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Solutions to JEE(Main)-2020
Test Date: 8th January 2020 (Second Shift)
2. This Test Paper consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 25 questions in each part of equal weightage out of which 20 questions are MCQs and 5
questions are numerical value based. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.
4. (Q. No. 01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
5. (Q. No. 21 – 25, 46 – 50, 71 – 75) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as numerical
value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No.3 for correct response of each
question. One mark will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction
from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer box.
7. There is only one correct response for each question. Marked up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marked up for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 6 above.
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-2
PART – A (PHYSICS)
1. A simple pendulum is being used to determine the vale of gravitational acceleration g at
a certain place. The length of the pendulum is 25.0 cm and a stop watch with 1 s
resolution measures the time taken for 40 oscillations to be 50 s. The accuracy in g is:
(A) 4.40% (B) 2.40%
(C) 3.40% (D) 5.40%
1
2. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of is being used as a refrigerator. If the work
10
done on the refrigerator is 10 J, the amount of heat absorbed from the reservoir at lower
temperature is:
(A) 99 J (B) 100 J
(C) 1 J (D) 90 J
3. Consider two charged metallic spheres S1 and S2 of radii R1 and R2, respectively. The
electric fields E1 (on S1) and E2 (on S2) on their surfaces are such that E1/E2 = R1/R2.
Then the ratio of V1 (on S1) / V2 (on S2) of the electrostatic potentials on each sphere is:
3
2 R
(A) (R1/R2) (B) 1
R2
(C) (R2/R1) (D) R1/R2
L L 1
(A) (B) 2
1
eR2 R e
R L
(C) (D) 2
eL2 R
0I 0I 1
(C) ( 1) (D)
2R 2R 2
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-3
6. A uniform sphere of mass 500 g rolls without slipping on a plane horizontal surface with
its centre moving at a speed of 5.00 cm/s. Its kinetic energy is:
(A) 8.75 × 10–4 J (B) 8.75 × 10–3 J
–4
(C) 6.25 × 10 J (D) 1.13 × 10–3 J
7. In a double-slit experiment, at a certain point on the screen the path difference between
1
the two interfering waves is th of a wavelength. The ratio of the intensity of light at that
8
point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is:
(A) 0.672 (B) 0.568 (C) 0.760 (D) 0.853
8. A particle of mass m is dropped from a height h above the ground. At the same time
another particle of same mass is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a speed
of 2gh.
If they collide head-on completely inelastically, the time taken for the combined mass to
h
reach the ground, in units of is:
g
1 1 3 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4 2
9. A particle moves such that its position vector r (t) cos ˆi sin tjˆ where is a constant
and t is time. Then which of the following statements is true for the velocity v(t) and
acceleration a (t) of the particle:
(A) v is perpendicular to r and a is directed towards the origin.
(B) v and a both are parallel to r
(C) v is perpendicular to r and a is directed away from the origin.
(D) v and a both are perpendicular to r
10. Consider a mixture of n moles of helium gas and 2n moles of oxygen gas (molecules
taken to be rigid) as an ideal gas. It CP/CV value will be
(A) 19/13 (B) 40/27 (C) 67/45 (D) 23/15
0 a 2 a 0 a2 a
(A) 1 (B) 1
d d d 4d
a 2 3 a a2 a
(C) 0 1 (D) 0 1
d 2d d 2d
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-4
13. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 GHz is propagating in vacuum along the
z-direction. At a particular point in space and time, the magnetic field is given by
B 5 10 8 ˆj T. The corresponding electric field E is (speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
(A) –1.66 × 10–16 î V / m (B) –15 î V / m
(C) 15 î V / m (D) 1.66 × 10–16 î V / m
14. An electron (mass m) with initial velocity v v 0 ˆi v 0 ˆj is in an electric field E E 0k. ˆ If 0
is initial de-Broglie wavelength of electron, its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is given by
0 0 0 2 0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
e 2E 2 t 2 e 2E 2 t 2 e 2E 2 t 2 e 2E 2 t 2
1 2 0 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 1
m v0 m v0 m v0 2m2 v 02
15. A transverse wave travels on a taut steel wire wit a velocity of v when tension in it is
2.06 × 104 N. When the tension is changed to T, the velocity changed to v/2. The value
of T is close to:
(A) 10.2 × 102 N (B) 30.5 × 104 N
(C) 5.15 × 103 N (D) 2.50 × 104 N
16. An object is gradually moving away from the focal point of a concave mirror along the
axis of the mirror. The graphical representation of the magnitude of linear magnification
(m) versus distance of the object from the mirror (x) is correctly given by (Graphs are
drawn schematically and are not to scale)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-5
17. A particle of mass m and charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field. If there
is no other force on the particle, the dependence of its speed v on the distance x
travelled by it is correctly given by (graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
20. A galvanometer having a coil resistance 100 gives a full scale deflection when a
current of 1 mA is passed through it. What is the value of the resistance which can
convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter giving full scale deflection for a potential
difference of 10 V.
