JDA 2004

1. Blood supply to the gingiva of upper jaw is from all branches of

maxillary artery except:
a. Greater palatine.
b. Infraorbital.
c. Lingual.
d. Posterior superior alveolar.
e. Middle superior alveolar.
2. Gingiva of lower jaw is supplied by branches of mandibular division of
trigeminal except:
a.Mental.
b.Buccal.
c.Lingual.
d.Nasopalatine.
e. A &B.
3. nerve supply to mandibular teeth is from:
a. inferior alveolar.
b. Posterior superior alveolar.
c. Greater palatine.
d. Nasopalatine.
E. Zygomatic.
4. Lymphatic drainage from gingiva of upper jaw is to:
a. Submental node.
b. Submandibular node.
c. Preparotid nodes.
d. Jugulodigastric node.
e. Occiptal.
5. Muscles of mastication are all except:
a. Masseter.
b. Buccinator.
c. Temporalis.
d. Lateral pterygoid.
e. Medial ptrygoid.
6. Muscle attached to angle of mandibular is:
a. Masseter.
b. Buccinators.
c. Tempporalis.
d. Lateral pterygoid.
e. Zygomatic.
7. Which of the following can be palpated through Masseter:
a. TM joint.
b. Parotid duct.
c. Transverse facial artery.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
8-Photosensitivity is a side effect with the following antibiotic:
A-Clindamycin.
B-Gentamycin.
C-Tetracycline.
D-Vancomycin.
E-Penicillin

9-The main mechanism of transfer of resistance genes between bacteria is by :

A-Conjugation.
B-Transduction.
C-Transformation.
D-Enhance the B- lactamase activity.
E. B& C.

10-All of the following are considered signs of Bells palsy except:

A- Naso labial fold obliteration.
B-Sparing of upper facial expressions.
C-Possibility of corneal abrasions.
D-Deviation of the mouth corner to the un affected side.
E. A & B.

11- All of the following masses are considered soft in consistency except:
A- Hemangioma of the skin.
B-Lipoma.
C-Osteoma.
D-Ranula.
E. Mucocele.

12-Lidocaine : choose the right answer:

A-.Can be used safely for injection, in patients with cardiac problems.
B- Is metabolised in the plasma.and excreted through the kidney
C-Is used in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmia.
D-Is an ester type of local anesthesia with a standard potency of 2.
E-Is highly toxic in younger ages

13-The local anesthetic which has a vasoconstrictor property is :

A-Lidocaine.
B-Prilocaine.
C-Cocaine.
D-Etidocaine.
E-Mepvicane

14-Carpule of local anesthetic contain all of the following except:

A-Fellypressin
B-Marcaine.
C-Bismuth.
D-Solution for injectin.
E-Conservative material
15-Psudomembranous colitis is caused by:
A-Tiecoplanin.
B-Clindamycin.
C-Vancomycin.
D-Metronidazole
E-Tetracyclins

16- Most common infectious disease,that can be transmitted through needle stick
injury is:
A- HBV.
B-HCV.
C-Aids.
D-HCV and HDV.
E- Infectious mononucleosis.

17- Most sensitive cells to radiation are:

A-Bone cells (Osteocytes).
B-Germ cells in testes and ovaries.
C-Hepatocytes.
D-Glial cells.
E- Epithelial cells.

18-Diabetic patients ,best dental management :

A-No fear of hypoglycemia,during dental work.
B-Hypoglycemia is much worrying than hyperglycemia.
C-No need for hospital admission, in cases of cellulites.
D-FBS levels are not mandatory ,before surgical dental treatment.
E- Diabetic patients arent prone to infections following surgical procedures

19-The following dental procedures don’t need prophylactic antibiotics except:

A-Amalgum filling.
B-Metal try-in.
C-Third molar extraction in a patient who has prosthetic heart valve.
D-Alginate impression for lower jaw.
E- Face bow registration

20- Normal oral mucosa have the following structures except :

A-Taste buds in the lingual mucosa.
B-Fordyces granules.
C-Keratohyline granules.
D-Goblet cells.
E-Lingual varices

21-A white lesion on the dorsal surface of the tongue could be any of the
following except:
A-Tongue lichen planus
B-Diffuse hyperkeratosis .
C-Leukoplakia.
D-Melanosis.
E-Candidal infection.
22- In the examination of lip hemangioma, all items are correct except :
A-Excisional biobsy should be performed.
B-Aspiration of the lesion can be performed.
C-Sclerosing agents can be used in treatment of that lesion.
D-Detailed history of the lesion should be taken.
E- The lesion could be part of a systemic syndrome.

