ENG\NEERlNG SERV1CES

EXAM\NATlON-(P)2018
DO NOT OPh'N 1'HlS TEST BOOiaET UNTIL YOU ARF: TOLIJ TO DO SO

T.B.C. : SKP-D-CVL Test Booklet Series

Serial No. TEST BOOKLET

C.TVIL ENGINEERING
A
Time Ailowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IM1'4EDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. PLEASE NOTE THAT IT IS THE CANDIDATE'S RESPONSffiiLITY TO ENCODE AND FILL
IN THE ROLL NUMBER AND TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A, B, C OR D CAREFULLY
AND WITHOUT ANY OMISSION OR DISCREPANCY AT THE APPROPRIATE PLACES
IN THE OMR ANSWER SHEET. ANY OMISSION /DISCREPANCY WILL RENDER THE
ANSWER SHEET LIABLE FOR REJECTION.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
I
write a11ything else on the Test Booklet. ..._
_ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ ____,
4. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers).
You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case, you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator o11ly the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet. · '
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for ｷｲｯｾｧ＠ Answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0·33) of the marks assigned
to that· question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank i.e., no auswer is given by the ｣ｾｮｲｬｩ｡ｴ･ Ｌ＠ there will be no penalty
for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL. YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

www.examrace.com
 1. Consider the following statements for
selecting building stones :
1. Seasoning of stones is essential and
is done by soaking in water
2. Specific gravity uf stone is to be
more than 2 ·7
3. Porosity of stone affects its dura-
bility
4. Climatic conditions decide the type
of stone to be used in constmction
Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
• 2. Consider the following statements:
1. Hydrophobic cement grains posses-
ses low wetting ability
2. Rapid-hardening cement is useful in
concreting under static, or running
water
3. Quick-setting cement helps concrete
to attain high strength in the initial
period
4. White cement is just a variety of
ordinary cement free of colouring
oxides
Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. The yield of concrete per bag ·of cement
for a concrete mix proportion of 1 : 1·5 : 3
(with adopting 3" as the coefficient) is
(a) 0·090 m3
(b) 0·128 m3
(c) 0·135 m3
(d) 0·146 m3
5. Consider the following statements :
1. Workability of concrete increases
with the increase in the proportion
of water content
2. Concrete having small-sized aggre-
gates is more workable than th.a t
containing large-sized aggregate
3. For the same quantity of water,
rounded aggregates produce a more
workable concrete mix as compared
to angular and flaky aggregates
4. A concrete .mix with no slump
shown in the slump cone test indi-
cates its very poor workability
Which of the above statements are
correct?

3. Consider the following statements: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

1. Rich mtxes are less prone to (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
bleeding than lean ones
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. Bleeding can be reduced by
increasing the fineness of ｣･ｭｾｮｴ＠ (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Slzy-D-CVL - A 2

www.examrace.com
6. A steel wire of 20 mm diameter is 2td
bent into a ctrcuiar shape of 1U m (o)
z2
radius. If E, the modulus of elasticity,
is 2 x 106 kg/cm2, then the maximum
tensile stress induced in the wire ts, 4td
(b)
nearly z2
(a) 2 x 103 k"elr.m2 '
'l5td
(c)
(b) 4 x 10 kg/cm2 3
z2
(c) 2 x 104 kgfcm2
16td
(d)
(d) 4 x 104 kgfcm2 z2

7. The stress-strain curve for an ideally

plastic material is 9. If strains on a piece of metal are
sx = -120 f-l mlm, ·sy = -30 f-l m/m, and
(a) r = 120 f-l mlm, what is the maximum .
principal strain ?
stressV
(a) 0
Strajn
(b)
(b) 50 pm/m
StressV'
(c) 75 pm/m
Strain
(c)

Stress r--------- Strain

(d) 150 f-l m /m

10. The state of stress at a point is given

by : <Yx = 80 MPa, <Yy = 100 MPa and
(d) r"Y = 60 MPa. If the yield strength for the

