TEST ON POWER PLANT OPERATION

NOTE: 1) ALL QUESTIONS SHOULD BE ANSWERED

2) ALL QUESTIONS CARRY EQUAL MARKS

1) Maximum % Of Heal Absorption In Boiler Is In:

(A) APH (B) Economiser (C) Water Wall (D) Super
Heater

2) For HfO Atomisation……………………..Is Used:

(A) Air (B) Plant Air (C) Auxiliary Steam (D) Main
Steam

3) First System To Be Kept In Service Is:

(A) Lub.Oil System (B) Ecw System
(C) Cw System (D) Arcw System

4) Deciding Factor For Hot/Cold Warm Rolling Is:

(A) IP Shaft Temperature (B) M.S.Pressure
(C) HP Shaft Temperature (D) Hp Casing Temperature

5)Barring/Turning Gear Valve Can Not Be Opened If:

(A) Jop Is Not In Service (B) Aop Is Not In Service
(C) Speed > 240 Rpm (D) All Of The Above

6) In Seal Oil System Which Of The Following Statement Is Correct:

(A) Air Side Oil Pressure Is More Than H2 Side Oil Pr
(B) H2 Side Oil Pr. Is More Than Air Side Oil Pr
(C) Air Side Oil Pr. Is Equal To H2 Side Oil Pr
(D) None Of The Above

7) Seal Steam System Uses (At Difference Times):

(A) Aux.Steam (B) CRH (C) Leak Off (D) All Above

8) Gland Steam Blower Is To:

(A) Blow Off Air (B) Suck Seal Steam
(C) Blow Off Air (D) Suck Seal Oil

9) Gland Steam Condenser Is Cooled By:

(A) Feed Water (B) Condensate
10) First Equipment To Be Started On Boiler Side:
(A) APH (B) FD Fan (C) ID Fan (D) PA Fan

11) First Equipment To Be Started On Turbine Side:

(A) VEF Of Main Oil Tank (B) Barring Gear
(C) AOP (D) JOP

12) First System To Be Kept In Service On Generator Side:

(A) Field Flashing (B) H2 Filling
(C) Seal Oil System (D) Excitation

1
 13) SCAPH Is To Prevent:
(A) Hot End Erosion (B) Cold End Corrosion
(C) Cold End Corrosion (D) FD Fan Vibrations

14) Boiler Purging Duration Is:

(A) 15 Minutes (B) 30 Minutes
(C) 5 Minutes (D) Can Be Of Any Duration

15) Minimum Air Flow For Doing Boiler Purging:

(A) 30% (B) 40% (C) 20% (D) 60%

16) ESP Fields Are Switched On:

(A) 12 Hours Before Light Up
(B) Just Before Taking Mill Into Service
(C) Just After Taking 3rd Mill Into Service
(D) Any Time During Light Up.

17) Coal Flame Is Sensed By:

(A) Air Scanners (B) UV Scanners (C) Both (D)
Neither

18) HP-LP Bypass Is For:

(A) Raising Initial Steam Parameters
(B) Bypass Turbine In Crease Of Tripping, Load Shedding Etc
(C) Both (D) Bypass HP & LP Dosing System

19) Before Charging HP- lP Bypass:

(A) Start Up Vent Is In Closed Condition
(B) Start Up Vent Is In Open Condition
(C) BFP & CEP Should Be Running
(D) B&C

20) Close Drum Vents At:

(A) A Pressure Of 5ksc (B) A Pressure Of 2ksc
(C) A Pressure Of 10ksc (D) Keep Open Upto 40% Load

21) Designed P.F Finness Through 200 Mesh Is _________________%.

(A) 50 (B) 75 (C) 65 (D) 70

22) With All C.C Pumps Trip, Boiler Trips On_________________________

Protection.

23) In A Bowl Mill______________________Is/Are Rotated By Motor.

(A) Bowl (B) Rolls (C) Both (D) Nothing

24) View glasses are provided at APH’s ______________________for inspection.

(A) Outlet air side of APH (B) Inlet gas side of APH
(C) Inlet side of APH on air side (D) Outlet side of APH on gas side.

25) APH cold end temperature should not be less than__________________oC

and is average of __________________________.

2
 (A) 60, hot air leaving & flue gas entering (B) 90, hot air entering & flue
gas leaving
(C) 60,cold air entering & flue gas leaving (D) 90,cold end entering & flue
gas leaving

26) Ignition permit for a mill is appeared from____________________________.

(A) 50% loading of adjacent feeder (B) respective oil elevation
providing
(C) any one of the above (D) both of the above

27) ID Fans has:

(A) Scoop control (B) Blade pitch control
(C) Scoop & Pitch control (D) Scoop & Inlet guide vane

28) Designed PA Fan discharge pressure___________________________mmwc.

29) Burner tilt operates:

(A) 30 upwards (B) 15 upwards (C) 15 both up & down
(D) 30 up & down

30) Lowering the burner tilt__________________________________________.

(A) Raises reheater temperature (B) lowers reheater temperature
(C) effects drum pressure (D) none of the above

31) C.C Pumps are provided with:

(A) Two suction valves (B) Two discharge valves
(C) One suction * One discharge valve (D) Two suction & Two discharge
valves

32) WB/Furnace DP to be maintained primarly:

(A) to hold flame near corners (B) to form proper fire ball at
the center
(C) nothing to do with fire ball (D) for controlling drum
pressure.

33) BFP recirculation is going to:

(A) Hotwell (B) Drum (C) Deaerator (D)
None

34) Drive steam for TDBPP is from

(A) Second Extraction (B) Third Extraction
(C) 4th Extraction (D) 5th Extraction

3
 QUESTION PAPER ON TARIFF AND COMMERCIAL ASPECTS FOR
ENGINEERING EXECUTIVE TRAINES

1. The section of E.S. Act under which NTPC Traiff was fixed
( )
(1) 15 A (2) 57 (3) 43 A (4) 59
2. The Year of E.S. Act Abnenament that enrolled formation generating
companies ( ) Including NTPC
(1) 1974 (2) 1975 (3) 1976 (4) 1977
3. The Year if E.S.Act and EL (A) Act amendment that enrolled private sector
participation ( )
-1975 -1997
(1) In Generation -1976 (2) In Generation -1998
-1992 -1991
-1991 -1996
4. Return on quity given to NTPC prior to 15 : 10 : 98
( )
(1) 10% (2) 12%(3) 16%(4) 14%
5. Schedule in E.S.Act that is applicable to licensee tariff fixation
( )
(1) X (2) IV (3) III (4) VI
4
 6. Methof of depreciation followed I n NTPC tariff fixation
( )
(1) Straight line (2) Double declining
(3) Reducing balancing (4) none of this
7. Coal stock allowed in the working capitals for pitheed
( )
(1) 15 days (2) 30 days (3) 45 days (4) 60 days
8. Weighted Average auxiliary consumption is allowed in RSTPS tariff
notification. ( )
(1) 10%(2) 9.54% (3) 8.43% (4) 7.57%
9. Station Heat Rate allowed as per K.P.Rao norm after stabilization for RSTPS
( )
(1) 2400 K.Cal / KWH (2) 2500 K.Cal / KWH
(3) 2600 K.Cal / KWH (4) 2700 K.Cal / KWH
10. Stabilised Generation level provided by i) K.P.Rao
( )
ii) 30 : 3 : 92 notification to avoid disincentive.

K.P.Rao 30 : 3 : 92

1) 5000 5500
2) 5500 6000
3) 6000 6500
4) 6500 5000

5
 TEST ON TARIFF & COMMERCIAL

All Questions are based on tariff for power generating stations

Questions 1 to 10 carry one and a half (1.5) marks each. Questions 1 to 20

carry two (2) marks each & Questions 21 to 25 carry three (3) marks each.