23-General anesthesia is contraindicated when hemoglobin level is :

A – 12 mg /dl
B- Below 10 mg /dl
C- 16 mg /dl
D- 10 mg /dl-
E. None of the above.

24-Atrophic glossitis, with decreased acid secretion in stomach,and myelin

degeneration of spinal cord may indicate :
A- Multiple sclerosis
B-Lymphocytic anemia
C- pernicious anemia
D-Sideropenic anemia .
E. None of the above.

25-Homeostatic response to sever hemorrhage includes :

A- Vasodilatation
B- Renin secretion
C. Reduction in sympathetic out flow
D- Brady cardia
E. None of the above.

26-All are disadvantages of digital radiography except:

a) Large disc space needed.
b) Misleading to the inexperienced.
c) Hard copy images may fade with time.
d) No need for fixer solution re-newal.
e. A & B.

27-All are complications of Xerostomia except:

A-Decreased incidence of dental caries.
B-Increased incidence of dental caries.
C-Increased oral infections.
D-Increased candidal colonies intraorally.
E. C & D.
28-Regarding leukoplakia, choose the wrong answer:
A-It’s a red lesion, that can be encountered intraorally.
B- Leukoplakia in he floor of the mouth is alarming.
C-It should be differentiated from candidal infection.
D-Biobsy should be taken from retromolar located leukoplakia.
E. None of the above.

29-Melkerson –Rosenthal Syndrome is a combination of the follwing:

A-Fissured tongue, facial palsy and facial swelling.
B-Leukoplakia and diabetes.
C-Hypertension and lichen planus.
D-Anemia ,heart failure and hepatitis.
E. None of the above.

30- All are risk factors for oral cancer exept:

A-Smoking.
B-Alkohol drinking.
C-Both smoking and alcohol intake.
D-Shisha or narghile is considered not risky at all.
E. Genetic factor.

31. Inflammation of the gingiva without clinical attachment loss or bone loss is
called:
a- Periodontitis.
b- Pericoronitis.
c- Gingivitis.
d- None of the above
e- All of the above.

32. The inflammation of the supporting tissue which is associated with alveolar
bone destruction is called:
a- Periodontitis.
b- Pericoronitis.
c- Gingivitis.
d- None of the above.
e- Periodontal abscess

33. The initiating factor of inflammatory periodontal diseases is:

a- Dental plaque.
b- Dental calculus.
c- Food debris.
d- Dental caries.
e- a+b
34. The dental procedure which include removing of the plaque and calculus
from root surface until we have a clean smooth surface is called:
a- Scaling.
b- Gingivectomy.
c- Polishing.
d- Root planning.
e- None of the above

35. The best diagnostic radiographic image for periodontal disease at molar
region is:
a-panoramic view
b-vertical bite-wing
c. peri-apical
d. horizontal bite-wing
e. a+c

36. The highest percentage of the dental plaque components is:

a.Salivary products.
b.Diet and various ions.
c. Bacteria.
d. -Bacterial endotoxins.
e. a+b

37. The value measured clinically as the distance between the margin of the
gingiva and base of the periodontal pocket is:

a. Probing depth
b. Clinical attachment level
c. Recession
d. fremitus
e. Furcation invasion

38. Objective(s) of tooth brushing is/are:

a- removal and/or disturbance of plaque.
b- removal of food debris and stain.
c- application of therapeutic agents
d- stimulation of gingival tissues
e- all of the above

