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4. The nose wheel taxi light will automatically extinguish with gear retraction?
False
6. Where is the water tank located and how many gallons does it hold?
Behind the aft cargo compartment, 20 gallons
9. If normal electrical power is lost what cockpit lights will be available from the BAT BUS?
Standby compass
Dome lights
Floodlights
Warning lights
10. Will the loss of one AC Bus remove all cabin lights?
NO
13. Does the battery have to be on to read the crew O2 pressure on the flight deck?
Yes
21. What is the minimum quick turn time should the landing weight exceed the charted value?
53 minutes then check the thermal plugs
25. If a passenger cabin PSU O2 compartment fails to open can it be opened manually?
YES
26. How can you shut off the O2 to the crew mask when it is not stowed in the box?
Close the left side stowage door and slide the test/reset switch
2
34. What is the operating life of the emergency radio beacon? Where is it located?
100 hours
Just inside the main cabin door opposite the flight attendant jump seat
35. Which lights are not tested during the lights test?
Marker Beacon A/T A/P
NAV/COMM frequencies Fire related
Transponder code MCP lights
Clock LCD
3
Air Systems Section 2
36. Where does external air enter the pneumatic manifold?
Right of the isolation valve
38. On the ground what is the proper indication of the Ram Door position lights?
RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights illuminated
39. When are the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights extinguished?
In-flight or flaps fully retracted
41. What’s the maximum differential pressure allowed by a pressure relief valve?
8.65psi
i. 2 pressure relief valves installed
46. What does the left WING BODY OVHT light indicate? What about the right?
There’s a leak in the bleed air duct
i. LEFT: L engine strut, L inboard wing leading edge, L air conditioning bay, keel beam,
or bleed duct from APU
ii. RIGHT: R engine strut, R inboard wing leading edge, R air conditioning bay
iii. WING BODY OVHT cannot be reset
47. With one pack not operating, when will the other pack automatically switch to HIGH AIR
FLOW?
In-flight with flaps up
4
50. What powers the isolation valve?
AC power
53. How many packs can the APU power on the ground? In-flight?
2 packs on the ground (only for heating) 1 pack in-flight
54. A temperature higher than the DUCT OVHT causes the appropriate pack valve to close and
illuminate what light?
Pack Trip off light
56. What aural warning on the ground indicates an overheat in the E & E compartment?
Call horn in the nose wheel well
60. How is the DCPCS (digital cabin pressure controller system) outflow valve operated?
Brushless DC motor
61. What schedule does the pressurization controller follow cabin altitudes?
<28,000’ 7.45
>28,000’ 7.8
63. What is the maximum cabin differential pressure for takeoff / landing?
.125psi
64. What limitation is placed on when engine bleeds are on and the operation of both packs on high?
Not for takeoff and landing
66. Minimum duct pressure for two-pack operation from one bleed source?
20-25psi
5
Anti-ice and Rain Section 3
67. What does an illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE light indicate?
High pressure or high temp in the duct from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip
68. What does a dim WING ANTI ICE VALVE OPEN light indicate?
Respective wing anti-ice control valve is OPEN with the switch selected ON
71. What is indicated when the engine anti-ice valve fails OPEN?
The COWL VALVE OPEN light remains bright blue indicating a disagreement between switch
and valve position, and an amber TAI indication illuminates on the CDS after a short delay
75. What does the amber light mean on the pitot static panel?
Not heated
76. On the ground when throttles are advanced to take off power and the wing anti-ice is selected on,
the wing ant-ice valves close.
TRUE, the switch must be cycled off then back on above 800’ AGL or acceleration height,
whichever is higher
77. What are the icing limitations for climb and descent?
Must be on for all operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated except during climb or
cruise when the temperature is below –40C SAT
78. What part of the wing does the wing anti-ice heat?
Slats
6
82. When must engine anti-ice be on?
. All ground operations in icing conditions
. All flight operations in icing conditions, except climb and cruise below -40C SAT
. Prior to and during descent in all icing conditions
. Engine ignition must be selected to CONT prior to and during anti-ice operations
86. What happens when either thrust lever is moved beyond the takeoff-warning threshold with wing
anti-ice operating on the ground?
