as follows:
On ground with one engine stopped
- Overboard valve is fully opened
- Inboard valve is closed
In flight, or on ground with both engines running
- Overboard valve is fully closed
- Inboard valve is opened
- If the cooling of the avionics compartment is found insufficient, the overboard valve can be partially
opened.
AOM 1.2 P18
15. When does the ground-cooling unit operate?
a. Both packs are off, both ENG fuel levers are off
b. Both packs are off, both ENG fuel are off and outlet temperature of the unit exceeds 25o C
c. Both packs operating, both ENG fuel levers are off and GND COOL OVRD P/B is selected ON
d. Both b. and c. are correct Ans. d
- AUTO (P/B in). If both packs are off and both ENG FUEL levers are off, the outflow valves of the
ground cooling unit is open. The fan runs when the outflow is fully open. The ground cooling unit
operates if the outlet temperature of the unit exceeds 25o C.
- FAULT (amber). Illuminates if a failure is detected at ground cooling unit system.
- OFF (P/B out, white OFF light on). Outflow valve closed, fan and cooling unit stopped.
PACK OVRD P/B
- NORMAL (P/B out). Ground cooling system operates according to CTL P/B function.
- ON (P/B in, white ON light on). The ground cooling unit operates with packs operating if both ENG
FUEL levers selected OFF
AOM 1.2 P18
16. Which pneumatic source is not recommended for air conditioning systems?
a. Low pressure ground connection
b. High pressure ground air supply unit
c. Ram air inlet when air conditioning system is not operating
The require bleed air for the air conditioning system is supplied either by engine compressors or APU or a
high pressure ground air supply unit (it is recommended not to use external HP air for conditioning due to
possible refrigeration pack contamination)
Condition air can also be supplied directly to the cabin air distribution system by a low-pressure ground.
A ram air inlet is also provided for fresh air ventilation in flight when the air conditioning systems are not
operating.
AOM 1.2 P1
17. How does outflow valves operate?
a. By 3 electric motors, which are controlled by one of the two automatic system or the manual system
b. By 3 electric motors, which are controlled by the two automatic system
c. By 2 electric motors, which are controlled by one of the two automatic system or the manual system
d. By 2 electric motors, which are controlled by the two automatic system Ans. a
OUTFLOW VALVES
One is located in forward of the air conditioning bay, the other aft of the bulk cargo
compartment.
Each valve is actuated by three electric motors, which are independently controlled by
one of two automatic systems or the manual system.
AOM 1.2 P5
Each outflow valve can be closed from overhead panel, where its position is displayed.
AIR CONDITION……………………..SET
When taking off with both packs off:
- For passenger’s comfort, after setting climb thrust, set one pack on.
- After slats are retracted, set the remaining pack on.
- Check flow bars in line and all air conditioning indicates are normal.
When taking off with both supplied by APU: AOM VOL2
- Set APU bleed switch to off after setting climb thrust. 3.2/2 p9
26. What is the procedure for turning the packs ON again when taking off with both packs supplied by APU?
a. set APU bleed switch OFF after setting climb thrust
b. set APU bleed Switch OFF after slat retraction
c. set APU bleed switch OFF when perform climb checklist
d. set APU bleed switch OFF at any time after airborne Ans. a
AIR CONDITION……………………..SET
When taking off with both packs off:
- For passenger’s comfort, after setting climb thrust, set one pack on.
- After slats are retracted, set the remaining pack on.
- Check flow bars in line and all air conditioning indicates are normal.
When taking off with both supplied by APU:
- Set APU bleed switch to off after setting climb thrust.
AOM VOL 2
ECON flow may be selected ON if required. Approx. 68% airflow is provided. 3.2/2 p9
27. During flight, if yaw damper 1and pitch trim 1 dropped together with speed limit flag displayed on PFD.
Which system has failed?
a. Yaw damper and pitch trim computer channel 1
b. Flight augmentation computer channel 1
c. Green hydraulic system
d. ADC 1 Ans. b
FLIGHT AUGMENTATION COMPUTERS (FAC)
Two FAC’s are installed in the avionics compartment. The computer design is based on digital and analog
technology. The computer consists of circuits required for yaw damping, pitch trimming, flight envelope
protection and maneuvering speed computation. The yaw damper as well as pitch trim system consists of
two independent computing channels: a command channel and a monitor channel. When a failure is
detected by comparison of channels, the corresponding yaw damper or pitch trim lever trips to off. The FAC
provides yaw command to the rudder and a trim command to the horizon stabilizer. AOM 1.3P9
28. Which statement is not a function of the yaw damper? Ans. a
a. Yaw assist during manual takeoff and engine failure
b. Yaw assist during automatic go-around and engine failure
c. Turn coordinate during manual flying
d. Dutch roll damping during manual flying
YAW DAMPER
This system provides the following functions:
- Dutch roll damping, which is armed during the whole phases of flight. This function is activated if the
IRS detects a yaw rate.
- Turn coordination, which is armed if no autopilot is engaged in CMD. This function is activated if the
EFCU detects a roll control wheel deflection, which is above a predetermined threshold.
- Autopilot assistance in case of an engine failure. This function is activated if the IRS detects a lateral
AOM 1.9/4
acceleration, which is above a predetermined threshold when AP is engaged in CMD with SRS or G/A
MODE. P1
29. If you fly the aircraft with high nose up attitude and found the pitch trim moving, which part of the pitch trim
system is working?
a. Electric trim
b. Auto trim
c. Mach trim
d. Alpha trim Ans. d
PITCH TRIM
This system provides the following functions:
- Electric trim: - This basic trim function provides pitch axis stabilization and enables cancellation of the
load on the control column by means of the pitch trim control switches (rocking lever) on the control
wheel.
- Automatic trim or autotrim: - This function, which is armed at AP engagement in CMD or CWS. The
rocking levers are deactivated in this mode and the electrical control signals come from the FCC.
- Mach / VC trim: - This function improves the longitudinal static aircraft stability as a function of mach
number or VC (IAS). Mach trim is active in clean configuration.
- Angle of attack trim (alpha trim): - The purpose of this function is to counter any
- Nose up tendency at high mach number when no AP is engaged and speed brakes are
not extended. AOM 1.9/5
- o
Excessive angle of attack at low speed (greater than 19 ). P1
30. If you fly the aircraft with high nose up attitude and found the throttle moving to full thrust. Which part of the Ans. d
FAC system is engaged?
a. Speed limit protection
b. Stall warning protection
c. Alpha trim protection
d. Alpha floor protection
- VC trend, which is the predicted speed in arrow trend and the aircraft, would reach that speed in 10
second.
- Alpha floor protection
Alpha floor function is active above 100 ft provided ATS is armed. When the FAC detects a too high
angle of attack, it engages THRUST LATCH (THR L) mode (with thrust corresponding to the selected
mode on the TRP) in TCC. AOM 1.3P5
O
31. When does the SRS command bar allow A/C nose up attitude of as much as 21.5 instead of the normal
pitch attitude?
a. Windshear protection engaged
b. Stall protection engaged
c. Both pitch trim levers dropped off
d. Alpha floor protection engaged Ans. a
Windshear guidance principle
In windshear conditions and when windshear intensity becomes close to the aircraft limits. The SRS law will
progressively adapt its control to a survival strategy:
Yaw control:
In CMD, the AP controls the rudder only when the slats are extended. In straight flight, the AP commands
the rudder deflection to obtain and maintain a zero aileron deflection.
At slats retraction, the rudder is smoothly returned to neutral (in 10 sec, then the AP yaw actuators
declutches).
In case of engine failure, with SRS or GO AROUND mode engaged, the yaw damper immediately reacts to
compensate the lateral asymmetry. The AP yaw actuator takes over to achieve a zero aileron deflection. If
the engine failure occurs with AP engaged (the rudder trim is normally set at 0), the AP stabilizes the aircraft
with rudder. At slat retraction, the crew must maintain the rudder deflection and trim the aircraft manually
with the rudder trim. AOM 1.3P29
38. When can both autopilots be engaged at the same time?
a. CWS mode
b. Land mode
c. Go around mode
d. Both b and c Ans. d
In CWS, only one AP can be engaged at a time. In CMD, two AP’s can be engaged in approach (after
selection of LAND mode) and in go-around.
If one AP is engaged, the engagement of the second AP disengages the first engaged AP (except in CMD
after selection of LAND mode or in GO AROUND mode). AOM 1.3P28
39. What causes the V/S mode to automatically change to LVL/CH mode?
a. ATS reaches full or idle thrust
- When throttle levers retard to idle (5O) position in any AP/FD mode except PROFILE.
AOM 2.3/2P6
- When throttle levers are stopped manually during throttle reduction to obtain the desire thrust.
Note:
In PROFILE descent, RETARD green remains displayed as long as idle thrust is required.
When RETARD is engaged with LVL/CH or PROFILE, the throttles can be manually stopped at any
intermediate position.
When the throttle levers reach idle, or if levers are manually stopped while retarding, RETARD mode
disengages and the ATS declutches (A/THR blue on the FMA). AOM 1.3P24
44. What is the speed limit for using the autopilot to capture the LOC and GS?
a. 210 and 200 kt
b. 200 and 210 kt
c. 200 kt
d. 210 kt Ans. a
AOM 2.3/3P1
45. If your rate of descent is 1500 ft/min, when will you expect the ALT* engage?
a. At 100 ft before selected altitude
b. At 300 ft before selected altitude
c. At 500 ft before selected altitude
d. At 700 ft before selected altitude Ans. c
ALTITUDE ACQUIRE
ALT ACQ mode is armed automatically when the AP/FD is engaged in V/S, LVL/CH, TAKEOFF (SRS), or
GO-AROUND mode.
ALT (blue) → ALT* when ALTITUDE selected – ALTITUDE aircraft = vertical speed / 3 AOM 2.3 P2
51. With regards to AUTOLAND warning light, which statement is not correct?
a. Flashes below 200 ft, if excessive LOC or GS beam deviation warning is activated
b. Radio altimeter 1&2 reading differ by more than 10 ft during 1 sec (in LAND track phase)
c. Flare duration (starting at 50 ft) is greater than 13.5 sec.
d. Manual disconnect of autopilot Ans. d
LAND mode engages at 400 ft AGL or below provided GS and LOC modes are engaged in tracking phase.
The guidance in LAND green mode is similar to GS green and LOC green.
Once engaged, LAND mode cannot be disengaged except by engaging the GO AROUND mode. LAND
mode engagement is indicated on the FMA only (LAND green).
FLARE mode typically engages at 50 ft RA. Engagement is adjusted as a function of the aircraft vertical
seed. Engagement is indicated on the FMA (FLARE green).
In manual landing, at 30 ft RA, the FD roll bar is replaced by the yaw bar.
Rollout mode engages at main landing gear touchdown and is annunciated on the FMA.
When roll-out mode engages, the A/THR disengages (MAN THR on FMA)
AOM 1.3P42
52. With regards to the AUTOLAND function (both AP engaged), which statement is not true?
a. At 400 ft., land track phase engages provided LOC and GS track have been engaged for more than 10
sec.
b. At 50 ft., flare mode engages
c. At 30 ft., yaw bar comes in view
d. At touch down, retard mode and A/THR function disengage, ROLLOUT phase engages Ans. c
- Engage second AP when stabilized on the GS beam, GS track phase engages automatically.
- At 400 ft, land track phase engages provided LOC and GS track have been engaged in tracking phase.
- At 50 ft, flare mode engages.
- At 30 ft, align maneuver starts (the yaw bar comes in view if no AP is in CMD), ATS also retards the
throttle levers to idle (5o).
- At touch down, retard mode and A/THR function disengage ROLLOUT phase engages. AOM 1.3P41-42
53. What does it mean, if you see the LOC deviation index and scale flashing on the PFD?
a. LOC deviate more than 0.3 dot
b. LOC deviate more than half full scale
c. LOC deviate more than 1 dot
d. LOC failure Ans. a
LOC DEVIATION WARNING DISPLAY
Index and scale FLASH.
Indicates excessive LOC beam deviation (> 1/3 dot) if LAND mode selected and LOC track engaged with
CAT 2 or CAT 3 landing capability indicated on FMA.
Inhibited below 15-ft radio height. AOM 1.3P18
57. When can you read the after landing checklist “APU……..STARTED”?
a. The ON white light on the START p/b comes on
b. The blue ACCEL light comes on
c. The blue AVAIL light comes on
d. The blue ACCEL light goes off and the blue AVAIL light comes on Ans. d
The APU is started by a DC starter motor, which is fed by DC ESS bus. The APU can be started after the
fuel pump LOW PR light has gone out.
Selecting the master switch to ON arms the starting circuit. When the START p/b is pushed, the automatic
start sequence being as follows:
- The white ON light in the START p/b comes on.
- The blue ACCEL light comes on after air intake flap has fully opened and the starter is engaged.
- At 7% RPM, the ignition is initiated and fuel is supplied.
- At 50% RPM, the starter disengages and the white ON light in the START p/b goes off.
- At 95% RPM, the ignition is terminated, the blue ACCEL light goes off and the blue AVAIL light comes
on. AOM 1.4P2
58. What will cause the APU RPM to increase to 102.5%?
a. START p/b selected on
b. APU bleed switch selected on
To permit APU ground operation without constant supervision, the normal automatic shutdown system is
complemented by an automatic fire extinguishing system. If an APU fire is detected by the fire detection
circuits, the cockpit APU fire warning a red light on the nose gear bay and the horn are activated
simultaneously. At the same time an automatic APU shutdown is initiated. The fuel fire shutoff valve and the
isolation valve close.
After a ten second delay, the fire extinguisher bottle is discharged. AOM 1.4P3
O
60. When selected the APU MASTER SW to OFF, after a time delay, you will notice the EGT rises above 585
C momentarily before APU shutdown.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
APU EGT INDICATION (on ECAM APU page)
Normally green, but flashes if EGT exceeds 540 O C and turns amber if EGT exceeds 585 O C.
An overlimit is displayed during APU shutdown when the APU MASTER SW is selected OFF, independent
of the real EGT value. AOM 1.4P12
61. What is the altitude limit for APU start during flight with engine generator?
a. 15000 ft
b. 20000 ft
c. 25000 ft
d. 40000 ft
Ans. d
AOM 2.4P1
62. What is the altitude limit for APU to supply one pack with the wing anti-ice and to supply both packs?
a. 15000 ft / 20000 ft
b. 20000 ft / 25000 ft
c. 15000 ft in both cases
d. 20000 ft in both cases Ans. a
AOM 2.4P1
63. What the minimum oil quantity for APU operation?
a. 1/4
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. 3/4 Ans. a
AOM 2.4P1
64. How do you set the air condition system before takeoff if you desired to use APU bleed to supply pack
together with wing anti-ice?
a. APU bleed ON
b. APU bleed and wing anti-ice ON
c. APU bleed and wing anti-ice ON, one pack OFF
d. APU bleed and wing anti-ice ON, both pack OFF Ans. c
APU is capable of supplying electrical power simultaneously with both packs or one pack + wing anti-ice
AOM 2.4P1
AIR CONDITIONING…………………..SET
If FLX TO temp is 40O C or less, select both packs off. APU may be used to supply the packs. If APU bleed AOM VOL 2
is used and wing anti-ice is required, one pack must be selected off. 3.2/2 p9
65. Which statement is correct in regards to the PARKING checklist “BATTERIES….SET”?
a. Set battery switches to OFF
b. Leaves battery switches to ON
c. Set battery switches to OFF only if the flight is terminated
d. Set battery switches to OFF if the flight is terminated and the APU is shutdown Ans. d
PARKING CHECKLIST
18. BATTERIES………SET AOM VOL 2
Set battery switches to OFF provided APU is shutdown. 3.2/2 p13
AOM 2.5P1
68. For an aircraft equipped with the operational ACARS system, VHF COM 3 cannot be used for voice
communication.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
AOM 2.5P1
69. What does the ACARS message “NO COMM” mean?
a. VHF COM 3 failure
b. ACARS failure
c. ACARS is unable to send the downlink massage
d. Ground station does not acknowledge the downlink message Ans. d
DOWNLINK
Downlinks require the ground acknowledgement, which is generated by the ground station upon receipt of
an error-free downlink. The MU retransmits the message if it does not receive the acknowledgement within
15-25 sec. If the MU does not receive any response after 5 retransmission (6 downlinks total), the MU will
enter “NO COMM” condition and provides an alert to the flight crew. The message may be saved for
transmission at a later time. The MU will not attempt to transmit further downlinks, except for link test, until it
exists the “NO COMM” condition.