A.Select the correct answer from the options given below

1. What is the return on equity allowed in the power tariff?

( )
(a) 10% (b) 12% (c) 16% (d) 18%
2. Coal stock equal to how many days of consumption is considered
( )
for calculation of working capital?
(a) 10 days (b) 15 days (c) 20 days (d) 25 days
3. Debt – equity ratio considered in tariff fixation of old power stations is
( ) (a) 50:50 (b) 60:40 (c) 40:60 (d) 25:75
4. Variable Charges for coal based power station (after stabilization period)
( )
(a) 2400 (b) 2450 (c) 2500 (d) 2600
5. Heat rate & auxiliary consumption are the basic parameters considered for
fixing
variable Charges. Other major inputs reauired are
(a) Price & consumption (b) price & gcv of fuel
(c) Consumption & gcv of fuel (d) none of these
6. Under two part tariff variable charges recovery will always be :
( )
(a) equal to actual expenditure incrred on fual
(b) less than the actual fuel cost
(c) more than the actual fuel cost
(d) more or less than tha actual depending on performance
7. Which is the primary surce of coal of NTPC Ramagundam
( )
(a) SCCL (b) WCL (c) MCL (d) none of these
8. Under two part tariff fixed charges is recovered from each seb based on
( )
(a) percentage capacity allocated to it (b) actual drawal of energy
(c) equal share from all the SEBs (d) None of these
9. Under ABT,energy charges are recovered on
( )
(a) actual (b) declared (c) scheduled (d) unscheduled
generation capability generation interchange
10. UI charges rate applicable for a time block will be O (zero) when
( )
(a) generation is zero (b) frequency less than 50 Hz
6
 (c) frequency less than 49 Hz (d) frequency is more than 50.5 Hz

B. Answer the following in 2 – 3 sentences

11. What do you mean by unscheduled interchange under ABT

12. What is the full form of FPA and what does it mean with reference to power
tariff?

13. What is the minimum percentage of PLF to be achieved by the generating

station,for full recovery of fixed charges under two part tariff ? Similiarly at what
percentage of availability full capacity charges
is recoverable under ABT?

14. Name any three elements included in O&M charges?

15. What is the provisions in tariff as to income tax paid by NTPC?

16. power station of NTPC which was commissioned in 1985 with a total capital
cost of 2000 crores.
What could be the Return on Equity of this station under two part tariff?

7
17. How revision of schedules are done in realm of ABT?

Contd…..3
18. Suggest best way to maintain constant station load to match the declaration in
ABT?

19. Under ABT,what is the procedure as to declaration (when & how) ?

20. What do you understand by availability under ABT?

21.

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS FOR EETS

On INTRODUCTION TO CONTROL &
INSTREUMENTATION MODULE: IME/02

01) What are essential control units in a EHC System?

Ans:

02) Describe four essential elements of any automatic control lamp?

Ans:

03) What are different types of Actuators used in Power Plant?

Ans:

8
04) For controlling the following parameters in a Thermal Power Unit, identify
the equipment to be Controlled: ( )

(a) Furnace pressure (b) Drum level

(c) Feed water regulating station differential pressure (d) Coal flow
(e) Combustion Air

05) Oil elevation is in service, if; ( )

(a) ¾ Nozzle valves are open
(b) 1 out of 4 flame scanners serve flame
(c) 2/4 nozzle valves are open
(d) Trip valve is open.

06) To start pulvanizer, with conditions is not required; ( )

(a) Ignition permit (b) Feeder in Service
(c) FA remits (d) Pulvanizer ready

07) Heavy oil receive, valve will be closed, if; ( )

(a) A tuning valve is open (b) HOTV is open
(c) Any nozzle valve is open (d) HO receive valve is always open.

08) Oil elevation can be started if: ( )

(a) If coal control switch is off.
(b) Local control switch in scannage mode
(c) Local control switch in remote
(d) In any position of local control switch.

09) Conductivity Measurement at CEP discharge is a good indicator for: ( )

(a) Condensor Vaccum (b) Condensor tubr leakage
(c) Condensor efficiency (d) all of above.

10) Following measurement at Deauator Outlet is a good indication

for Deauator performance: ( )
(a) TH (b) Conductivity
(c) Sodium (d) Dissolved Oxygen.

11) Hydrozine dozing is done to ( )

(a) Improve PH of Feed Water (b) Remove dissolved O2
(c) Remove carbons (d) Remove annons.

12) Which of the following Chemical is more soluble in steam than in ( )

water and is harmful turbine.
(a) Chlorides (b) Phasphates
(c) Silica (d) Ammonia

13) SWAS contains instruments are measuring which of the following parameters (
)
(a) Flue gas analysis (b) Water & Steam Chemistry
(c) 1 & 2 above (d) None of the above.

14) Eirconium Oxide Cells are used in measuring: ( )

(a) CO in flue gas (b) CO2 in flue gas
(c) O2 in flue gas (d) all 3 above.
9
15) In manual mode of ATRS operation, which of the ( )
following routines are exempted
(a) Monitor routine, (b) Control routine
(c) Utility routine, (d) 1& 3 above.

16) Which stress value is used in load reduction: ( )

(a) +ve stress (b) -ve stress
(c) HP Rotor stress (d) IP Rotor stress.

17) DAS acquires the following field inputs; ( )

(a) Thermocouple inputs (b) RTDa inputs
(c) Milli ampear inputs (d) All the above.

18) DAS is useful for: ( ) (a)

Trip analysis (b) Preventive maintenance
(c) Break-down reasons (d) Online performance calculation
(e) All the above.

19) Resolution of sequence of events inputs in Stage-II DAS. ( )

(a) 1 Milli second (b) 1 second
(c) 5 minutes (d) 5 Minutes

20) PLU is a condition when:

a) Mechanical Power is 40% more than MW generated

b) Electrical power is 40% more than Mech. Power
c) MW is more than 40% of rated capacity
d) all 3 above
• * * * * ** * ** * * * * * * * * * * *

10
 MODULE ON POWER PLANT EFFICIENCY
(Fill in the blanks / tick mark the right choice)

01) The limiting factor to reduce Flue Gas temperature at APH outlet
is____________________________________________________________

02) Parameters affecting the turbine Heat rate are________________________

03) Turbine Heat Rate is expressed in __________________________units.

04) The range of IPT Efficiency is_______________________________________.

05) Less HPT efficiency is due to_______________________________________.

06) Why Cannot Cycle cannot be implemented for practical purposes?

___________________________.

07) Causes of Poor Condenser Vacuum can be____________________________.

08) Loading Factor of a Unit is the ratio of__________________&_____________.

09) Mention two major losses that are calculated in Boiler Efficiency test be
losses method?

10) The Range of a Cooling Tower is___________________________________.

11) What value of CO in Flue gas at APH Inlet is to be maintained for

optimum Air Flow?
____________________________________________________________

12) Turbine Cylinder Efficiency is the ratio of Actual Enthalpy drop across
the Cylinder and
___________________________________________________________.

13) What is TTD of a FW Heater?

11
14) Air Ingress is estimated by measuring (a) N2 (b) CO (c) CO2 (d) O2
across any two points. (Tick mark the right choice)

15) Dearator Drop is carried out to estimate_______________________________.

16) Proximate analysis of Coal gives 1._________________________ ,

2._______________________ 3.________________________ ,
4._________________________ and 5._________________________

17) Mention the name of the test carried out to estimate any unbalanced
flow among the Mill discharge pipes.____________________________.

18) 1 Kwhr=__________________________Keal.

19) The effect of low final Feed Water temp on Exit Flue Gas temp is to
(a) Reduce (b) increase (c) no effect.

20) Less Ejector/Vacuum pump Suction temp implies

(a) Dirty tubes (b) Air ingress
(c) Less CW flow to the Condenser (d) all of the above.

