PRUDENCE RESEARCH & REVIEW CENTER

MOCK EXAMINATION
CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE & PROCEDURE – PART THREE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write only the
corresponding CAPITAL LETTER of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED.
1. What will be the effect on the criminal liability of the accused who was seen when he
committed the crime, but becomes insane at the time of trial?
A. He is exempt from criminal liability under paragraph of Article 12 of the Revised
Penal Code.
B. He is criminally liable but the trial will be suspended until his mental capacity
will be restored to afford a fair trial.
C. His criminal liability will be extinguished
D. Some of the above
2. There is violation of neutrality when the following elements are present, except:
A. There is a war in which the Philippines is involved
B. There is a regulation issued by competent authority for the purpose of enforcing
neutrality
C. The offender violates such regulation
D. none of the above
3. Jezreel and Jeffrey entered Fort Bonifacio and obtained some classified information.
They also took photographs of themselves that has background on confidential in nature.
They can be liable to what crime?
A. Treason
B. Sedition
C. Espionage
D. Sabotage
4. The following are disloyal acts or words in time of war, except:
A. By willfully making reports with intent to interfere with the success of the AFP.
B. To promote the success of its enemies.
C. By willfully attempting to cause subordination, loyalty of the AFP.
D. By willfully obstructing the recruiting or enlisting service.
5. Nick Jacinto fired upon the pilot including one of the crews of the PAL No.0202. What
would be the liability?
A. Liable under R.A 6235
B. Liable under the law prohibiting certain acts inimical to civil aviation.
C. Liable to the crime murder
D. Some of the above
6. Arbitrary detention is to Art. 124, Therefore, Art.128 is ______.
A. Expulsion
B. Delaying release
C. Violation of Domicile
D. Interruption of religious worship
7. The word “eligit” is used in Criminal Jurisprudence. It means _____.
A. a writ of command
B. a writ of execution
C. a writ of judgment
D. a writ of arrest
8. “Enfranchise” means conferring of a right to vote at an election as encumbrance means
_____.
A. unlawfully entering upon another’s rights or possessions.
B. unlawfully entering one’s compound property.
C. unlawfully entering into a contracts or agreement.
D. unlawfully entering into a piece of land owned by the government
9. It simply means, a written or printed accusation of a crime.
A. indenture
B. indictment
C. indictable offense
D. indexation
10. It refers to a doctrine of Roman law adopted by the Philippine jurisprudence based on
absolute power of the head of the family, who above had full legal capacity.
A. parents patria
B. pax regis
C. pendens lis
D. patria potestas
11. Art. 125 of the RPC speaks on delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper
judicial authorities, The meaning of the phrase shall fail to deliver such person is
____.
A. failure to surrender the accused to the police station.
B. failure to bring the accused to the court
C. failure to use the fastest means of transportation to speed up the case.