. Both wing anti-ice valves close, but the switch remains on
. Light turns bright blue
7
Auto flight Section 4
90. What will cause an A/P (auto pilot) to disengage?
. Pushing either A/P disengage switch . Trim switch
. TO/GA switch with a single A/P . Stab Trim A/P cutout switch
engaged below 2000’ RA . Either IRS system fail or
. TO/GA after touchdown with both FAULT light illuminated
A/P in CMD . Loss of electrical power
. Pushing A/P engage switch . Respective HYD system
92. Only one A/P can be engaged at a given time unless APP mode is engaged.
TRUE
93. During pre-flight, the bank angle is set to 25 degrees. What does this affect?
The VOR and HDG SEL only
97. What is the minimum altitude for A/P engagement (climb and cruise)?
1000’ AGL
99. In normal operation the FMC provides the A/T system with what limitations?
N1
100. On takeoff when does the F/D command 15 degrees nose up?
64kts
101. What is displayed on the MCP display window when VNAV is engaged?
Nothing
8
106. During cruise in A/P A, how do you select A/P B?
Select B and A will automatically trip off
107. What mode engages automatically when ALT ACQ engages and a new MCP
altitude is selected?
VS
109. During take off with the F/D in TO/GA mode below 400’, roll commands what?
Maintains wings level
111. What is the initial F/D GA pitch command during a two engine missed approach?
15 degrees nose up
115. After takeoff the A/T remains in THR HLD until when?
What does it change to?
400RA and 18 seconds
ARM
116. For coupled singled channel approaches with electronic glide slope when must
the A/P be selected off?
Below 50 AGL
117. May the aileron trim be used with the A/P engaged?
NO
119. What are the allowable headwind / crosswind / tailwind components for the use
of AUTOLAND?
25 /15 /10
121. May the A/P or A/T be used for approach if the respective RA is inoperative?
NO
9
Communications section 5
124. Which is correct for the MASK position of the MASK-BOOM switch?
Allows transmission over O2 mask’s microphone
127. The service interphone must be on for the pilots to communicate with the
F/A’s
False, maintenance uses this switch
129. What frequency should not be used for primary communications on COMM #2
and #3
120.0 MHZ
131. What information does the flight recorder on the 737-300’s need?
Flight# and date
132. What does the TEST switch do for the flight recorder?
Bypasses oil pressure requirement and fakes that the aircraft is airborne
133. Where is audio heard when ALTERNATE position on audio panel is selected?
Receives audio on headset only
10
Electrical Section 6
134. What is the function of the AUTO position of the STBY PWR switch with a loss of all
generators? 6.6.21
Allow the BATT BUS to be the source of power for both busses INFLIGHT.
135. How is the failure of the TR1 indicated with TR3 disconnect relay closed?
0 amps on the DC ammeter at TR1 position
136. What is the function of the OFF position of the BUSS XFR switch?
Prevents closing of the BUS XFR relays
i. Also opens the TR3 disconnect relay
ii. Isolates the transfer busses
137. What is the normal power source for TR1 & TR2?
AC XFR BUS
138. What is the normal source of power for the BAT BUS?
TR3
139. On the ground alternate power for the STBY BUS requires:
STBY POWER switch on BAT position.
142. How does the TR3 disconnect relay function during an AP of FD ILS approach?
The relay opens at glide slope capture. This isolates the DC BUSSES to prevent a single failure
from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers.
143. How is the failure of TR1 indicated with the TR3 disconnect CLOSED?
Will indicate 0 amps on the DC meter at the TR1 position
147. If either the DC BUS 1 or #1 XFR BUS loses power, when will the respective standby busses
automatically switch to the BAT BUS?
In flight only
11
150. GEN BUS 1 or 2 OFF illuminated indicates what?
The GEN BUS is not being powered
151. What busses are powered from the battery following a loss of all generators?
BAT BUS
HOT BAT BUS
Switched HOTT BAT BUS
AC standby BAT Bus through the inverter
12
Engines and APU Section 7
154. What is the AUTO function of the PMC during climb?
Maintains initial N1 climb thrust.
156. Turning the BAT switch off in-flight will cause the APU to shutdown
False…only on the ground.
162. With the BATT switch on, 23 volts, and APU switch set to START, there is no DC ammeter
deflection for one minute. What should you do?
. Select the APU switch OFF for 20 seconds and try again. Shutdown cycle wasn’t
completed on the previous flight because the BAT switch was turned off before the
shutdown sequence finished.
163. Will turning the BAT switch to off cause the APU to shutdown?
Ground -Yes
In-flight - No
166. With the engine at normal operating idle and temperature the oil pressure must be?
Above the red radial line
13
168. What does the LOW IDLE light indicate in-flight?
You should be in high idle and your not. Always in high idle in-flight and changes to low idle 4
seconds after touchdown.
i. Either engine speed below 25% N1 in-flight
169. How do you start the number one engine with external air?
Open the isolation valve
171. What powers the ground position of the engine start switch?
DC power from the battery bus
178. What is the maximum altitude the APU may power a bleed and electrical?
10000’
179. What is the maximum altitude that the APU may power a bleed?
17,000’
180. What is the maximum altitude that the APU may power electrics?
35,000’
182. How many aborted starts are permitted for the APU on the Ground?
2 start attempts
4 minutes between starts
183. How many aborted starts are permitted for the APU in-flight?
4 start attempts maximum
4 minutes between starts
14
184. Above what altitude is successful APU starts not assured?
25,000’
186. May takeoffs with assumed temperature reduced takeoff thrust be made with anti-skid
inoperative?
