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Redundancy means the _____. A. Transmission rate of the system B. Symbols are to be repeated C. Time between failures D. Time between successes. A. Radio B. Optical Fiber C. Coaxial Cable D. Twisted pair.
Redundancy means the _____. A. Transmission rate of the system B. Symbols are to be repeated C. Time between failures D. Time between successes. A. Radio B. Optical Fiber C. Coaxial Cable D. Twisted pair.
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Redundancy means the _____. A. Transmission rate of the system B. Symbols are to be repeated C. Time between failures D. Time between successes. A. Radio B. Optical Fiber C. Coaxial Cable D. Twisted pair.
Copyright:
Attribution Non-Commercial (BY-NC)
Formati disponibili
Scarica in formato DOC, PDF, TXT o leggi online su Scribd
Name ____________________________ yr/sec ________ Date ____________
Score _____
1. Redundancy means the _____.
A. transmission rate of the system B. symbols are to be repeated C. time between failures D. time between successes
2. Which transmission media is not suitable to CSMA operation?
A. Radio B. Optical Fiber C. Coaxial Cable D. Twisted Pair 3. Is a device used to convert a time varying electrical quantity to an appropriate form. A. Codec B. Transducer C. ADC/DAC D. Modem 4. The bandwidth of U600 mastergroup is A. 2250 kHz B. 2728 kHz C. 2520 kHz D. 2278 kHz 5. Refers to the Combined digitally encoded signals transmitted with FDM signals as one composite baseband signal. A. Composite data B. Data Under Voice (DUV) C. Hybrid Data D. Data In Voice (DIV) 6. Transmit Frequency-division-multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial cable for distance up to 4000 miles. A. T carrier systems B. A carrier systems C. L carrier systems D. D carrier systems 7. Level 5 of Japanese PCM multiplex hierarchy has a channel capacity of A. 7680 VB channels B. 5760 VB channels C. 8064 VB channels D. 5670 VB channels 8. The line data rate (in Mbs) for level 4 of CEPT 30 + 2 PCM multiplex hierarchy is A. 97.728 B. 400.352 C. 274.176 D. 139.264 9. The guardband between supergroup 18 and supergroup D25 is A. 12 kHz B. 56 khz C. 128 khz D. 8 khz 10. Supergroup 17 has a carrier frequency (in khz) of A. 2108 B. 2356 C. 1860 D. 1612 11. A radio channel is composed of _____ VB channels. A. 1800 B. 900 C. 10800 D. 8064 12. What is the guardband between supergroup 1 and supergroup 2? A. 12 khz B. 10 khz C. 8 khz D. 6 khz 13. CCITT’s supermastergroup has how many voiceband channels? A. 600 B. 1800 C. 10800 D. 900 14. The transparency mechanism used with SDLC is called A. Zero-bit insertion B. Modified link test C. Beacon test D. Invert-on-zero coding 15. What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line? A. 2B + D B. B + D C. B + 2D D. 2B + 2D 16. A digital network where voice, video, text and data are multiplexed into a single network for processing and are transmitted prior to use. A. Frame relay B. Asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) C. ISDN D. Synchronous digital hierarchy (SDH) 17. T-1 carrier service has _____ digital bit rate. A. 1.544 Mbps B. 2048 Mbps C. 1.644 Mbps D. 9600 kbps 18. Non-ISDN equivalent can be connected to ISDN line by the use of _____. A. Terminal equipment B. Terminal adapters C. Modem D. Network adaptors 19. What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup? A. 312 to 552 khz B. 60 to 2540 khz C. 60 to 108 khz D. 300 to 600 khz 20. What is the transmission signal coding for T1 carrier? A. Binary B. NRZ C. Bipolar D. Manchester 21. The primary purpose of the data modem. A. Interface analog terminal equipment to analog communications channel B. Interface digital terminal equivalent to digital communications channel C. Interface analog terminal equipment to digital communications channel D. Interface digital terminal equipment to analog communications channel 22. The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data in digital form. A. Data terminal equipment (DTE) B. Data communications equipment (DCE) C. Modem D. UART 23. SYN character of EBCDIC code A. 32 H B. 8 H C. 16 H D. 4 H 24. _______ ensures that the transmitter and receiver agree on prescribed time slot for the occurrence of a bit. A. Bit or clock synchronization B. Modem or carrier synchronization C. Character synchronization D. Message synchronization 25. Equation used to determine the number of Hamming bits in the Hamming code. A. B. C. D. 26. Data means A. Digital information B. Both digital and analog C. Analog information D. Neither digital nor analog 27. What determines which network configuration is most appropriate? A. Application Layer B. Presentation Layer C. Network Layer D. Data link layer 28. Ethernet is a baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at _________. A. 10 Mbps B. 20 Mbps C. 30 Mbps D. 40 Mbps 29. Mechanism used by a station to gain access to local area network. A. Channel Multiplexing B. Channel accessing C. CSMA/CD D. CSMA/CA 30. What multiplexing scheme is used by baseband transmission? A. TDM B. Space multiplexing C. FDM D. Statistical multiplexing 31. Use of coaxial cables in interconnecting networks is limited to an overall length of _______. A. 1500 Ft B. 1500 m C. 1500 km D. 1500 kft 32. What identifies how the stations are interconnected in a network? A. Topology B. Architecture C. Topology or Architecture D. Topology and Architecture 33. ______ is a data communications network designed to provide two-way communications between a large variety of data communications terminal equipment within a relatively small geographic area. A. Private Area Network B. Local Area Network C. Wide Area Network D. Ethernet 34. ______ is the mode of transmission in public data network in which data is transferred from source to the network then to the destination in an asynchronous data format. A. Synchronous mode B. Start/stop mode C. Packet mode D. Circuit mode 35. A seven-bit character can represent one of ______ possibilities. A. 7 B. 14 C. 64 D. 128 36. _____ is defined to be the maximum rate