On receipt of the acknowledgement, the MU clears the message from its memory. AOM 1.5/8P3
70. On the ACARS main menu, what is the purpose of the SITUATION prompt?
a. To request for the ground assistance due to A/C malfunction
b. To be used when A/C is hi-jacked
c. To be used when A/C has an emergency
d. To communicate with the dispatch office Ans. b
ACARS SITUATION REPORT page
The situation report downlink message is formatted and encoded as hi-jack message. Thus, this report can
be sent if only the aircraft is hi-jacked. The downlink message may cause an alarm to the network controller
and the airline dispatch. AOM 1.5/8P23
71. On the OOOI (out-off-on-in) STATUS, when does the OUT event occur?
a. A/C movement
b. A/C starts to taxing
c. First engine is started
d. A/C becomes airborne Ans. a
ACARS OOOI STATUS
OUT:
Time displayed when the A/C has left the terminal but not yet airborne. (i.e. first aircraft movement and all
doors closed)
OFF:
Time displayed when the A/C becomes airborne. (i.e. strut switch = air)
ON:
Time displayed when the A/C has landed. (i.e. strut switch = ground)
IN:
Time displayed when the A/C is at the terminal. (i.e. at least one door opened) AOM 1.5/8P24
72. What is the purpose of ICSD?
a. Controls the AC generator to produce the constant voltage
b. Converts the variable engine RPM to produce output at a constant speed
c. Converts the variable engine RPM to produce output at a constant AC voltage
d. To connect or disconnect the corresponding generator from the electrical system by means of IDG
disconnect P/B Ans. b
INTEGRATED CONSTANT SPEED DRIVE (IDG)
The ICSD converts the variable engine accessory gearbox speed (about 4500 to 9075 RPM) to provide a
constant AC generator rotation speed (12000 RPM). Generator frequency is, therefore, maintained at 400 ±
4 HZ. A disconnect mechanism permits disconnection of the ICSD from the engine at any time.
Reengagement is possible on ground only when the engine is stopped. Oil temperature in the ICSD is
monitored through ECAM. AOM 1.6P1
c. ICSD temperature indicates amber on ECAM when temperature > 100O C Ans. c
APU drives an identical generator kept at constant speed by the APU speed control system
AOM 1.6P1
74. What does not happen automatically as a consequence of GEN fault?
a. The transfer contractor 1 and/or 2 are closed
b. The fault generator’s line contractor is opened
c. ECAM activated
d. GCU reset the faulty generator and returns the generator to normal operation Ans. d
GEN P/B
The P/B switch controls:
- The operation of the generator field and the generator line contractor closure.
- The rearming of the protection system after failure.
FAULT (amber):
The fault light comes on in the event of: -
- A protection trip initiated by the associated generator control unit (GCU). The line contractor
automatically opens.
- An opening of a line contractor except after one of the following manual actions:
76. Condition: External power is connected to the aircraft and the AVAIL light illuminates.
How can you turn on the cabin lighting without operating any aircraft avionics system?
a. Press the external power P/B on the overhead panel to ON
b. Press the external power P/B on the overhead panel to ON, switch off AC BUS 1 and 2
c. Turn on the maintenance bus switch
d. It is not possible to operate the cabin lighting separately from the A/C system Ans. c
When external power is connected to the aircraft (AVAIL light on) but not supplying the aircraft (ON light off),
the service buses can be supplied by selecting the MAINT BUS switch located on the forward cabin circuit
breaker panel to ON.
The switch is magnetically latched if the external power electrical parameters are normal (as long as the
AVAIL light is on in the EXT PWR P/B).
- AC GROUND / FLIGHT BUS and AC GROUND BUS are directly supplied.
- DC GROUND / FLIGHT BUS and DC GROUND BUS are supplied through TR 2. AOM 1.6P2
Lighting, cargo doors operation, cargo loading, and refueling are operative. AOM 1.6P11
77. In flight and one generator fails, which the AC BUS supplies the main and secondary galley?
a. Main galley is supplied by AC BUS 1 and 2, secondary galley is supplied by AC BUS 1
b. Main galley is supplied by AC BUS 1, secondary is supplied by AC BUS 2
c. Main galley is supplied by AC BUS 1 and 2, secondary is automatically shed
d. Main galley is automatically shed, secondary galley is supplied by AC BUS 1 Ans. d
GALLEY P/B
If the external power is not available:
- When two generators are operating, the main galley is supplied by the AC BUS 1 and 2; the secondary
galley is supplied by the AC BUS 1 only
- When both transfer contractor 1 and 2 close, which occurs if only one generator supplies the whole
electrical network, the main galley is automatically shed and only the secondary galley is supplied by
the AC BUS 1.
If an overload is detected after the automatic shedding of the main galley:
- In flight, the secondary galley electrical supply remains on.
- On ground, the secondary galley is no longer electrically supplied.
If the external power is available and coupled:
- Both transfer contractor 1 and 2 are closed but the main galley and secondary galley are electrically
supplied. AOM 1.6P8
78. What should you do if the GEN HI light (amber) on the GALLEY P/B illuminates during the flight? Ans. a
a. Manually shed the galley by momentarily pushing the GALLEY P/B
b. Manually shed the galley by momentarily pushing the GALLEY P/B, but the secondary galley will never
shed, only the main galley does
c. Nothing to do because both galley will automatically shed
d. Inform the cabin crew to shut down the galley equipment
GALLEY P/B
SHED: The light comes on when the main galley and the secondary galley are no longer supplied.
The shedding may be performed:
- Manually by action on the galley P/B.
- Automatically on ground any time the load of any generator is above the white arc on the AC load
indicator.
GEN HI (amber): The light comes on when the load of any generator is above the white arc on the AC load
indicator.
This may occur when only one generator is supplying the entire electrical load of the aircraft and the
automatic shedding of the main galley has failed. AOM 1.6P8
79. In flight, if AC BUS 1 off light comes on along with AC ESS OFF light, what action should you do to recover
AC ESS BUS?
a. Switch off all equipment that are affected by AC BUS 1
b. If GEN 1 is available, select the OVRD SUPPLY 1 P/B to ON
c. Switch off GEN 1, so that the GEN 2 will take over and recover the AC BUS 1
d. Nothing, because it would be only sub bus of AC BUS 1 failure Ans. b
- AC BUS 1 normally supplied by GEN 1
- AC BUS 2 normally supplied by GEN 2
- AC ESS BUS normally supplied by AC BUS 1 through the essential transfer contractor 1 and can be
connected upstream of the line contractor to the engine driven generator 1 or 2, via essential transfer
contractors using AC ESS BUS OVRD SUPPLY P/B switches in case of BUS 1 or 2 failure. AOM 1.6P4
80. Which is correct procedure for disconnect IDG (TAK-Z)?
a. Push to disconnect IDG for 3 sec.
b. Push to disconnect IDG not more than 3 sec.
c. Push to disconnect IDG for more than 3 sec
d. Release disconnect push button as soon as the GEN FAULT light illuminates Ans. d
IDG……………………..DISCONNECT
- The PUSH TO DISC IDG push button switch must be released as soon as the GEN FAULT light
illuminates.
NOTE
- If the DISC position is maintained for more than 3 seconds, damage to the disconnect solenoid may
occur.
AOM VOL 2 EM
Checklist 6.21
81. Which statement is true regarding the OVRD SUPPLY P/B?
a. Connects AC ESS BUS to the respective GEN when one of the two P/B’s is pressed
b. When OVRD SUPPLY P/B is pressed, AC ESS BUS and AC BUS 2 are supplied directly by GEN 2
c. When both OVRD SUPPLY P/B’s are pressed, AC ESS BUS is supplied by GEN 2
d. When both OVRD SUPPLY P/B’s are pressed, AC ESS BUS is supplied by GEN 1 in case of GEN 2
failure Ans. a
For aircraft with standby generator, the AC ESS BUS is divided into two parts: the AC ESS BUS 1 and AC
ESS BUS 2. The AC ESS BUS 1 is supplied normally by AC BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS 2 by AC ESS BUS 1.
But in standby generator mode, the AC ESS BUS 2 will be switched to connect to the standby generator. AOM 1.6P4
85. What will happen if you push the STBY GEN to OVRD (P/B in) on ground? (600R)
a. STBY GEN will run for 2 minutes (ground test)
b. STBY GEN will run for the rest of the flight
c. STBY GEN is armed and will operate in flight
d. STBY GEN will not operate on ground Ans. a
STBY GEN P/B
AUTO: Automatic starting is activated when these conditions are met:
- DC NORM BUS OFF
- The line contractor 2 open
- BAT OVRD P/B not ON
- Green hydraulic power available
- DC ESS ON BAT, and
- Aircraft in flight
OVRD: The STBY GEN is forced to run as soon as the following conditions are met:
- BAT OVRD P/B is not on
- Green hydraulic power available
If forced starting has been initiated:
- In flight, STBY GEN will continue to run to after landing
- On ground, STBY GEN will run for 2 minutes (ground test) AOM 1.6P11
86. How can you confirm the operation of STBY GEN? (600R)
a. DC NORM BUS OFF extinguished
b. DC ESS ON BAT and AC EMER ON INV lights illuminated
c. DC ESS ON BAT and AC EMER ON INV lights extinguished
d. STBY GEN ON light illuminated Ans. c
STBY GEN operation confirm by: AOM VOL 2
- DC ESS ON BAT………………………………………Extinguished EM Checklist
- AC EMER ON INV…………………………………….Extinguished 6.2,6.3
87. Condition: STBY GEN operates. Ans. d
During APU starts sequence, what is the electrical source supplying the DC ESS BUS? (600R)
a. STBY GEN DC channel
b. DC ESS BUS
c. DC NORM BUS
d. BATTERIES
Check of APU MASTER switch to OFF is requested to confirm operation of standby generator (performed AOM VOL 2
by checking that DC ESS BUS ON BAT and AC EMER ON INV lights are extinguished). Indeed with APU
MASTER switch set to ON and APU N < 60% during STBY GEN operation, DC ESS BUS is supplied by EM Checklist
batteries and therefore DC ESS ON BAT light is illuminated.
6.2,6.3
88. When land mode armed on FCU and Both AP engaged which ELEC source supply DC ESS BUS?
a. DC NORM BUS
b. Battery
c. AC ESS BUS via ESS TR
d. Both b. and c. are correct Ans. d
With LAND mode armed on FCU and both AP engaged, connects the batteries to the DC ESS BUS to
increase the reliability of the autopilot ‘s power supply for CAT 3 operations.
AOM 1.6 p2
With LAND mode armed and both AP engaged in CMD, the DC bus tie contractor automatically opens in
order to assure an independent electrical power supplies for the AP/FD 1and2
In case of DC bus tie contractor failure to open, the landing capability does not change form CAT 2 to CAT 3
after the engagement of the second AP and no alert provided. AOM 1.3 p41
89. What does not cause the DC BUS TIE contractor to open?
a. DC ESS BUS loses power
b. DC NORM BUS loses power
c. Both AP engaged in CMD and LAND mode is selected
d. Reverse current from DC ESS BUS to DC NORM BUS Ans. a
The DC BUS TIE contractor control is fully automatic and will open according to the following logic:
- Loss of electrical supplies to the DC NORM BUS, from both AC BUS 1 and 2.
- When both AP engaged in CMD and LAND mode is selected.
- When reverse current is detected in the direction DC ESS BUS / DC NORM BUS (DC ESS BUS
supplying DC NORM BUS) is more than 60 A. AOM 1.6P5
90. What action will cause the batteries to connect to the DC ESS BUS?
a. APU starting
b. BATT OVRD P/B is selected to ON
c. Both AP in CMD and LAND mode is selected
d. All of above Ans. d
The batteries will be connected to the DC ESS BUS under these conditions:
- For APU starting
- As a back up power when the DC ESS voltage drops below 25 V
- For battery charging if the battery voltage drops
- When both autopilots are engaged and LAND mode is selected AOM 1.6P9
91. Which statement is true after selecting BATT OVRD P/B to ON?
a. Batteries flow bar are invisible
b. The battery overheat detection is inhibited
c. Batteries are isolated from the DC ESS BUS
d. DC BUS TIE contractor is closed Ans. b
BATT OVRD P/B
The P/B allows overriding the battery charge controller unit by forcing all battery line contractors to close.
The battery charge controllers are overridden and all battery line contractors are closed. The battery
overheat detection is inhibited. AOM 1.6P10
92. Which statement is not the function of the charge controller unit (CCU)?
a. Restore the DC ESS BUS in case normal supply has failed
b. Control battery charging
c. Detect the battery over current
d. Detect the battery overheat Ans. c
During normal operation, the batteries are constantly charged by the Charge Controller Unit (CCU). The
CCU automatically opens or closed the associated battery contractor in such a manner as to keep the
battery charged for its function as back up power for the DC ESS BUS.
The main functions of the CCU are to:
- Automatically restore the essential DC network when normal supply has failed, by closure of the three
battery contractors.
- Control battery charging.
- Detect overheat of battery. AOM 1.6P2
93. How do you know which battery triggered the BAT OVHT light on the overhead panel?
a. By ECAM activation
b. By seeing which batter’s flow bar is invisible
c. By turning of all batteries and turn them on one by one
d. By checking the DC volt indicator on the overhead panel Ans. b
BAT OVHT activation is an indication that an excess charge rate has been detected by the battery charge AOM VOL 2
limiter which, if not corrected, could lead to an increase in battery temperature.
EM Checklist
The affected battery is automatically disconnected and the corresponding flow bar is extinguished.
6.13
94. Which equipment is not operative when all battery P/B switches are selected to OFF? Ans. d
a. Clock time bases
b. The refueling system in battery mode
c. The extinguisher cartridges (engines and cargo)
d. The APU fire protection
With battery P/B switches OFF, the following equipment is still powered;
- Clock time bases
- The extinguisher cartridges (engines and cargo)
- The refueling system in battery mode
- IRS 1, 2 and 3 AOM1.6 p2
95. Which equipment is still operative after ESS & EMER BUS P/B switch is selected in SHED? (TAA-TAF)
a. The minimum equipment bay
b. Only the equipment connected to the AC ESS BUS
c. Only the equipment connected to the AC EMER BUS
d. Only the equipment connected to the DC ESS BUS Ans. a
SMOKE DRILL
If smoke from an electrical source is detected, the procedure is to shed all bus and retain only some of the
essential loads.
With OVRD SUPPLY 1 and 2 P/B’s ON. The AC ESS BUS will be connected directly to the generator 1 with
generator 2 standing by and all AC BUS 1 and 2, DC NORM BUS power supply will be cut off.
With ESS & EMER BUS P/B switch in SHED, AC ESS BUS, AC EMER BUS and DC ESS BUS supply only
a small part of their equipment installed in the smoke proof box in the minimum equipment bay is still
operative. AOM 1.6P6
96. How long can the batteries supply the DC ESS BUS (DC ESS ON BAT light illuminated)? (TAA-TAF)
a. 26 min
b. 38 min
c. 45 min
d. 1:45 hrs Ans. c
NORM BAT ENDURANCE: 45 MIN AOM VOL 2
Battery endurance is based on batteries supplying the DC ESS BUS only (AC EMER BUS remains supplied EM Checklist
from AC ESS BUS).