ｓｴｲ･ｳｾ＠
material is 150 MPa, as determined in a
uniaxial test, then the maximum shear
stress is, nearly
Strain
(a) ＱｾＰﾷＸ＠ MPa
8. A long rod of uniform rectangular section
with thickness t, originally straight, is
(b) 127·4 MPa
bent into the form of a circular arch
with displacement d at the mid-point
of span l. The displacement d may be (c) 119·3 MPa
regarded as small as compared to the
length l. The longitudinal surface strain ts (d) 104·0 M!'a

3 A - SKP-D-CVL
www.examrace.com
11. P1incipal stresses at a point in an elastic 14. The required diameter for a solid shaft
material are 1·5 a (tensile), a (tensile) to transmit 400 kW at 150 rpm, with
and 0·5 a (compressive). The elastic limit the working shear stress not to exceed
in tension is 210 MPa and J1 = 0·3. The 80 MN/m 2, is nearly
value of a at failure when computed
by maximum p1incipal strain theory is, (a) 125 mm
nearly (b) 121 rrnn
(a) 140·5 MPa
(b) 145·5 MPa (c) 117 mm
(c) 150·5 MPa (d) 113 mm
(d) 155·5 MPa
15. An RCC column of 4 m length is rigidly
12. connected to the slab and to the founda-
250N
tion. Its cross-section is (400x400) mm2 .
The column will behave as a/an
O·Sm
(a) Long column
c (b) Short column
M-- 1·2 m ＭＱＪ Ｑ ｾＱＭ l· 2 m
(c) Intermediate column
A horizontal bar of 40 mm diameter solid (d) Linkage
section is 2-40 m long and is rigidly held
at both ends so that no angular rotation
occurs axially or circumferentially at the 16.
ends (as shown in figure). The maximum
tensile stress in the bar is nearly. lOON
(a) 12·2 N/mm2
(b) 13·7 N/mm2
(c) 15·2 N/mm2
(d) 16·7 N/mm2

13. A solid shaft A of diameter D and length The shear force diagram of a single
L is subjected to a torque T; another overhanging beam is shown in figure.
shaft B of the same material and of the One simple support is at end A. The
same length, but half the diameter, is 'total' downward load acting on the
also subjected to the same torque T. The beam is
ratio between the angles of twist of
shaft B to that of shaft A is (a) 800 N
(a) 32 (b) 600 N
(b) 16
(c) 400 N
(c) 8
(d) 4 (d) 200 N

SKP-D-CVL - A 4

www.examrace.com
17. ThP. rlftfmmation of a Vyttically held bar
of length L and cross-section A is due to
its self-weight only. If Young's modulus
is E and the unit weight of the bar is y,
the elongation dL is
20. In the case of a rectangular beam
subjected to a trausverse shcariug ｦｵｴｾＮ｣Ｌ＠
the ratio of maximum shear stress to
average shear stress is
(a) 0·75

(b) 1·00

(c) 1·25
EL2
(b)
2y (d) 1·50

yL2
(c) 2E 21.
80 kN

yL2
(d) 2AE
H

18. For a material, the modulus of rigidity 8 m -----..j

is 100 GPa and the modulus of elasticity
is 250 GPa. The value of the Poisson's The horizontal thrust of the three-hinged
ratio is arch loaded as shown in the figure is
(a) 0·20
(a) 20 kN
(b) 0·25
(c) 0·30 (b) 30 kN

(d) 0·35 (c) 40 kN

19. Two persons weighing W each are sitting (d) 50 kN

on a plank of length L floating on water,

at L from either
4 . end . Neglectmg
. th e
22. Each span of a two-span continuous
beam of uniform flexural rigidity is 6 m.
weight of the plank, the bending moment All three supp01ts are simple supports.
at the middle point of the plank is It carries a uniformly distributed load of
20 kN/m over the left span only. The
(a) WL moment at the middle support is
16
(a) 90 kNm Sagging
(b) WL
64 (b) 45 kNm Hogging
(c) WL (c) 90 kNm Hogging
8
(d) Zero (d) 45 kNm Sagging