(A) 9.9 k (B) 7.9 k
(C) 10 k (D) 8.9 k
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-6
1
21. A ball is dropped form the top of a 100 m high tower on a planet. In the last s before
2
hitting the ground, it covers a distance of 19 m. Acceleration due to gravity (in ms–2) near
the surface on that planet is _________.
22. The first member of the Balmer series of hydrogen atom has a wavelength of 6561 Å.
The wavelength of the second member of the Balmer series (in nm) is _________.
23. The series combination of two batteries, both of the same emf 10 V, but different internal
resistance of 20 and 5 , is connected to the parallel combination of two resistors 30
and R . The voltage difference across the battery of internal resistance 20 is zero,
the value of R (in ) is _________.
24. An asteroid is moving directly towards the centre of the earth. When at a distance of 10
R
(R is the radius of the earth) from he earths centre, it has a speed of 12 km/s. Neglecting
the effect of earths atmosphere, what will be the speed of the asteroid when it hits the
surface of the earth (escape velocity form the earth is 11.2 km/s)? Given your answer to
the nearest integer in kilometer/s _________.
25. Three containers C1, C2 and C3 have water at different temperatures. The table below
shows the final temperature T when different amounts of water (given in liters) are taken
from each container and mixed (assume no loss of heat during the process)
C1 C2 C3 T
1 2 __ 60°C
__ 1 2 30°C
2 __ 1 60°C
1 1 1
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-7
PART –B (CHEMISTRY)
26. The increasing order of the atomic radii of the following elements is:
(a) C (b) O (c) F (d) Cl (e) Br
(A) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) < (e) (B) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) < (e)
(C) (c) < (b) < (a) < (d) < (e) (D) (b) < (c) < (d) < (a) < (e)
27. Kjeldahl's method cannot be used to estimate nitrogen for which of the following
compounds?
1
28. Consider the following plots of rate constant versus for four different reactions. Which
T
of the following order is correct for the activation energies of these reactions?
29. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is :
30. White phosphorus on reaction with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere
of CO2 gives phosphine and compound (X). (X) on acidification with HCl gives compound
(Y). The basicity of compound (Y) is :
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 1
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-8
32. Among (a) – (d), the complexes that can display geometrical isomerism are:
(a) [Pt(NH3)3]Cl+ (b) [Pt(NH3)Cl5]–
(c) [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] (d) [Pt(NH3)4ClBr]2+
(A) (d) and (a) (B) (c) and (d)
(C) (b) and (c) (D) (a) and (b)
33. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is :
Assertion: For hydrogenation reactions, the catalytic activity increases from Group 5 to
Group 11 metals with maximum activity shown by Group 7-9 elements.
Reason : The reactants are most strongly adsorbed on group 7-9 elements. Both
assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-9
35. Among the reactions (a)-(d), the reaction(s) that does/do not occur in the blast furnace
during the extraction of iron is/are:
(a) CaO SiO2 CaSiO3 (b) 3 Fe2O3 CO 2Fe3O 4 CO2
1
(c) FeO SiO 2
FeSiO3 (d) FeO Fe O2
2
36. A metal (A) on heating in nitrogen gas gives compound B. B on treatment with H2O gives
a colourless gas which when passed through CuSO4 solution gives a dark blue-violet
coloured solution. A and B respectively, are:
(A) Mg and Mg(NO3)2 (B) Na and NaNO3
(C) Mg and Mg3N2 (D) Na and Na3N
38. The correct order of the calculated spin-only magnetic moments of complexes (A) to (D)
is :
(a) Ni(CO)4 (b) [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2
(c) Na2[Ni(CN)4] (d) PdCl2(PPh3)2
(A) (c) (d) < (b) < (a) (B) (a) (c) < (b) (d)
(C) (a) (c) (d) < (b) (D) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-10
40. Hydrogen has three isotopes (a), (b) and (c). If the number of neutron(s) in (a), (b) and
(c) respectively, are (x), (y) and (z), the sum of (x), (y) and (z) is:
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
41. Which of the following compound is likely to show both Frenkel and Schottky defects in
its crystalline form?
