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Ergot alkaloids
Cause vasodilation
Exert their actions by binding to specific ergot amine receptors
Are useful in treating acute migraine headache
Are useful to maintain uterine muscle tone during pregnancy
Which one of the following is non sedative antihistamine
Dimenhydrinate
Promethazine
Chlorpheniramine
Astemizole
Which one of following antihistamine is the best choice for individuals working
in jobs where wakefulness is critical
Dimenhydrinate
Promethazine
Chlorpheniramine
Loratadine
The following expectorant acts both directly on the airway mucosa as well as ref
lexly
Potassium iodide
Guaiphenesin
Terpin hydrate
Bromhexine
Antitussive act by
Liquifying bronchial secretions
Raising the threshold of cough centre
Reducing cough inducing impulses from the lungs
Both options B and C are correct
Which one of the following is an alpha Adrenergic agonist to treat Allergic Rhin
itis
Phenylephrine
Ipratropium bromide
Ketotifen
Cromolyn
Amolodiine
Coombs positive hemolytic anemia is caused by
Clonidine
Guanfacine
Methyldopa
Two drugs may act on the same tissue or organ through independent
receptors, resulting in effects in opposite directions. This is known as
a. Physiologic antagonism
b. Chemical antagonism
c. Competitive antagonism
d. Irreversible antagonism
e. Dispositional antagonism
92. If a drug is repeatedly administered at dosing intervals that are equal to
its elimination half-life, the number of doses required for the plasma concentra
tion
of the drug to reach the steady state is
a. 2 to 3
b. 4 to 5
c. 6 to 7
d. 8 to 9
e. 10 or more
93. It was determined that 95% of an oral 80-mg dose of verapamil was
absorbed in a 70-kg test subject. However, because of extensive biotransformatio
n
during its first pass through the portal circulation, the bioavailability
of verapamil was only 25%. Assuming a liver blood flow of 1500 mL/min,
the hepatic clearance of verapamil in this situation was
a. 60 mL/min
b. 375 mL/min
c. 740 mL/min
d. 1110 mL/min
e. 1425 mL/min
95. Of the following characteristics, which is unlikely to be associated
with the process of facilitated diffusion of drugs?
a. The transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug concentrations
b. The process is selective for certain ionic or structural configurations of th
e drug
c. If two compounds are transported by the same mechanism, one will competitivel
y inhibit the transport of the other
d. The drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient and the proces
s requires cellular energy
e. The transport process can be inhibited noncompetitively by substances that
interfere with cellular metabolism
97. Which of the following is unlikely to be associated with oral drug
administration of an enteric-coated dosage form?
a. Irritation to the gastric mucosa with nausea and vomiting
b. Destruction of the drug by gastric acid or digestive enzymes
c. Unpleasant taste of the drug
d. Formation of nonabsorbable drug-food complexes
e. Variability in absorption caused by fluctuations in gastric emptying time
98. A 26-year-old female with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops
cryptococcal meningitis. She refuses all intravenous medication. Which antifung
al agent can be given orally to treat the meningeal infection?
a. Ketoconazole
b. Amphotericin B
c. Fluconazole
d. Nystatin
99. The quinolone derivative that is most effective against Pseudomonas aerugino
sa is
a. Norfloxacin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Ofloxacin
d. Enoxacin
e. Lomefloxacin
105. A positive Coombs test and hemolytic anemia may follow the administration of
which antihypertensive drug?
a. Methyldopa
b. Clonidine
c. Guanabenz
d. Prazosin
e. Captopril
106. The EKG of a patient who is receiving digitalis in the therapeutic dose ran
ge would be likely to show
a. Prolongation of the QT interval
b. Prolongation of the PR interval
c. Symmetric peaking of the T wave
d. Widening of the QRS complex
e. Elevation of the ST segment
107. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis, the most likely drug he has
been taking in past is:
a. Quinidine
b. Procainamide
c. Lidocaine
d. Amiodarone
e. Spironolactone
108. Which of the following drug is most likely going to slow down atrial rate a
nd increase the conduction velocity?