******************************

Power Plant Chemistry

Name:
Marks : 25
Emp No: Time : 30
minutes

Answer all the questions in two or three sentences only

01) What is the need for DM Water in the Power Plant

12
02) What are the preconditions for the water to be taken for
demineralization by Ion Exchange

03) Write the flow diagram for conversion of Raw Water to DM water

04) Why cations are kept ahead of anions in any DM plant

05) Which ions will leach out of cations & anion vassel & what are the
parameters of water at the anion outlet

06) What is meant by Ultimate and proximate analysis of coal

07) What is use of mill fineness data and comustibles in flyash & bottom ash
data

08) What is meant E grade coal and how the fired coal sample is monitored

09) What is meant by COC and which compound has decreasing solubility
on increase of temperature

10) What is the active species in removing organic matter by chlorination

and in which pH range it is more Produced.

11) What is need of maintaining PH & dissolved Oxygen in boiler water

circuit and how they are maintained

13
12) What is meant by AVT and coordinated phosphate treatment?

*****

Questions on Power Plant Commissioning

Name : Marks: 50
Emp No.: Time : ½
Hour

01) What is the hydrolic Test pressure of 500mw Boiler ?

Ans:

02) What is the method employed to redfuce the no.of Trails during safety valve
flooding ?
Ans:

03) The criteria for safety valve setting is:

(a) Down stream valves have to lift first (b) Upstream valves have to
lift first
(c) Drum safety valves to be lifted first (d) No such criteria.

04) What is material for target plate during final stages of floring?
Ans:

14
05) During cold light up what should be the flue gas temperature at furnace
outlet?
Ans:

06) In how many stages the water is separated from steam in drum?
Ans:

07) At what pressure of drum the steam blowing is done?

Ans:

08) Which location the SH SPRAY is given?

Ans:

09) Which location,the RH srpsy is given?

Ans:

10) What is the purpose of furnace air leak test?

Ans:

11) What is the name of document used for commissioning the system?
Ans:

12) How RH steam temperature is controlled?

Ans:

13) What is the purpose of primary air?

Ans:

14) What is the purpose of ECO recirculation valves?

Ans:

15) What is the maximum expansion of furnace at bottom ash hopper seals?
Ans:

16) What is the speed signal for Hydraulic Governer?

(a) Hall’s probe (b) Primary oil pump (c) MOP (d) Main
turbine.

17) What is the hydraulic test pressure for jacking oil lines:
(a) Hall’s probe (b) Primary oil pump (c) MOP (d) Main turbine
15
18) At 3000RPM.what are the tests carried out?
Ans:

19) Thermal shocks are given to which system during flushing?

(a) Feed water (b) main steam (c) lub oil (d) vacuum

20) At what speed of main turbine mop takes over

(a) 2000rpm (b) 2500 rpm (c) 3000 rpm(d) 2800rpm

21) What should be the minimum acceleration rate white raising speed of turbine
from 360RPM to 3000 RPM.
(a) 400 RPM2

Test on power plant protection

& interlocks

Name:
marks: 50
empno: time:
30 minutes
1) The set points for drums level low/high/furnace pressure
Low/high are: ( )
a) -375mm/+250mm/-250mm / +250mm
b) +25-mm/-250mm/+250mm /-375mm
c) -250mm/+250mm/-375mm /+250mm
d) -325mm/+250mm/-375mm/+250mm
2) If the boiler trips which of the following equipments trips ( )
a) Id fan (b) fd fan (c) pa fan (d) cc pump

3) Any oil elevation is in service, if: ( )

(a) ¼ corners prove (b) 2/4 corners prove
(c) ¾ corners prove (d) 4/4 corners prove

4) Turbine control system is: ( )

(a) fsss (b) ehc (c) ext (d) none of above

5) One of the following is not a component of ehc: ( )

(a) speed control units (b) load control units
(c) control transferent (d) mvar control units

6) turbine control system valves are oprated by: ( )

(a) electric actuators (b) load control units
(c) control tranferent (d) mvar control units

16
7) control transfer unit function is: ( )
(a) speed control units selection
(b) load control unit selection
(c) pressure control selection
(d) any of the furnace depending on requirement.

8) stop valve close in: ( )

(a) < 1 sec. (b) < 5 sec. (c) < 10 sec. (d) < 1 minute

9) tse influence is for: ( )

(a) frequency control
(b) to keep turbine stresses under limit
(c) ruebinw apwws unswe control
(d) turbine pressure under control

10) when frequency increased: ( )

(a) turbine control valves close due to governing
(b) turbine stop valves close to control speed
(c) turbine trips
(d) generator trips

11) turbine speed signal selection in 500mw ehc is: ( )

(a) average selection (b) medium selection
(c) mode selection (d) maximum of the 3 signals

12) the essential components of control system are: ( )

(a) set points feed in controller (b) feed back controller
(c) controller (d) all the above
p.t.o
13) the function of eh converter in ehc is: ( )
(a) to convert electric signal to hydraulic
(b) to convert electric signal to hydraulic power
(c) to convert hydraulic signal to eletrif signal
(d) to convert hydraulic signal to eletric signal

14) flame failure trip is armed only when ( )

(a) atleast one feeder is running
(b) atleast two feeders are running
(c) atleast one oil elevation is in service
(d) no feeder is in service.

15) mft will trip: ( )

(a) boiler only (b) turbine only
(c) both boiler & turbine (d) none of the above

16) mft is caused by: ( )

(a) all boilers feed pups tirp (b) drum level high > 10 secs.
(c) furnace pressure (d) all of the above

17
17) mft will cause: ( )
(a) tripping of fd fans (b) tripping of id fans
(c) tripping of pa fans (d) all of the above.

18) id fan speed is varied by: ( )

(a) scoop control (b) blade pitch control
(c) thristor control (d) none of the above.

19) fd fan start permissives are: ( )

(a) blade pitch position is minimum
(b) lvb oil pressure is adequate
(c) discrage damper is closed
(d) all of the above.

20) turbine mechanical overspeed protection operates at: ( )

(a) 105% (b) 110% (c) 115% (d) 120%

21) hplp bypass systems can open in emergencie and aviod ( )

(a) boiler trip (b) turbine trip
(c) generator trip (d) none of the above.

22) hplp bypass systems capacities in thermal power plant are ( )

(a) 100% (b) 20% (c) 60% (d) 90%

23) some generator mechanical protections don’t operate on

main breaker and field breaker immediately: ( )
(a) to aviod over current (b) to aviod over fulcxing
(c) to aviod over speeding (d) none of the above.

24) boiler trips whenever: ( )

(a) turbine trips (b) main breaker opens
(c) turbine trips and help bypass do not open in 10 seconds
(d) all the above occur

25) “hotwell level very low” is used for tripping ( )

(a) ceps (b) beps(c) both 1&2 (d) none of the above.

18
 TEST ON ERECTION QUESTIONNAIRE

Name: Time: 30 Min

EMP No. Marks: 50

Each Question carries 2 marks (20X2 = 40)

1. How many Packages are there in Ramagundam Stage – III?

2. In how many division conditions of contract is broadly classified and
what are those?
3. Specify any five-mile stones of a power project?
4. What are the types of storages applicable for power plant items?
5. What are the classes of preservation?
6. What are the main activities during drum lifting?
7. What are the main activities during hydro test?
8. What do you mean by billing break-up?
9. Why billing break-up is necessary?
10. How many types of checks are there during erection of a power plant?
11. Which department carries out ‘B’ type checks?
12. Why contract is awarded on turnkey basis?
13. What are the types of weldings used for joining of boiler tubes?
14. Why backing of electrode is done?
15. Name any three types of defects in welding?
16. Why stress relieving is done after welding?
17. Expand LOA?
18. Zero date of any project is counted from which a date?
19. What is the approx.weight of boiler in metric tons?
20. What is the cost per MW ratio of a power project?