5 A - SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
23. T (a) F

wjm
F
ｾ＠ (b) .fi.
-A ＧｾＫＭ

A fixed beam is loaded as in figure. The (c) .fi.F

fixed end moment at support A is
(d) 2F
wL2
(a) 30
26. An important building is located in
wL2 earthquake zone V in India. The seismic
(b) 20 weight of the building is 10000 kN and it
is designed by ductility considerations.
The spectral acceleration factor for this
structure is 2·5. The base shear for this
structure is
wL2
(d) (a) 1350 kN
8

24. For a plane truss member, the length is (b) 5000 kN

2 m, E = 200 GPa and area of cross-
. section is 200 mm2. The stiffness matrix (c) 10000 kN
coefficient K 11 with reference to its local
axis is (d) 25000 kN

(a) 200 N/m

(b) 2 x 107 N/m 27. An RCC slab (M 25 grade), of dimensions
5 m x 5 m x 0· 15 m, is supported on four
(c) 4 x 107 N/m square columns (M 25 grade) of side
400 mm, the clear height of each column
(d) 400 N/m
being 3 m. Assuming rigid connections,
the fundamental time period of vibration
25. of the slab along the horizontal direction
is nearly

(a) 4·12 s

(b) 2·80 s

(c) 0·50 s
For the truss shown in the figure, the
force in the ｭ･ｨｾｲ＠ PQ is (d) 0·07 s

SKP-D-CVL- A 6
www.examrace.com
28. ｃｯｵｾｩｬｲ＠ tho following statements
regarding suspension cables :
1. The horizontal component of the
cable tension in a suspension bridge
is constant at every point along the
leneth 0f the cable
2. Stiffening girders in a suspension
bridge carry only the live load
Which of the above statements is I are
correct?
30. Consider the following statements with
reference to the ｕｌＺ ｾ ｪ ｧｮ＠ of \Velcied
tension members:
1. The entire cross-sectional area of
the connected leg is assumed to
contribute to the effective area m
tlte L-ase of angles
2. Two angles, back-to-back and tack-
welded as per the codal require-
ments, may be assumed to behave
as a tee-section

(a) 1 only 3. A check on slenderness ratio may

be necessary in some cases
(b) 2 only
Which of the above statements are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

29.
A (El)Beam = 5000 kNm2 B
(c) 2 and 3 only
ｾＭ 2m ----.(2-,

(d) 1, 2 and 3

31. A steel column is pinned at both ends

The fundamental time period of vibration
and has a buckling load of 200 kN. If
of the system shown in the figure, by
the column is restrained against lateral
neglecting the self weight of the beam,
movement at its mid-height, its buckling
is nearly
load will be

(a) 0·2 sec (a) ·100 kN

(b) 0·8 sec (b) 200 kN

(c) 1·4 sec (c) 400 kN

(d) 2·8 sec (d) 800 kN

7 A- SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
32. Consider the following statements in (a) 0·27 L
respect of column splicing:
(b) 0·39 L
1. Splices should be provided close to
(c) 0·45 L
the point of inflection in a member
(d) 0·58 L
2. Splices should be located near to
the point of lateral restraint in a
35. A single angle of thickness 10 mm is
member
connected to a gusset by 6 numbers of
3. Machined columns for pe1fect 18 mm diameter bolts, with pitch of
bearing would need splices to be 50 mm and with edge distance of
designed for axial force only 30 mm. The net area in block shear
along the line of the transmitted force is
Which of the above state11.1ents are
con-ect? (a) 1810 mm2
(b) 1840 mm2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1920 mm2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1940 mm2
(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 3 6. Consider the following statements for the

design of a laced column :
33. Buckling of the compression flange of a 1. In a bolted construction, the mini-
girder, without transverse stiffeners, can mum width of the lacing bar shall
be avoided if (with standard notations) be three times the nominal diameter
of the end bolt
2. The thickness of the flat of a single
lacing system shall be not less than
one-fortieth of its effective length
3. The angle of inclination of the
lacing bar should be less than 40°
d with the axis of the built-up column
(c) - ｾ＠ 270 Ew
tw 4. The lacing shall be designed for a
transverse shear of 2·5% of the
d axial load on the column
(d) - ｾ＠ 250 Ew
tw Which of the above statements are
COITeCt?
34. A simply supported steel beam of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
rectangular section and of span L ｩｾ＠
subjected to a uniformly distributed load. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
The length of the plastic hinge by
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
considering moment ratio of 1·5 will be
nearly (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