a. Quinidine
b. Digoxin
c. Esmolol
d. Verapamil
e. Adenosine
109. Preferred drug for hypertension in a patient with congestive cardiac failur
e is:
a. Digoxin
b. Propranolol
c. Verapamil
d. Captopril
e. prazosin
110. In a 70 kg patient the Vd of lidocaine is 80L and its clearance is 28L/hr.
the elimination half-life of lidocaine in this patient is:
a. 0.1 Hr
b. 0.5 Hr
c. 2.0 Hr
d. 1 Hr
e. 4 Hr
111. Regarding Furosamide match which of the following statement is NOT true:
a. It causes Hypomagnesemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Urinary acidification
e. Hyperurecemia
112. A former heroin addict is maintained on methadone, but succumbs to temptati
on and buys an opioid on the street. He takes it and rapidly goes into withdrawa
l. Which opioid did he take?
a. Meperidine
b. Heroin
c. Pentazocine
d. Codeine
e. Propoxyphene
113. A 26-year-old female with reactive depression complains of missing her peri
od and having milk discharge from her breasts. She has no signs of pregnancy, in
cluding a negative pregnancy test. Which of the following might have caused thes
e findings?
a. Clomipramine
b. Amoxapine
c. Fluoxetine
d. Mirtazapine
e. Tranylcypromine
114. A 19-year-old female whose roommate is being treated for depression decides
that she is also depressed and secretly takes her roommate s pills as directed on
the bottle for several days. One night, she makes herself a snack of chicken live
r paté and bleu cheese, accompanied by a glass of red wine. She soon develops head
ache, nausea, and palpitations. She goes to the ED, where her blood pressure is
found to be 200/110 mmHg. What antidepressant did she take?
a. Sertraline
b. Phenelzine
c. Nortriptyline
d. Trazodone
e. Fluoxetine
115. A patient with ulcerative colitis is best treated with
a. Celecoxib
b. Naproxen
c. Sulfasalazine
d. Infliximab
e. Penicillamine
17.The delicate balance between the desires effect and unwanted toxicity of a dr
ug is referred to as its
A.Potency
B.Intrinsic activity
C.Therapeutic index
D.Bioavailability
E.Bioequivalence c
A.Desensitization
B.Supersensitivity
C.Receptor up-regulation
D.All of the above
E.Both B& C a
1. The description of molecular events initiated with the ligand binding and end
ing with a physiologic effect is called:
A. Receptor down-regulation
B. Signal transduction pathway
C. Ligand-receptor binding
D. Law of mass action
E. Intrinsic activity or efficacy b
2. G protein-coupled receptors that activate an inhibitory G alpha subunit alter
the activity of adenylyl cyclase to:
A. Increase the coupling of receptor to G protein
B. Block the ligand from binding
C. Initiate the conversion of GTP to GDP
D. Generate intracellular inositol triphosphate
E. Decrease the production of cAMP e
17.The delicate balance between the desires effect and unwanted toxicity of a dr
ug is referred to as its
A.Potency
B.Intrinsic activity
C.Therapeutic index
D.Bioavailability
E.Bioequivalence c
A.Desensitization
B.Supersensitivity
C.Receptor up-regulation
D.All of the above
E.Both B& C a
18-The cyclooxygenase isoenzyme COX-1 and COX-2 differ from each other in that
a. They catalyse different pathways in prostanoid biosynthesis
b. COX-1 is inhibited by aspirin but not COX-2
c. COX-1 is inhibited by ibuprofen but not COX-2
d. COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is largely inducible. D
19- Low doses of aspirin`prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthes
is of the following mediator in platelets
a- Thromboxane A2
b- 5-Hydroxytryptamine
c- Platelet activating factor
d- Prostacyclin
A
26- Which of the following is a reserve drug but not a disease modifying drug i
n rheumatoid arthritis
a- Chloroquine
b- Sulfasalazine
c- Prednisolone
d- Methotrexate
C
27- Which of the following is a disease modifying antirheumatic drug whose activ
e metabolite inhibits the enzyme dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase
a- Leflunomide
b- Nimesulide
c- Sulfasalazine
d- Colchicine
A
29- Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody directed against the CD20 a
ntigen found on the surface of normal and malignant B lymphocytes, resulting in
B-cell depletion
a- Sulfasalazine
b- Adalimumab
c- Rituximab
d- Abatacept C
30-Which of the following appears to have lower rate of gastric adverse drug rea
ctions
a- Indomethacin
b- Ketoprofen
c- Piroxicam
d- Diclofenac D
31- Which of the following NSAIDs belongs to Hetero-aryl acetic acids
a Ketoprofen
b-Flurbiprofen
c-Tolmetin
d-Indomethacin C