NO
198. May takeoffs with assumed temperature reduced thrust be made with PMC in OFF mode?
NO
200. May takeoffs with assumed temperature reduced thrust be made with EEC in alternate mode?
NO
15
202. What is the minimum duct pressure for engine start?
30psi at sea level decreasing 1/2psi per 1000’ above sea level
205. At what temperature must the engine remain in idle for 2 minutes prior to changing thrust lever
position?
-35C
16
Fire Protection Section 8
207. How is the cargo compartment smoke detection system and extinguishing system powered?
HOT BAT BUS
208. What does an illumination of the fire control panel FAULT lights indicate when no fire test is
being performed?
Both loops on one engine have failed in the dual loop position OR the selected single
loop on an engine has failed
210. What are the power sources for the engine fire detection and fire extinguishing
BAT BUS – HOT BAT BUS
211. In flight what happens if a single engine fire loop fails during DUAL loop operation?
The loop is automatically deselected and the fire warning capability is not lost on that engine.
Goes into single loop operation.
212. Where are the discs for the APU fire bottle located?
Yellow / Red, aft right side of fuselage
214. APU fire on the ground sends what signal to the wheel well?
Intermittent horn and blinking red light
218. In a dual loop operation, what does the fault light mean?
Both loops have failed
17
220. What time limit is placed on landing at the nearest suitable airport after activation of the cargo
suppression system?
60 minutes
221. When must the cargo compartment smoke detector and fire suppression system be verified to be
operational?
Before carrying cargo
18
Flight Controls Section 9
231. How do you know if a single channel of the SPEED TRIM has failed?
Press RECALL
232. The amber LE flaps transit light on the forward instrument panel is inhibited when the auto-slat
system is moving the leading edge slats?
TRUE
233. What happens at touchdown with all spoiler panels deployed and either throttle is advanced?
Speed brake lever moves to the DOWN detent, ground and flight spoilers retract
234. Approaching a stall angle of attack, what does the Auto Slat system do?
Automatically goes to FULL EXTEND position with TE FLAPS 1 – 5 degrees
236. What’s the Mach limit with the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated?
.74 Mach
240. If the B flight control switch is moved from FLT to STBY, what does this do?
. Opens up the STBY pump
. Isolates the B system
. Operates the STBY PUMP
241. The flight control low-pressure light illuminates while the STBY HYD pump is on; what does
this mean?
STBY pump is not getting pressure
243. May the speed brake lever be extended beyond the flight detent?
NO
247. What are the speed limits of the Mach Trim Fail?
280kts / .74Mach
20
Flight Instruments Displays Section 10
248. When the CA has the FD with VOR LOC selected and the A Autopilot engaged, where is he
getting his signal from?
. #1 VHF NAV radio, the FO with B autopilot engaged would be using #2 VHF NAV
radio
251. What is the maximum difference between CA and FO altitude displays for operation in RSVM?
. 200’
253. Where does the IVSI get its information on the 737-500 EFIS
. Respective IRS
21
Flight Management NAV Section 11
254. Which AT modes allow the levers thrust levers to be repositioned manually?
. ARM, THROTTLE HOLD
255. During takeoff with the FD in TO/GA mode, below 400’, roll commands will maintain wings
level?
. TRUE
256. What will TO/GA mode do for your heading during a go around?
. Will give the last heading to maintain the ground track from the previous approach
attempt.
257. What A/T thrust is generated during a FD go around when TO/GA is pressed once?
. Reduced N1 and 1000 – 2000 fpm climb, pressed twice MAX go around power.
259. What info is lost and cannot be restored when in-flight and alignment of an IRS is lost?
. Present position
264. If you lose IRS in-flight do you lose TRACK and GROUND SPEED information?
. YES
266. What does the Fault light indicate on the IRS panel?
. A system fault, which affects the respective IRS ATT and / or NAV modes, has been
detected.
22
Fuel Section 12
268. What does a dim FUEL VALVE CLOSED light indicate?
. Valve and switch agree
. Fuel shutoff valve is closed
269. What assures that the center tank fuel is used before the main tank fuel with all boost pumps
operating?
. The center tanks check valves open at a lower differential pressure than the check
valves in the #1 and #2 main tanks.