SKP-D-CVL- A 8

www.examrace.com
37. The pem1issible bending compressive 41. Double-pitched roof trusses of span
strength tor M 25 grade uf C011trele ｩｾ＠ 20 m and 1isf'. 7 · ') m are placed at 8 m
8·5 N/mm2. Its shmt-term and long-term spacing. The maximum live load reaction
modular ratios are, nearly at the supports is nearly

(a) 8 and 11 (a) 36 kN

(b) 8 and 8 (b) 40 kN

(o) ｾＶ＠ 1r..N
(c) 11 and 11
(d) 60 kN
(d) 11 and 6 .

42. Ground motion during earthquake is

38. The ultimate load carrying capacity of a random in nature. For the purpose of
short circular column of 300 mm
analysis, it can be converted into
diameter with 1% helical reinforcement
different hannonic ･ｸ｣ ｩｾｴｯｮｳ＠ through
of Fe 415 grade steel and concrete of
M 20 grade, is nearly (a) Fourier series

(a) 451 kN (b) Newton's second law

(b) 500 kN (c) Duhamel's integral

(d) Time se1ies analysis
(c) 756 kN
(d) 794 kN 43. An RCC structure with fundamental time
period of 1·2 sec vibrates at a forcing
39. In a cantilever retaining wall, the main frequency of 10 rad/sec. The maximum
steel reinforcement is provided dynamic displacement is X% of static
displacement. The value of X is
(a) On ｴｬｈ ｾ＠ backfill side, in the ve1tical
direction (a) 10·1

(b) On both, inner and outer, faces (b) 28·9

(c) 37·7
(c) In horizontal as well as in vertical
directions (d) 50·2
(d) To counteract shear stresses
44. A steel building has plan dimensions of
50 m x 50 m and it is 120m tall. It is
40. Design strength for M 25 concrete in provided with brick infill panels. The
direct compression, bending compression approximate fundamental time period of
and flexural tension are, respectively the building is
(a) 10 MPa, 11·15 MPa and 3·5 MPa (a) 1·53 sec
(b) 25 MPa, 11 · 15 MPa and 3 MPa (b) 2·72 sec
(c) 10 MPa, 12·5 MPa and 3·5 MPa (c) 3·08 sec
(d) 25 MPa, 11-15 Ml'a and 2·57 MPa (d) ｾﾷＱＵ＠ sec

9 A- SKP-D-CV·L

www.examrace.com
45. A masonry structure has a prism 48. A soil sample has an average grain
strength of 10 N/nm12 with f.l = 0·25. The diameter as 0 ·03 mm. The size of
modulus of elasticity and the shear interstices is one-eighth of the mean
modulus of the masomy are, respectively grain diameter. Considering a of water
as 0·075 g /cm, the water will rise in the
(a) 5500 MPa and 2200 MPa
clay to a height of
(b) 2000 MPa and 2200 MPa
(a) 2·4 m
(c) 5500 MPa and 1000 MPa

(d) 2000 MPa and 1000 MPa (b) 3·0 m

46. The surface tension in a soap bubble (c) 3·6 m

of 20 mm diameter, when the inside
pressure is 2·0 N/m 2 above atmosphetic (d) 4·0 m
pressure, 1s