EACH QUESTION CARRIES 1 MARK (10X1=10)

01. Turbine work depends on the following action of system.

a) Dynamic b) Static c) None

02. In turbine this energy is converted into Kinetic Energy.

19
 a) Pressure energy b) Heat energy c) entropy d) none

03. With simple impulse turbine rotational speed that can be obtained is
a) 300 rpm b) 300 rpm c) up to 30,000 rpm d) none

04. In turbine the more loss of energy is due to the following.

a) Mechanical coupling B) Vacuum
c) Leaving condition of steam d) none

05. Number of cylinders in TG set in RSTPS stage II

a) 01 b) 02 c) 03 d) 04

06. Type of governing in stage I units of RSTPS

a) Nozzle governing b) throttle governing c) combination of
both

07. Type of governing in stage II units of RSTPS

a) Nozzle governing b) throttle governing c) combination
of both

08. Design speed of TG set when connected to grid in India

a) 3100 rpm b) 2900 rpm c) 300 rpm d) 2950 rpm

09. Fluid used for governing in stage II units of RSTPS.

a) SP 46 b) SP 32 c) Turbinol 46 d) Fyrquil EHC

10. In condenser steam is cooled by the following system.

a) DMCW system b) ARCW system c) CW system d) All the
above.

TEST ON MAINT PLANNING AND CONDITION MONTIORING

Name: Time: ½ Hr
EMP No. Marks: 50

Section – I (25X1=25 Marks):

1. DGA is applicable to monitor the condition of ( )

a) Gear Boxes b) Transformer c) Bearings d) Pumps

20
2. S.P.M. is a good condition monitoring tool to predict the condition of
a) Sleeve Bearings b) Motor abnormalities ( )
c) Anti-Friction Bearings d) Shaft crack

3. Amplitude of Vibration is measured in ( )

a) G b) mm/Sec c) microns d) All the above

4. For pin pointing the source of vibration problems which of the following
is essential ( )
a) Vibration amplitude b) Vibration phase
c) Vibration frequency d) Vib. Tolerence

5. Wear Debris monitoring is best suitable to predict the condition of ( )

a) Transformer b) Pump Impeller c) gear Boxes d) Motor

6. Frequency Spectrum is graph of ( )

a) Amplitude Vs Time b) Amplitude Vs Phase
c) Phase Vs time d) Amplitude Vs Frequency

7. Which of the Vibration can give you the best information of the Turbine
Condition? ( )
a) Casing Vibration b) Shaft Vibration
c) Foundation Vibration d) None of the above

8. Vibration phase is measured using ( )

a) Velocity Pickupb) Stroboscope c) Velocity pickup and
stroboscope
d) Accelerometer

9. Ultrasound monitoring is used for detecting ( )

a) Valve leakage b) wear particle analysis c) Oil condition d) Shaft
Cracks

:2:

10. First Harmonic (IX) radical vibration and steady phase indicate
( )
a) Gear problem b) Belt problem c) unbalance problem d) Bearing
defect

11 The main objective of NTPC Maint management system is to ( )

a) Maximize plant efficiency b) Maximize the plant availability c)
Both

12 The main function of maintenance planning is ( )

a) Coordination b) execution c) Cooperation

21
13 Which of the following is not an essential input to successful planning? (
)
a) Defined work b) Standard work pattern c) Custodian of Licenses

14 Maintenance planning is service function to ( )

a) Maintenance b) Operation c) Erection

15 Long Term Planning coordinate the activities of ( )

a) Day to day breakdown b) Unit Overhauls c) Plant erection’

16 Station Life cycle plan for thermal power plants is made of ( )

a) 5 Years b) 15 Years c) 25 Years

17 Five Year rolling Plan is updated every ( )

a) Year b) Two Years c) Five Years

18 Minor Overhauls duration is ( )

a) 10 days b) Two days c) 20 days

19 Engineering declaration for a Unit Overhaul gives ( )

a) The anticipated expenditure b) The projected jobs to be done
c) Both

20 PERT network of a Unit Overhaul indicates ( )

a) The Overhaul activities b) Critical Activity c) Both

21 Turbine Overhaul is carried out at every ( )

a) 50,000 Running Hrs. b) 10,000 Running Hrs. c) 2, 00,000 Running
Hrs.
22 RLA Study of the Unit is carried out after ( )
a) 50,000 Running Hrs. b) 1, 00,000 Running Hrs. c) 2,
00,000RunningHrs.

:3:

23 In 500MW Units major Overhaul is a module ( )

a) IP-LP b) HP-LP c) LP-Generator
24 Bar Charts are made for ( )
a) Critical Activity b) All Activities c) Individual Activities

25 Planned outage is normally about ( )

a) 10% b) 8% c) 12%

Section –II (Marks 5X5 = 25)

1 What do you understand by “Predictive Maintenance?”

22
2 What is Condition Monitoring?

3 How Condition Monitoring is relevant to maintenance?

4 State Five (5) condition monitoring tools to detect the running condition
of the Equipment

5 State Five (5) basic things required to start condition monitoring

activities.

EXAM ON MTP

NAME: TIME: ½ Hr.

EMP No. MARKS: 50

01. OLMMS stands for__________________________________________________

02. Which is the objective of Maintenance Management?

Ans: a) Max.plant availability.
b) Min. Cost through optimization of resource utilization
c) Create safety in work, equipment and environment
d) All above.

03. Full form of ABT.

04. List various maintenance strategies

05. Give the full form?

OEM, R&M, OLMMS, RLA

23
06. The Ratio of the time that the station is on grid to the total time
(Financial year) is called

Ans:

07 Boiler license is to be revalidated once in

Ans: a) Two years b) No. revalidation c) Three years d)
Every year

08. Write the criteria’s considered for annual O/H planning

Ans:

09. What is preventive maintenance?

Ans: a) It is condition based system b) It is situation base
c) It is time based system d) It is performance base
system

10. MOU is ?
Ans: a) Memorandum of utility b) Memorandum of
unavailability
c) Memorandum of understanding d) None of the above

11. Capital overhauling is

Ans: a) Boiler overhauling b) Motor overhauling
c) C/tower overhauling d) Turbine overhauling

12. Overhauling is Planned by

Ans: a) SMG b) STP c) LTP

13. Annual outage plan is approved by___________________________________

14. What is the full-form of LEP?

15. Wear debris monitoring technique is best suited for

Ans: a) Switch yard equipments b) Motor c) Gear boxes d)
Boiler

16. The condition monitoring technique used for the transformer is

Ans: a) SPM b) Ferrography c) DGA d) Oil analysis

17. Which is the on-line condition monitoring technique for steam turbine
Ans: a) Wear debris analysis b) Shaft vibration
c) Thermography d) Noise analysis

18. The most commonly used unit of noise measurement is

Ans: a) Pascales b) N.M2 c) Decibel d) Watl

19. Predictive maintenance is

a) Condition monitoring
b) Predicting the potential fault in advance and correct it before the
failure
c) Predicting the potential fault in advance and correct in after the
failure

24
 d) Preventive maintenance at pre-determined intervals.

20. The direct condition assessment of anti-friction bearing is

Ans: a) Pedestal vibration b) Shaft vibration
c) Wear debris monitoring d) Shock Pulse monitoring

21. The most effective way for getting defects attended is

Ans: a) To telephone the maintenance engineers and tell him the
defect.
b) To write on a paper and send to maintenance.
c) Raising of work order card stating to defect.

22. When there is a serious defect affecting generation, one should.

Ans: a) Raise a WOC on ‘A’ priority
b) Inform the maintenance people by phone to attend the defect
Immediately
c) Raise on ‘E’ priority WOC.
23. For attending any work the maintenance engineer should
Ans: a) Inform over phone to control room about the work.
b) Write in the communication
c) Take a permit to work with isolation request.