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 D. failure to charge /file complaint/information against the accused.
12. P01 Juan Dela Cruz prevented and distributed a religious ceremony of the Roman
Catholics because he doesn’t want his wife to attend such occasion. Pedro is liable
for ______.
A. Art. 131. Prohibition, interruption and dissolution of peaceful meetings.
B. Art, 132. Interruption of religious worships
C. Art 132. Interruption and dissolution of peaceful meetings
D. Art 133. Offending the religious feelings.
13. “Ignorantia juris neminem esxusat” is interpreted as ignorance of the law excuses no
one, “id certum est quod certum redid potes’ is the same as ____.
A. In every rule there is an exception.
B. in every law, it has its interruption.
C. That is certain which can be made certain
D. That in violation of law or rule, it has to be punished.
14. What is the Latin term of the phrase “against a person”?
A. in pari materia
B. in pais
C. in personam
D. in no grata persona
15. Mr. Moises Guay is an ordinary citizen residing at Salvacion, Bayomobng. He was
appointed by the mayor of the same municipality to be a rural policeman. Mr. Guay
doesn’t have police uniform and is rendering service without pay. Mr. Guay is ______.
A. a person in authority
B. agent of person in authority
C. best considered as police aide.
D. trying hard to become police
16. Considering that a person is a postmaster, can he/she be considered a person in
authority/agent or person in authority?
A. person in authority because he directs the post service
B. person in authority because he represent the whole agency
C. agent of person in authority because he is only agent of the director of post.
D. agent of person in authority because he is an assistant
17. Prof. Magtanggol is very strict instructor in the classroom. When he was outside, he
was attacked by Mr. Mangohe, his former student in criminal law. The student is
______.
A. liable for direct assault
B. liable for indirect assault
C. liable for Art, 148, RPC
D. not liable for serious physical injuries.
18. Mrs Annie Tumitit was elected as barangay councilwoman. She was also to be the
Head/Chairman of the peace and order committee.
A. Mrs Annie Tumitit is a person in authority because he heads the committee.
B. Mrs Annie Tumitit is an agent of person in authority.
C. Mrs Annie Tumitit is both person in authority and agent of person in authority.
D. Mrs Annie Tumitit is an executive council for peace
19. Enumerated below are persons in authority, except:
A. fiscal, public and private school teachers
B. division superintendent of schools, municipal councilor
C. teacher-nurse and private school teachers
D. judges and sheriffs
20. What is the maximum period of Arresto Mayor?
A. 1 month and 1 day to 2 months
B. 2 months and 1 day to 4 months
C. 4 months and 1 day to 6 months
D. 6 months and 1 day to 12 months
21. Reclusion temporal: 12 years and 1 day to 20 years; Prison Mayor:
A. 6 years and 1 day to 8 years
B. 8 years and 1 day to 10 years
C. 6 months and 1 day to 1 year
D. 4 years and 1 day to 6 years
22. The word “Talaq” in criminal law is closely related to ____.
A. reprudiation
B. retaliation
C. reformation
D. reinforcement
23. In the prosecution of homicide where the death of the victim is an element of the
offense, if that element is absent, because the victim did not die, the crime is
_____.
A. consummated
B. attempted
C. frustrated
D. Some of the above

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24. When it concerns collateral matters which make more or less probable the proposition
at issue.
A. material
B. relevant
C. pertinent
D. important
25. Which of the following is a compound crime?
A. A man fixed his revolver twice in succession directed against two different persons,
killing one person and the other.
B. Placing a time bomb in a plane which caused it to explode in mid air killing 40
persons therein.
C. The accused used his Thompson sub–machine gun towards several persons. The first
burst of shots hit three persons. The accused let looses a second burst of shots
wounding 2 others.
D. None of these
26. What system of criminal procedure where the detection and prosecution of offenders are
not left to the initiative of private parties but to the officials and agents of the
law? Resort is made to secret inquiry to discover the culprit and violence and torture
limited to the evidence brought before him but could priced with his own inquiry which
is NOT confrontative.
A. Mixed system
B. Inquisitorial
C. Accusatorial
D. None of these
27. What do you call the civil action in which an individual is asked to be compensated
for personal harm?
A. tort
B. “pay back” method
C. actual damage
D. damage fire
28. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. In justifying circumstances, there is no civil liability except in causing damage to
another in state of necessity
B. A person who cats by virtue of a justifying circumstance does not transgress the law
because there is nothing unlawful in the act as well as in the intention of the
actor
C. In exempting circumstance there is a crime but there is no criminal
D. None of these
29. Which of the following is an exempting circumstance?
A. an act done under the impulses of an uncontrollable fear of an equal or greater
injury
B. An act done in obedience to an order by a superior for some lawful purposes.
C. Having acted upon an impulse so powerful as to have naturally produced passion and
obfuscation.
D. An act done in fulfillment of a duty or in the lawful exercise of a right of office.
30. In a land dispute case the defendant is required to pay damage when the trial judge
finds that he/she committed the wrong. In what degree of proof the case is to be
judged?
A. preponderance of evidence
B. beyond reasonable doubt
C. when suspect is guilty
D. when suspect is innocent
31. The accused was convicted of Homicide on June 10, 2009. No appeal was made; judgment
became final on June 30, 2009. He got his second conviction rendered on October 26,
2009, now for Murder. The violator is called _____.
A. Hardened criminal
B. Recidivist
C. Attempted rape
D. habitual delinquent
32. Intending to steal some jewelry and silver, a young man named Mangayat breaks a window
and enters another house at 10:00 pm. Mangayat may be liable for _____.
A. robbery
B. robbery with force
C. qualified robbery
D. burglary
33. Bruno, upon seeing a stranger named Lylanie sitting on her favorite seat at the Saber
Inn and Restaurant, goes up and pushes the stranger out of the seat. What case may be
filed against Bruno?
A. assault
B. battery
C. manslaughter
D. physical injuries