6.18
97. How long can the batteries supply the whole aircraft system?
a. 26 min with 2 APU start attempts
b. 38 min with 2 APU start attempts
c. 38 min without APU start, 26 min with 2 APU start attempts
d. 45 min Ans. c
AOM 2.6P1
98. How do you restore some parts of DC NORM BUS in case DC NORM BUS OFF light came on?
a. Pull out all CB’s in the minimum equipment bay (shade area)
b. Select LAND RECOVERY P/B switch to on
c. Select ESS & EMER BUS P/B switch to SHED
d. Select BAT OVRD to on Ans. b
LAND RECOVERY P/B
Allows restoring electrical supply to some equipment which had been isolated by:
- action on both OVRD SUPPLY P/B, or
- Loss of all normal electrical supply (battery only configuration) AOM 1.6P10
99. At what altitude are the oxygen masks automatically presented in the cabin?
a. 9500 ft
b. 9500 ± 350 ft
c. 11000 ft
d. 14000ft (+ 0, - 500ft) Ans. d
PASSENGER OXYGEN SYSTEM
The oxygen masks rest unsecured on the inside of the module door and free fall when the door is opened.
The user shall position the mask to cover mouth and nose to breathe.
The oxygen masks are automatically presented whenever cabin altitude exceeds 14000ft (+ 0, - 500ft). The
flight deck crew can override the automatic control. AOM1.7/1P1
100. How can you confirm that the oxygen masks have already dropped in the cabin in case of decompression?
a. By the ECAM SD (PRESS) page
b. By the ECAM MEMO page
c. By the illumination of the OXYGEN SYS ACTUATED light on the overhead panel
d. By checking with the cabin attendant Ans. c
Passenger oxygen masks drop automatically and OXYGEN SYS ACTUATED light illuminates green when AOM VOL 2
cabin altitude exceeds 14000 ft.
EM Checklist
Confirm system activation by selecting the OXYGEN PASSENGER guarded switch to MAN OVRD.
2.1
101. What is the normal setting position for the quick donning mask (for cockpit crew) dilute demand regulator? Ans. b
a. N (normal)
b. 100%
c. N or 100% as desired
d. Emergency pressure position
N / 100% SELECTOR
The mask delivers 100% oxygen. The system is automatically locked in this position.
The mask delivers diluted oxygen when cabin altitude is below 35000 ft and 100% oxygen above 35000 ft.
This configuration is obtained by pressing simultaneously UNLOCK lever and N / 100% selector.
EMERGENCY PRESSURE SELECTOR
When pressed, a momentarily overpressure is generated.
When turned in the arrow direction, a permanent overpressure generated. AOM1.7/1P5
Set N / 100% manual control to 100% AOM VOL 2
3.2/2 p4
102. Which light in the cockpit will remain illuminated if only the batteries are supplying the aircraft systems?
a. Cockpit dome light
b. Aft right cockpit dome light only
c. Storm light
d. Overhead panels light Ans. b
FLIGHT DECK EMERGENCY LIGHTING SYSTEM
The captain and center instrument panels use the same lights powered by DC ESS BUS. This emergency
lighting is automatically activated in case of a complete normal AC power loss. The intensity of these lights
is then no more adjustable.
The aft right DOME light is available when aircraft batteries only supply electrical power. AOM1.7/2P1
103. Conditions: A/C’s electrical system is normal, EMER EXIT LT SELECTOR in DISARM position.
After you enter the A/C, you found the floor path markings were illuminated, why?
a. EMER P/B on the purser panel is pressed
b. DC ESS BUS is lost
c. Emergency lighting system has failed
d. It is the normal condition while A/C is on ground Ans. a
The electrical power for this system is supplied from DC ESS BUS or from integral batteries in emergency
power supply units.
Batteries are charged from AC NORM BUS. The battery capacity provides approx 12 minutes of
illumination.
Cabin ceiling lights exit signs and floor path markings automatically illuminate when:
- EMER EXIT LT selector is selected to ON
- Automatically if EMER EXIT LT selector is at ARM and the DC power supply fails
- EMER P/B on the purser panel is pressed
- The cabin is in excessive decompression. AOM1.7/2P1
104. After you enter the A/C, you found the EXIT signs do not illuminate, which switch in the cockpit do you
suspect to be OFF?
a. EMER EXIT LT selector
b. FASTEN SEAT BELT switch
c. NO SMOKING switch
d. Battery switch Ans. c
Exit signs automatically illuminates when no smoking switch is ON or AUTO with landing gear extended. AOM1.7/2P1
105. How “Emergency oxygen” operation duration calculates from?
a. Decompression at Fl 350, one minute delay, descent to Fl 100 in 9 min then continuation of flight at Fl
100.
b. Decompression at high altitude, one minute delay, descent to Fl 100 in 9 min then continuation of flight
at Fl 100.
c. Decompression at Fl 350, one minute delay, descent to Fl 140 in 9 min then continuation of flight at Fl
100.
d. Decompression at Fl 350, one minute delay, descent to Fl 140 in 9 min then continuation of flight at Fl
100 Ans. b
AOM 2.7 p1
106. Which cabin doors have no pneumatic assist for opening in emergency mode (slide armed)?
a. Door 1 L and R
b. Door 2 L and R
c. Door 3 L and R
d. Door 4 L and R Ans. c
CABIN DOORS
There are six passenger doors (type A) and two emergency exit doors (type 1). The doors can be operated
from inside or outside.
NORMAL mode
The doors are opened and closed manually.
EMERGENCY mode
Emergency mode is selected by placing SLIDE ARMING LEVER to ARMED position. In this mode, the
doors are opened pneumatically (type A doors) or manually (type 1 doors). An escape slide or slide/raft
installed in each door is automatically deployed and inflated when the door is opened.
The type A doors are equipped with dual lane escape slides/rafts, type 1 with single lane escape slides. AOM1.7/5P2
107. After ditching, do the slides/rafts inflate if the water is at the same level as the doorsill? Ans. b
a. Yes
b. No
A slide/raft pack must drop down a min of 15 cm to actuate automatic inflation. The slide/raft may not inflate
automatically if the pack falls on the water, which has the same level with the doorsill. For this case, a
manual inflation handle must be pulled when the slide/raft pack has dropped below the door threshold. AOM1.7/5P5
108. How many HALON and WATER fire extinguishers are there in the cabin?
a. 3 and 2 respectively
b. 5 and 2 respectively
c. 5 and 3 respectively Ans. a
d. 3 and 3 respectively
AOM1.7/4P1,2
109. How many fire extinguisher bottles are there for the engines and APU?
a. Two bottles for each engine, one bottle for APU
b. Two bottles for both engines, one bottle for APU
c. Two bottles for each engine, and two bottles for APU
d. Two bottles for both engines, and two bottles for APU Ans. a
Each engine and APU are equipped with two independent fire detection loops, which respond to
temperature change. Two fire extinguisher bottles are provided for each engine, one bottle is provided for
the APU. AOM1.8P1
110. What condition will not cause the fire warning to activate?
a. A fire signal on both loop A and B
b. A fire signal on one loop, while the other loop selected off
c. A fault signal on one loop
d. A fault signal on both loops within a time limit Ans. c
A fire warning is activated when:
- A fire signal is generated from both loop A and loop B.
- A fire signal is generated from one loop if the other loop is selected off.
- A fault signal is generated by both loops. AOM1.8P1
111. The engine fire warning can be generated with both loops selected off.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
114. Which source will not cause AVIONIC SMOKE light to illuminates?
a. Flight deck instrument panels
b. Overhead panel.
c. Weather radar transceiver
d. IRS 1 Ans. d
AVIONICS SMOKE LIGHT
Comes on, when smoke is detected in ventilation duct from:
- Flight deck instrument panels,
- Overhead panel,
- Circuit breakers panel,
- Weather radar transceiver,
- Electronic Racks,
- IRS 2
- Under floor area equipment.
Illumination of this light is accompanied by ECAM activation
AOM 1.8 p12
115. When will DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate?
a. When agent 1 bottle pressure drops to a preset value
b. When agent 2 bottle pressure drops to a preset value
c. 60 minutes after agent 1 has been discharged
d. 60 minutes after agent 2 has been discharged Ans. c
Agent 1 will be discharged first. After 60 minutes the DISCH AGENT2 light comes on. This reminds the crew
to discharge AGENT 2 in order to maintain the required concentration of extinguisher agent if the remaining
flight time exceeds 60 minutes after AGENT 1 has been discharged. AOM1.8 p3
116. 1ST AGENT can be discharged immediately after pulling the ENG FIRE handle in case engine fire on
ground.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
PARKING BRK……………………………..SET
FUEL LEVER……………………………….OFF
FIRE HANDLE………………………………PULL AOM VOL 2
ST
1 AGENT…………………………………..DISCHARGE EM Checklist
The 10-sec delay before discharging agent is not required on ground. 8.5
117. What is not the automatic action in case of APU automatically shutdown due to fire on ground? Ans. c
a. The APU will automatically shutdown with a time delay of 3 sec
b. The fire extinguisher will automatically discharge into the APU 10 sec after the fire is detected
c. The APU FIRE light on the nose gear interphone panel will automatically extinguish
d. The APU fuel isolate valve will close automatically
If an APU fire is detected on ground, the APU will automatically shutdown with 3 sec time delay. The fire
extinguisher will discharge 10 sec after the detection. The external warning is silenced or can be silenced by
pressing APU SHUTOFF P/B on the nose gear interphone panel, or the APU EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN
P/B on the refuel / defuel panel.
Action on the APU FIRE handle initiates an automatic APU shutdown, isolates fuel supply, closes the bleed
valve, deactivated the generator, silences the aural warning, extinguishes LOOP lights, illuminates the
SQUIB light and arms the AGENT discharge P/B.
APU FIRE light on the nose wheel interphone panel and APU FIRE handle remain on as long as the fire
warning persists. AOM1.8P2
118. Which statement is true, regarding the cargo compartment smoke detection?
a. There is one detection circuit in each cargo compartment
b. There are two detectors in each cargo compartment and the smoke warning will come on only when
both detect smoke
c. There are two detectors in each cargo compartment and the smoke warning will come on when either
or both detectors detect the smoke
d. There is no automatic action in case of cargo smoke detection Ans. c
The cargo compartment fire detection system consists of two smoke detectors in each FWD, AFT and BULK
cargo compartment.
When either or both detectors detect a smoke signal, the corresponding SMOKE light comes on,
accompanied by ECAM activation.
As soon as a smoke warning is given, the air conditioning system in the endangered cargo compartment is
automatically switched off. AOM1.8P2
119. Which statement is true, regarding the cargo fire extinguishing system?
a. There is one fire extinguisher bottle and equipped with only one squib
b. There is one fire extinguisher bottle and equipped with two squibs
c. There are two fire extinguisher bottles and equipped with only one squib
d. There are two fire extinguisher bottles and equipped with two squibs Ans. d
Two identical fire extinguisher bottles are provided. Each bottle has two discharge heads with two squibs,
one squib for the FWD and the other for the AFT and BULK cargo compartments. The compartment is
selected by the appropriate AGENT switch.
AGENT 1 will be discharged first. After a time limit, the DISC AGENT 2 light comes on. This reminds the
crew to discharge AGENT 2 in order to maintain the required concentration of extinguisher agent. AOM1.8P3
120. Which statement is true, regarding to the cargo smoke warning light? Ans. b
a. After discharging AGENT 1, the DISH 2 light will not illuminate
b. Expect the smoke warning to remain after AGENT has discharged
c. The smoke warning goes out after discharge AGENT 1
d. The smoke warning goes out after discharge AGENT 2
Smoke warning activation automatically closed the ISOL and TEMP CONTROL valves.
Note:
Expect SMOKE warning to remain after AGENT discharge, even if the smoke source is eliminated.
Gases from smoke source are not evacuated and smoke detectors are sensitive to extinguishing agent as AOM VOL 2
well.
EM Checklist
Once the ISOL and TEMP CONTROL valves are closed, the cargo is not ventilated and cargo temperature
is no longer reliable. 8.3
121. Where is the minimum equipment bay smoke light located and how can you confirm the smoke?
a. On the minimum equipment circuit breakers panel, and by the sniffer fan
b. On the minimum equipment circuit breakers panel, and by ECAM activation
c. On the electrical panel, and by the sniffer fan
d. On the electrical panel, and by ECAM activation Ans. a
The electrical smoke detection system has three smoke detectors installed on the ventilation duct to detect
the presence of any combustion gases.
Each detector triggers a SMOKE light on the ELEC PWR panel and ECAM.
The SMOKE light for the minimum equipment bay is located on the minimum equipment bay circuit breakers
panel on the aft part of the overhead panel.
A fan installed in the avionics compartment provides the confirmation of smoke via a sniffer located at the
RP’s side console. AOM1.8P3
122. Where do you suspect the smoke come from, if you found AVIONICS SMOKE, MIN EQPT BAY SMOKE or
BAT SMOKE warning was triggered simultaneously?
a. From the ventilation duct
b. From the avionics compartment
c. From the air conditioning system
d. From the cabin Ans. c
If several smoke warning activated:
AIR CONDITIONING SMOKE……………………………..SUSPECT
AOM VOL 2
As a result of contamination within the air conditioning system, AVIONICS SMOKE, MIN EQPT BAY
SMOKE or BATT SMOKE warnings may be triggered simultaneously EM Checklist
Apply AIR COND SMOKE procedure only if visible smoke or strong odor is encountered. 8.6, 8.7, 8.8
123. Which control surfaces are not controlled electrically? Ans. d
a. Spoilers and speed brakes
b. Rudder and aileron trims
c. Slats and flaps
d. Elevator and horizontal stabilizer
127. After a go around, if you retract slat/flap handle to 0/0 degree while A/C is maintaining high pitch attitude
(Angle of attack more than 7.5O), What will occur?
a. Slats / Flaps will remain at go around flaps
b. Flaps will retract to 0 degree, while slats will retract to 15 degrees
c. Slats / flaps will retract to 15 degrees
d. Slats / flaps will retract to 0 degree Ans. b
When aircraft angle of attack is greater than 7.5O, retraction of slats below 15O is inhibited. This function is
called α - lock. If the slat/flap control lever is move to 0 O, slats will be retracted and stop at 15O and the
Kruger flaps, Notch flaps, and Aileron droop remain extended until the angle of attack is reduced to below
7.5O where the α - lock function is no more valid. The slats will then follow the command of the handle to
0O. The α - lock function is not activate when speed less than 60 Kt. AOM1.9/2P2
128. What does it mean, if both slats system 1 & 2 and flaps system 1 & 2 fault lights come on overhead panel?
a. Slat or flap system jammed
b. Slat or flap motor failure
c. Slat or flap mechanical failure
d. Slat / flap handle is held between gates Ans. d
SLAT / FLAP fault light
Each fault light comes on when the associated hydraulic motor is inoperative.
Both SLAT (or FLAP) FAULT lights will come on simultaneously if the slats (or flaps) stop due to system
jam. Reverse selection is possible and the surfaces will move to the selected position if jamming is released.
If the above warning is associated with SLAT (or FLAP) light on SFPI, it indicates a mechanic failure of the
system. In such a case, the system is deactivated for the rest of the flight.
Activation of FAULT light is accompanied by ECAM activation.
If the lever is held between the gates, the system drives to the last demanded position and after 10 seconds
all the slats and flaps FAULT warnings illuminate. AOM1.9/2P1,5
129. What is the maximum altitude for slat / flap operation?
a. 10,000 Ft
b. 15,000 Ft
c. 20,000 Ft
d. 25,000 Ft Ans. c
AOM2.9P1
130. In case of overweight landing, how can you extend slats or flaps to next step if VLS is higher than VFE?
133. By how much is the fuel consumption increased if Kruger flaps do not retract?
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 15%
d. 18% Ans. b
AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
9.10
134. How much is the fuel consumption increased if slats or flaps cannot be retracted respectively?
a. Multiplied by 1.7 and 2.2 respectively
b. Multiplied by 1.5 and 2.0 respectively
c. Multiplied by 1.2 and 1.5 respectively
d. Multiplied by 1.0 and 2.0 respectively Ans. a
AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
9.22,9.23,9.8
135. What statement is true, regarding the rudder system?
a. Rudder travel reduces the rudder deflection as the function of increasing airspeed
b. When both channels of rudder travel are engaged, SYS 1 is active and SYS 2 is on standby
c. Rudder trim is electrically controlled
d. All above Ans. d
RUDDER
The trim actuator is electrically signaled and driven by an electrical motor.