(A) CsCl (B) AgBr
(C) ZnS (D) KBr
42. Arrange the following bonds according to their average bond energies in descending
order:
C–Cl, C–Br, C–F, C–I
(A) C–F > C–Cl > C–Br > C–I (B) C–I > C–Br > C–Cl > C–F
(C) C–Cl > C–Br > C–I > C–F (D) C–Br > C–I > C–Cl > C–F
44. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the Bohr radius, a0, in Li2+ is
4a0 2a
(A) (B) 0
3 9
2a0 4a0
(C) (D)
3 9
45. Among the compounds A and B with molecular formula C9H18O3, A is having higher
boiling point the B. The possible structures of A and B are:
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-11
46. Complexes (ML5) of metals Ni and Fe have ideal square pyramidal and trigonal
bipyramidal geometries, respectively. The sum of the 90°, 120° and 180° L-M-L angles in
the two complexes is _______
47. At constant volume, 4 mol of an ideal gas when heated from 300 K to 500 K changes its
internal energy by 5000 J. The molar heat capacity at constant volume is ____
48. In the following sequence of reactions the maximum number of atoms present in
molecule 'C' in one plane is
49.
50. NaClO3 is used, even in spacecraft, to produce O2. The daily consumption of pure O2 by
a person is 492L at 1 atm, 300 K. How much amount of NaClO3, in grams, is required to
produce O2 for the daily consumption of a person at 1 atm, 300 K? .
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-12
PART–C (MATHEMATICS)
1 1
51. If the 10th term of an A.P. is and its 20th term is , then the sum of its first 200
20 10
terms is:
1
(A) 100 (B) 50
4
1
(C) 100 (D) 50
2
52. Which of the following statement is a tautology?
(A) ~ p ~ q p q (B) ~ p ~ q p q
(C) p ~ q p q (D) ~ p ~ q p q
53. The mean and variance of 20 observations are found to be 10 and 4, respectively. On
rechecking, it was found that an observation 9 was incorrect and the correct observation
was 11. Then the correct variance is:
(A) 4.02 (B) 3.98
(C) 4.01 (D) 3.99
7 4 1
54. The mirror image of the point (1, 2, 3) in a plane is , , . Which of the
3 3 3
following points lies on this plane?
(A) (1, –1, 1) (B) (1, 1, 1)
(C) (–1, –1, –1) (D) (–1, –1, 1)
55. If a hyperbola passes through the point P (10, 16) and it has vertices at 6, 0 then the
equation of the normal to it at P is:
(A) 2x 5y 100 (B) x 3y 58
(C) 3x 4y 94 (D) x 2y 42
2 2
56. If a line, y mx c is a tangent to the circle, x 3 y 1 and it is perpendicular to
1 1
a line L1 , where L1 is the tangent to the circle, x 2 y 2 1 at the point , ; then:
2 2
(A) c 2 7c 6 0 (B) c 2 6c 7 0
(C) c 2 6c 7 0 (D) c 2 7c 6 0
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-13
58. Let S be the set of all functions : 0,1 R, which are continuous on 0,1 and
differentiable on (0, 1). Then for every in S, there exists a c 0,1 , depending on f,
such that:
(A) f c f 1 1 c f ' c (B) f c f 1 1 c f ' c
f 1 f c
(C) f c f 1 f ' c (D) f ' c
1 c
59. Let a ˆi 2ˆj kˆ and b ˆi ˆj kˆ be two vectors. If c is a vector such that b c b a
and c .a 0, then c .b is equal to:
1 3
(A) (B)
2 2
1
(C) –1 (D)
2
x x
60. Let f : 1,3 R be a function defined by f x , where [x] denotes the greatest
1 x2
integer x . Then the range of f is:
2 4 2 1 3 4
(A) , (B) , ,
5 5 5 2 5 5
3 4 2 3 3 4
(C) , (D) , ,
5 5 5 5 4 5
100 100
1 i 3
61. Let . If a 1 2k and b 3k , then a and b are the roots of
2 k 0 k 0
the quadratic equation:
(A) x 2 101x 100 0 (B) x 2 102x 101 0
(C) x 2 102x 101 0 (D) x 2 101x 100 0
x
62.