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34. What crime is committed when a woman bought some poison and pours it into a cup of
coffee her husband is drinking intending to kill him with a motive to get the
insurance of the victim?
A. murder
B. attempted murder
C. first-degree murder
D. manslaughter
35. Identify the crime with these facts: A husband coming home early from work finds his
wife in bed with another man. The husband goes into a rage and shoots and kills both
lovers by a gun he keeps by his bedside.
A. murder
B. manslaughter
C. first degree murder
D. voluntary manslaughter
36. Identify what crime against person based from the facts presented. Jen Dulnuan aims an
unloaded gun at his professor Peter Malnawan who believes the gun is loaded. Miss
Dulnuan says she is going to shoot.
A. attempted murder
B. assault
C. illegal possession of firearms
D. grave threat
37. A drug company sells larger-than-normal quantities of drugs to a doctor, knowing that
the doctor is distributing the drugs illegally. The drug company is guilty of______.
A. illegal production of goods
B. conspiracy
C. illegal distribution of medicines
D. sabotage
38. These are crimes which involves violation of statutory laws that reflect current
public opinion and social values.
A. mala inse
B. mens rea
C. mala prohibita
D. mala prohibitum
39. These finds of crimes rooted in the core values inherent in western civilization.
Example is an offense of drug use.
A. mala inse
B. mens rea
C. mala prohibita
D. mala prohibitum
40. What do you call the aggressive act, such as taking someone’s money, burning a
building, or shooting someone.
A. mala inse
B. mens rea
C. mala prohibita
D. mala prohibitum
41. In most situations, for an act to constitute a crime, it must be done with criminal
intent. Criminal intent is ______.
A. mala inse
B. mens rea
C. mala prohibita
D. mala prohibitum
42. What is that rule as to jurisdiction over crimes wherein crimes committed are not
triable in the courts of the Philippines, unless their commission affects the peace
and security of the territory or the safety of the state is endangered.
A. Jurisdiction rule
B. French rule
C. English rule
D. American rule
43. The court jurisdiction also that says crimes are triable in that country, unless they
merely affect things within the vessel or they refer to the internal management
thereof.
A. Jurisdiction rule
B. French rule
C. English rule
D. American rule
44. All acts and omissions punishable by law are ______.
A. crimes (dolo)
B. felonies (delitos)
C. felonies (culpa)
D. felonies (dolo)
45. The maxim: “Actus no facit reum, nisi mens sit rea,” best means that
A. The law is applied equally to all men

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 B. Crime is not committed if the mind of the person is innocent.
C. There’s no crime committed when there’s no law punishing it.
D. No one is above the law.
46. The accused, Mr. Badua saw a 16 year old Ms. Galvan near along a shadow lighted
street. Without any word, Mr. Badua kissed Ms. Galvan on the cheek and frisked softly
his hands on to her left breast. No one saw the incident. In a minute, Mr. Badua left
Ms. Galvan, who got shocked and speechless. What crime was committed by Mr. Badua if
any?
A. Acts of lasciviousness
B. Unjust vexation
C. Attempted rape
D. Seduction
47. What case among the following where there was a mistake of fact without any fault or
carelessness on the part of the accused.
A. People vs. Beronilla
B. People vs. Oanis
C. People vs. De Fernando
D. US vs. Ah Chong
48. “In apprehending even the most notorious criminal, the law does not permit the captor
to kill him. It is only when the fugitive from justice is determined to fight the
officers of the law who are trying to capture him and killing him would be justified.”
This paragraph speaks of the case of ______.
A. People vs. Beronilla
B. People vs. Oanis
C. People vs. De Fernando
D. US vs. Ah Chong
49. A good case of the doctrines that “el que es causa dela causa es causa del mal
causado” (he who is the cause of the cause is the cause of the evil caused.
A. People vs. Ah Chong
B. People vs Oanis
C. People vs Ural
D. People vs. Bindoy
50. Ms. Renerose Valdez bought poison from a Drugstore, in preparation for the killing of
his rival in winning the heart of Mr. Right. One below is true based from the
foregoing facts presented.
A. The act is considered as overt act of a crime.
B. Such act is a preparatory act of a crime.
C. It has direct connection with the crime of murder which Ms. Renerose Valdez intended
to commit.
D. The purchased poison is to be used in killing rats or insects.
51. Somnambolism or sleep-walking. Whose the acts of the person afflicted are automatic,
is embraced in the plea of insanity must be clearly proven. Somnambolism is closely
related to _______.
A. Imbecility
B. Insanity
C. lack of intelligence
D. lack of imprudence
52. When a person is suffering from a form of psychosis, wherein homicide attack is common
because of delusions that he is being interfered with sexually, of that his property
is being taken.
A. Hypnotism
B. Kleptomania
C. Epilepsy
D. dementia praecox
53. Are those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and
sentiment, there is no penalty imposed.
A. absolutory cause
B. personal knowledge
C. criminal liability
D. insuperable cause
54. Which of the following is NOT a requisite of “avoidance of grater evil or injury”?
A. That the injury feared be greater than the injury done to avoid it
B. That the means used to avoid the injury is lawful
C. That the evil sought to be avoided actually exists.
D. That there be no practical or less harmful means of preventing it.
55. Ordinary mitigating is susceptible of being offset by any aggravating circumstance:
while privileged mitigating can be offset by aggravating circumstance, this statement
is _______.
A. True
B. false
C. half-true
D. none of the above

