CHAPTER 7

REVIEW QUESTIONS:

1. The thermal death time for a suspension of Bacillus subtilis endospores is 30 minutes
in dry heat and less than 10 minutes in an autoclave. Which type of heat is more
effective? Why?

Autoclave. Because of the high specific heat of water, moist heat is readily
transferred to cells.

2. If pasteurization does not achieve sterilization, why is pasteurization used to treat

food?

Pasteurization destroys most organisms that cause disease or rapid spoilage of food.

3. Variables that affect determination of the thermal death point are?

• The innate heat resistance of the strain of bacteria.

• The past history of the culture, whether it was freeze-dried, wetted, etc.

• The clumping of the cells during the test

• The amount of water present

• The organic matter present

• Media and incubation temperature used to determine viability of the culture

after heating.

4. The antimicrobial effect of gamma radiation is due to (a) _______. The antimicrobial
effect of ultraviolet radiation is due to (b) _______.
 a. The ability of ionizing radiation to break DNA directly. However, because of the
high water content of cells, free radicals (H and OH) that break DNA strands are
likely to form.

b. Formation of thymine dimmers.

5. How do you autoclaving, hot air, and pasteurization illustrate the concept of equivalent
treatments?

All three processes kill microorganisms; however, as moisture and/or temperatures

are increased, less time is required to achieve the same result.

6. How do salts and sugars preserve foods? Why are these considered physical rather
than chemical methods of microbial control? Name one food that is preserved with
sugar and one preserved with salt. How do you account for the occasional growth of
Penicillium mold in jelly, which is 50% sucrose?

Salts and sugars create a hypertonic environment. Salts and sugars (as preservatives) do
not directly affect cell structures or metabolism; instead, they alter the osmotic pressure.
Jams and jellies are preserved with sugar; meats are usually preserved with salt. Molds are
more capable of growth in high osmotic pressure than are bacteria.

7. The use-dilution values for two disinfectants A- 1:2; Disinfectant B-1:10,000. If both
disinfectants are designed for the same purpose, which would you select?

Disinfectant B is preferable because it can be diluted more and still be effective.

8. A large hospital washes burn patients in a stainless steel tub. After each pt, the tub is
cleaned w/a quad. It was noticed that 14 of 20 burn pts acquired Pseudomonas
infections after being bathed. Provide an explanation for this high rate of infection.

Quaternary ammonium compounds are most effective against gram-positive bacteria.

Gram-negative bacteria that were stuck in cracks or around the drain of the tub would not
have been washed away when the tub was cleaned. These gram-negative bacteria could
survive the washing procedure. Some pseudomonads can grow on quats that have
accumulated.
MULTIPLE CHOICES:

1. Which of the following does not kill endospores?

PASTEURIZATION

2. Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri
dishes?

ETHYLENE OXIDE

3. Which of these disinfectants does not act by disrupting the plasma membrane?

HALOGENS

4. Which of the following cannot be used to sterilize a heat-labile solution stored in a plastic
container?

AUTOCLAVING

5. Which of the following is not a characteristic of quaternary ammonium compounds?

SPORICIDAL

6. A classmate is trying to determine how a disinfectant might kill cells. You observed that
when he spilled the disinfectant in your reduced litmus milk, the litmus turned blue again.
You suggest to your classmate that.
 THE DISINFECTANT MIGHT OXIDIZE MOLECULES.

7. Which of the following is most likely to be bactericidal?

IONIZING RADIATION

8. Which of the following is used to control microbial growth in foods?

ORGANIC ACIDS

9. Which disinfectant is the most effective?

DISINFECTANT A

1:2 NG, 1:4 NG, 1:8 NG, 1:16 G

10. Which disinfectant(s) is (are) bactericidal? A, C AND D PG 208

CHAPTER 10
MULTIPLE CHOICES:

1. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology differs from Bergey’s Manual of

Determinative Bacteriology in that the former.

GROUPS BACTERIA ACCORDING TO PHYLOGENERTIC RELATIONSHIPS

2. Bacillus and Lactobacillus are not in the same order. This indicates that which one of the
following is not sufficient to assign an organism to a taxon?

MORPHOLOGICAL CHARACTERISTICS

3. Which of the following is used to classify organisms into the Kingdom Fungi?

ABSORPTIVE; POSSESS CELL WALL; EUKARYOTIC

4. Which of the following is not true about scientific nonmenclature?

NAMES VARY WITH GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION

5. You could identify an unknown bacterium by all the following except?

6. PERCENTAGE OF GUANINE + CYTOSINE

7. The wall-less mycoplasma are considered to be related to gram-positive bacteria. Which

of the following would provide the most compelling evidence for this?
 THEY SHARE COMMON rRNA sequences.

8. Into which group would you place a multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives
inside the human liver?

ANIMALIA

9. Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has
a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?

PROTEOBACTERIA (GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA)

10. Which is (are) found in all three domains.

70S RIBOSOME

PLASMA MEMBRANE

11. Which is (are) found only in prokaryotes?

FIMBRIA

PEPTIDOGLYCAN
CHAPTER 11

STUDY QUESTIONS:

1. The following outline can be used to identify important bacteria. Fill in a representative
genus in the space provided.