271. Which tanks can suction feed? What about loss of all generators?
. Tank #1 to Engine #1 and Tank #2 to engine #2, same with loss of all GEN
272. If there’s no AC power on GEN BUSSES, the center fuel tank is no longer usable?
. TRUE
273. Will there be a MASTER CAUTION for one FUEL LOW PRESS light in the #1 fuel tank?
. No, will be indicated when recall is pushed.
275. Minimum fuel tank temperature in flight when the freezing point of the fuel in the tank is -53C
is what?
. -45C
279. When must the fuel cross feed be in the OFF position?
. Takeoff and landing
280. When must the center tank pumps switches not be placed in the ON position?
. Below 1000lbs in the center tank except when de-fueling or transferring fuel
. When both center FUEL PRESSURE lights illuminate
. Personal are NOT available on the flight deck to monitor the low-pressure lights
23
281. Must the center tank quantity gauge be operational to dispatch a flight with fuel in the center
tank?
. YES
285. What are the quantity of the wing, center, and aux fuel tanks?
. 10,043lbs
. 15.497lbs
. 2620lbs
287. What is the minimum fuel required to be in each wing tank for operation of electric hydraulic
pumps?
. 1,676lbs
24
Hydraulics Section 13
288. A leak in the engine driven #2 HYD pump will drain the B system.
. FALSE
289. What would be the first indication of a leak in the STBY hydraulic system?
. System B quantity decreases
291. With a loss of hydraulic system A, the FEEL DIFF PRESSURE light illuminates. The elevator-
feel system is operative?
. TRUE
293. What action would extinguish an engine driven HYD LOW PRESS light?
. Start the engine
. Pull the respective engines fire switch
298. PTU is driven by hydraulic pressure from system ( A ) and uses fluid from system ( B )
299. What’s the power source for the system B ELEC 1 HYD PUMP? System A?
. GEN BUS #1
. GEN BUS #2
300. What’s the first indication of a leak in the STBY hydraulic system?
. The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates as the standby reservoir’s quantity
decreases to zero. The system B level decreases and stabilizes at the standby
interconnect line level (64%)
25
301. What items are on the A hydraulic system? 302. What items are on the B system?
. Ailerons . Ailerons
. Rudder . Rudder
. Elevator and Elevator Feel . Elevator and Elevator Feel
. Autopilot A . Autopilot B
. Landing Gear . Landing Gear Transfer Unit
. Ground Spoilers . Trailing Edge Flaps
. Inboard Flight Spoilers . Outboard Flight Spoilers
. Alternate Brakes . Yaw Damper
. Normal Nose Wheel Steering . Normal Brakes
. Thrust Reverser #1 . Alternate Nose wheel Steering
. Power Transfer Unit . Leading Edge Flaps and Slats
. Auto Slats
. Thrust Reverser #2
26
Landing Gear Section 14
307. In cruise Brake Pressure reads 0psi, system B pressure reads 3000psi, B quantity reads full, what’s
wrong?
. Loss of Brake Accumulator Pre-charge
310. What does the illumination of the tire screen light indicate?
. Tire screen is not secure
311. When the Aircraft is being towed, the _______ should be OFF or a steering lockout pin
installed.
. System A pressure
314. In-flight, with the landing gear up, retarding one of the throttles to idle will cause the red
GEAR lights to illuminate?
. TRUE
316. If both hydraulic systems are lost what will the tire pressure indicator read?
1000psi
27
317. Must we use RTO brakes if available?
YES
318. When does the PTU come on? (Operates Auto Slats and LE Flaps)
. Airborne
. System B hydraulic pressure drops below limits
. Flaps are less than 10 degrees but not up
28
Warning Systems Section 15
321. How is the GPWS glide slope deviation alert inhibited?
. Press either BELOW G/S light when in the soft warning area
323. How is the crew alerted if the cabin pressure altitude is >10,000’?
. Intermittent horn (same as takeoff CONFIG warning!)
324. Wind shear aural warnings take precedence over other GPWS warnings?
. TRUE
325. Can ILS soft warnings be cancelled pushing the G/S inhibit switch?
. YES
328. When are takeoffs with forward looking predictive wind shear warning alerts permitted?
. NEVER
330. Name three ways to get the wheel well call horn in the nose wheel well:
. IRS on DC power draining the battery
. E&E compartment overheat
. Press the ground call button
332. When does the predictive wind shear mode operate automatically?
. Below 1500’ AGL
. One engine running
. Transponder not in OFF or STBY
334. What annunciations will cabin altitude above 10,000’ give you?
. No lights, intermittent horn only
335. When can the MACH/AIRSPEED and stall warning systems be tested?
. Only on the ground
336. When is the use of terrain awareness and terrain display functions prohibited?
. When FMC is in IRS only operation, for takeoff if position verification has not
been completed, when within 15NM and approaching to land at an airport not in
the EGPWS terrain database.
29