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56. The circumstance of justification or exemption which may give place to mitigation
includes the following except.
A. Obedience to order of superior
B. Performance of duty
C. State of necessity
D. Minor who is 18 and below
57. Avoidance of greater evil or injury when all the three requisites are present
is______.
A. Mitigating circumstance
B. Justifying circumstance
C. Exempting circumstance
D. Aggravating circumstance
58. What is the duty of the prosecutor when he is said to “direct and control” the
prosecution of the criminal case?
A. to submit himself to the wishes of the court
B. to turn over the presentation of evidence
C. to be physically present during proceedings
D. to impose his opinion to the trial court
59. Which of the following statement ids NOT true?
A. In vindication, the grave offense must be made directly only to the person
committing the felony
B. In vindication, the vindication of the grave offense must be proximate which admits
of an interval of time between the grave offenses done by the offender and the
commission of the crime by the accused.
C. In provocation, it is necessary that the provocation or threat immediately preceded
the act, or there must be no interval of time between the provocation and the
commission crime
D. In provocation, the cause that brought about the provocation need not be a grave
offense.
60. The kind of aggravating circumstance that those that must of necessity that accompany
the commission of the crime.
A. Specific
B. Inherent
C. Aggravating
D. Qualifying
61. That means be employed or circumstances brought about which add ignomity to the
natural effects of the act is
A. Specific
B. Inherent
C. Aggravating
D. Qualifying
62. The offenses falling under the second group where the penalty imposable is lower
than 4 years, 2 months and 1 day imprisonment shall be instituted by filing the
complaint or information directly with, except.
A. MTC
B. MCTC
C. RTC
D. Prosecutor’s Office
63. Complaint can be filed in court, or in the office of the prosecutor for preliminary
investigation. What is the counterpart of this definition to the filing of
information?
A. An accusation in writing subscribed by the prosecutor and filed in court
B. It is subscribed only by the prosecutor
C. It is always directly filed in court
D. It is a sworn statement under oath
64. All criminal actions commenced by a complaint or by information shall be prosecuted
under the direction and control of the______.
A. Prosecutor
B. Public prosecutor
C. Private prosecutor
D. Provincial prosecutor
65. Simangon stabbed Michelle, an 18-year old girl. While Michelle is at the threshold of
death, Simangon raped her. What crime was committed by Simangon if any?
A. Murder
B. rape
C. Homicide
D. Murder with Rape
66. It refers to such amount of evidence which suffices to engender a well-founded belief
“that a crime has been committed and that the respondent is probably guilty thereof.
A. Preponderance of evidence
B. Beyond reasonable doubt
C. Quantum of evidence