24. When gas cutting and welding is there is the work, the maintenance
should
Ans: a) Take a limited work certificate
b) Keep more people at the work spot
c) Take a hot work permit

25 The person who is authorized to raise defect

Ans: a) Operation personnel
b) Maintenance personnel
c) Concerned person working on the system
d) Any person having access to system

26 Compilation of defect and planning of major work is done

Ans: a) By HOD b) By shift in-charger
c) After discussion at planning meeting.

25
TEST ON RENOVATION & MODERNISATION

NAME: TIME: 01
Hour
EMP.No. MARKS :
50
PART – A

Answer the following in one or two sentences. Each question carries 2 marks.

01 What do you mean by Renovation and Modernisation (R&M)?

02 When is R & M normally taken up?

03 RLA stands for what ?

04 Name any five damage mechanisms in boiler?

05 What are the components of boiler taken up for RLA – Name five?

06 When Boiler RLA is due as per IBR guidelines?

07 How is condenser tubes tested during RLA?

08 NFT testing – where it is done? And why?

09 High voltage testing is done on stator – why it is done?

10 Which is the most stressed component in boiler? And why?

PART – B
Answer the following in a paragraph of not more than five
sentences, each question carries 3 marks
26
1. What do you understand by replica? Where it is used

2 Explain the following

a) Fibroscopic examination
b) Creep rupture test
c) Borosonic examination

3 What are the components tested in the RLA of generator and name at
least
two important tests done,

4 Explain in brief the construction of stator core?

5 What is Ultrasonic inspection? Where it is done (Explain with one

example)

6 What is stator core made of and why?

7 What are the advantages of brush less excitation?

8 How is generator stator & rotor cooling done?

9 Differentiate between operating at lagging and leading power factor?

10 Where is retaining ring used? And what for it is used?

TEST ON WELDING & NON – DESTRUCTIVE

NAME : TIME : 1 Hr
EMP.No. MARKS: 25

(The paper is set for 40 marks and the marks are shown against each
question. Answer all the questions)

27
(01)Match the following classification of welding based on mode of
energy transfer and relevant example 2.5

a) Electrical energy to hear : : Gas welding is for [ ]

b) Mechanical energy to heat : : Laser is for [ ]
c) Chemical energy to heat : : ultrasonic welding [ ]
is for
d) Light energy to heat : : Arc welding is for [ ]
e) Sound energy to heat : : Friotion welding is [ ]
for
(02) The following process widely used at present in India i.e. to the
1.0
extent of 90% is manual metal Arc welding (True / False)

(03) If a welder failed in qualifying test, so as to requalify he has to

1.0
either pass two retest to wipe out and then pass a retest unless
otherwise specified.
(True / False)

(04) Brazing is a welding process that produces coalasoence of materials

1.0 by heating them to a suitable temperature and by using a filler
material
having a liquidous above 450 degree celcius and below the solidous
of base material
(True / False)

(05)Thermit welding is widely used in [ ]

1.0

(a) Industrial Structures

(b) Pressure Vessels
(c) Railway Tracks
(d) Reinforcement in RCC

(06) In TIG welding the electrode is of Tungsten and is a [ ]

1.0 (a) Consumable
(b) Non- consumable
(c) None of the above

(07) Ultrasonic welding involves 50Hz power frequency conversation

1.0
into 15 – 60 KHz high frequency, and then into vibratory
motion by the piezo – electric transducer. This process
is used to weld [ ]

(a) Thin foils and plastics

(b) Plastics only
(c) Thin foils only
(d) None of the above

(08) In manual metal Arc welding the source of hear is [ ] 1.0

(a) Electric Arc
(b) Gas
(c) High Ambient Temperature
28
 (d) None of the above

(09) In gas welding, the melting of the base metal is achieved by means of a
Gas flame which derives its heat from the combustion of fuel with
oxygen. The most commonly used gas is [ ]
1.0
(a) Acetelyne, and sometimes hydrogen
(b) A mix of Acetelyne and nitrogen
(c) A mix of water vapour and acetelyne
(d) None of the above

(10) In semi automatic welding process only the filler material feed is
controlled automatically ( True / False)
1.0

(11) METALLURY:

(1) Curve ABC is ………………………………………….. (1)

(2) Curve DBE is…………………………………………… (1)

(12) The four characteristics of Arc i.e. the transfer of metal from the tip
of the electrode to the parent metal depend upon the following
four functions: 2.0

1._______________________________ 3.________________________________

2._______________________________ 4.________________________________

(13) State the four common welding positions 1.0

1._______________________________ 3.________________________________

2._______________________________ 4.________________________________

(14) In an arc welding atmosphere the higher the current maintained,

lower will be the heat generated. 1.0

(15) ISO 9000 series (i.e. identical to Indian Standard 14000 series) is
meant for quality of Management Systems of an organisation 1.0

(16) In the case of Rutile coated electrodes that are widely used,Rutile 1.0
a crystalline form of_________________________________________ which
occurs in certain rocks.

(17) In the AWS E6010 ^ E6011 series of electrodes, the protective

29
 covering is composed of oellulose (C H O ) and silicate
binders. The cellulose decomposes in the arc according to the following
equations : -

C H O + O --- CO + H
6 10 5 2 2

(A) The products of this reaction represent no increase in the volume

1.0
of gas generated., when compared to that of unburnt quoting.
(True/ False)

(B) The carbon monoxide thus relased being a pollutant is

1.0
harmful to the welder (True/ False)

(18) Considering that in the case of Mild Steel, medium, high tensile
4.0
steel electrodes, AWS coding consists of four digits as E ABCD
(ABCD being some numericals). Explain the significance of
these four digits viz. A, B, C & D briefly.

-
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________

(19) What is the difference between a weld “discontinuity” and “defect”?

1.5

_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________

(20) Where does the gas which causes porosity come from ? 2.0

(1).

(2)

(21) The difference between porosity and inclusions is that the Porosity is
2.0 caused by entrapped___________________________________and ,
inclusions are caused by entrapped___________________________________.

(22) State any two welding defects other than porosity and inclusions:
2.0
and the causative factor or their significance thereof.

30
 _________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________
(23) Write the six destructive tests available for weldeing.
3.0

Mechanical Tests Metallurgical tests

1. 1.
2. 2.
3.
4.
(24) Indian Standard 822 prescribes guidelines for use of six different
3.0
methods of non-destructive examination of welds. Name the
same or narrate the limitation of at least two test methods.

1. 4.

2. 5.

3. 6.

OR

1._______________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________

2._______________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________

31
 OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS ON
“POWER PLANT ERECTION”
NAME : MARKS: 50

EMP.No.: TIEM : ½ Hour

ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS & TICK THE CORRECT ONE:

1. Axial shift in steam turbines occurs due to:
(a) Thermal expansion of casing
(b) Wear of thrust pad
(c) Different expansions of casing &ROT AR
(d) axial thrust

2. Turbine differential expansion takes place due to:

(a) Thermal expansion of casing
(b) wear of thrust pad
(c) different expansions of casing & ROT AR
(d) colling of casing due to radiation

3. Piping used in thermal power plant:

(a) HP Piping (b) LP piping
(c) Both Hp & LP piping

4. differential expansion of Hp turbine is:

(a) +30mm to -30mm (b) +5mm to – 3mm (c) +8mm to – 2mm

5. Ramagundam NTPC, stage – III LOA (Maint Plant) zero date is:
(a) 21.07.01 (b) 22.08.01 (c) 22.09.01 (d) 22.6.01

6. which types of explosive used in Ramagundam stage – III blasing

purpose:
(a) Slurpy explosive (b) Emlusion explosive
(c) None of them.