39. Which of the following is the most desirable for tooth brushes for daily use?
a. soft bristles.
b. medium bristles.
c. hard bristles.
d. any of the above as long as the size is suitable.
e. hardness of tooth brush is of no relevance.
40. A localized purulent infection within the tissues adjacent to the periodontal
pocket that may lead to the destruction of periodontal ligament and alveolar
bone is:
a. periodontal abscess.
b. gingival abscess.
c. pericoronal abscess.
d. aphthus ulcer.
e. None of the above

41. The primary cause of the periodontal diseases is/ are?

a) Systemic disease

b) Mouth breathing

c) Plaque

d) Occlusal trauma

e) All of the above

42. Gingivitis is most often caused by

a) A hormonal imbalance

b) Inadequate oral hygiene

c) Occlusal trauma

d) A vitamin deficiency

e) aging

43. Tooth mobility is an important parameter to be evaluated during

periodontal examination. Mobility is checked by:

a. Tapping a blunt instrument vertically on the occlusal surface of the

tooth
b. Two blunt instruments.
c. One blunt instrument and one finger.
d. Two fingers.
e. Answers b and c

44. Pathogenic microorganisms may influence the course of the disease process
by :
a- producing tissue-toxic substances
b- directly invading host tissues
c- stimulating host response
d- all of the above
e- a & c only

45. The LEAST appropriate chair position for a patient with uncontrolled
congestive heart failure is:
a- supine.
b- upright.
c- semi-supine
d. Non of the above
e. b+c

46. -Local periodontal therapy include:

a- Dental plaque and calculus removal.
b- removing all the factors that favor dental plaque’s accumulations.
c- Prescription of systemic antibiotics
d- Creating occlusal harmony that is more favorable to the periodontium.
e- a,b &d .

47. The mechanical strength of the PDL derives primarily from the:
a. Molecular structure of type I collagen, and its arrangement into fibres
b. Elastic fibres
c. Eluanin fibres
d. Oxytalan fibres
e. All the above

48. The measurement of probing depth is performed using a periodontal probe.

The rationale why probing depth is measured is:
a. Gingival soft tissue grows coronally when Periodontitis occurs.
b. Bone migrates coronally when gingivitis occurs.
c. Probing depth calculation is important in calculating clinical attachment loss.
d. Probing depth of more than 3 mm usually reflects that Periodontitis is present.
e. Answers a and b

49. The tissue between the free gingival groove and the mucogingival junction is
the:
a. Marginal gingiva
b. Attached gingiva
c. Keratinized gingiva
d. Alveolar mucosa
e. Col
50. Charecteristic of plaque-induced gingivitis include all of the following except:
a. Attachment loss and bone loss.
b. Bleeding upon provocation.
c. Increase gingival exudates.
d. Reversible with plaque removal.
e. Red color

51. the most frequent cause of pulpal inflammation is?

a.Thermal
b.Bacterial
c.Trauma
d.Chemical
e.Any of the above

52. Which of the following permanent teeth are least susceptible to carious
attack?
a.Mandibular molars
b.Maxillary canines
c.Maxillary premolars
d.Mandibular incisors
e.Maxillary incisors
53-The root canal instrument most likely to break during use is a?
a-barbedBroach
b-File
c.-Reamer
d.-Drill
e. finger spreader: -

54-The tooth reduction required for a facial porcelain laminate veneer is?
a.1.5 mm
b.0.2mm
c.0.5mm
d.1.0mm
e.2.0mm

55 ) the term”tug back” when used in connection with a master cone is related to
the:
a) Fit of the cone in the apical 2 or 3 mm.
b) Consistency of the gutta-percha.
c) Size of the cone.
d) Tensile strength of the gutta-percha.
e) Length of the cone.
56 ) which of the following can be identified accurately radio graphically?
a) chronic apical abscess
b) periapical osteofibrosis
c) apical cyst
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
57) The safest instrument for removing the pulp from a very fine canal is a:
a) Barbed broach.
b) Small k-type file.
c) Tapered universal hedstrom file.
d. Smooth broach
e.none of the above

58-Which of the following teeth have higher incidence of accessory canals and
secondary foramina?
a. lower anterior teeth.
b. upper incisor teeth.
c. upper premolars.
d. lower molars.
e. Upper molars.