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 D. Factum probandum
67. It refers to the amount of evidence which would be sufficient to counter-balance the
general presumption of innocence and warrant a conviction, if not encountered or
controlled by evidence tending to contradict it and render it improbable, as to
prove other facts inconsistent with it.
A. Quantum of evidence
B. Factum probandum
C. Prima-facie evidence
D. Physical evidence
68. Which of the following is true about COMELEC in relation to preliminary investigation?
A. The commissioners are authorized to conduct preliminary investigation.
B. The COMELEC, through its officers can conduct preliminary investigation of criminal
violations of the COMELEC Election Law.
C. The COMELEC is not authorized to conduct preliminary investigation
D. Some of the above
69. In order to make John Doe warrant effective and not to arrest wrong suspects the
Department of Justice issued______.
A. Circular # 49
B. Circular # 50
C. Circular # 51
D. Circular # 52
70. Is an obligation of record, entered into before some court or magistrate duly
authorized to take it, with the condition to do some particular act, the most usual
condition in criminal cases being the appearance of the accused for trial.
A. Bail
B. Surety bail
C. Recognizance
D. Corporate bail
71. Defendants Peter and Pedro made an appeal a judgment that convicted them of illegal
importation of opium. One of the errors assigned as claimed, is “permitting the
government principal witness to be in the courtroom while other witnesses were
testifying. The exclusion of the witnesses by the court is ______.
A. Decide upon by the court
B. NOT sanctioned by the rules of court
C. strictly prohibited by law
D. an error in judgment
72. Which of the following is a mitigating circumstance?
A. Having actual upon an impulse so powerful as naturally to have produced passion and
obfuscation.
B. An act done in obedience to an order by a superior for same lawful purpose.
C. An act done under the impulse of an uncontrollable fear of an equal a portent injury
D. An act done under the compulsion of an irresistible force
73. Under the Local Government Code of 19991, what is the condition precedent that must be
satisfied before the institution of a criminal action in court?
A. Settlement has been repudiated
B. certification of no conciliation
C. confrontation between parties at the lupon level
D. All of these
74. What shall a peace officer do if he is refused admittance into a building where the
person to be arrested is believed to be in?
A. Watch outside until the person to be arrested decides to leave the building?
B. After announcing his authority and purposes, the peace officer may break into any
building or enclosure where the person to be arrested is of is reasonably believed
to be.
C. leave the building and secure a court order to break into the building
D. None of these
75. Jun Jun is a minor who pretended to be of legal age and executed a deed of sale where
he sold a property he inherited in favor of Mr. Tan. After the consummation of said
contract, what legal action can Jun Jun may take?
A. He can rescind the contract
B. He can recover the property on the ground of estoppels
C. He can recover the property by seeking annulment of the contract
D. He may apply for the recession of the contract.
76. Sheena Roberts is the custodian officer of a government property at the municipality
of Bayombong. Through her negligence, some of the stored properties were missing,
presumably taken by other people. Sheena maybe liable for:
A. Dereliction of duty
B. Negligence in the performance of duty
C. Imprudence as the custodian officer
D. Connivance with the person who stole the properties
77. What kind of presumption involves the mental process by which the existence of one
fact is inferred from a proof of some other facts?

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 A. Conclusive
B. Circumstantial
C. Disputable
D. Inferential
78. Is the right against self-incrimination automatically operational?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, it can be waived
D. No, it must be claimed
79. Who represents the People of the Philippines in Criminal Cases on appeal before the
court of Appeals or the Supreme Court?
A. Private prosecutor
B. City/municipal prosecutor
C. State prosecutor
D. Solicitor-general
80. What is the remedy of the court when the offenses is less serious physical injuries
and the offense proved is serious injuries and the defendant may be convicted only of
the offense as charged?
A. Do not dismiss the action
B. Do not dismiss the action but should order the filing of new information.
C. Dismiss the action
D. Stay with the action and decide accordingly to avoid double jeopardy.
81. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility considered relevant to the
issue?
A. When it is not excluded by the rules
B. When it has a direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issue.
C. When it is not repugnant in taste
D. When it is not immoral
82. In case of oral defamation, where the priest is the only available witness, can a
priest testify as to the alleged defamatory words given to him by the accused during
confession?
A. Privilege can be given by a patient to a doctor
B. given to a husband to a wife
C. Privilege communication given to an attorney by a client
D. Privilege communication given by a patient to a priest.
83. Which of the following aggravating circumstances may not be offset by mitigating
circumstance?
A. Treachery
B. Ignomity
C. Nighttime
D. Superior strength
84. What is that statement made by wounded person shortly after he received several bolo
stabs narrating therein the whole incident to another which is admissible in evidence?
A. Res nullus
B. Res judicta
C. Res gestae
D. Res ipsa loquitor
85. What rule is observed when generally, than can be no evidence of writing, the contents
of which is the subject matter of injury other than the original itself?
A. Best evidence
B. Parole evidence
C. Corollary evidence
D. Secondary evidence
86. Because of jealousy, Sherme set fire on the “Banana Republic” boxer shorts of her
boyfriend, Arthur. What crime did Sherme committed if any?
A. Malicious mischief
B. none of the above
C. Reckless imprudence
D. pardon
87. In what instance can alibi (the weakest defend) acquire commensurate strength in
evidential value?
A. When it changes the burden of proof
B. When evidence from the prosecution is strong
C. Where no positive and proper identification has been satisfactory made
D. When questions on whether or not accused committed the offense is clear
88. Ms. Anne Unable is an American artist and known for writings on obscene materials. One
of her writings is entitled “Hanep sa Galaw” was stolen from her office and was
published by someone. The police got hold of the obscene magazine which was stolen.
Ms. Anne Unable is _____.
A. Not liable at all
B. Liable for obscene publication as co-publisher
C. Liable for pornography