7. Project PRP headed by:

(a) GM (b) DGM (c) H.O.D

8. FMC crane capacity is:

(a) 250 MT (b) 320 MT (c) 200 MT (d) 220 MT

9. anchor points of LP turbine :

(a) LP front pedestal (b) LP rare pedestal
(c) LP outer casing (d) LP inner outcasing (e) All of them

10. For equipment system alignment:

32
 (a) Coupling will come between primovers & equipment
(b) Coupling connects primovers & equipment
(c) Both of them.

:2:

11. round stand steel wire ropes used in:

(a) Cranes (b) hotst (c) sling (d) all of them

12. In column fabrication pug machine used for:

(a) Welding purpose (b) metal cutting purpose
(c) grinding purpose
13. wire rope construction is (6X7) then 6 is denoted by:
(a) Numbers of stands in wire rope
(b) Numbers of wire in rope
(c) DIA of wire rope

14. Condenser vertical expansion is downward:

Yes / No

15. Materials storage of valves, dampers, actuators required preservation:

(Yes / No)

16. Govt cabinet clearance required for project approval:

Yes / No

17. Turbine bear packed plate blue matching range is 85 – 75%

Yes / No

18. HP piping from upper to lower elevation having upward expansion:

Yes / No

19. Power purchase agreement (PPA) signed with NTPC & power consumer:

Yes / No

20. Insulation in hot system is functioning as heat resistance:

Yes / No

33
34
 TEST ON MAINTENANCE PRACTICE
FOR Executive Trainees

NAME: MARKS: 15X2 = 30

EMP.No. TIME: 30 Minutes
1. To do the correct alignment it is required to rotate ( )
(a) Both the shafts together,
(b) Only the drive shaft,
(c) Only the driven shaft,
(d) No need to rotate any shaft,
2. Alignment is required to do ( )
(a) To reduce the vibrations.
(b) To increase the lift of coupling elements,
(C) To avoid non uniform wear out of coupling elements.
(d) All the above.
3. Slip gauges are used to check ( )
a) Radial readings,
b) Axial and radial readings
c) Axial readings and coupling gap.
d) None of the above,
4. In a dial indicator the positive reading is obtained ( )
(a) When plunger moves downward
(b) When plunger moves upward
(c) No relation with plunger movement
(d) None of the above.
5. What is meant by Soft foot? ( )
(a) The foot which has least hardness compared to other feet
(b) The foot which is taking less or no load compared to the other feet
(c) The foot which has more no of shims,
(d) The foot which has less no of shims,
6. Min no of dial indicators required to use for both radial and axial readings
together in case of the shaft system is not having the antifriction
Bearings ( )
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 4
7. Run out of a shaft indicated ( )
(a) Eccentricity (b) Bend in the shaft
(c) Ovality (d) All the above.
P.T.O…………………..

8. In case of only angular misalignment ( )

(a) Axes of both shafts interest
(b) Axes will not intersect
(c) Axes are in line
(d) Axes are parallel.
35
9. In case of reverse indicator method of alignment ( )
(a) Drive shaft alone is to be rotated
(b) No need to decouple the shafts,
(c) No need the rotate the shafts,
(d) None of the above.
10. In case of high capacity vertical pumps alignment is
Generally done by ( )
(a) Rotating motor shaft along,
(b) Rotating pump shaft along’
(c) Rotating both the shafts,
(d) None of the above.
11. Misalignment is indicated by ( )
(a) Axial vibrations,
(b) Vertical vibrations,
(c) Horizontal vibrations,
(d) Vibrations in all directions.
12. Hot alignment means ( )
(a) Alignment is done at the working temp of machine,
(b) Alignment is done at the loaded condition of the machine,
(c) Alignment is done by incorporating the correction for working
conditions
(d) None of the above.
13. Min number of axial readings required at different angular positions to
know the angular misalignment. ( )
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
14. During alignment correction will be given to ( )
(a) Only one machine, (b) Both the machines
(c) None of the above (d) A & B of the above.
15. Generally any system contains ( )
(a) Only angular misalignment,
(b) Only radial misalignment,
(c) Both angular and radial misalignment,
(d) All the above.
(NTPC)
(RAMAGUNDAM)

QUESTIONS ON ELECTRICAL SIDE OF POWER STATIONS

1. Transformer core is laminated to reduce ( )

(a) Hystrisis loss (b) Copper loss (c) eddy current loss

2. In core type transformer LV winding placed ( )

(a) above HV winding (b) Near the core (c) between HV windings

3. Lighting arrester connected to ( )

36
 (a) HV winding (b) LV winding (c) tertiary winding

4. Type of cooling used in generator transformer is ( )

(a) OFAF (b) ONAN (c) ONAF

5. Starter used in DC motor to control ( )

(a) Starting torque (b) starting current(c) starting speed

6. E.M.C.C is having normal supply from ( )

(a) Unit auxiliary transformer (b) unit supply switchgear
(c) Station supply switchgear

7. Isolators used in power system operates on ( )

(a) No load (b) any load (c) short circuit is used

8. Bucholzis relay used in transformer is used to operate on ( )

(a) Internal fault (b) External fault (c) fault in line

9. Breather consists of ( )
(a) Silica gel (b) zinc oxide (c) sodium silicate

10. Core of the transformer vibrate at rate of ( )

(a) Supply frequency (b) twice the supply frequency
(c) thrice the supply frequency

Answers: 1(c), 2(b), 3(a), 4(a), 6(b), 7(a), 8(a), 9(a), 10(b)

Ans to QUESTIONS ON POWER PLANT COMMSISSIONG

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. What is the hydro test pressure of boiler?

Ans: 1.5 times the design pressure

2. Which chemicals is used in Alkali boil out activity of boiler ?

Ans. Na2 Po4 & Na3 PO4

3. What is the allowed blowdown for safety valves?

Ans: 4 to 5

4. The elctromatic relief valves are actualed by

Ans: (a) electric signal (b) mechanical signal (c) pressure switch
(d) temperpature switch

37
5. Why steam dumping done ?
Ans: to achieve quality of superheated steam

6. What is the pressure of steam blowing?

(a) 20kg

7. Steam blowing in carried out for cleaning ( )

(a) water circuit (b) furnace (c) steam cir circuit (d) drains

8. Why CC pumps are provided in 500 MW units?

(a) for assisting circulation

9. How equal flow in water wall tubes in acheved ?

Ans: by providing orifices

10. What is the purpose of GD test ?

(a) deterring air leakage points (b) detect air

1) Generator H2 pressure in stage – II(500MW) generator casing (

)
a) 2 KSC b) 3KSC c) 4KSC d) 1KSC

2) Excitation transformer in stage – I (200MW) Generator ( )

a) Air (Forced) b) air (natural) c) water d) Oil

3) Primary water used for stage – II(500 MW) Generator startor cooling is (
)
a) Raw water b) clarified water
c) Equipment cooling water d) Demineralised water

4) H2 drier used in Generator for ( )

a) absorbing oil from H2 b) absorbing O2 from H2
c) absorbing moisture from H2 d) cooling of H2

5) Seal is oil used in Generator primarily for ( )

a) Lubrication of bearings b) cooling of bearings
c) cooling of seals d) to obstruct H2 gas from escaping to
atmosphere

6) Stage – II Generator conductor insulation is classified as (

)

38
 a) F b) B c) D d) A

7) Generator (Stage – II) will trip if the primary water conductivity reaches (
)
a) 4 MS/CM b) 20 MS/CM c) 10 MS/CM d) None of these

8) Frequency of pilot exciter Generated voltage in stage – II Generator is (

)
a) 50 H2 b) 100 H2 c) 400 H2 d) 2 KH2

9) Generator terminal voltage in stage – II (200MW) ( )

a) 18 KV b) 23 KV c) 21KV d) 15.75 KV

10) Primary water tank is capped with ( )

a) H2 Gas b) CO2 Gas c) N2 Gas d) Oil

11) Commonly used pressure sensing element for high pressure ( )

measurement is
a) Diaphram b) Bellows c) Boundon tribe d) Oritile

12) Following type of pressure measurement device is used to get

( )
Continous electrical signal
a) Pr. Gange b) Pr. Transmitter c) Pr. Switch d) None

13) Cold function compensation is used in mermocouple measurement (

)
of temperature to
a) Provide a constant ref.junction temperature
b) To reduce length of thermo couple cable used
c) All above
d) None of the above.