t sin 10 t dt
lim 0 is equal to:
x 0 x
1
(A) 0 (B)
10
1 1
(C) (D)
5 10
63. The system of linear equations
x 2y 2z 5
2x 3y 5z 8
4x y 6z 10 has:
(A) no solution when 8 (B) infinitely many solutions when 2
(C) no solution when 2 (D) a unique solution when 8
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-14
2
65. The differential equation of the family of curves, x 4b y b ,b R , is:
2
(A) xy " y ' (B) x y ' x 2yy '
2 2
(C) x y ' x 2yy ' (D) x y ' 2yy ' x
66. The length of the perpendicular from the origin, 0n the normal to the curve,
x 2 2xy 3y 2 0 at the point (2, 2) is:
(A) 2 2 (B) 4 2
(C) 2 (D) 2
2 2 1 0 1
67. If A and I , then 10A is equal to:
9 4 0 1
(A) 4I A (B) A 6I
(C) A 4I (D) 6I A
2
68. Let A and B be two events such that the probability that exactly one of them occurs is
5
1
and the probability that A or B occurs is , then the probability of both of them occur
2
together is:
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.10
(C) 0.20 (D) 0.02
2
dx
69. If I , then:
3 2
1 2x 9x 12x 4
1 1 1 2 1
(A) I2 (B) I
16 9 9 8
1 1 1 1
(C) I2 (D) I2
8 4 6 2
70.
Let S be the set of all real roots of the equation, 3 x 3 x 1 2 3 x 1 3 x 2 . Then
S:
(A) contains at least four elements (B) is a singleton
(C) is an empty set (D) contains exactly two elements
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-15
71. Let f x be a polynomial of degree 3 such that f 1 10, f 1 6 , f x has a
critical point at x 1 and f ' x has a critical point at x = 1. Then f x has a local
minima at x =________
72. Let aline y mx m 0 intersect the parabola, y 2 x at a point P, other than the
origin. Let the tangent to it at P meet the x – axis at the point Q. If area OPQ 4 sq.
units, then m is equal to ____________.
7 n n 1 2n 1
73. The sum 4
is equal to _____________.
n1
74. The number of 4 letter words (with or without meaning) that can be formed from the
eleven letters of the word ‘EXAMINATION’ is ____________________.
2 sin 1 1 cos 2 1
75. If and , , 0, , then tan 2 is equal
1 cos 2 7 2 10 2
to __________.
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-16
1. A 2. D 3. A 4. A
5. D 6. A 7. D 8. D
9. A 10. A 11. D 12. B
13. C 14. A 15. C 16. D
17. D 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. 8.00 or 2888.00 22. 486 23. 30
24. 16 25. 50
PART –B (CHEMISTRY)
PART–C (MATHEMATICS)
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-17
1. A
T 1 g L
Sol.
T 2 g L
g 2T L 1 0.1
2
g T L 50 25.0
= 4.4%
2. D
Sol. For Carnot engine using as refrigerator
T
W Q2 1 1
T2
1
It is given
10
T2
1
T1
T2 9
T1 10
So, Q2 = 90 J (as W = 10 J)
3. A
E1 r1
Sol.
E2 r2
2
V1 E1r1 r1 r1 r1
V2 E 2r2 r2 r2 r2
4. A
Tc
Sol. q idt
0
Tc
e t /TC
t ; Tc Tc e1 Tc
R 1 R
T
C 0
1 L L
; 2
R e R Re
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-18
5. D
Sol. B B B
B0 B 0
1
0
2
0
3
0
4
0 i i i
sin 90o sin 45o 0 0 (sin 45o sin 90o )
4R 2R 4R
0i 1 0 i i 1
= 1 0 1
4 R 2 2R 4R 2
i 1 1
= 0 1 2 1
4 R 2 2
0 i i
= 2 2 0 1
4 R 2R 2
6. A
Sol. K.E. of the sphere = Translational K.E + Rotational
K.E.