I. Gram-positive

A. Endospore-forming rod

1. Obligate anaerobe (a) Clostridium

2. Not obligate anaerobe (b) Bacillus

B. Non-endospore-torming
 1. Cells are rods

a. Produce conidiospores (c) Streptomyces

b. Acid-fast (d) Mycobacterium

2. Cells are cocci

a. Lack cytochrome system (e) Streptococcus

b. Use aerobic respiration (f) Staphylococcus

II. Gram-negative

A. Cells are helical or curved

1. Axial filament (g) Treponema

2. No axial filament (h) Spirillum

B. Cells or rods

1. Aerobic, nonfermenting (i) Pseudomonas

2. Facultatively anaerobic (j) Escherichia

III. Lack of cell walls (k) Mycoplasma

IV. Obligate intracellular parasites

A. Transmitted by ticks (l) Richettsia

B. Reticulate bodies in the host cells (m) Chlamydia

2. Compare and contrast each of the following:

A.) Cyanobacteria and algae

Both are oxygenic photoautotrophs. Cyanobacteria are prokaryotes; algae are eukaryotes.

B.) Actinomycetes and fungi

Both are chemoheterotrophs capable of forming mycelia; some form conidia.

Actinomycetes are prokaryotes; fungi are eukaryotes.
C.) Bacillus and Lactobacillus

Both are large rod-shaped bacteria. Bacillus forms endospores; Lactobacillus is a

fermentative non-endospore-forming rod.

D.) Pseudomonas and Escherichia

Both are small rod- shaped bacteria. Pseudomonas has an oxidative metabolism;
Escherichia is fermentative. Pseudomonas has polar flagella; Escherichia has peritrichous
flagella.

E.) Leptospira and Spirillum

Both are helical bacteria. Leptospira (a spirochete) has an axial filament. Spirillum has
flagella.

F.) Escherichia and Bacteroides

Both are gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria. Escherichia are facultative anaerobes and
Bacteroides are anaerobes.

G.) Richettsia and Chlamydia Both are obligatory intracellular parasites. Richettsia are
transmitted by ticks; Chlamydia has a unique developmental cycle.

H.) Ureaplasma and Mycoplasma

Both lack peptidoglycan cell walls. Ureaplasma are archaea; Mycoplasma is bacteria.

MULTIPLE CHOICES:

1. If you Gram-stained the bacteria that live in the human intestine, you would expect to
find mostly?

Gram-negative, nitrogen-fixing bacteria

2. Which of the following does not belong with the others?

Lactobacillales
3. Pathogenic bacteria can be?

Motile, Rods, Cocci, and Anaerobic

4. Which of the following is an intracellular parasite?

Richettsia

5. Which of the following terms is the most specific?

Bacillus

6. Which one of the following does not belong with the others?

Staphylococcus

7. Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

Spirochete- Helicobacter

8. Spirillum is not classified as a spirochete because spirochets?

Posses’ axial filaments

9. When Legionella was newly discovered, it was classified with the pseudomonads
because?

It is an aerobic gram-negative rod.

10. Cyanobacteria differ from purple and green phototrophic bacteria because
Cyanobacteria?

Produce oxygen during photosynthesis

CHAPTER 12

REVIEW QUESTIONS:

1. Following a list of fungi, their methods of entry into the body, and sites of infections
they cause. Categorize each type of mycosis as Cutaneous, opportunistic,
subcutaneous, superficial, or systemic.
 Genus Method of Entry Site of Infection Mycosis

Blastomyces Inhalation Lungs (a) Systemic

Sporothrix Puncture Ulcerative lesions (b) Subcutaneous

Microsporum Contact Finger nails (c) Cutaneous

Trichosporon Contact Hair shafts (d) Superficial

Aspergillus Inhalation Lungs (e) Systemic

2. A mixed culture of Escherichia Coli and Penicillium chrysogenum is inoculated onto

the following culture media. On which medium would you expect each to grow?
Why?

a. 0.5% peptone in tap water (E. COLI)

b. 10% glucose in tap water (P. CHRYSOGENUM)

3. Briefly discuss the importance of lichens in nature. Briefly discuss the importance of
algae in nature.

As the first colonizers on newly exposed rock or soil, lichens are responsible for
the chemical weathering of large inorganic particles and the consequent
accumulation of soil.

4. Differentiate cellular and plasmodial slime molds. How does each survive adverse
environmental conditions?

Cellular slime molds exist as individual amoeboid cells. Plasmodial slime molds
are multinucleate masses of protoplasm. Both survive adverse environmental
conditions by forming spores.
5. Complete the following table.

Phylum Method of Motility One Human Parasite

Archaezoa (a) Flagella (b) Giardia

Microspora (c) None (d) Nosema

Amoebozoa (e) Pseudopods (f) Entamoeba

Apicomplexa (g) None (h) Plasmodium

Ciliophora (i) Cilia (j) Balantidium

Euglenozoa (k) Flagella (l) Trypanosoma

6. Why is it significant that Trichomonas does not have a cyst stage? Name a protozoan
parasite that does have a cyst stage.