14) The following D.P. device to measure flow has least pressure hrs. (
)
a) Orifice b) Nozzle c) Venturi d) Dilot
block

15) To measure total oil flow the following device is used

( )
a) Nozzle b) Venturi c) Microfoil d) Arifice

16) Differential head measurement method senses from (

)
a) density error b) lack of secondary instrument

39
17) ‘Hydrostep’ measures used level using (
)
a) Differential pressureb) Resistivity
c) Capacitance d) Ultrosonic

18) Synchronous motor (

)
a) is self starting b) is not self starting
c) starts & stops d) none of the above

19) In a star-delta starter (

)
a) initially motor is connected in star and changed in delta
b) Initially delta connector and them to star
c) None of the above

20) No voltage coil in a starter (

)
a) Operates the lever when the supply fails
b) Operates when the supply is resored
c) Operates when the voltage goes high

21) Induction motor works on the principle or (

)
a) Pulsatring magnetic field
b) revolving magnetic field
c) interacting magnetic field
d) compounding magnetic field

22) In a squirrel cage induction motor, rotor winding (

)
a) Is connected to a resistance
b) Is connected to a DC supply
c) Is shorted
d) None of the above

23) In a minimum oil circuit breaker, the oil is used to ( )

a) auench the are
b) Insulate the li8ve parts from the body
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Operate the breaker

24) SF6 circuit breaker is used in applications where voltage is (

)
a) 415V b) 6600V c) 33KV and above d) 220V
DC

40
25) Dielectric strength is defined as (
)
a) Strength of the breaker
b) Voltage withstand capacity of the medium
c) Strength of the operating mechanism
d) None of the above

26) An isolator is used for fault condition ( )

a) Opening a circuit on no-load
b) Opening a circuit in loaded condition
c) Opening a circuit under condition
d) None of the above

27) Earth switch is meant for ( )

a) Earthing a live circuit b) Earthing an equipment after
isolation
c) Earthing the dus bar d) None of the above

28) Wherever electrical demand overtakes generation frequency (

)
a) Rises b) remains const.
c) Decreases d) first it will decrease & then increases

29) Electro Hydraulic control systems advantages are (

)
a)

b)

c)

30) The FRF system uses for control purposes (

)
a) 8 bar b) 10 bar c) 6 bar d) 5 bar

31) Aux. trip fluid is generated from trip fluid

(True/False)
32) Aux. startup fluid is generated from startup fluid
(True/False)
33) In a followup piston/inear travel is converted
into________________________
pressure variation
a) Hyperbolic b) square c) parabolic d) Linear’

34) At the inlet of IP turbine control valves are required to ensure (

)
a) Efficiency b) safety c) operating flexibility

41
 d) None of the above

35) Speed controller is a

_________________________________________controller
a) Proportional b) Integral
c) Proportional differential
d) proportional + Integral + differential

36) Moisture in the Hydrogen within the generators removed by passing the
gas through a _________________________________________________

37) In 500MW units of RSTPS, the H2 pressure inside the generator casing is
maintained at a constant pressure of
____________________________________
Kg/CM2

38) The intermediate gas that is used during filling of generator casing with
H2 or scavenging H2 from generator casing
is_________________________________

39) In 500MW units, primary water is used for cooling

of________________________________________________________________

40) The quality of primary water used for cooling of generator should be
___________________________________________________________________

41) Generator shaft seals are supplied with seal oil to

prevent_____________________________________________ losses at the shaft.

42) The DP regulator in seal oil system maintain DP

across_____________________________________________________.

43) The pilot exciter in 500MW units consists

of_______________________________________________________magnets.

44) The rates terminal voltage of 500MW units of RSTPS is

_______________________________________________________

45) The insulation class used for windings of Generator

is________________________________________________________

46) The maximum full load current of 500MW generator

is___________________________________________________________amps.

47) The purity of N2 gas used in primary water tank of a water cooled
generator should
be________________________________________________________

42
48) Briefly explain the basic principle of Generator.
Ans:-

49) Why is nitrogen supply provided in the primary water tank of water
cooled generator?
Ans:-

50) What are the main components of Generator?

Ans:-

43
 ************************

INDUSTRIAL SAFETY AND FIRST AID

01. 1st AID is essential or not for non- medical person. Yes /
No

02. What is fall form of ABC

03. 1st AID for Burn.

Cooling c water
Apply ointment
Shouting

04. Head Mary type of Blood group is there

A
B
AB

05. Injury ( ) side should be _____________________pressure

apply. Bandaged
Clarity
All the above

06. In snake bite.

Stop bleeding

44
 Call for the Aynbel pill
Towngrel
Send him to medical centre

07. Mouth to mouth breathing is to

stimulate_______________________________.
Liver
Blood
Long
Supply pure oxygen

08. Cardial massage is to be done after doctor comes. True /

False

09. In drowning the resuscitation on should start immediately.

True / False

10. In haring 1st step

Life the foot end (support)
Free the neck tie
Free the cloth from the body
Put water on victim

11. What does ABC stands for in CPR

Air way
Breathing
Circulation

12. What is the sequence of ECC to respiration in CPR

15:2
15:4
16:2
16:4

13. What is the survival percentage it CPR is started with in 4 minutes.

40%
45%
50%
55%

14. The issue damage is more in High tension electrical burn than it
appears from outside. True / False

FIRE SAFETY

45
01. What extinguishing system is being provided to the transformer in
NTPC?
1. Hall on flooding system
2. CO2 flooding system
3. Emulsifier system
4. Foam pourer system

02. ‘B’ type fix consists of

1. Solid fuel (B) gaseous fuel
2. Metallic powder
3. All of above
4. None of these.

03. Which one of the following is not essential to ignite the fire
1. O2
2. Fuel
3. Ignition temp.
4. Nitrogen.

04. What should be done in care of LPG Leakage?

1. Switch of all eletrical appliances
2. Switch on electrical appliances
3. Windows and doors should be opened
4. Exhaust fan should be switched on for effective evaluation

05. Hal on ext banned due to

1. Cost factor
2. Non- availability in India
3. O zone layer depleting factor
4. In – effectiveness factor
06. Reason for maximum coal fire is
1. Spontaneous combustion
2. Lightening
3. Short circuit
4. Faculty equipment

07. Ternary eutectic chloride is used in

1. Metal fire
2. Coal fire
3. Oil fire
4. Gas fire

08. Excluding of Oxygen from the seat of fire is

1. Salivation method
2. Coaling method
3. Smothering method

46
 4. None

09. Which ext. is suitable for electrical fire?

1. Water type
2. Foam type
3. DCP
4. Soda acid type

10. Expelling agent of co2 Ext. is

1. Nitrogen
2. O2
3. CO2
4. None

11. What are the Chemicals?

1. Sodium Bi Carbonate + Aluminum stearate
2. Sodium Bi Carbonate + Sulphuric acid
3. AFFF compound + Aluminum stearate
4. Bitumen + slate powder

ELECTRICITY SAFETY QUIZ

01. Which class of fire extinguisher is used to put out an electrical fire?
a) Class – A
b) Class – B
c) Class – C
d) Class – D

02. Where is the safest place to stay during a lightning storm?

a) In a car
b) In the middle of a field with no trees
c) In a house
d) Lying face down on the ground

03. Electrical Safety – related work practices involve

a) Valid permit system
b) Lock off and tag off
c) Keeping proper distance from overhead power lines
d) All of the above.