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 D. Liable for obscene publication as author.
89. If Judge Sta. Ana The Great rendered a judgment of acquittal and there is no clear
showing that the facts from which the civil liability may arise do not exist, what
must the offended party do?
A. Compel the judge to change the decision
B. Compel the judge through mandamus to include in the judgment a finding in the civil
liability of the accused.
C. In additional to choice letter b., criminal liability of the accused should be
included
D. Some of the above
90. What is the effect of the absence of lawyer during promulgation?
A. The presence of the lawyer during promulgation is required
B. The presence of the lawyer is not needed when the charge is a light offense.
C. The presence of the lawyer is required when the offense is grave
D. All of the above.
91. When does a judgment of conviction become a final?
A. After the lapse of period of perfecting an appeal of 10 days.
B. When the sentence has partially or totally satisfied.
C. When the accused waived his right to appeal.
D. Some of the above
92. “Errors or mistakes of counsel as well as errors of law are grounds for new trial.”
A. True
B. False
C. Partially true
D. Wholly true
93. Who are allowed to appeal a judgment of conviction?
A. Only the People of the Philippines
B. Only the accused
C. Only the lawyers
D. Only the state
94. What is the forerunner of the Regional Trial Courts (RTC) in the Philippine Republic?
A. Interior Court
B. First level court
C. Court of First Instance
D. Some of the above
95. In the criminal cases governed by the Revised Rules on Summary Procedure, the
procedure in what court shall not apply?
A. MTC
B. MCTC
C. MeTC
D. RTC
96. Where a woman was carried by the accused to a distance of 5 meters from the place
where she was grabbed, but left her because of her screams. What crime was committed,
if any?
A. Light coercion
B. Grave coercion
C. attempted serous illegal detention
D. Frustrated serious illegal detention.
97. If the criminal action has been already been filed, the application shall only be made
in the court where the criminal action is:
A. Heard
B. Filed
C. Pending
D. to be filed.
98. The subject of illegal; search warrant has the following remedies, except:
A. He may file a motion for reconsideration
B. He may file a motion to quash
C. He may file a motion to suppress evidence
D. Some of the foregoing
99. Which of the following is true:
A. Rule 45 refers to ordinary appeal cases
B. Rule 46 refers to oral argument
C. Rule 47 refers to new trial
D. Rule 48 refers to preliminary conference
100. A counsel de officio shall be designated or appointed by the Clerk of Court of
Appeals, if based from the transmitted records of the appealed case, it appears that:
A. The accused-appellant is confined in prison
B. He has counsel de parte
C. He did not signs the notice of appeal himself
D. Some of the above.

END OF PART THREE

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 1. B 51. C
2. C 52. D
3. C 53. A
4. D 54. B
5. D 55. B
6. C 56. D
7. C 57. A
8. D 58. D
9. B 59. B
10. A 60. B
11. D 61. A
12. B 62. D
13. D 63. A
14. C 64. A
15. B 65. D
16. C 66. A
17. A 67. A
18. B 68. D
19. B 69. C
20. A 70. A
21. B 71. A
22. A 72. B
23. D 73. D
24. C 74. B
25. D 75. B
26. B 76. B
27. A 77. B
28. C 78. D
29. D 79. C
30. A 80. B
31. D 81. A
32. B 82. D
33. D 83. B
34. A 84. C
35. C 85. D
36. D 86. A
37. D 87. A
38. C 88. A
39. C 89. D
40. A 90. D
41. B 91. A
42. B 92. C
43. C 93. B
44. A 94. C
45. B 95. D
46. A 96. A
47. D 97. B
48. B 98. D
49. C 99. B
50. B 100. A

Prudence Research & Review Center: Criminal Jurisprudence Exam Part Three Page 10