1 K2
= mv 2 1 2 K = Radius of gyration
2 R
2
1 1 5 2
1
2 2 100 5
35
104 J
4
7. D
Sol. I I0 cos2
2
2
I 2
x 2
cos cos
I0 2 8
I
= 0.853
I0
8. D
h
Sol. Time for collision t1
2gh
After t1
gh
VA 0 gt1
2
1
and VB 2gh gt1 gh 2
2
at the time f collision
Pi Pf
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-19
mVA mVB 2mVf
gh 1
gh 2 2Vf
2 2
Vf = 0
1 2 h 3h
and height from ground = h gt1 h
2 4 4
3h
3h
4
So time = 2
g 2g
9. A
Sol. r cos tiˆ sin tjˆ
dr
v ( sin tiˆ cos tj)
ˆ
dt
dv
a 2 (cos tiˆ sin tj)
ˆ
dt
a 2 r a is antiparallel to r
v r ( sin t cos t cos t sin t) 0
So, V r
10. A
n1c p1 n2c p2
Sol. mix
n1c v1 n2c v 2
5 7
n R 2n R
2 2
3 5
n R 2n R
2 2
5 14 19
3 10 13
11. D
0 adx
Sol. dc
d x
a a
c 0 ln(d x)0
=
0 a a 0 a 2 a
ln 1 1
d d 2d
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-20
12. B
F1 1
Sol.
F2 4
13. C
E
Sol. c
B
E=B×c
= 15 N/c
14. A
h
Sol. Initially m
2 v0
0
eE0 ˆ
Velocity as a function of time = v 0 ˆi v 0 ˆj tk
m
h
So wavelength
e2E 20 2
m 2v 02 t
m2
0
e 2E02 2
1 t
2m2 v 20
15. C
Sol. v T
v1 T1 v 2.06 10 4
v2 T2 (v / 2) T
2.06 10 4
T N = 0.515 × 104 N
4
16. D
Sol. At focus, magnification is .
17. D
2qE
Sol. V2 x
m
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-21
18. B
4 3 4
Sol. M1 R ; M2 (1)3 ( )
3 3
M X M2 X 2
Xcom 1 1
M1 M2
4 3 4 3
3 R 0 3 (1) ( ) [R 1]
(2 R)
4 3 4
R (1)3 ( )
3 3
(R 1)
(2 R) (R 1)
(R3 1)
(R 1)
2R
(R 1) (R2 R 1)
(R2 + R + 1) (2 – R) = 1
Alternative:
Mremaining (2 – R) = Mcavity (1 – R)
(R3 – 13) (2 – R) = 13 [R – 1]
(R2 + R + 1) (2 – R) = 1
19. A
Sol. Y AB A
AB A
AB A
=0+0=0
20. A
Sol. Vg = ig Rg = 0.1 V
V = 10 V
V
R Rg 1
Vg
= 100 × 99 = 9.9 K
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-22
1
g 2t 76
2
200
4 1
76 g
g 2
g = 8 m/s2
22. 486
1 1 1
Sol. RZ2 2 2
n1 n2
1 1 1 5R
R(1)2 2 2
1 2 3 36
1 1 1 3R
R(1)2 2 2
2 2 4 16
2 20
1 27
20
2 6561 Å = 4860 Å
27
= 486 nm
23. 30
Sol. V1 = 1 – I, r1
0 = 10 – I × 20
i = 0.5 A
V2 = 2 – ir2
= 10 – 0.5 × 5
V2 = 7.5 V
7.5 7.5
0.5
30 x
7.5
0.5 = 0.25 +
x
7.5 7.5
0.25 ; x 30
x 0.25
24. 16
Sol. KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf
1 GMm 1 GMm
mu02 mv 2
2 10R 2 R
2GM 1
v 2 u20 1
R 10
9 GM
v u20
5 R
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-23
2
9 (11.2)
122
5 2
25. 50
Sol. 11 + 22 = (1 + 2) 60
1 + 22 = 180 …(1)
0 × 1 + 1 × 2 + 2 × 3 = (1 + 2) 30
2 + 23 = 90 …(2)
2 × 1 + 0 × 2 + 1 × 3 = (2 + 1) 60
21 + 3 = 180 …(3)
and 1 + 2 + 3 = (1 + 1 + 1) …(4)
from (1) + (2) + (3)
31 + 32 + 33 = 450 1 + 2 + 3 = 150
From (4) equation 150 = 3 = 50°C
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-24
PART –B (CHEMISTRY)
26. C
27. C
Sol. Kjedahl’s method cannot be used to Test nitrogen in nitro and diazo present in ring
because nitrogen in nitro cannot convert into Ammonium sulphate.