04. The Exit and Entry wounds are due to

47
 a) High skin Resistance
b) High skin Capacitance
c) High skin Admittance
d) High skin Reactance

05. The National safety Week is celebrated during the first week of
a) June
b) May
c) March
d) January

06. In case of Joule burn heat generated is proportional to

a) I*I*R*T
b) I*R*R*T
c) I*R*T*T
d) I*R*T

07. The discharge of static electricity can cause

a) Shock only
b) Fire only
c) Fire or explosion only
d) Shock or fire or explosion

08. A Qualified person

a) Is automatically considered to be qualified to work on all
electrical equipment
b) Must be a licenses electrician
c) Is familiar with the construction and operation of the equipment
and the hazards involved.
d) All of the above

09. The place where an explosive gas / air mixture is continuously

Present for long periods is classified as
a) Zone – 0
b) Zone – 1
c) Zone – 2
d) Zone – 3

10. Lockout / tagout:

a) Must be done by a qualified person
b) Can be done by an unqualified person
c) Must be done by a supervisor
d) Can be done by anyone

11. ELCB
means_________________________________________________________

48
12. Protection technique adopted in intrinsically safe equipment is by
way of energy limitation. True /
False

13. Flameproof & Explosion proof equipment is the same.

True / False

14. The use of ELCB is mandatory as per rule 61- A of IE Rules for
law voltage installations up to a load of 50KW. True /
False

15. As electric source frequency increases beyond 500KHZ,

energy passes through organs is increased drastically.
True / False

TEST ON BOILER & TURBINE MODULES

Time : 1 Hour Marks : 50X2 = 100

Objective Type Questions:

01. LSHS stands for (

) a) Low Sulpher heavy stock b) Low stock heavy sulpher
c) Light stock heavy sulpher

49
02. The type of Atomiser used in 500MW boiler oil guns is (
)
a) J-18 b) J-20 c) J-24

03. The turn down ratio of stage – II oil burner is (

)
a) 3 to 1 b) 2 to 1 c) 4 to 1

04. The atomising medium of oil in stage – II burner is (

)
a) Plant air b) Instrument air c) Auxiliary steam

05. The type of mill used in 500MW units is (

)
a) 8.5 E b) 1003XRP c) 833XRP

06. The speed of the mill is ( )

a) 60rpm b) 50 rpm c) 40 rpm

07. The design fineness of pulvrised fuel is (

)
a) 70% through 200 mesh seive b) 70% through 50 mesh
seive
c) 60% through 200 mesh seive

08. The type of feeder used in 500MW units is (

)
a) Volumetric feeder b) Drag link feeder
c) Gravimetric feeder

09. The heading of bowl mill journals is by (

)
a) Springs b) N2 loading system c) hydraulic system

10. The type of riring system in 500MW unit is (

)
a) Front fired b) Tilting tangential
c) Axial swirl burners
11. Total no. of safety valves including ERUS in 500MW (
)
Boiler (Drum, MS lines, CRH, HRH line) are
a) 12 b) 24 c) 36 d) 20

12. SGWC pumps are used in 500MW boiler to (

)
a) Assist circulation b) reduce circulation
c) None of the above

50
13. Economiser recirculation valves are used during boiler light up to (
)
a) to maintain big flows
b) to have flow through Economiser when there is no feed water flow
c) to bring up the parameters at the earliest

14. SCAPH (steam oil air preheater) is used in (

)
a) Air path to b) to aviod APH cold end carrosion
c) to increase the effciency of APHs
d) to avoid APH fires

15. 500MW BHEL boiler is ( )

a) wet bottom type b) dry bottom type
c) mixex bottom type

16. Residency time for fuel particular in the furnace is (

)
a) 1 Sec. b) 2 Sec. c) 3 Sec.

17. Primary means of reheater temperature control in 500MW unit is

( )
a) By spray b) By burner tilt c) By reducing coal firing

18. In a running unit SaWC pumps handle water flow (

)
a) equal to BFP flows b) double of BFP flows
c) Half of BFP flows

19. 200MW ANSALDO Boiler is ( )

a) carner fired b) fiant fired c) stroker fired

20. In 200 MW Ansaldo boiler, reheater temp. control is

Primarily done by ( )
a) Spray b) flow variation c) camper control

21. 200MW Ansaldo boiler is (

)
a) natural circulation b) forced circulation
c) controlled circulation
22. In 200MW Ansaldo boiler is ( )
a) cold air b) hot air c) atmospheric air

23. In 200MW Ansaldo boiler air guns can use (

)
a) only HFO b) only LFO c) either HFO or LFO

51
24. In 500MW boiler, atomising steam pressure should be always (
)
a) more than HFO pressure b) less than HFO pressure
c) kept fixed at 6 to 8 KGs

25. During normal running of the coal fired units APM

soot blowing is done to ( )
a) avoid APH fires b) to increase efficiency of the APHs
c) to improve speed of rotation

26. In 500MW boiler AA, BC, FG, HH are (

)
a) coal air dampers b) Aux air dampers c) oil dampers

27. What is NPSH ? for CEPs how it has been accomplished ? (

)
Ans:-

28. What is the function of LP Heaters ?

Ans:-

29. What is drip ? Explain cascading of drips?

Ans:-

30. What is the function of a De- auator ? (

) a) to de- aurate the non condesible gases”like O2, CO2 from
condensate
b) to heat the condensate
c) to provide NPSH to BFPs

31. How speed variation is achieved in Motor driven BEPs ?

Ans:-

32. What is the

Ans:-

52
33. How axial thrust is minimised in feed pumps (
)
Ans:-

34. What is the function of feed regulating station

Ans:-

35. Why one motor driven BFP is provided in 500MW units

Ans:-

36. What is the advantage of vertical feed heaters over Horizantal feed
heaters?
Ans:-

37. Define axial shift ( )

a) Physical shift of rotor
b) Physical shift of rotor with respect of casing from its neutral position
c) difference in ectrernal expansion of rotor and casing
d) expansion of casing alone

38. Compounding of turbines is done for (

)
a) increasing the speed b) decreasing the speed
c) to reduce the capacity of turbine
d) to increase the capacity of turbine

39. Blade angle will be decided based on (

)
a) Relative velcity of steam and blade
b) linear velocity of steam alone
c) linear velocity of blade alone
d) based on number of stages

53
40. Differential expansion is (
)
a) Difference in expansion of differenct motors
b) Difference in expansion of casing and rotor
c) Relative expansion of rotor which respect to casing
d) Difference in expansion of casings

41. Critical speed of rotor is the speed (

)
a) equal to its natural frequency
b) more than its natural frequency
c) less than its natural frequency
d) not related to its natural frequency

42. Thrust bearing is to (

)
a) position the rotor auxiliary w.r.t casing
b) to take radial loads of rotor
c) to assemble conveniently
d) to fix the casing

43. For efficient draught control fans normally used in power

station are__________________________________________________________

44. ND V 45 specifies
what_______________________________________________

45. The fan that supplies hot air for carrying the fuel is
termed as____________________________________________________________

46. Max allowable misalignment for any fan shaft to motor is

____________________________________________________________________

47. For aligning any fan shaft minimum no. of dial guages required is
____________________________________________________________________
48. Cooling medium used for cooling Babbitt bearings
is________________________________________________________________

49. Axial fan impellar blades material

is______________________________________________________________

50. Regenerative feed heating is used in Thermal cycle to

improve_______________________________________________________.

54