Trichomonas cannot survive for long outside a host because it does not form a
protective cyst. Trichomonas must be transferred from host to host quickly.

7. By what means are helminthes parasites transmitted to humans?

Ingestion

8. Life cycle of the liver fluke Clonorchis sinensis.

• Definitive host

• Adult
 • Egg

• Miracidium

• Intermediate host

• Cercariae

• Redia

• Intermediate host

• Metacercaria

• Back to definitive host

9. Most nematodes are dioecious. What does this term mean? To what phylum do
nematodes belong?

The male reproductive organs are in one individual, and the female reproductive
organs in another. Nematodes belong to the Phylum Aschelminthes.

MULTIPLE CHOICES:

1. How many phyla are represented in the following list of organisms: echinococcus,
Cyclospora, Aspergillus, Taenia, Toxoploasma, and Trichinella? 3

2. Put the above stages in order of development, beginning with the egg.
Miracidium

Redia

Cercaria

Metacercaria

Adult

3. If a snail is the first intermediate host of a parasite with these stages, which stage
would be found in the snail?

Redia

4. Which of the following statements about yeasts are true?

Yeast are fungi

 Yeasts can form pseudohyphae

Yeasts reproduce asexually by budding

Yeasts are facultatively anaerobic

5. Which of the following events follows cell fusion in ascomycetes?

Ascospore formation

6. The definitive host for Plasmodium vivax is.

Anopheles

7. Fleas are the intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum tapeworm, and dogs are
the definitive host. Which stage of the parasite could be found in the flea?

Cysticerus larva

8. These are obligate intracellular parasites that lack mitochondria.

Dinoflagellates

9. These are nonmotile parasites with special organelles for penetrating host tissue.

Apicomplexa

10. These photosynthetic organisms can cause paralytic shellfish poisoning.

Microspora
 CHAPTER 13

STUDY QUESTIONS:

1. Why do we classify viruses as obligatory intracellular parasites?

Viruses absolutely require living host cells to multiply.

2. List the four properties that define a virus. What is a virion?

A virus:

• Contains DNA or RNA

• Has a protein coat surrounding the nucleic acid

• Multiplies inside a living cell using the synthetic machinery of the cell

• Causes the synthesis of virions.

A virion is a fully developed virus particle that transfers the viral nucleic
acid to other cells and initiates multiplication.

3. Describe the four morphological classes of viruses, then diagram and give an example
of each.

Polyhedral, helical, enveloped, complex

4. Draw it label the principal events of attachment, biosynthesis, entry, and maturation
of a + stranded RNA virus. Draw in uncoating.

PG AN-9

5. Compare biosynthesis of a + stranded RNA and a – stranded RNA virus.

Both produce double-stranded RNA with the – strand being the template for
more + strands. + Strands act as mRNA in both virus groups.
 6. Some antibiotics activate phage genes. MRSA releasing Panton Valentine leukocidin
causes a life-threatening disease. Why can this happen following antibiotic treatment.

Antibiotic treatment of S. aureus can activate phage genes that encode P-V
leukocidin.

7. Koch’s postulates are used to determine the etiology of a disease. Why is it difficult
to determine the etiology of (A). a viral infection, such as influenza? (B). cancer?

(A) Viruses cannot easily be observed in host tissues. Viruses can not easily be
cultured in order to be inoculated into a new host. Additionally, viruses are
specific for their hosts and cells, making it difficult to substitute a laboratory
animal for the third step of Koch’s postulates.

(B) Some viruses can infect cells without inducing cancer. Cancer may not
develop until long after infection. Cancers do not seem to be contagious.

8. Persistent viral infections such as (a) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

might be caused by (b) Common viruses that are (c) latent, in an abnormal tissue.

9. Plant viruses cannot penetrate intact plant cells because (a) of the rigid cell walls;
therefore, they enter cells by (b) vectors such as sap-sucking insects. Plant viruses
can be cultured in (c) plant protoplasts and insect cell cultures.

MULTIPLE CHOICES:

1. Place the following in order for biosynthesis of a bacteriophage.

mRNA

DNA polymerase

DNA

Viral proteins

Phage lysozyme

2. The molecule serving as mRNA can be incorporated in the newly synthesized virus
capsids of all of the following except.

– strand RNA rhabdoviruses

3. A virus with RNA dependent RNA polymerase.

 Synthesizes double-stranded RNA from an RNA template.

4. Which of the following would be the first step in the biosynthesis.

A complementary strand of DNA must be synthesized from an RNA template.

5. An example of Lysogeny in animals could be?

Latent viral infections

6. The ability of a virus to infect an organism is regulated by?

The host species

The type of cells

The availability of an attachment site

Cell factors necessary for viral replication

7. Which of the following statements is not true?

Viruses multiply inside living cells using viral mRNA, tRNA, and ribosomes

8. Place in order in which they are found in a host cell:

Phage nucleic acid

Capsid proteins

Infective phage particles

9. Which of the following does not initiate DNA synthesis?

None of the above pg 398

10. A viral species is not defined on the basis of the disease symptoms it causes. The best
example of this is.

Hepatitis