(a) 0·025 N/m 49. A jet of water has a diameter of 0·3 em.
The absolute smface tension of water is
(b) 0·0125 N/m
0·072 N/m and atmosphe1ic pressure is
(c) 5 x 10- 3 N/m 101·2 kN/m2. The absolute pressure
within the jet of water will be
(d) 4·25 x 10- 3 N/m
(a) 101·104 kN/m2
4 7. Consider the following statements
regarding labour welfare : (b) 101·152 kN/m2
1. Work prompted by mere sympathy
and kindness may degenerate and (c) 101·248 kN/m2
may injure the worker's sense of
self-respect (d) 101·296 kN/m2

2. Rapid industrialization on a large

scale poses problems in respect of 50. A glass tube of 2·5 mm intemal diameter
labour and its welfare is immersed in oil of mass · density
940 kg/m3 to a depth of 9 mm. If a
3. Construction labour is still largely
pressure of 148 N/m 2 is needed to form
unorganized, and, hence, lacks m
a bubble which is just released, what is
welfare measures
the surface tension of the oil ?
Which of the above statements are
correct? (a) 0·041 N/m
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 0·043 N/m
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 0·046 .N/m
(c) 1, 2 and 3

(9) 2 and 3 only (d) 0·050 N/m

SKP-D-CVL- A 10

www.examrace.com
51. In a rectangular open channel, 2·0 m
ｷ ｩ ｣ｩ ･ｾ＠ water flow<> M fl ｣ｩｾｰｴｨ＠ of 0·8 m.
It discharges over an aerated sharp-
crested weir over the full width, with
depth over weir crest being 0·25 m.
Cc = 0·61. Adjusting for velocity head of
approach, what would be the ､ｩｾｴＺｨ｡ｲ ｧ･＠
through the channel ? .J2i = 4-43 units
54. In a siphon, the summit is 5 m above the
water level in the tank from which the
flow is being discharged. If the head loss
from the inlet to the summit is 2·5 m and
the velocity head at the summit is 0·5 m,
(taking r = 10 appropiiate units) . the
pressure head at the summit is
(a) -.80 kPa

(a) 0-439 m3/sec (b) -3 m of water (abs)

(b) 0-445 m3/sec (c) 5 m of water (abs)

(c) 0·453 m3/sec (d) 18 m of water (abs)

(d) 0-461 m3/sec 55. The stream function of a doublet with

horizontal axis and of ｳｾ･ｮｧｴｨ＠ p is

52. A steady, two dimensional, incompres-

sible flow field is represented by
u = x + 3y + 3 and v = 2x - y - 8
In this flow field, the stagnation point is
(b) ....!!:_cos e
(a) (3, 2)
2nr

(b) (-3, 2)
(c) l!:_r sine
2n
(c) (- 3, - 2)

(d) (3, - 2) J..t sine

(d) -2n -r-

53. If the energy present in a jet of water

of 20 em diameter and having a velocity 56. A vertical cylindrical tank, 2 m diameter
has, at the bottom, a 5 em diameter,
of 25 m/s could be extracted by a device
with 90% efficiency, the power extracted sharp-edged orifice, for which cd = 0·6.
would be nearly Water enters the tank at a constant rate
of 9 !/sec. At what depth above the
2
1 orifice will the level in the tank become
taking - - = 0·051 sec )
( 2g m steady?

(a) 180 kW (a) 2·95 m

(b) 225 kW (b) 2·75 m

(c) 260 kW (c) 2·60 m

(d) 300 leW (d) ?·')0 m

11 A - SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
57. A transmitter antenna is of a vertical 60. If 8 1 and 82 are the laminar boundary
pipe, 20 em diameter and 25 m height, layer thicknesses at a ｰｾｩｮｴ＠ M distant
on top of a tall structure. It is subjected x from the leading edge when the
to wind speed of 20 m/sec. Density Reynolds number of the flow are 100
of air is 1·22 kg/m3; its viscosity is and 484, respectively, then the ratio
1·8 x 10- 5 Ns/m2. Drag t:oefficient of a 81 will be
(tall) circular cylinder is tabulated as
82
2 3 3 4 4 5 5
Re 10 10 1-3>< 10 10 1·5>< 10 1·06>< 10 1·2>< 10 4·5>< 10
5 (a) 2·2
Cv 1·6 1·05 0·95 1·0 1·08 1·0 0·89 0·26 (b) 4·84