The rudder travel limiter reduces the pedals and rudder deflection from ± 30O at speed below 165 Kt to ± 5O
at 310 Kt or above. The travel limit is calculated by two independent rudder travel channels in the Feel and
Limitation Computers that receive inputs from ADC and SFCC.
In normal operation, RUD TRAVEL SYS 1 is active, and SYS 2 is in standby.
Yaw damper command is transmitted via a differential unit with no feedback to the rudder pedals. AOM1.9/4P1
136. Which statement is not a correct procedure for trimming the rudder in flight?
a. Ensure thrust setting is symmetrical
b. Trimming the rudder can be done when the aircraft maintains cruising level with ALT hold mode or
PROF mode
c. Trimming the rudder can be done while autopilot is engaged
d. Trimming the rudder until control column deflection is zero Ans. b
TRIM PROCEDURE
The minimum drag for cruise flight is obtained when the control wheel is neutral. This condition is obtained
by the following procedure:
- Ensure symmetrical thrust. Disengage auto thrust if required.
- Ensure symmetrical fuel loading.
- With autopilot engaged in ALT hold mode, note the direction of control column’s lateral deflection. Trim
the rudder in the direction of the deflection until the control column is centered. Rudder trim between
1.5O L and 1.5O R is typical normal range. Any deflection in the control column will cause the roll spoilers
to raise thus increasing drag.
- Verify that the bank angle is not too large for passengers comfort (1.5O appears to be reasonable value)
- Check again the lateral trim conditions and retrims of necessary when there is a noticeable change in
flight conditions. AOM VOL 2
- Reengage PROF mode as required once the trimming is completed. 3.3/4 p2
137. What does it mean if OFFR light and FAULT light of both rudder travel systems come on simultaneously?
a. Both rudder travel systems are OFF
b. Both rudder travel systems are in low speed configuration
c. Both rudder travel systems are in high speed configuration
d. Both rudder travel systems are faulty Ans. c
RUD TRAVEL SYS P/B
FAULT (Amber):
Light active when P/B in, comes on when a failure is detected in the respective system. The FAULT light is
accompanies by ECAM activation. The light goes off when the P/B is selected OFF.
However, if FAULT lights remain on with both P/B’s in OFF, it indicates a rudder disagree warning, i.e.
variable stop lever is not in low speed position when flaps are 20O or more. AOM1.9/4P4
138. What is not correct procedure for no flaps and no slats landing? Ans. a
a. Before commencing the approach, keep A/THR on and select GPWS to FLAP OVRD.
b. Early gear extension will aid in speed stabilization
c. At approximately 200 ft retard the throttles so as to reduce approach speed by 15 kt at touchdown
d. Fly on to the runway aiming at VA -15 kt touchdown speed at aiming point and lower the nose wheel
without delay.
GROUND SPOILERS
Speed brake and roll spoiler panels are used on ground as ground spoilers. Deflection angle is 50O
(maximum deflection) for all surfaces.
The control of all panels is computerized by means of two EFCU ’s. The logic is such that the ground
spoilers will extend when the following conditions are fulfilled.
- SPEEDBRAKE control lever is pulled upwards (when it is in RET position) or thrust reverser selected
on one engine, and
- Both engine throttle levers are idle, and
- The “aircraft on ground” signal is received AOM1.9/7P1
144. What is not the “aircraft ground signal” that is used to extend the ground spoilers after aircraft touchdown?
a. Two main landing gear aft wheel speeds are higher than 85 Kt
b. Main landing gear shock absorbers are compressed
c. Radio altimeter is less than 5 ft
d. Bogie beam movement is detected Ans. b
The “aircraft on ground” signal is received when:
- During takeoff or landing, two main landing gear aft wheel speeds are higher than 85 Kt, or
- At landing only, if the ground spoiler preselection has been made by speed brake control lever
selection:
Radio altimeter is less than 5 ft, and
Bogie beam movement is detected.
This signal is inhibited 3 sec after shock absorber compression.
Automatic extension is also activated for an aborted takeoff when the above conditions are fulfilled. AOM1.9/7P1
145. What is Theta trim? Ans. d
a. Nose up order to optimize the longitudinal stability and handling qualities
b. Nose down order to increase the pull-up stick force and prevent reaching an excessive angle of attack
c. Nose down order to assist the stall recovery
d. Nose down order to ease the control of the pitch rate and attitude and prevent pitch form exceeding 30
Pitch trim is provided by the THS Mechanical stops are set at 3 nose down and 14 nose up. The THS is
operated by two independent hydraulic motors (green and yellow hydraulic systems)
The THS can be commanded:
- By the electric trim using either trim switches (rocking lever) on the control wheels, or
- Manually, by turning either trim wheel on the center pedestal, or
- Automatically, by AP (Auto-trim function) or,
- Automatically, by the FAC:
Speed trim (active above 200 kt) and Mach trim (active above M 0.7):
- Nose up order to optimize the longitudinal stability and handling qualities.
- The speed/Mach trim is available with AP off, in CWS or in CMD
- Alpha trim
- Stall trim
- Theta trim (active at high pitch rate and low speed):
Nose down order to ease the control of the pitch rate and attitude and prevent pitch from
exceeding 30 (Especially during go around).
The theta trim is available with AP off, pitch above 10 and speed below 180 kts. / M 0.37 AOM 1.9/5 p1
146. What will happen if we override the electric trim and Auto-trim by using the pitch trim control wheel?
a. Trimming action stops
b. Electric trim and Auto-trim have priority over pitch trim control wheel
c. Both pitch trim levers trip to OFF
d. Electric and automatic pitch trim commands can be override by pitch trim control wheel any time
without any effects to the pitch trim system Ans. c
Electric and automatic pitch trim commands can be overridden manually using the pitch trim controls wheel.
Overriding the electric trim and Auto-trim by using the pitch trim control wheel results in the automatic
disengagement of both pitch trim systems. Both PITCH TRIM levers trip to OFF
Each electric trim rocking lever actuates two switches. If switches provide contradictory orders, both pitch
trim systems disengage
Pitch Trim lever can be engaged if;
- Power supply is available,
- Associated FAC is operative,
- Associated ADC is operative, if flaps are retracted,
- Associated THS motor is operative.
For in-flight re-engagement, in addition to the above conditions and if slats are retracted, at least two angle-
of-attack sensors must be operative
If any pitch trim engagement condition is lost, the corresponding Pitch Trim lever trips to OFF.
ECAM warming is activated. The remaining pitch trim system continues to operate normally. AOM1.9/5P2
150. What condition does not cause the refuel / defuel valve to close during refueling?
a. Automatically closes when the preset quantity is reached
b. Manually closes by selecting the refuel / defuel valve switches at refuel / defuel panel to shut
c. Automatically closes when fuel reaches high level in each tank
d. Automatically closes when overflow sensor is activated Ans. d
Refueling or defueling is controlled from the refuel / defuel panel located on the lower right side of the
fuselage near the air-conditioning pack outlet.
The desired quantity of fuel can be selected by the fuel quantity pre-selector on the refuel / defuel panel.
The automatic logic loading sequence is so that the outer tanks are normally completely filled while
simultaneously the remaining fuel load is distributed to each inner and center tank depending on the fuel
load required. If the automatic system fails, refueling can be manually controlled by the refuel / defuel valve
switches.
Tank refueling is automatically stopped by the Fuel Quantity Indicating (FQI) when the preset quantity is
reached.
High level sensors are installed in each tank to signal the associated refuel / defuel valve to close when
maximum allowance fuel volume is obtained.
Overflow sensors are installed in each surge vent tanks to detect fuel overflow during refueling.
Complete main tank refueling approximately 25 min depending on refuel pressure. Maximum fuel pressure
is 50 psi. AOM1.10P2
151. How can the defueling be performed by using fuel tank pumps?
a. Turn on the tank pump that requires defueling
b. Turn on tank the pump that requires defueling and cross feed valve
c. Turn on the tank pump that requires defueling (and cross feed valve if necessary), and select the
transfer valve on refuel / defuel panel to open
d. Defueling can be performed by suction pressure through the refuel / defuel couplings only Ans. c
Defueling can be performed by suction pressure applied at the refuel / defuel couplings and / or using the
fuel pumps with the transfer valve open. AOM1.10P2
152. How can you refuel the aircraft to the maximum capacity (until overflow light illuminated)?
a. Open the refuel / defuel valve switches in order to refuel each tank, the valves will shut automatically
when the overflow light illuminates
b. Open the refuel / defuel valve switches and manually refuel until the high level light illuminates then
manually shut off the valve
c. Open the refuel / defuel valve switches and manually refuel until the overflow light illuminates then
manually shut off the valve
d. Open the refuel / defuel valve switches and manually refuel until the high level light illuminates then
select mode selector switch to defuel and continue refueling until overflow light illuminates Ans. d
In automatic mode, the two center tank pump P/B FAULT lights come on when the center tank is empty and:
- Any center tank pump is still energized, or
- Both pumps of the left or right inner tank are not energized with fuel in the respective tank. AOM1.10P3
159. What does it mean if four inner tank pump P/B FAULT lights come on when the center tank is not empty?
a. Any center tank pump is still energized
b. Both pumps of the left or right inner tank are not energized with fuel in the respective tank
c. Both center tank pumps are not energized
d. All four inner tank pumps fault Ans. c
All four FAULT lights of both inner tank pump P/B’s come on when the center tank is not empty and:
- Both center tank pumps are not energized, or
- Any inner tank pump is energized AOM1.10P3
160. Which statement is not the function of the Fuel Quantity Indicator (FQI)?
a. Provides the fuel indication in each fuel tank on the overhead panel ,refuel / defuel panel and ECAM
display
b. Provides the closing signal for refuel / defuel valve during refueling
c. Provides the low level warning for each outer tank
d. Provides the overflow light on the refuel /defuel panel Ans. d
The fuel quantity in each tank is indicated in kilograms on the FUEL QTY indicator on the overhead panel,
through the ECAM system and by the indicators on the refuel / defuel panel.
During refueling, the fuel quantity indicating system provides the closing signal to the refuel / defuel valve
when the respective tank reaches the selected fuel level.
A low level warning system is provided for each outer tank. The LO LVL light located on the fuel QTY
indicator on the overhead panel illuminates accompanied by the ECAM activation when the fuel level of the
corresponding tank drops below 900 kg. AOM1.10P4
161. Which statement is the function of Center of Gravity Control Computer (CGCC)? (600R) Ans. d
a. Display GW and CG on ECAM
b. Maintaining A/C CG target
c. Control the fuel transferring to and from the trim tank
d. All of above
164. What is not a condition that caused the CGCC to shifted the control target from 0.5% forward of the CG
target to 1.5% more forward? (600R)
a. Manual FWD transfer in flight continuously more than 10 sec
b. The accuracy of FQI data is degraded
c. When ECAM message “EXCESS AFT CG“ is displayed on ECAM
d. AFT CG reaches 37.8% MAC for the first time Ans. c
The calculated CG target is shifted 1.5% more forward if:
- MANUAL FWD transfer in flight is more than 10 sec., or
- The accuracy of FQI data is degraded.
If the AFT CG target reaches 37.8% MAC, the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC then the CG target will
be automatically shifted forward 1.5% MAC by a normal forward transfer. AOM1.10P6
165. When will the message “CG TARGET SHIFTED FWD” be displayed? (600R)
a. After manually FWD transfer in flight more than 10 sec
b. When the CGCC shifted CG target forward to 1.5% MAC
c. When the CGCC shifted CG target forward to 2.3% MAC
d. When the AFT CG reaches 38.8% MAC Ans. c
In case of undetected failure of CGCC, an aft CG limit monitoring is provided. The calculation is
independent of the CGCC by considering the position of the stabilizer and airspeed.
If the AFT CG reaches 37.8% MAC, the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC then the CG target will be
automatically shifted forward 1.5% MAC by a normal forward transfer.
During flight, if the AFT CG is detected again (the second time), the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC
then the CG target will be automatically shifted forward further 2.3% MAC by a fast forward transfer, and
ECAM status will display “CG TARGET SHIFTED FWD”.
If the AFT CG reaches 38.8% MAC, “EXCESS AFT CG” is displayed, and the flight crew must follow the
EXCESS AFT CG procedure. AOM1.10P6
166. After fuel is transferred forward to CTR TANK, the CGCC controls the CTR tank fuel quantity to be between
500 – 1700 kg until the trim tank is empty. (600R)
a. True Ans. a
b. False
AOM1.10P5
167. When would you consider using fuel from outer tanks first, then followed by inner tanks and center tank Ans. b
respectively? (600R)
a. When there is a fuel leak from the engine
b. When trim tank fuel is unusable
c. When inner tank pumps fault
d. Never, fuel must be used in the following sequence: CTR tank, INNER tanks and OUTR tanks
Fuel quantity in each tank is displayed in a window in kg x 1000 (+/- 10 kg per tank)
Last digit at each indicator may be replaced by a dash (-) in case of :
- Probe compensator failure
- Cadensicon failure
- Attitude sensor failure
- Inadequate refueling procedure
- Pitch angle greater than 15 for more than 4 min.
This dash indicates that the quantity indication accuracy is degrading to +/-100 kg of the associated tank
capacity. AOM1.10P15
171. What is the correct maximum allowance for fuel unbalanced?
a. Inner tank 2000 kg and outer tank 900 kg
b. Inner tank 4000 kg and outer tank 900 kg
c. Inner tank 2000 kg at T/O, 4000 kg at L/D, and outer tank 900 kg at L/D
d. Inner tank 4000 kg at T/O, 2000 kg at L/D, and outer tank 900 kg at L/D Ans. c
AOM 2.10 p2
172. Which hydraulic pump does not use the YELLOW hydraulic fluid to operate?
a. A hand pump
b. A YELLOW Power Transfer Unit (PTU)
c. A Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
d. An electrical pump which is used to pressurize the brake accumulators Ans. b
Two non-reversible Power Transfer Units (PTU) provide power transfer from the pressurized GREEN
system to the BLUE or the Yellow system without fluid exchange.
If the engine driven pumps are not available, hydraulic power may generated by:
- Two electrical hydraulic pumps in the GREEN system, principally used for maintenance and checklist
purpose.
- One electrical hydraulic pump in the YELLOW system, used to pressurize the brake accumulators or to
operate the main cargo compartment doors.
- One Ram Air Turbine (RAT) driven pump in the YELLOW system to supply emergency hydraulic power.
- One hand pump in the YELLOW system, used to operate the main cargo doors when the YELLOW
electric pump is not available. AOM1.11P1
180. In what case of hydraulic system failure can you restore the system back to ON during approach?
a. System is lost by RSVR LO AIR PR
b. System is lost by RSVR OVHT
c. System is lost by RSVR OVHT and OVHT light is extinguished
d. Both a. and c. Ans. d
AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
11.7
181. Can you use the PTU to restore BLUE and/or YELLOW system in case of DUAL B + Y HYD SYS LO PR?
a. No, because it may decrease the reliability of the remaining GREEN system
b. Yes, both PTU can be used to restore both the failure systems
c. Yes, but limited to one PTU only
d. Yes, but you must turn on the GREEN electrical pumps Ans. a
DUAL B + Y HYD SYS LO PR (GREEN REMAINING)
Avoid using PTU
- It is recommended to avoid using PTU in order not to decrease the reliability of the remaining GREEN AOM VOL 2
hydraulic system.
EM Checklist
- If the PTU was used to repressurize the first affected HYD system, it is recommended to select the PTU
to OFF to maintain GREEN system full capability and integrity. 11.2
182. Hydraulic pressure cannot be guaranteed by?
a. EDP of the respective engine in case of that engine failure
b. PTU in case of the respective system fluid loss.
c. Yellow EDP in case of yellow fluid loss to a certain level. Ans. d
d. All of above. AOM 1.11
183. How many wing anti-ice valves are there in each wing?
a. One normal valve
b. Two normal valves
c. One normal valve and one alternate valve
d. One normal valve and two alternate valves Ans. c
Ice protection for each wing is provided b heating the leading edges of the slat No. 2 (outer half section) and
slat No. 3 (full length) with hot air.