59-Micro leakage around dental restorations is most

pronounced with:
a) Dental amalgam
b) Composite resins
c) Direct filling resins
d) Gold foils
e) Gold inlays

60-EDTA, which is the active ingredient in RC Preparation as its principal

action is the?
a. dissolution of necrotic debris.
b. decalcification of dentine.
c. lubrication of the canal during instrumentation.
d. sterilizing the root canal system.
e. all of the above are correct.

61- The ideal properties of luting cement include all the following except:
) Low viscosity and film thickness.
) Long working time with rapid set at mouth temperature.
) Adhesion to tooth structure and restoration.
) High viscosity and film thickness.
) High compression and tensile stress.

62-Ceramics adhere to metal primarily by

a. chemical bonding
b. mechanical entrapment
c. compressive forces
d. van der Waal's forces
e. hydrogen bonds

63-The coefficient of thermal expansion of the porcelain should be

a. Slightly higher than the metal substrate
b. Slightly lower than the metal substrate
c. The same as the metal substrate
d. Either a and c
e. Either b and c

64. What is the most preferred restorative material to fabricate chair side labial
veneers with no incisal edge extension?
a. Glass ionomers
b. Micro fill resin composite
c .Hybrid resin composite
d. Resin reinforced glass ionomers
e. b and c

65-Of the following core materials, which would be the material of choice, in a
tooth that is subjected to heavy occlusal forces?

a. Amalgam
b. Resin Composite
c. Glass Ionomers
d. Cast Metal
e. Resin Modified Glass Ionomers

66- How soon after contamination by moisture does zinc containing amalgam
restoration start expanding?

a.1-2 days
b.3-5 days
c. 24 hours
d.One week
e.Two weeks

67. All the following metals provide protection against corrosion except?
 a.Chromium
b.Aluminum
c.Titanium
d.Gold
e-Copper

68-Acute apical periodontitis can be best diagnosed by?

a.Radiography
b.Anesthetic testing
c.Percussion
d.Electric pulp testing
e-None of the above

69. A common gutta percha solvent is?

a.Acetone
b.Alcohol
c.Sodium hypochlorite
d-Chloroform
e.hydrogen peroxide

70-The prognosis for a vertical root fracture is?

a.Poor
b.Fair
c.Good
d.Excellent
e.Non of the above

71- Bleaching of endodontically treated teeth is commonly done with?

a. 30% hydrogen peroxide
b. 20% sodium met bisulfate
c. 50% hydrochloric acid
d. 25% sodium hypochlorite
e. 12% sulphuric acid

72- Trauma from occlusion mat be manifested in the?

a.Periodontium
b.Temporomandibular joint and neuromuscular system
c.Pulp
d.All of the above
e.None of the above

73- Treatment of choice for tilted tooth is?

a.Full cast crowns
b.Orthodontic treatment
c.Partial veneer crowns
 d.Extraction
e.none of the above

74-pathologic occlusion produces:

a) excessive wear of teeth
b) temporomandibular joint disturbances
c) pulpal involvement ( hyperemia, pulpitis and necrosis )
d) periodontal alterations
e) all of the above

75-causes of fixed partial denture failure are many .The causes with the highest
percentage of occurrence is:
a. fracture of the components
b. pulpal involvement and pathology
c. caries
d.failure of the luting media
e.porcelain chipping
76.The mucosal surface of the pontic is made convex, for the most part, so that it
is:
a easily cleansable
b easily soldered to abutments
c easily retained
d easily matched aesthetically
e none of the above

77- Buccal reduction for a single porcelain veneered crown should be carried
a just labial (buccal) to the contact areas
b well to the labial(buccal) of the contact
areas
c just lingual to the contact areas
d 1 mm short of the contact areas
e. all of the above

78-establishing drainage is important aspect of emergency treatment for an

acute apical abscess. An equally important aspect is to:

a) Adjust the occlusion

b) Provide analgesics
c) Provide systemic antibiotics
d) Debride the canal system of a necrotic tissue
 e) a and b are only correct

79-when pins are included in amalgam restoration, there is an increase in:

a. Retention
b. Compressive strength
c. Tensile strength
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

80) The presence of pulp stones on an X-ray indicates the presence of:
a) Acute pulpitis
b) Acute pulpagia
c) Chronic periodontitis
d) None of the above are correct
e. all of the above.