28. A
Ea
Sol. k Ae RT
Ea
Log LogA 2.303RT
Ea
Slope
2.303RT
Slope c > a > d > b
Ec > Ea > Ed > Eb
29. B
Sol. kw = [H+][OH–]
Tkw
For pure water [H+] = [OH–]
kw = [H–]2 [H+] = kw
on increasing T kw [H+] pH
Dissociation of H2O is endothermic
H2 O
H OH H ve
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-25
30. D
Sol.
31. D
Sol.
32. B
Sol. [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)] & [Pt(NH3)4ClBr]2+
[M A2 BC] type [M A4 BC] type
33. A
Sol. For hydrogenation reaction catalytic activity increase because reactants are more
strongly adsorbed on group 7-9 element, So Assertion & Reason both are correct.
34. A
Sol.
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-26
35. A
Sol.
36. C
Sol.
37. C
Sol. Maltose on hydrolysis give 2 mole of -D-glucose, because in maltose glucosidic linkage
is present in between C1 & C4 of -D-glucose.
38. C
Sol.
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-27
39. D
Sol.
40. B
Sol.
41. B
Sol. AgBr show both Frenkel and Schottky defect.
42. A
Sol.
43. A
44. A
Sol.
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-28
45. D
Sol. A is having higher boiling point than B. in case of A inter molecular H-bonding is possible
while in case of B. intermolecular H-bonding is not possible hence have lower boiling
point.
46. 20.00
Sol.
47. 6.25
Sol. U = ncv T
5000 = 4 Cv(500 - 300)
Cv = 6.25 J k–1 mol–1
48. 13.00
Sol.
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-29
49. 2.15
Sol.
50. 2130.00
Sol. Moles of NaCl3 = mole of O2
PV 1 492
Mole of O2 = 20 mole
RT 0.082 300
Mass of NaClO3 = 20 106.5 = 2130 g
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-30
PART–C (MATHEMATICS)
51. C
1
Sol. T10 a 9d ………..(i)
20
1
T20 a 19d …………..(ii)
10
1 1
a ,d
200 200
200 2 199 201 1
S200 100
2 200 200 2 2
52. B
Sol.
p q ~p ~q p ~ q ~ p ~ q pq ~ p ~ q p q
T T F F T F T T
T F F T T F T T
F T T F F T T T
F F T T T F F T
53. D
Sol.
xi 10 ………….(i)
20
x i2 100 4 …………(ii)
20
x i2 104 20 2080
200 9 11 202
Actual mean
20 20
2
2080 81 121 202
Variance
20 20
2120 2
10.1 106 102.01 3.99
20
54. B
10 10 10
Sol. d.r of normal to the plane , ,
3 3 3
2 1 4
Midpoint of P and Q is , , equation of plane x y z 1
3 3 3
55. A
Sol. Vertex is at 6, 0
a 6
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-31
x2 y2
Let the hyperbola is 1
a2 b2
Putting point P (10, 16) on the hyperbola
100 256
2 1 b2 144
36 b
x2 y2
hyperbola is 1
36 144
a2 x b 2 y
equation of normal is a 2 b2
x1 y1
putting we get 2x 5y 100
56. C
1 1
Sol. Slope of tangent to x 2 y 2 1 at ,
2 2
1 1
x 2 y2 1 ,
2 2
x 2 y2 1
2x 2yy ' 0 2
x
y ' 1
y
y mx c is a tangent of x 2 y 2 1
So y x c
c3
now distance of (3, 0) from y x c is 1
2
c 2 6c 9 2
c 2 6c 7 0
57. A
Sol. Point of intersection of y x 2 and
y 2x 3 is obtained by
x 2 2x 3 0
x 3,1
1
3 2x x dx
2
So, area
3
12 32 13 33
3 4 2
2 3
28 32
12 8
3 3
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-32
58. NA
Sol. NA
59. A
Sol.