Each wing is equipped with two parallel, electrically controlled, pneumatic operated wing anti-ice valves,
used for NORMAL and ALTERNATE operation. AOM1.12p2
184. When will the four wing anti-ice valves (normal and alternate valves of each wing) open simultaneously?
a. Turn on wing anti-ice system with the engine bleed air supply
b. Turn on wing anti-ice system with the APU bleed air supply
c. Turn on wing anti-ice system and the fault light comes on
d. Turn on wing anti-ice system with engine bleed air supply and MODE SEL P/B switch is selected to
ALTN Ans. b
WING ANTI-ICE SUPPLY P/B
ON (P/B in, blue ON light comes on). Wing anti-ice valves open.
With engine bleed air supply:
- Two normal valves open, when MODE SEL P/B in NORM.
- Two alternate valves open, when MODE SEL P/B in ALTN.
With APU bleed air supply:
- Four valves open, regardless of MODE SEL P/B.
The indication “WING ANTI-ICE ON” is displayed on ECAM memo page. AOM1.12P10
185. What signal will not cause the wing anti-ice valve to close automatically?
a. Landing gear shock absorbers are compressed
b. ENG FIRE handle is pulled with the CROSS BLEED valve is closed
c. APU bleed switch is ON
d. Bleed air supply pressure is below 10 psi Ans. c
All wing anti-ice valves close automatically if main landing gear shock absorbers are compressed or if an
ENG FIRE handle is pulled while the AIR BLEED X-FEED valve is closed or when bleed air supply pressure
less than 10 psi. On ground, if wing anti-ice system is selected ON, overheating of slat is prevented by
means of a time delay relay, which limits the valve opening time to 10 seconds during the test operation. AOM1.12P2
186. Condition: Aircraft is in flight and both engine and wing anti-ice valves are turned ON.
What anti-ice valves will remain open in case of electrical system loss?
a. Wing anti-ice valves will close, engine anti-ice valves will remain open
b. Wing anti-ice valves will remain open, engine anti-ice valves will close
c. Both wing and engine anti-ice valves will remain open
d. Both wing and engine anti-ice valves will close Ans. a
WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM
Incase of electrical or pneumatic power loss, the valves are springloaded closed.
ENGINE ANTI-ICE
Each engine has its own anti-ice system, independent from the A/C pneumatic system. It is provided by
heating the nose cowl leading edge with hot air from high pressure compressor (GE: 11TH stage, PW 15TH
stage) through an electric controlled, pneumatic operated engine anti-ice valve. When an engine anti-ice
valve is opened, a signal is passed to the thrust control computer, which decreases the thrust limit relative to
the ambient conditions, engine conditions and anti-ice bleed load. If the electrical power supply to the
engine anti-ice valve circuit fails, the valve opens. AOM1.12P2
187. What is the fuel consumption increase in the case that both wing and engine anti-ice are used during the
flight?
a. 1% increase in fuel burn
b. 2% increase in fuel burn
c. 3% increase in fuel burn
d. 5% increase in fuel burn Ans. b
Ice protection will reduce range or increase fuel consumption by:
- 1% when using engine ice protection AOM VOL 2
- 2% when using engine + wing ice protection 7.2/1P1
188. When would you consider using engine anti-ice on ground?
a. OAT is below + 8O C
b. OAT is below + 8O C and moisture is visible
c. OAT and dewpoint are within 3O C
d. Both b. and c. Ans. d
ENGINE ANTI-ICE OPERATION
ON GROUND
If OAT is below + 8O C and either moisture is visible or dewpoint and OAT are within 3O C of each other.
IN FLIGHT
If TAT is below + 8O C and there is visible moisture in the air. In general, the higher the temperature is, the
higher the cloud liquid content is and hence, the more severe are the icing conditions. At the temperature
below – 20O C, icing conditions can be expected to be less severe. Signs of ice build up on unheated
portions of the aircraft are visible from the cockpit (window frame, windshield wipers, etc.). AOM2.12P2
189. Which statement is correct regarding “Operation in icing condition”? Ans. c
a. Wing anti–ice must be used for ice removal not for prevent ice formation
b. It is possible to heat TAT probes on ground.
c. If wing anti-ice is inoperative and ice accumulation is detected, increase VL s in clean configuration by
15 Kt.
d. If wing anti-ice supply by APU, both packs are able to operate normally.
Wing anti-ice
Wing anti-ice may be used either to prevent ice formation or to remove an ice accumulation from the wing
leading edges.
Wing anti-ice supply should be selected ON whenever there is an indication that airframe icing exists. This
can be evidenced by ice accumulation around the flight deck windows or on the flight deck windshield
wipers.
Wing anti-ice supply by the APU is possible up to 15000 ft, providing one air conditioning pack only is used
In case of suspected significant ice accumulation on non de-iced parts, increase the minimum approach
speed by 5 kt and multiply landing distance by 1.1
Note
Electrical power supply failure will cause the wing anti-ice valves to close, independently of control selector
position.
THR LIMIT corrections and performance penalties are applicable only when wing anti-ice system is supplied
by engine bleed air.
AOM VOL 2
If wing anti-ice is inoperative and ice accumulation is detected, increase VLS in clean configuration by 15 kt,
increase VLS when surfaces are extended by 10 kt and multiply landing distance by 1.2 8.3/2 P2
190. What does it mean, if “TAT IN ICING RANGE” comes on ECAM memo page?
a. A/C is encountering icing conditions
b. TAT is below + 8O C
c. TAT is between + 5O C and -15O C Ans. c
d. TAT is below 0 C O
AOM1.19/1P8
191. What is the limitation for ice accumulation on the wing surface?
a. Upper surface of wing must be free of ice
b. Ice on the upper surface of wing must not exceed 1.5 mm
c. Under surface of wing must be free of ice
d. Both wing surfaces must be free of ice Ans. a
SURFACE ICING and / or FROST ACCUMULATION
- Upper surface and vertical fin must be free of ice, snow and frost.
- Under surface of wing, frost and ice are permitted at takeoff, provided the depth does not exceed 1.5
mm. AOM2.12P1
192. What action must you perform if the aircraft is sprayed with de-icing fluid while engines are running? Ans. c
a. Close the engine bleed valves
b. Close the pack valves
c. Close the engine bleed valves and the pack valves
d. Nothing needs to be performed
The following sentences summarizes the crew action associated with each de-icing option:
If APU running,
- Close APU bleed valve (before start spraying).
- Close PACK valves.
If ENG running,
- Close ENG bleed valves (before start spraying).
- Close PACK valves.
Upon completion of spraying operation,
- Restore APU / ENG bleed, as required. AOM VOL 2
- Set PACK valves ON. 8.3/3P2
193. Which statement is not true, regarding the window heating system?
a. Side windows heating have no temperature controller
b. Side windows have two heating levels while front windshields have only one heating level
c. Side windows heating level is the same as front windshields heating in low level
d. Front windshields high heating level is provided only in flight Ans. b
The front windshields are heated on two heating power levels. Low heating power is used on ground, high
heating power level is provided in flight. Two windshield anti-ice regulators control the front windshield
temperature to 35O C or 42O C. A temperature sensor in each windshield signals the actual temperature to
the related regulator, which activates or deactivates the heating power supply from regulator control to the
heating elements.
The side windows are heated on one heating power level only, without temperature control, corresponding
to the front windshield low heating power level. AOM1.12P2
194. Which statement is correct?
a. There are 2 pitot ports, 2 static ports and 2 alpha probes
b. Capt.’s pitot & static pressure supply the ADC 2
c. When select CAPT ADC INST P/B to SYS 2, Capt.’s altimeter read out is controlled by Capt.’s altimeter
as normal
STBY air data system information is not processed by any ADC. The STBY airspeed indicators and
altimeters are directly pitot-static instruments. Electrical power is not required for standby flight instruments'
operation. AOM1.13/2P1
196. How long does the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) record communication for?
a. 30 min
b. 1 hour
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours Ans. c
A solid state cockpit voice recorder (SSCVR), using electronic solid state technology has been installed. It is
designed to record the last 120 minutes or 2 hours of radio communication, aural warning sounds, crew
conversations and announcements into solid state memory. AOM1.13/5P1
197. What is not recorded on the CVR?
a. LP audio selector panel
b. PA handset
c. Area microphone
d. First observer selector panel Ans. d
The recorder is done in four channels. The four recording channels are connected to the LP and RP audio
selector panels, the PA handset and the area microphone. AOM1.13/5P1
198. Why are the batteries switched OFF during on ground emergency?
a. To prevent the batteries from depletion
a. To stop the CVR and prevent tape erasure
b. To ensure that the emergency exit lights are illuminated by their own batteries
c. To protect the batteries from fire or smoke Ans. b
AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
20.12
199. Which system must be dispatched on every aircraft? Ans. d
a. Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR)
b. Digital Flight Data Acquisition Unit (DFDAU)
c. Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR)
d. Either CVR or DFDR
AOM1.13/6P1
DFDR (repair interval CAT B)
May be inoperative provided the flight deck voice recorder is operative.
CVR (repair interval CAT A) AOM VOL 2
May be inoperative provided the flight recorder is operative. 3.1/1P62
200. What is the primary source of vertical speed indicator ?
a. ADC
b. IRS
c. Capt. and F/O static system
d. ± 30 ft for primary ALT vs. ground and ± 50 for standby ALT vs. ground Ans. c
AOM2.13/3P1
202. What is the tolerance between ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 and STBY ALT vs. ALT 1 or ALT 2? (TAG - TAZ)
a. ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 = 50 ft, ALT 1 or ALT 2 vs. STBY ALT = 100 ft
b. ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 = 50 ft, ALT 1 or ALT 2 vs. STBY ALT = 70 ft
c. ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 = 30 ft, ALT 1 or ALT 2 vs. STBY ALT = 50 ft Ans. a
d. ALT 1 vs. ALT 2 = 30 ft, ALT 1 or ALT 2 vs. STBY ALT = 80 ft AOM2.13/3P1
AOM2.13/3P1
203. Which of the following interlock circuit conditions does not prevent the selection of L/D gear to UP?
a. Main gear shock strut not fully extended
b. Bogie beam displaced from neutral position
c. Landing gear door not open
d. Nose gear not centered Ans. c
LANDING GEAR OPERATION
Normal retraction and extension is electrically controlled by signals from the landing gear control lever on
the center instrument penal. The gear is normally powered by GREEN hydraulic system.
The retraction and extension cycles are hydro mechanically sequenced.
The gear lever has a neutral position between UP and DOWN. When the lever is set in this position,
hydraulic pressure is removed from the system. This is the normal flight operation.
An internal interlock prevents selection of gear UP under any one of the following circumstances:
- Main gear shock strut not fully extended
- Bogie beam displaced from neutral position
- Nose gear not centered
The interlock system is duplicated for safety reasons and if one system is unserviceable, the other may be
selected by a switch. AOM1.14P2
204. How do the L/D gears down lock after gravity extension? Ans. d
a. Both main and nose L/D gears down lock by spring force
b. Both main and nose L/D gears down lock by aerodynamic force
c. Main L/D gears down lock by aerodynamic force and nose L/D gear down locks by spring force
d. Main L/D gears down lock by spring force and nose L/D gear down locks by aerodynamic force
GRAVITY EXTENSION
The gear may be extended mechanically by using a hand crank in the cockpit if the normal extension is not
available due to loss of GREEN hydraulic pressure or electrical supply.
GREEN pressure line is isolated and the gear actuators are connected to the return lines. Door up locks
released and doors open. The gears then fall down by gravity and down locked by aerodynamic force for
nose gear and spring force for main gears. The doors remain open. AOM1.14P2
205. Which statement is true regarding the nose wheel steering system?
d. If towing pin is inserted in the nose gear interphone box, the maximum nose gear steering angle is ±
65O Ans. b
NOSE WHEEL STEERING
Hydraulic pressure is available for the nose wheel steering via an electro valve if the following conditions are
met:
- Landing gears are down locked.
- Nose and main L/D gear shock absorbers are compressed.
Steering is controlled by either:
- Each handle on each side console (LH and RH), which permits nose wheel deflections up to 65O in
either direction and is intended for steering at low speed only,
- Rudder pedals for steering at high speed. The nose wheel deflection is limited to 6O in either direction.
The rudder pedals are mechanically linked to the steering control linkages in such a manner that moving
the pedals will drive the steering handle but the handle will not move the pedals.
The steering actuators also act as shimmy dampers.
A towing lever on the nose gear interphone box is secured with a pin in the towing position, cutting off
hydraulic power. The lever automatically returns to normal operating position when the towing pin is
removed. When towing, the maximum nose gear steering angle is ± 95O. AOM1.14P2,3
206. What is the maximum taxi speed during taxing in a straight line?
a. 15 kt
b. 20 kt
c. 25 kt
d. 30 kt Ans. d
Taxiway centerline should appear 2 cm right of autoland warning light on LP side when taxiing in a straight
line.
The normal taxi speed shall not exceed 30 kt.
When taxi speed trends to over 30kt at idle thrust, smoothly apply the brakes to slowdown the aircraft to
approx. 10 – 20 kt then release the brakes smoothly. This will cause less brake wear. AOM VOL 2
Slow down to less than 15 kt ground speed before making a turn. 3.3/1 P2
207 What is the proper rotation technique to prevent tail strikes the runway?
a. Aim an attitude not higher than 12.0O NU until the aircraft leaves the runway
b. Smoothly rotation and the aircraft will lift off when pitch attitude reaches 10O NU
c. Avoid rotation rate exceeds 3O / sec
b. Delayed the takeoff if brake fan is ON and brake temperature is above 150O C
c. When flight is terminated (night stop), leave brake to ON if brake temp is above 100O C
d. At transit station, set brake fan to OFF regardless of next takeoff time Ans. b
TAXI CHECKLIST
7. Brake temp & fan……………………………………….CHECKED & OFF
- If brake fans are ON and indicated temperature is above 150O C, the takeoff must be
delayed. Continue brake fan operation until indicated temperature drops below 150O C.
NOTE
Brake fans ON, a temperature indication of 150O C is equivalent to an actual temperature of 300O
C. Takeoff is only permitted with actual brake temperature below 300O C
- If brake fans are OFF, takeoff may be continued unless BRAKE TEMP HI caution appears, which
is activated at 300O C
PARKING CHECKLIST
- If below 100O C with brake fan operation, set brake fan OFF
If brakes are found inoperative, switch immediately BRK – A/SKID to ALTN / OFF and modulate brake
pressure as required at or below 1000 psi.
AOM VOL 2
Brake pedals should be released when the A/SKID is switch to off. Otherwise the pedal braking orders will
be taken into account and the aircraft will react strongly. 3.3/7 P3
210. During A/C is on ground, how can you ensure that the GREEN hydraulic has been used for the normal
brake system?
a. Release parking brake before taxi out and check the brake pressure triple indicator drops to zero
b. Release parking brake before taxi out while brake pedals are depressed and check the brake pressure
triple indicator drops to zero
c. Brake the A/C during taxi and check that the brake pressure triple indicator remains zero
d. Set the parking brake and check the brake pressure triple indicator indicates 1500 psi Ans. b
BRAKING
Brake check can be performed once the aircraft is moving or while stopped. To check the brakes while
stopped, depress both brake pedals with the parking brake SET. Then release the parking brake and check
that the yellow hydraulic pressure on the brake pressure triple indicator drops to zero (or below 130 psi). AOM VOL 2
The main purpose of the brake check is to check that GREEN pressure has taken over and that YELLOW
pressure has been cut off. 3.3/1 P1
211. Which statement is not true regarding the brakes / anti-skid system?
a. BRK – A/SKID switch position in NORM / ON, the GREEN pressure is used with YELLOW pressure is
backup
b. BRK – A/SKID switch position in ALTN / ON, the YELLOW pressure is used with YELLOW
accumulator pressure is backup
c. The parking brake uses YELLOW accumulator pressure only
d. The YELLOW accumulator is standing by for all modes of braking system Ans. c
There are four braking modes:
- Normal braking uses GREEN hydraulic pressure and includes an anti-skid system. It is electrically
controlled. The BRK – A/SKID switch is in NORM / ON position.