81-if an instrument breaks in a canal during treatment, the ethical procedure

would be to:

a) Complete treatment and then inform the patient

b) Tell the patient immediately regardless of consequences
c) Complete treatment and not tell the patient
d) Extract the tooth
e-none of the above

82-perforation of the apical foramen during cleansing and shaping can result
in”

a) Trauma to the apical tissue

b) Necrotic tissue forced into apical tissue
c) Foramen enlargement
d) Pain to the patient
e) All of the above are correct

83. The third stage of mixing the acrylic resin is

A-fluid stage
B-stringiness stage
C-rubber stage
d- Dough stage
e-none of the above

84-zinc oxide eugenol is used in

a-complete denture
b-partial denture
c-crown and bridge
d-all of the above
e- None of the above
85-which of the following is not a function of the occlusal rest?
a-maintenance of the correct occlusal relation of the artificial teeth
b-guiding of the prosthesis along planned path of insertion
c-stabilization of the clasp arms in their planned position
d- Resistance to cervical movement of the prosthesis
e-do none of the above

86-aesthetics is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed and a

removable partial denture for which of the following Kennedy classification?
a- Kennedy class 1
b- Kennedy class 11
c-Kennedy class 111
d-Kennedy class 1V
e-all of the above

87-all of the following factors of complete denture occlusion are considered

under the control of the dentist except
a-occlusal plane
b- Incisal guidance
c – spee curve
d- condylar path
e-none of the above

88-the shape of the rest seats in natural posterior teeth should be

a- box shaped
b-flat
c-convex
e-saucer shape
e-none of the above

89-the denture click because

a-the vertical dimension is low
b-the teeth used in the dentures are very long
c-the vertical dimension is high
d-the teeth used in the dentures are very wide and made of porcelain
e-none of the above

90-obturators are used in

a-anterior fracture of the jaw
b-posterior fracture of the jaw
c-cleft palate
d-immediate denture
e-over denture

91-the main cause of nausea of denture wearer is

a-denture over extended
b-denture under extended
c-thick posterior border
 d-none of the above
e-all of the above

92-The material of choice for an impression for an immediate denture is

a-alginate
b-compound
c- Plaster
d-addition silicon impression material
e-compound with zinc oxide and eugenol

93-Preventive methods utilized in Paedodontics include

a.oral hygiene
b.dietary factors
c.fluoride prophylaxis
d.prevention of malocclusion
e.all of the above

94-techniques of reconditioning the child for dental treatment include

a-reconditioning the child through guidance from the dentist
b-determining if the child has undue fear of dentistry
c-familiarizing the child with dental treatment
d-gaining complete confidence of the child
e-all of the above

95-crowns are indicated on deciduous teeth when

a-rampant caries involves three or more surfaces of a tooth
b-the primary molar has had pulp therapy
c- a child has rampant caries
d-malformed teeth are present such as hypoplastic enamel and in a handicapped
child with poor oral hygiene
e –all of the above

96- space maintainer in orthodontics is

a-preservation of a space for a permanent tooth in Childs mouth
b-preservation of the tota larch length in the childs mouth or all of the permanent
teeth in the arch
c-replacement of a lost teeth
d-prevention of mesial drift after loss of a tooth
e-none of the above

97-Which primary tooth is most commonly retained in adult population?

a-mandibular central incisor
b-maxillary lateral incisor
c-mandibular 2nd molar
d-maxillry canine
e-mandibular lateral incisor
98-the tooth movement most readly accomplished with removable orthodontic
appliance is
a-tipping
b-bodly movement
c-root movement
d- torque
e- rotation

99-in planning anchorage of orthodontic appliance much depends upon

a-the physical properties of wire
b-vectors of force in minor tooth movement
c-the physical properties of wire and the vector of force in tooth movement
d-the soldered joints
e-none of the above

100- the active portion of the Hawley appliance is

a-the base plate
b-the retentive clasp
c-the circumferencial clasp
d- the anterior labial wire
e- none of the above