a b c a b a
a.b c a.a b a.b a
4c 6 ˆi ˆj kˆ 4 ˆi 2ˆj kˆ
4c 2iˆ 2 ˆj 2kˆ
1
c ˆi ˆj kˆ
2
1
b.c
2
60. B
x
x 2 1; x 1,2
Sol. f x
2x ; x 2, 3
x 2 1
f x is a decreasing function
2 1 6 4
y , ,
5 2 10 5
61. B
Sol. ,b 1 3 6 ....... 101
a 1 1 2 4 ........198 00
1 2 101
1 1
1 1
1 2 1 2
2
Equation x 101 1 x 101 1 0
x 2 102x 101 0
62. A
Sol. Using L’ Hospital
x sin 10x
lim 0
x 0 1
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-33
63. C
2 2
Sol. D 2 3 5
4 6
D 8 2
for 2
5 2 2
D1 8 3 5
10 2 6
5 18 10 2 48 50 2 16 30
40 4 28 0
No solution for 2
64. C
2 3
Sol.
2 6 C0 x 6 6 C2 x 4 x 2 1 6 C 4 x 2 x 2 1 6 C 6 x 2 1
6 4
2 4
2 x 15 x x 15x x 2x 1 1 3x 3x 4 x 6
6 2
2
2 32x 6 48x 4 18x 2 1
96 and 36
132
65. C
x
Sol. 2x 4by ' b
2y '
2
2x 2 x
So, differential equation is x .y
y y
2 2
2x
2 x dy dy
x . y x 2y x
y y dx dx
66. A
Sol. x 2 2xy 3y 2 0
x 2 3xy xy 3y 2 0
x y x 3y 0
xy 0 x 3y 0
(2, 2) satisfy x y 0
Normal x y
4
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-34
Hence x y 4
004
Perpendicular distance from origin 2 2
2
004
2 2
2
67. B
2x 2
Sol. Characteristics equation of matrix ‘A’ is 0 x 2 6x 10 0
9 4x
A 2 6A 10I 0
10A 1 A 6I
68. B
2
Sol. P (exactly one)
5
2
P A P B 2P A B
5
1
P A B
2
1
P A P B P A B
2
1 2 54 1
P A B
2 5 10 10
69. B
1
Sol. f x
2x 3 9x 2 12x 4
f 'x
1
6x 2
18x 12
3
2
2x 3 9x 2 12x 4 2
6 x 1 x 2
3
3 2
2 2x 9x 12x 4 2
1 1
f 1 , f 2
3 8
1 1
I
3 8
70. B
Sol. Let 3 x t
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JEE-MAIN-2019 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-35
t t 1 2 t 1 t 2
ta
3x a
x log3 a so singleton set
71. 3
3 2
Sol. Let f x ax bx cx d
1 35
a d
4 4
3 9
b c
4 4
f x a x 3x 2 9x d
3
3 2
f 'x
4
x 2x 3
f ' x 0 x 3, 1
72. 0.5
Sol. 2ty x t 2
Q t 2 ,0
0 0 1
1 2
t t 1 4
2 2
t 0 1
3
t 8
t 2 t 0
1
m
2
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JEE-MAIN-2020 (8th Jan-Second Shift)-PCM-36
73. 504
1 7
Sol.
3 2
2n 3n n
4 n1
2
1 7.8 7.8.15 7.8
2 3 6 2
4 2
1
4
2 49 16 28 15 28
1
4
1568 420 28 504
74. 2454
Sol. EXAMINATION
2N, 2A, 2I, E, X, M, T, O
8!
Case I All the different so 8 P4 8.7.6.5 1680
4!
4!
Case II 2 same and 2 different so 3 C1 . 7 C2 . 3.21.12 756
2!
3 4!
Case III 2 same and 2 same so C2 . 3.6 18
2!.2!
Total = 1680 + 756 + 18 = 2454
75. 1
2 sin 1 2 sin 1
Sol. and
2 cos 7 2 10
1
tan
7
1
sin
10
1
tan
3
1 2
2.
3
tan 2 3 3
1 8 4
1
9 9
1 3 4 21
tan tan 2
tan 2 7 4 28 1
1 tan tan 2 1 1 . 3 25
7 4 26
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