- Alternate braking with anti-skid uses YELLOW pressure. It is hydraulic controlled. The BRK – A/SKID
switch is in ALTN / ON position. If the BRK – A/SKID switch is in NORM / ON position and GREEN
pressure is not available or drops during braking, this mode is automatically selected.
- Alternate braking without anti-skid uses the same hydraulic lines as the alternate system. It is
automatically selected if both GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic system fail, or if the BRK – A/SKID
switch is moved to ALT / OFF. In the first case, power is supplied by two accumulators in the YELLOW
system which are charged by an electric pump and which contain sufficient fluid for seven full brake
applications. In the second case, normal YELLOW system pressure is utilized, backed up by the
accumulators. The anti-skid protection is not available.
- The parking brake uses YELLOW hydraulic pressure or YELLOW accumulator pressure. AOM1.14P3
212. Condition: Auto brake is armed in flight according to the Approach checklist.
When will the auto brake be activated after touchdown?
a. Main wheel shock absorbers are compressed
b. Nose wheel is on ground
c. One engine thrust reverser is selected
d. Ground spoilers are extended Ans. d
AUTOBRAKE SYSTEM
The system is armed by selecting the LO, MED or MAX mode provided all the following arming conditions
are met:
- Landing gear lever is DOWN
- BRK – A/SKID selector is at NORM / ON or parking brake selected ON
- BRK FAIL light off
- Green pressure available
- No failure on the auto brake system
- Pressure transceivers and master valves normally operating
The system is initiated by ground spoiler extension command, i.e. whenever the ground spoiler is activated
the auto brake will function in the mode selected – LO, MED or MAX AOM1.14P3
213. Which statement is not true regarding the anti-skid system?
a. Eight normal anti-skid valves are supplied by GREEN hydraulic
b. The anti-skid in alternate mode uses the same servo valves as normal mode used
c. Anti-skid system uses the rotation speed of the nose wheel and one of the eight main wheels for
comparison
d. Release signal of the anti-skid system is shown as release bars on the wheel page of the ECAM Ans. b
There are two sets of the anti-skid regulator valves, one for normal system consisting of eight normal servo
valves, supplied by the GREEN hydraulic system, the other for alternate system consisting of four alternate
servo valves, one for two wheels, supplied by the YELLOW hydraulic system.
The anti-skid system is based on a comparison between a reference signal by the nose wheel and the
rotation speed of each of the eight wheels of the main landing gear.
When the two signals differ, a release signal is sent to the affected brake. Release indication is shown as
release bars on the wheel page of the ECAM. AOM1.14P4
214. Can we taxi with deflated tires? Ans. c
a. Yes, with maximum of 2 deflated tires on each main wheel.
b. No, a/c has to be towed only.
c. Yes, with maximum of up to 4 deflated tires on each main wheel but nose wheel steering is not
permitted.
d. No, a/c cannot be moved without deflated tire changed.
AOM VOL 2
EM Checklist
14.3/4
14.6/7
218. What is the speed limit for the L/D gear extension? Ans. c
a. 240 / .53
b. 250 / .53
c. 270 / .59
d. 300 / .65
d. Bank angle exceeds 60O and pitch attitude exceeds 30O Ans. b
ROLL INDEX AND SCALE
If the bank angle exceeds 45O, the following information only remains displayed:
- Pitch and roll attitudes
- Speed
- Heading
- FPV (if selected)
All other information is cleared from the display.
The PFD display returns to normal when the bank angle decreases below 40O.
PITCH SCALE
If the pitch attitude exceeds 25O nose up or 13O nose down, the following information only remains
displayed:
- Pitch and roll attitudes
- Speed
- Heading
- FPV (if selected)
All other information is cleared from the display.
The PFD display returns to normal when the pitch attitude decreases below 22O nose up or increases
above 10O nose down. AOM1.15/1P4
221. What does it mean, if ILS is flashing on the lower right corner of the corresponding PFD?
a. The ILS signal has lost
b. The LAND capability is downgraded
c. The LAND mode is selected but NAV-ILS-VOR switch is not in ILS position
d. The ILS signal is available but the LAND mode is not selected Ans. c
ILS REMINDER
ILS flashes if LAND mode is selected and NAV – ILS – VOR switch is not in ILS position. AOM1.15/1P5
222. What should you perform if the PFD information lost (PFD displays blanking with white diagonal line or
complete blanking)?
a. Select the PFD / ND XFR (affected side)
b. Select the EFIS SGU to using system 3
c. Turn off the affected side PFD brightness knob
d. Unable to recover the loss PFD Ans. c
LOSS OF PFD DISPLAY (TAA – TAZ)
If loss of CRT is suspected (CRT is blank) or when PFD information required
PFD brightness knob (affected side)……………………………………OFF
- PFD information is recovered on the lower CRT (replacing ND information) by switching failed
PFD off using PFD brightness knob.
If ND information required AOM VOL 2
PFD / ND XFR (affected side)………………………………………ON EM Checklist
- ND information can be recovered on the lower CRT by using PFD / ND XFR pushbutton. 15.7
223. If VOR 1 receiver failed, the marker receiver is also inoperative.
a. True
b. False Ans. a
VOR SYSTEM
Two independent VOR/Marker receivers are installed using a common VOR antenna located on the top of
the vertical stabilizer. Each system is tuned together with the DME either automatically by the FMS or
manually by the frequency selector on the VOR control panel.
MARKER SYSTEM
The marker receiver is an integrated part of the VOR/Marker receiver no.1 using an antenna located on the
bottom of the fuselage. The receiver is activated simultaneously with VOR 1. There is no control for the
receiver except for the volume control and the dimming of the marker light. AOM1.15/3P1
224. What is the meaning of the RA (red) displays on the PFD instead of the radio height readout?
a. The corresponding RA system fails
b. Both RA systems fails
c. DH indication (on EFIS control panel) fails
d. Both a. and b. Ans. b
RA 1 height is normally displayed on PFD 1 and RA 2 height on PFD 2. In case of failure of one system, the
other system automatically supplies the RA height to the affected side PFD. AOM1.15/7P1
When both RA’s fail, RA (red) is displayed in place of radio height readout. AOM1.15/7P2
Flight Deck Crew Training Department
Last Update on 09 March 2011 By
Capt. Somsak P.
Issue 02
OPC QUESTIONNAIRES AB6
TECHNICAL Page 78
2.1 With ALL ENGINES OPERATING, it indicates the speed allowing the best climb gradient. For
example, it represents the target speed in LVL/CH mode or PROF (MAX CLB), when during
climb and the ATC requests to expedite through a given FL.
The GREEN DOT SPEED is very close to the MAX ENDURANCE SPEED; it is, therefore, used as :
- Recommended speed for holding pattern in clean configuration
- Lower limit for ECON SPD target.
The GREEN DOT SPEED is finally the recommended MANEUVERING SPEED in clean configuration, AOM Bulletin
which provides adequate margin relative to Vs (between 1.4 Vs and 1.5 Vs), for example, to follow a circuit
for approach or for holding pattern. No. 27
226. If you plan to takeoff with NAV mode to follow a cleared SID, which page of ND and VOR selector you
should set?
a. PF’s ND set MAP mode and PF’s VOR selector to VOR
b. PF’s ND set ROSE/ARC mode and PF’s VOR selector to VOR
c. PF’s ND set ROSE/ARC mode and PF’s VOR selector to NAV
d. PF’s ND set MAP mode and PF’s VOR selector to NAV Ans. d
USE OF FMS & NAV
If no SID is published or ATC clearance includes an interception of radial, PF’s ND should be set to ROSE
or ARC mode. The VOR selector on PF’s side must be selected in VOR position.
If the climb out is according to SID and is included in the FMS NAV database, entered the cleared SID in
FMS and check that all waypoints are according to published. PF shall monitor the aircraft track by selecting
MAP mode on ND and CTSR mode on EFIS control panel. In this case it is recommended to select PF’s
VOR selector to NAV position and remote tune the station used during departure in FMS if required.
PNF’s ND should be set as appropriate in order to best monitor the aircraft track.
AOM VOL 2
PF and PNF’s FMS should be selected to PROG and TAKEOFF page respectively. The two pages may be
selected in reverse if PIC deems necessary. 3.3/2 P1
227. What is the recommended tilt angle of weather radar during takeoff?
a. 4O up
b. 4O - 7O up
c. 5O up
d. 3O - 5O up Ans. b
For departure with weather along the departure route, scan the departure area during taxi-out or initial
runway alignment for the smoothest track. Set the range to 15 – 30 nm and the tilt to about 4O - 7O up to give
the best picture of the departure weather with minimum ground clutter. If the level off is required shortly after
takeoff, lower tilt to about 3O - 5O up or until ground clutter interferes with the picture clarity.
When aircraft is cleared up and on initial climb, extend the range to 30 – 60 and set the tilt to 3O - 5O up.
When on the normal climb speed schedule between 10000-20000 ft, set the range to 60 – 120 and the tilt to
2O - 3O up. As the aircraft climbs to cruising altitude, the range and tilt can be adjusted for best reception of
interested targets.
For medium altitude cruise (around 20000 ft), the tilt will normally be about 0O and varied according to range
selected to show traces of ground clutter in the top of the picture.
For descents, use normal cruise procedures. If there is extensive weather in the area, check the different
ranges. Below 10000 ft, use 2O - 3O up-tilt for targets out of 40 miles. This will eliminate tilt adjustment during AOM Bulletin
approach. If there is extensive weather in the terminal area, adjust the tilt control to pick up light ground
clutter on the top of the screen, so no cells will go undetected. No. 25
228. Conditions: You found the weather cell when radar tilted 4O down and 50 nm ahead, and the cell
disappeared when adjust the tilt angle up to 2O down.
What is the clearance between aircraft and the top of the cell?
a. 5000 ft
b. 8000 ft
c. 10000 ft
d. 12000 ft Ans. c
For normal cruise altitudes, it will be difficult to detect cells lower than the cruise altitude inside of the 40
miles range due to ground clutter, particularly over land. For this reason, diversion tactics should be initiated
at least 40 miles from the target cell. Low level targets will not visible beyond the line of sight due to the
earth’s curvature. To determine the clearance between the aircraft and the top of the cell, slowly tilt the
antenna up until the target return disappears. The clearance in feet will be 100 times the distance to the cell
times the degrees the antenna is tilted down, i.e., a 55 mile target is lost at 2O down. Clearance will be (100) AOM Bulletin
(55) (2) = 11000 ft. Keep in mind that the top of the precipitation level is not necessary a safe level to
penetrate. There could be considerable turbulence above the cell. No. 25
229. What is the limitation of the weather radar operation on ground?
a. Do not operate while aircraft is refueling/defueling or nearby 300 ft of the aircraft being
refueled/defueled
b. Do not operate within 50 ft of personnel in the beam area
c. Do not operate within 300 ft of a large metal object in a 180 degrees sector in front of the aircraft Ans. d
d. All of above
AOM2.15/5P1
230. What is the scale of the TCAS traffic displayed in front, abeam, and behind of the VSI?
a. 6.5, 4, 2.5 nm respectively
b. 5, 4, 3 nm respectively
c. 6.5, 2.5, 2.5 nm respectively
d. A radius of 6 nm Ans. a
A white aircraft symbol is displayed in the lower center of the VSI representing TCAS equipped aircraft. A
white range ring made up of 12 marks, each corresponding to a normal clock position, is included. The
range ring surrounds the aircraft with a radius of 2 nm and is intended to assist in interpreting TCAS traffic
information.
The scale of the VSI display is 6.5nm to the top display edge of the VSI (ahead of the aircraft), 4nm to the
left and right edges, and 2.5nm to the bottom (rear of the aircraft). AOM1.15/6P3
231. What is the vertical altitude of the TCAS Other Traffic (symbol ◊)?
a. ± 1200 ft
b. ± 1200 ft and in 6 nm range
c. ± 2700 ft and in 6 nm range
d. ± 2700 ft or ± 9900 ft and in 6 nm range Ans. d
Symbol for the TA/RA displays is as follow:
232. Does the TCAS display traffic that entered the caution or warning zone but is outside the range of the
display?
a. Yes, but the symbol will not move until the traffic comes within range
b. Yes, but display as a half symbol at the edge of the display area
c. No, TCAS is unable to display traffic outside the display range
d. No, TCAS is unable to detect traffic outside of the display range Ans. b
In the event of off-scale traffic advisory, i.e., TCAS tracks an intruder that is outside the range of the display
but has entered the caution areas, one-half of the appropriate symbol will appear at the appropriate bearing
at the edge of the display area. The symbol will appear in its proper color and have its data tag displayed if
there is room. AOM1.15/6P4
233. What is the priority sequence of the environment alert systems? (list from highest priority)
a. Stall, GPWS, TCAS and Windshear
b. GPWS, Stall, Windshear and TCAS
c. Windshear, TCAS, GPWS and Stall
d. Windshear, Stall, GPWS and TCAS Ans. d
TCAS is an environmental system similar to the GPWS and the Windshear Alert System. Higher alert rates
are expected for TCAS TA&RA as compared to the other systems on the aircraft. For this reason, TCAS
alerts and advisory are independent on the normal aircraft warning system. The priority of the environmental
alerts are listed in the priority sequence as follows:
- Windshear
- Stall
- GPWS
- TCAS
When TCAS is inhibited by Windshear, Stall or GPWS, TCAS will revert to the TA only mode. Voice alerts
will be inhibited. AOM1.15/6P1
234. How does the crossing aircraft, 6000 ft higher, display on the TCAS/VSI?
a. Traffic is always display as the Other traffic symbol on the VSI if it is within range
It is important that pilots follow all RA’s even when there is:
- An opposite avoiding instruction by the controller
If the RA is not followed, it can adversely affect safety when the other aircraft responds to a
coordinated RA.
- Conflict close to the top of the operating envelop
If a “Climb” RA is generated, it may be possible to climb at least a little but do not descent, opposite to
the RA.
- Traffic information from the controller
The slower update rate of the radar display means that the vertical situation seen by the controller may
be inaccurate, particularly when aircraft are rapidly climbing or descending.
- Visual acquisition
The wrong aircraft could be identified and the situation may be wrongly assessed.
AOM Bulletin
It is recognized that the workload is often high during a TCAS RA encounter, nonetheless crew shall notify
ATC as soon as possible using the standard phraseology (e.g. “(call sign) TCAS CLIMB”) No. 44
236. Which statement is not true regarding the Inertial Reference Unit (IRU)?
a. All three IRU’s have their own batteries
b. IRU 1 can be supplied by batteries for at least 30 min
c. IRU 2&3 can be supplied by batteries for 30 sec then shed
d. IRU 3 can be supplied by batteries for at least 30 min in case of IRU 1 failure Ans. a
In the event of 115 V AC primary power loss, the three IRU’s are automatically supplied by batteries, which
are also A/C batteries. With regard to electrical loads balance, only IRU 1 remain supplied until 28 V DC
battery power supply is not available (at least 30 min). IRU 2 and IRU 3, which are also supplied by the 28 V
DC batteries, are load sheds after 30-sec delay. If IRU 3 is previously selected (in case of IRU 1 failure),
only IRU 3 remains supplied by 28 V DC batteries. AOM1.15/8P1
237. What is the difference between IRS WARN light on the Mode Selector Unit (MSU) illuminated steady and
flashing?
a. Steady when IRS is internal failure, flashing when IRS power is failed
b. Steady when IRS navigation signal is lost, flashing when IRS is failed
c. Steady when IRS is failed, flashing when IRS navigation signal is lost
d. Steady when IRS is failed, flashing when IRS detects an error in present position loaded Ans. c
The system contains a number of reasonableness checks to prevent errors in present position loading. If an
error exceeds 3 + 3T nm (where T is time in NAV in hour), the ALIGN mode light flashes.