at which information can be transmitted through a channel A. Bit rate B. Baud rate C. Coding D. Channel Capacity 37. Circuit that performs the inverse mapping and delivers to the user destination, a reproduction of the original digital source output. A. Source coding B. Channel coding C. Inverse coding D. Demodulation 38. Digital Modulation technique used in modems A. ASK B. FSK C. PSK D. MSK 39. Who developed the Fixed-length binary code for telegraphy A. Samuel Morse B. Emile Baudot C. Alexander Graham Bell D. Guglielmo Marconi 40. Inventor of Push-code modulation for the digital encoding of speech signals. A. R.V.L. Hartley B. J.R. Carson C. H. Nyquist D. Alex Reeves 41. In what year did computers and terminals start communicating with each other over long distance? A. 1950’s B. 1960’s C. 1970’s D. 1980’s 42. Store-and-forward multiple-access network. A. ARPANET B. ALOHA C. PRNET D. Packet switching 43. A source code whose average world length approaches the fundamental limit set by the entropy of a discrete memory less source. A. Prefix code B. Source code C. Entropy code D. Huffman code 44. Who promulgate communications related military standards (MIL-STD)? A. DOD B. DCA C. DOD-STD D. ANSI-MIL 45. What is the class of probability in error detection techniques that is known as residual error rate? A. P1 B. P2 C. P3 D. P4 46. RS 232 is normally an interface between DTE and DCE, What is its signal rate? A. 20 kbps B. 30 kbps C. 40 kbps D. 50 kbps 47. Digital switching concepts that can handle more channels. A. SDS B. TSI C. TDM D. TMS 48. What is the most significant advantage of modulator switch than time-and-space switch? A. Flexible size B. Simplified control C. Simplified manufacturing, testing and maintenance D. The latter is more advantageous than the former 49. Which of the following is the biggest disadvantage of PCM systems? A. Inability to handle analog signals B. High error rate as a result of quantizing noise C. Not compatible with TDM D. The large bandwidth required 50. The reason why companding is employed in PCM systems is A. To solve quantizing noise problem B. To allow amplitude limiting in the receiver C. To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion D. To overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers 51. The highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate (fs) without aliasing. A. Folding Frequency B. Resonant Frequency C. Critical Frequency D. Natural Frequency 52. The overlapping of the original spectrum and the first translated component is known as A. Dc wandering B. Aliasing C. Droop D. distortion 53. Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously. A. Full duplex B. Half duplex C. Simplex D. Echoplex 54. Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs based upon A. The position of data within a frame B. The position of a frame within a group of frames C. The activity of connected device D. The priority assigned to a connected device 55. What is a multiplexing? A. The process of increasing bandwidth on a channel B. A technique that enables more than one data source to share the use of a common line. C. Mailing letter at the post office D. The ability to share frequency by time 56. One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM A. There is more time than frequency B. It is difficult to place channels side by side C. Noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used D. Most available frequencies have been used 57. In _____ modulation the carrier is a periodic train of pulses. A. Amplitude B. Analog C. Digital D. pulse 58. the process that uses the orthogonality of sine’s and cosines that makes possible to transmit and receive to different signals simultaneously on the same carrier frequency is A. TDM B. FDM C. Quadrature multiplexing D. Duplexing 59. Which of the following pulse modulation technique is a digital transmission system? A. Pulse duration modulation B. Pulse position modulation C. Pulse width modulation D. Pulse code modulation 60. Which of the following is not an advantage of digital transmission? A. Noise Immunity B. Ease of multiplexing C. Bandwidth utilization D. Ease of encryption 61. _____ is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude that can be decoded by the DAC. A. Resolution B. Quantization C. Dynamic Range D. Voltage ratio 62. A process where the higher amplitude analog signals are compressed prior to transmission then expanded at the receiver. A. Compressing B. Expanding C. Encoding D. Companding 63. For a resolution of 0.01 V and analog sample voltage of 0.05 V, the 12-bit linear sign- magnitude code is A. 000000000101 B. 100000000101 C. 100010010011 D. 000001010001 64. _____ uses a single bit PCM code to achieve a digital transmission of analog signal A. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation (QAM) B. Frequency shift keying (FSK) C. Delta Modulation (DM) D. Phase Modulation (PM) 65. The line speed of Bell System T1 carrier system is A. 64 kbps B. 3.152 Mbps C. 1.544 Mbps D. 6.312 Mbps 66. How many Channels does a T2 line carry? A. 24 B. 48 C. 96 D. 672 67. The capacity standard 4khz telephone channel with 30 dB S/N is A. 455225 bps B. 42525 bps C. 39846 bps D. 39840 bps 68. How many channels does a super group have? A. 60 B. 600 C. 1800 D. 10800 69. The output frequency at the channel combiner of channel 7 is A. 76 – 80 kHz B. 80 -84 kHz C. 84 – 88 kHz D. 88 – 92 kHz 70. The carrier frequency of the supergroup D25 is A. 2652 kHz B. 2900 kHz C. 2356 kHz D. 2108 kHz 71. Which of the following is not a hybrid data? A. Data in voice B. Data under voice C. Data above voice D. Data in video 72. _____ was the first fixed-length 5-bit character code. A. EBCIDIC B. ASCII C. Morse Code D. Baudot Code 73. CCIT V.26 modem has a modulation rate of ____. A. 1200 Hz B. 1200 Bauds C. 1560 cps D. 9600 bauds 74. What can a smart modem do? A. Detect transmission errors and correct them automatically B. Correct answer multiple choice quizzes C. Accepts command from the terminals via RS232 interface D. Do a smart Game 75. 76. 77. 78. 79.