What is the drag experienced ? (c) 23-43

(a) 737 N (d) 45-45
(b) 700 N
61. In a 90° triangular notch, the error in the
(c) 670 N estimated discharge for a given head
(d) 63 N due to an error of 1% in cutting the
vertex angle is
58. A smooth flat plate with a sharp leading
edge is placed along a free stream of (a) zero
water flowing ｡ｾ＠ 2·5 m/sec. At what (b) 1%
distance from the leading edge will the
boundary layer transition from laminar (c) n%
to turbulent flow ? Take density of water 2
as 1000 kgfm3 and its viscosity as (d) n%
1 centipoise. Also, what will be the
boundary layer thickness at that 62. Consider the following statements :
distance?
1. All soils can be identified in the
(a) 12·8 em and 0· 113 em
field by visual examination
(b) 14·2 em and 0·113 em
2. Fine-grained soils can be identified
(c) 12·8 em and 0·125 em in the field by visual examination
(d) 14·2 em and 0·125 em and touch

59. What is the rotational speed in rpm of 3. Fine-grained soils can be identified
a 0·8 m diameter cylindrical container, in the field by dilatancy test
held with axis vertical1 if the fluid 4. Ry ｶｩｳ ｵ ［Ｚｾ＠ 1 ｾｘｃＧｉｭｩｮ｡ｴｯＬ＠ only coarse-
contained in it rises to 0·6 m height grained soils can be identified
at the sides and leaves a circular
Which of the above statements are
sp.ace 0· 3 m diameter on the bottom
correct?
uncovered?
(a) 90·2 rpm (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 88-4 rpm (b) · 2 and 3 only

(c) 86·0 rpm (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 83·7 rpm (d) 1 and 4 only

SKP-D-CVL - A . 12

www.examrace.com
63. An open channel is of isosceles niangle
shape, with stde slopes 1 vm LiL-al and n
horizontal. The ratio of the critical depth
to specific energy at ctitical depth will
be
65. A 2 m wide rectangular channel carries
a ､ｩｳｈｮ ﾷ ｰ［･ ｾ＠ of 10 m3/s. What would be
the depth of flow if the Froude number
of the flow is 2 ·0 ?
(a) 1·72 m

2 (b) 1·36m
(a) :5
(c) 0·86 111

(d) 0·68 m
(b) 3
4
66. M 3 Profile is indicated by which of the
following conditions ?
(c) 4
5 (a) Yo > Yc > Y

(b) Y > Yo > Yc

(d) 5
6 (c) Yc > Yo > Y

(d) Y > Yc >Yo

64. A 3 B
67. Floating logs of wood tend to move
10 7 4d 4 7
to the mid-river reach on the water
surface. This is due to
£)
ｾ＠
5Q2 3Q-
(a) Least obstruction from the banks
2Q2 c
D
(b) 2-cell transverse circulation in the
8, 1 5 flow

(c) Fastest velocity along the mid-river

A pipe network is shown with all needful reach
input data to compute the first iteration
(d) Near-symmetry of the isovels
improved magnitudes of the initially
across the section is conducive to
assumed flows in the branches. What
principle of least work
will be the such improved flow magni-
tudes in branches AB and CD ? Consider
to first decimal accuracy. 68. The sequent depth ratio in a rectangular
channel is 14. The Froude number of the
(a) A to B : 5 · 1; C to D : 3 · 1 supercritical flow will be

(a) 6·62
(b) A to B : 5·7; C to D : 2 ·8
(b) 7·55
(c) A to B : 4·9; C to D : 3-4 (c) 8-45

(d) A to 1J : ) ·5; C to D . J ·8 (d) ] 0·?,:1

13 A - SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
69. In a hydraulic jump, the depths on the 73. The work done by a kN of water jet
two sides are 0-4 m and 1-4 m. The moving with a velocity of 60 m/sec when
head loss in the jump is nearly it impinges on a series of vanes moving
(a) 0·45 m in the same direction with a velocity of
9 m/sec is
(b) 0·65 m
(c) 0·80 m (a) 60·2 kN m
(d) 0·90 m (b) 55·6 kN m