The system also contains a fault monitoring circuit that detects any system malfunction. The IRS WARN
light flashes if the navigation signal is lost and ATT must be selected. In case of IRS failure, IRS WARN light
comes on steady and the system must be shutdown. AOM1.15/8P2
238. Which FMS data does not clear after A/C on ground an engine shutdown? Ans. d
a. All variables using default values
b. All variables entered by the crew
c. All variables entered as a result by the FMS
d. All variables concerning the secondary flight plan
c. Compute radial error rates to be within 2.4 N.M./hr, otherwise enter in a/c Log.
d. All of the above. Ans. d
AOM2.15/9
P22
240. Where does the COST INDEX come from?
a. Cost of fuel / cost of time
b. Cost of time / cost of fuel
c. (60) * (cost of time (1 sec) / cost of fuel (1 kg))
d. (60) * (cost of fuel (1 kg) / cost of time (1 sec)) Ans. c
AOM1.15/9
P18
AOM1.15/9
P39B
244. By what distance will FMS shift the threshold position after you press TO SHIFT prompt on the FMS
TAKEOFF page during the intersection takeoff?
a. 300 ft
b. 600 m
c. 970 ft
d. 970 m Ans. d
Insertion of a 970 m. shift from the runway threshold position during preflight by pressing RLS key adjacent AOM1.15/9
to the TO SHIFT select prompt is replaced by the TO SHIFT active prompt. Pressing the same key second
time removes the 970-feet shift. P34
245. How can you clear the alternate airport from the FMS (in flight)?
a. Delete the ALTN FLT PLAN from the F–PLN page
b. By the ALTN airport prompt which is branching from the FUEL PRED page
c. By clear the ALTN airport from the F-PLN INIT page A
d. By the NO ALTN prompt on the HOLD page which is branching from the LAT REV page Ans. d
AOM1.15/9
P28
246. In flight, VOR selector is recommended to set in NAV position in order to improve NAV accuracy.
a. True
b. False
Ans. a
USE OF FMS & NAV
During cruise both VORs should be tuned to cross check the aircraft position. However, when the VOR
selector is in VOR, the FMS automatic update function will be downgraded. Therefore, it is recommended to
leave the VOR selector in NAV and remote/auto tune. The VOR selection may be used to check radial at
interval stages if required.
PF’s CDU should preferably be set on PROG page but the other pages such as F–PLN may be selected if
necessary. PNF’s CDU should preferably be set on F–PLN page. AOM VOL 2
3.3/4 P1
247. What is the validity of the NAV database?
a. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page
b. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page and can be extended for 2
days (+ 2 days)
c. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page and can be expired 2 days
before (- 2 days)
d. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page and can be extended for 2
days or expired 2 days before (± 2 days) Ans. d
AOM2.15/9P1
248. What is the maximum difference limit of using NAV mode until MDA or LOC capture if NAV accuracy on
FMS PROG showed “I” or “LOW”?
a. Difference between remote tune VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST less than 1 nm
b. Difference between remote tune VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST less than 2 nm
c. Difference between remote tune VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST less than 3 nm
d. Difference between remote tune VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST less than 4 nm Ans. a
The arrival route/STAR may be flown by promulgated navigation aids or using the FMS if it is defined and
checked on the FMS flight plan page and “RI” or “HIGH” accuracy is shown in NAV mode of PROG page. If
“I” (IRS only) or “LOW” accuracy is displayed on PROG page then the FMS position must be checked by the
following procedure before using FMS arrival routes.
- Insert a VOR/DME ident in the FMS BRG/DIST TO function.
- Remote tunes the same VOR/DME on PROG page.
- Compare the DME distance from VOR and distance from PROG page. If the difference is less than
limit, FMS position is considered reliable.
3 nm (or RNP requirement) en route
2 nm in TMA (50nm)
1 nm on approach (15 nm)
AOM VOL 2
If the distance is more than limit then FMS position is not reliable and the navigation must be based on raw
data. 3.3/6 P1
249. Which A/C system is direct supplied by ENG bleed air separately from pneumatic system?
a. Engine starting
b. Wing anti-ice
c. Hydraulic tank pressurization
d. Thrust reverser Ans. d
The pneumatics system supplies high pressure air for :
- Air conditioning /Pressurization,
- Engine starting,
- Wing anti-ice,
- Hydraulic tank pressurization, and
- Potable water tank pressurization.
Separate systems are used for :
- Engine air intake anti-icing , and
- Thrust reverser. AOM1.16P1
a. Engine starting.
b. Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.
c. Supply air conditioning packs.
d. Pressurize potable water system. Ans. c
Ground pneumatic power source
On the ground, the A/C bleed system can be supplied by HP ground air supply units. This allows :
- Supply to the air conditioning packs (not recommended due to possible pack
contamination).
- Engine starting
- Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.
(Normally, potable tanks are pressurized by bleed air tapped from the left pneumatic duct-AOM 1.18 P1) AOM1.16P3
252. If HP VALVE P/B is in AUTO (P/B in), which condition will cause the HP valves to open?
a. Engine is set in high thrust
b. Bleed valve P/B is OFF
- The HP temperature is below 393O C (GE), 378O C (PW), and pressure below 73
PSI AOM1.16P8
253. Which statement is not true, regarding the APU bleed valve?
a. When APU bleed valve switch is ON, both ENG bleed valves will close
b. When APU bleed valve switch is ON, the X-FEED valve will open provided that the mode selector
switch is at AUTO
c. APU bleed valve will close automatically if right wing leak is detected
d. APU bleed valve will close automatically if APU or the left wing LEAK is activated Ans. c
APU BLLED AIR
The APU bleed valve is pneumatically operated, electrically controlled butterfly valve. The valve is
automatically closed when:
- APU compressor speed below 95%
- Reverse flow in APU air bleed is sensed by an airflow sensor associated with a built in pressure switch
- An APU bleed leak or LH bleed leak is detected
When the APU bleed valve is open, the engine bleed valves are automatically closed.
In normal automatic operation, the crossfeed valve is controlled to the same position as the APU bleed
valve. AOM1.16P2
254. Which state is not true regarding the pneumatic manifold failure detection?
a. Single detection loop is installed in APU and pylon ducts
b. Dual detection loops are installed in each wing and center fuselage ducts
c. There are 3 leak lights on the overhead panel
d. The LEAK light will disappear after the corresponding switch is set to OFF Ans. d
MANIFOLD FAILURE DETECTION
Single detection loops are installed along the pylon and APU ducts. Dual detection loops are installed in the
center fuselage and in each wing around pneumatic and anti-ice ducts.
The warning system is divided into 3 zones; the right wing and pylon, the left wing and pylon, and the mid/aft
fuselage section.
An overheat is indicated by corresponding LEAK light on the overhead panel and by ECAM activation.
The LEAK warning lights remain on as long as the overheat condition exist. When the overheat condition
has disappeared, the circuit must be reset to reopen the valves. AOM1.16P4
255. When does the engine bleed valve close automatically? Ans. d
a. APU bleed switch is ON with APU available
b. Ambient overheat of the pylon, wing or fuselage duct is detected
c. The ENG FIRE handle is pulled
d. All of above
a. There are 3 areas of overheat detection, which are engine pylon, wing & fuselage center section,
fuselage aft section and APU.
EPR
The primary parameter for engine thrust control is the actual Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR). It is the ratio of
turbine discharge total pressure (PT4.95) to fan inlet total pressure (PT2).
There are two PT 4.95 probes that sense PT 4.95 at two different locations. They join together to give
average pressure. AOM1.17PW
At the fan inlet, a combine PT2/TT2 probe measures the fan inlet total pressure (PT2). P7
260. Which signal is used to control Variable Bypass Valve (VBV) and Variable Stator Vane (VSV)? (GE)
a. Electrical signal from Mean Engine Control (MEC)
b. Fuel pressure from MEC
c. Hydraulic pressure from GREEN hydraulic system
d. Electrical signal from FADEC Ans. b
VARIABLE BYPASS VALVE AND VARIABLE STATOR VANE
Twelve Variable Bypass Valves (VBV) bypass part of primary airflow before entering high pressure
compressor into the fan stream to achieve correct airflow matching between the low and high pressure
compressors and reduce possibility of engines stall at all phases of engine operation. The VBV’s are
operated by two hydraulic actuators controlled by fuel pressure from the MEC.
The inlet guide vane and first five stages of HP compressor stator vanes are variable (VSV). They control
airflow through the HP compressor performance and good stall margin over the whole operating range. The AOM1.17GE
VSV are operated by two hydraulic actuators through levers and linkages. The actuators are controlled by
fuel pressure from MEC. P4
261. What is the main purpose of Power Management Control (PMC)? (GE)
a. To trims (downward only) the fuel flow
b. To control most of the fuel flow
c. To measure the mass fuel flow and displays on FF/FU indicator
d. To distribute fuel to fuel nozzles in combustion chamber Ans. a
MAIN ENGINE CONTROL (MEC)
The MEC is a hydromechanical system. It provides for complete basic operation of the engine and controls
most of the fuel flow.
POWER MANAGEMENT CONTROL (PMC)
The PMC is an electronic system. It controls more finely than MEC, a little part of the fuel flow.
Via a torque motor, it trims (downward only) the fuel flow so that when it is operating, the max T/O and the
max CL N1 are obtained for fixed position of the throttle lever, despite changes in flight or environmental
conditions.
AOM1.17GE
The authority band allocated for down trim is sufficiently wide to accommodate all environmental conditions,
but is limited to minimize thrust change under failure conditions. P2
262. Where does the main power supply for the Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) come from? (PW) Ans. c
a. A/C batteries
b. The FADEC’s own batteries
c. The Permanent Magnet Alternator (PMA)
d. The A/C electrical system
PW 4158 engine is controlled solely by an electronic unit called FADEC with no mechanical linkage between
the engine and throttle lever in the flight deck.
The FADEC, mounted at the fan case, consists of two independent control channels A and B. Each channel
has its own inputs, outputs and power supply, but the data is crosstalked between the two channels for
comparison and redundancy.
The electronic circuits of both channels are supplied by a dedicated dual-output Permanent Magnet
ALTERNATOR (PMA) mounted on the accessory gearbox. In addition, 28 V DC aircraft electrical power
also supplies to both channels to power various solenoids and FADEC for ground test purpose.
AOM1.17PW
FADEC is able to work without any aircraft system. It does not require electrical supply from aircraft network.
Only throttle position is needed to modulate the thrust. P7-8
263. When does the Fuel Used (FU) counter reset?
a. After the respective engine has been shutdown
b. After selected the ignition switch to A or B for engine starting
c. After both engines have been started
d. During the respective engine starts Ans. d
FU COUNTER AOM1.17
Displays fuel used. The reset of the FU indicator is automatic on ground during the respective engine start. GE/P12
PW/P17
264. Conditions: Thrust is reduced to idle.
Which condition is not considered as a ground idle?
a. During taxiing
b. During L/D roll with thrust reverser deployed
c. In flight, during descent with slats retracted
d. In flight without any anti-ice system in use Ans. b
Ground idle is possible both on ground and in flight according to these conditions:
On ground
- When the reversers are stowed
In flight
- When the slats are retracted
- When the engine anti-ice is off AOM1.17GE
This is to obtain ground idle during descent for less fuel consumption. P3
265 Which statement is not true regarding the engine oil cooling system? Ans. c
a. The oil from the oil tank is cooled by passing through air/oil cooler (PW)
b. The oil from the oil tank is cooled by passing through fuel/oil heat exchanger (PW)
c. The oil from the oil tank is cooled by passing through air/oil cooler (GE)
d. The oil is cooled by fuel/oil heat exchanger before returning to the oil tank (GE)
The pumped oil then supplies the four engine bearings and the accessory gearboxes. After passing through
all lubricated component, the oil is pumped back to the reservoir by five scavenge pumps through filters and
a magnetic chip detectors installed upstream of each pump. The scavenged oil then passes through master
magnetic chip detector, the scavenge filter and the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The scavenge filter is bypassed
when differential pressure reaches 40 psi (bypassed when the differential pressure reaches 85 psi)
An oil clog warning is triggered when the pressure drop across the filter reaches 31 PSI
AOM1.17GE
P3
From oil tank, a single stage oil pressure pump supplies oil through oil main filter. If the pressure drop
across the filter exceeds 50 psi, the oil clog warning is activated. The oil bypasses the filter if pressure drop
exceeds 90 psi.
The oil is then passes through an air/oil cooler and through a fuel/oil heat exchanger. Pressure tapping at
fuel/oil heat exchanger outlet is used to detect high or low oil pressure conditions. Acceptable limits for high
oil temperature are between 163 and 177O C for less than 20 min, or 177O C in transient conditions. Limit of AOM1.17PW
low oil temperature is 50O C. The FADEC commands the temperature bypass valve, which causes the
engine oil to bypass the fuel/oil heat exchanger. P4
266. What is the maximum oil temperature / minimum oil pressure at idle thrust? (GE)
a. 160O C / 10 psi
b. 160O C / 15-25 psi
c. 175O C / 15-25 psi
AOM2.17PW
P1
268. What is the minimum oil quantity for GE and PW engine before flight? Ans. a
a. 14 QT + estimated consumption / 9 QT + estimated consumption respectively
b. 9 QT + estimated consumption / 14 QT + estimated consumption respectively
c. 8 QT + estimated consumption / 12 QT + estimated consumption respectively
d. 12 QT + estimated consumption / 8 QT + estimated consumption respectively
Flight Deck Crew Training Department
Last Update on 09 March 2011 By
Capt. Somsak P.
Issue 02
OPC QUESTIONNAIRES AB6
TECHNICAL Page 95
b. Ignition in position A or B operates when fuel levers ON and N2 < 45%, ignition in CONT RELIGHT
position operates whenever fuel levers ON only
c. Ignition in position A or B operates when start pushbutton is pushed, ignition in CONT RELIGHT
position operates when fuel levers are selected to ON
d. Both operation are the same, except ignition CONT RELIGHT is inhibited on ground Ans. b
ENGINE IGNITION SYSTEM
The system consists of two separate identical circuits A and B, and is controlled through the ignition selector
on the ENG panel.
When start A (or B) is selected, A (or B) system for engine 1 and 2 is activated provided that the AOM1.17
corresponding HP FUEL lever is in ON position and N2 is below 45%.
GE/P4
When CONT RELIGHT is selected, both A&B systems for engine 1 and 2 are activated provided that the HP
FUEL lever is in ON position. They are not automatically deenergized when N2 reaches 45%. PW/P5
270. Which condition is not true, regarding the ignition and starting system?
a. The start valve opens when the related START P/B is pressed
b. When ignition switch is selected to A, B or CRANK, the pack valves are closed
c. When ignition switch is selected to CONT RELIGHT, the pack valves are closed
d. 750O – 870O C for 40 sec / above 870O C with no time delay Ans. d
EGT
During starting, 40 sec time limit………………………………..750 – 870O C
During starting, no time limit…………………………………….750O C
AOM2.17GE
Any starting EGT above 750O C must be recorded in aircraft log. Any starting EGT in the range 820 - 870O C
requires maintenance action before next flight (intended flight may be completed). P1
275. What is the EGT limit during engine start on ground, and what is the condition that indicates the possibility of
ENG hot start? (PW)
a. 535O C and if EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached 30%, an engine hot start might occur
b. 535O C and if EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached idle, an engine hot start might occur
c. 650O C and if EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached 30%, an engine hot start might occur
d. 650O C and if EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached idle, an engine hot start might occur Ans. a
EGT
277. At which speed that you need to reduce reverse thrust to idle reverse during L/D roll?
a. 80 kt ground speed
b. 60 kt ground speed
c. 80 kt IAS
d. 60 kt IAS Ans. c
The following thrust settings shall be used for normal reverse.
At speed above 80 kt IAS:
- As required up to reverse stop but never more than 95% N1 (90% N1 if OAT below 30O C).
- When landing on long, dry runway, it is recommended to use idle reverse only on both engines
throughout the landing roll in the interest of passenger comfort and noise abatement.
At 80 kt IAS (PNF calls out “EIGHTY”)
- Start reverse thrust reduction so as to reaches the idle reverse at approx. 60 kt IAS.
At 60 kt IAS (PNF calls out “SIXTY”) AOM VOL 2
- Both engines at idle reverse. Do not unreverse if retardation is still required. 3.3/7 P2
278. What is the most probable caused if you found that the oil quantity is increasing in-flight during steady state
of engine operation? (GE)
a. Oil was over serviced before flight
b. Fuel leak into oil from fuel / oil heat exchanger
c. Oil temperature is rising and caused oil to expand in volume
d. Oil pressure is dropping and caused oil to expand in volume Ans. b
ENG OIL QTY ABNORMAL INCREASE (TAA – TAH) AOM VOL 2
Oil quantity increase is caused by fuel entering the oil system. EM Checklist
Whatever the source of the fuel leak, fuel enters the oil system because of the fuel pressure is always 17.14
higher than the oil pressure at the respective interface.
NOTE:
Maintenance action is required before next flight.
PROCEDURE
So as to allow the early detection of rapidly developing fuel leaks into oil system and the timely initiation of
required maintenance actions, it is recommend that the flight crew monitor the oil quantity during steady
state engine operation as follows:
Before ENG start
- Oil QTY bugs……………………………………..SET
At least 30 sec after the ENG reaches stabilized idle
- Oil QTY……………………………………………Check below bug or below 20 quarts
After top of climb
- Oil QTY bugs……………………………………..RESET
During steady state ENG operation
- Oil QTY……………………………………………MONOTOR
Oil QTY increasing during steady state ENG operation or oil QTY approaching full
- NORMAL ENG OPERATION…………………..CONTINUE AOM Bulletin
- OIL QTY…………………………………………..Record increase for maintenance No. 38
279. Which source drives the N1 or EPR command pointer (black and white needle on the N1 or EPR indicator)?
a. Thrust Control Computer (TCC)
b. Throttle lever
c. Auto Throttle System (ATS)
d. PMC or FADEC Ans. d
N1 COMMAND POINTER (black and white) (GE) AOM1.17GE
Indicates the N1 command computed by the PMC. P11
N1 COMMAND POINTER (black and white) (PW) AOM1.17PW
Indicates the N1 command computed by the FADEC. P15
280. The engines must be stabilized at idle approx. 3 min before shutdown.(PW)
a. True
b. False Ans. b
Arrival
- Shut down engines after operation at, or near idle for, at least a 5 minutes cooling after landing.
Note
AOM 2.17 (PW)
If the time for taxiing to the parking gate is less than 5 minutes, the engine may be shut down at gate arrvial P.4
RP shall start his stop watch when LP selects forward idle on both engines in order to note landing and AOM VOL 2.0
engine thermo-stabilization times
3.3/7 P2
281. With both engines flameout with unreliable airspeed (i.e. Volcanic ash encounter), what is the target to aim?
IGNITION……………………………….CONT RELIGHT
RAT………………………………………ON
THROTTLES………………………………..IDLE
FUEL SUPPLY……………………………..CHECK
CREW OXY MASKS……………………….CONSIDER/ON
OPTIMUM SPEED…………………………260 KT IAS
(Use green dot speed if available)
If unreliable or lost airspeed indication (Volcanic ash encounter)
PITCH ATTITUDE……….. ………………-2.5O (add 0.5O per 10 T above 100T)
USE ELEVATOR AND RUDDER WITH CARE ABOVE SPEED 170 KT IAS
COMMUNICATIONS……………………….VHF1/ATC1
RELIGHT………………………. ……………MONITOR .
AOM VOL 2
END 4.1/2-17 P1-5
282. What are the correct actions you should perform if you found that the EPR is different during climb out
(below 14200 ft)? (PW)
a. Disconnect the auto throttle and adjust the throttle manually until both EPR is equivalent then
reengage the auto throttle
b. Disconnect the auto throttle and reduce thrust manually then reengage the auto throttle
c. Advancing both throttles by at least 2 degrees then releasing them
d. Reducing both throttles by at least 2 degrees then releasing them Ans. c
For PW engines, a difference in EPR between the two engines may be observed during climb up to
approximately 14200 ft. This difference has a negligible effect on the aircraft handling. However, the EPR
difference may be corrected by advancing both throttle levers by at least 2 degrees and then releasing AOM VOL 2
them, returning the thrust control to the A/THR. This action is sufficient to ensure that both FADEC have
switched over from takeoff phase to the flight phase and, thus, provide consistent EPR CMD computations. 3.2/3 P1
283. What is the EGT limitation for T/O, MCT, Climb and Cruise? (GE)
a. 960 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 925, 890, 835O C respective
b. 960 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 935, 870, 835O C respective Ans. a
c. 935 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 925, 890, 835O C respective AOM2.17GE
d. 960 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 925, 870, 820 C respective
O
P2
284. What is the EGT limitation for T/O, and MCT? (PW)
a. 650 (max 5 min), 625 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 625O C respective
b. 650 (max 5 min), 650 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 625O C respective
c. 625 (max 5 min), 625 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 650O C respective
d. 650 (max 5 min), 625 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 535O C respective Ans. b
AOM2.17PW
P1
285. Which failure is displayed on the LH ECAM as underlining of system title and preceded by an asterisk?
a. Primary failure
b. Secondary failure
c. Independent failure
d. Advisory alert warning Ans. b
TYPE OF FAILURE
Failures causing warnings are divided into 3 types:
Primary failure
This is a failure of a system or component, which affects other systems or components. It is recognized by
the failure title written in a box on the WD and the warning lights on the pilot instrument panels.
Secondary failure
This is a system or component failure as a result of another system or component failure. It is recognized by
the underline system title and preceded by an asterisk. The warning lights related to failure on the pilot
instrument panels remain on.
Independent failure
This is a failure that is not caused by a failure of another system or component. Instead, it is an isolated
failure and does not affect other systems or components. It is recognized by the underlined system title and
the warning lights on the pilot instrument panels. AOM1.19/1P2
286. Which statement is not true regarding the ECAM SD (RH ECAM)?
a. When warning is detected, the SD will display the appropriate system automatically
b. The manual mode can be selected by the P/B on the ECAM control panel to display the corresponding
system
c. The advisory automatic mode can be displayed in all phases of flight
d. The failure related automatic mode has the highest priority Ans. c
SYSTEM DISPLAY (SD)
The right ECAM is normally called System Display (SD) and can be described into 4 modes as follow:
- Failure related automatic mode. As soon as a warning is detected, the appropriate system page is
automatically displayed. The system page is cleared by means of the CLR P/B or if the failure
conditions have disappeared. This mode has priority over all others but can be overridden if a system
page is called manually.
- Advisory automatic mode. When a parameter drifts out of normal range, the relevant system page is
automatically displayed to attract the crew’s attention. This mode is only active in cruise.
- Manual mode. This mode can be selected any time through the P/B on the ECAM control panel.
Automatic mode has priority and will disengage manual mode.
- Flight phase related automatic mode. This mode is automatically engaged if the other modes are not
engaged. This mode displayed eight system pages related to twelve flight phases. AOM1.19/1P4
287. When will the wheel page be displayed?
a. From pushing back till T/O and from L/D until ENG shutdown
b. From ENG starting till T/O and from L/D until ENG shutdown
c. From pushing back till T/O and from L/D gear down until ENG shutdown
d. From ENG starting till T/O and from L/D gear down until ENG shutdown Ans. d
Flight phase related automatic mode
DOOR Displays from power on until second ENG start and from first ENG shutdown.
WHEEL Displays from second ENG start till T/O and from L/D gear down till first ENG shutdown.
ENGINE Displays from T/O till slats retraction.
CRUISE Displays from slats retraction until L/D gear down.
ENG START Displays when ENG start selector in START A, START B or CRANK.
APU Displays when APU master switch in ON position until APU RPM > 95% for 15 sec. AOM1.19/1P6
288. The EGPWS provides a prevention of a potential terrain conflicting by?
a. Computes the terrain caution and warning envelopes from its terrain database against a/c ground Ans. d
speed and turn rate.
b. It provides visual and voice warning to alert flight crew about potential of terrain conflict.
c. It provides pitch attitude guidance to escape from conflicted terrain.
d. a. and b. are correct
The EGPWS provides visual and audio synthetic voice warning to alert the flight crew about potential terrain
conflicts.
The enhanced functions are:
- A Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) function which can predict a potential conflict with terrain
ahead of the A/C and display terrain data on ND
- A Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) function which alerts the flight crew of excessive terrain closure
ahead
Visual alerts:
- TAD: red GPWS light illuminate and the appropriate color is displayed on ND AOM1.19/2
- TCF: both red GPWS and amber G/S illuminate P1A-1C
289. Which statement is not true regarding the Flight Warning Computer (FWC)?
a. If one of the two FWC’s fails, all red warnings (Master warning light) are still available
b. If one of the two FWC’s fails, all amber cautions (Master caution light) are still available
c. If one of the two FWC’s fails, the local warnings (Overhead panel) are still available
d. If both FWC fail, all red warning and amber caution are not available Ans. b
FLIGHT WARNING COMPUTERS
Two FWC’s acquire aircraft system data to process warnings, cautions and status functions. The critical
failure signals, mainly red warnings, are fed to both FWC’s. The other signals, mainly amber cautions, are
split between the two FWC’s. AOM1.19/1P4
SINGLE FWS FAULT
- Red warning are not affected.
- Amber cautions processed by the affected FWS are lost, but local warnings are available. AOM VOL 2
DUAL FWS FAULT EM Checklist
- All red warnings and amber cautions are lost, but local warnings are available. 19.2
290. Which statement is not correct regarding the terrain display for EGPWS? Ans. d
c. Pulling up by manually pitch up 20O NU initially and set throttles to full thrust, retract flaps and L/D gear
(if extended) immediately
d. Pulling up by manually pitch up 20O NU initially with wing level and set throttles manually to full thrust,
retract only speed brakes (if extended) Ans. d
GPWS ALERTS
A go-around shall be initiated if the cause of the warning cannot be identified immediately.
During daylight VMC conditions when positive verification is made that no hazard exists, the warning may
be considered cautionary.
Simultaneously
Pitch attitude………………………………………………….INITIALLY 20O NU
- Use Stick Shaker boundary as upper limit pitch
Throttles……………………………………………………….FULL FORWARD
Autopilot……………………………………………………….DISCONNECT
A/THR………………………………………………………… DISCONNECT
BANK…………………………………………………………..WINGS LEVEL
Speed brakes lever…………………………………………..CHECK RETRACTE
When flight path is safe and GPWS warning ceases
- Decrease pitch attitude and accelerate AOM VOL 2
When speed above VLS and V/S positive EM Checklist
- Clean up aircraft as required 19.1
d. Apply TOGA and reduce pitch attitude to 5O NU then extends the slats Ans. a
Recovery procedure
Whenever a stall warning (i.e. Sticker shaker activation) is experienced at low altitude, this should be
considered as an immediate threat to maintaining a safe flight path.
At lift off:
Thrust levers………………………………………………….TOGA
Pitch attitude………………………………………………….12.5O NU
During any other flight phases after lift off:
Thrust levers…………………………………………………..TOGA
Pitch attitude…………………………………………………..REDUCE
Slats/flaps……………………………………………………..Do not retract
After initial recovery:
Maintain the speed close to the stick shaker speed until it is safe to accelerate (closely monitor both the
speed and the speed trend arrow)
Bank angle…………………………………………………….Wing levels
Speed brakes…………………………………………………Check retracted
In clean configuration and below 20000 ft:
Slats……………………………………………………………Extend
When out of stall and if no threat of ground contact:
Landing gear (if down)……………………………………….Up AOM VOL 2
Recover normal speed and select flaps as required 3.3/10 P4
294. What is the correct procedure of the upset recovery from the A/C nose high attitude and high bank angle?
a. Apply nose down elevator simultaneously with roll wing to level
b. Apply nose down elevator until approaches the horizontal attitude and then roll wing to level
c. Apply full thrust first in order to recovery the speed
d. Roll wing to level then apply nose down elevator Ans. b
Recovery from nose high, high bank angle:
Pilots must apply nose down elevator but maintain bank angle in order to quickly reduce pitch attitude. As
the nose approaches the horizon, bank angle should be reduced to zero and pitch attitude adjusted to
recover normal airspeed. AOM VOL 2
By the other hand: PITCH and THRUST then BANK. 3.3/10 P5
295. What is the correct procedure of the upset recovery from the A/C nose down attitude and high bank angle?
a. Apply nose up elevator simultaneously with roll wing to level
b. Apply nose up elevator until approaches the horizontal attitude and then roll wing to level
c. Reduce thrust first in order to prevent the over speed
d. Reduce thrust and roll wing to level simultaneously, then apply nose up elevator Ans. d
Recovery from nose down, high bank angle:
The nose down, high bank angle upset requires prompt action from the pilot since attitude is rapidly
exchanged for speed. Airspeed in that situation can rapidly increase beyond airplane limits.
It is important to roll the aircraft to wing level before applying nose up elevator, especially if bank angle
exceeds 90 degrees.
Simultaneous application of roll control and thrust reduction may be necessary.
The pilot should also extend the speed brakes as necessary. AOM VOL 2
By the other hand: BANK and THRUST then PITCH. 3.3/10 P6
296. Which condition does not generate the T/O CONFIG warning when T/O thrust is applied? Ans. d
a. Stabilizer setting is not in T/O range
b. Slats/flaps are not in T/O configuration
c. Parking brake is set
d. Speed brake handle is not armed
a. Bank angle limiter should be set to 15O when altitude is above 20000 ft
b. Bank angle limiter should be set to 15O when cruising altitude is above optimum flight level
c. Cruising altitude within 2000 ft of the optimum level, fuel burn will be within 1.5% of the optimum
performance
d. Cruising altitude 4000 ft below or above the optimum level, fuel burn may increase about 4% Ans. a
FLIGHT LEVEL SELECTION
The cruising level should be maintained as near as possible to the OPTIMUM level in order to obtain best
fuel economy. If cruising level is within 2000 ft of the optimum level, the fuel burn will be within 1.5% of the
optimum performance. But if 4000 ft below optimum cruising level is maintained, an increase of about 4% in
burn can be expected. Conversely, if cruising level in above optimum (up to ceiling) is contemplated, the
increase in burn may also reach 4%.
STABILITY AT HIGH ALTITUDE
When cruising close to maximum FL and particularly above the optimum level, the bank angle limiter should AOM VOL 2
be set to 15O. A bank angle of 25O will increase the wing load by approximately 17% therefore increasing the
stall speed and reduce the stall margin. At lower altitude the bank angle limiter should be in NORM. 3.3/4 P1
298. Condition: L/D at BKK R/W 21R, wind 120/15G25, A/THR is in used. Ans. c
What is the correct approach speed?
a. VLS
b. VLS + 5
c. VLS + 10
d. VLS + 15
- In case of malfunction and VREF correction < 20 kt then maximum wind correction = 20 kt - VREF
correction. AOM VOL 2
- If VREF correction > 20 kt then do not apply any wind correction. 3.3/6 P2
299. Which statement is not correct regarding the crosswind landing?
The Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is a direct function of the difference between the Total Pressure (Pt)
measured by pitot probe and the Ambient / Static Pressure (Ps) measured by the static ports.
IAS = f (Pt – Ps)
Whenever a pitot probe is blocked, two scenarios can be considered:
- The pitot probe is blocked and the pitot probe drain holes are free. The IAS may fluctuate or drop
quickly towards the stick shaker speed.
- The pitot probe is blocked and the pitot drain holes are also blocked. The trapped Pt remains
constant.
- In level flight (constant Ps), the IAS is constant and the pitot condition may go undetected.
- In climb, the IAS increase (with decreasing Ps), possibly resulting in the activation of the
overspeed warning.
- In descent, the IAS decreases (with increasing Ps).
In the same manner, should the static ports be blocked, the ambient pressure is trapped and Ps remains
constant.
- During T/O roll, the IAS indication is normal.
- After lift-off, the static pressure is trapped and remains frozen at the airfield elevation:
- The indicated altitude remains also equal to the airfield elevation.
- The IAS decreases as the Pt decreases with increasing altitude (at constant actual airspeed).
The stall warning and the stick shaker activation are solely based on defined angle-of-attack thresholds.
The activation of these warning is therefore not linked in any manner to the pitot-static system.
The activation of the stall warning and the stick shaker shall be trusted at all times. AOM VOL 2
Conversely, the overspeed warning may be untimely activated in case of unreliable airspeed indication. 8.3/1P1-3