70. A 20 em centrifugal pump runs at 1400 rpm (c) 46·8 kN m

delivering 0·09 m3Jsec against a head of (d) 45·0 kN m
45 m with an efficiency of 87%. What is
its non-dimensional specific speed using 74. The velocity heads of water at the inlet
1ps as the relevant data component ? and outlet sections of a draft tube are
(a) 0·482 3·5 m and 0·3 m, respectively. The fiic-
(b) 0·474 tional and other losses in the draft tube can
be taken as 0·5 m. What is the efficiency
(c) 0-466
of the draft tube ?
(d) 0·458
(a) 84·4%
71. Two identical centrifugal pumps are
(b) 80·0%
connected in parallel to a common
delivery pipe of a system. The discharge (c) 77·1%
performance curve of each of the pumps (d) 74·4%
is represented by H = 30 - 80Q2 . The
discharge-head equation of the parallel
75. Which of the following situations can
duplex pump set is
be attributed to sustained excessive
(a) H= 30- ＸＰｾ＠ groundwater pumping in a basin ?
(b) H = 15 Ｍ ＲＰｾ＠
1. Drying up of small lakes and
(c) H= 30 Ｍ ＲＰｾ＠ streams over a period in spite of
(d) H = 15- ＸＰｾ＠ normal rainfall

72. Consider the following data relating to 2. Deterioration of groundwater quality

the performance of a centrifugal pump : in certain aquifers
speed = 1200 rpm, flow rate = 30 lis, 3. Land subsidence in the basin
head = 20 m, and power = 5 k W. If
4. Increase in seismic activity
the speed of the pump is increased to
1500 rpm, assuming the efficiency is 5. Increased cost of groundwater
unaltered, the ｮ･ｾ＠ flow rate and head, extraction
respectively, will be
(a) 2 and 4 only
(a) 46·9 !Is and 25·0 m
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 37·5 lis and 25·0 m
(c) 46·91/s and ＳＱ ｾ Ｓ＠ m (c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 37·5 lis and 31·3 m (cl) 1 and 5 only

SKP-D-CVL- A . 14

www.examrace.com
76. Horton's infiltration equation was fitted Which of the above statements are
to data from an infiltration test. 1t was corrcot?
found that the initial infiltration capacity
was 20 mm/h, final infiltration capacity (a) 1 and 3 only
was 5 mm/h and the exponential decay
t:unstant was 0· 5 h- 1• If the infiltration (b) 2 and 4 only
was at capacity rates, the total infiltration
depth fur a uuiform 3totm of 10 h rlnr(J- (c) 2 and 3 only
tion would be
(d) 1 and 4 only

(a) 80 mm
78.

(b) 50 mm

(c) 30 mm
7777\\\7

(d) 20 mm Consider the occurrence of a surge at

77. Consider the following statements regard-
ing turbines :
1. The main function of a governor is
to maintain a constant speed even
as the load on the turbine fluctuates
the water surface of a wide rectangular
channel flow, as in the figure, where· the
one-dimensionally considered velocities
are v 1 and v2 and the depths are d 1 and
d2 , with the surge height h, whereby
d 2 - d 1 = h, moving at a speed of Vw
over depth d 1• Joint application of conti-
nuity and momentum principles will
indicate the surge front speed Vw' to be

2. In the case of Pelton turbines, the (a) Vw = ｾｧ､ Ｑ＠ (1 + ｾ＠ 2 ｾｊｴ＠ dl

governor closes or opens the wicket
gates

3. In the case of Francis turbines, the

governor opens or closes the needle
valve I

(c) Vw ｾ＠ ｾｧ､ Ｑ＠ (I+:]:

4. In the case of a Kaplan turbine, the
governor swings the runner blades
appropriately in addition to further
closing or further opening of the
wicket gates

15 A - SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
79. Which of the following will pose
difficulties in adopting u.h.g. ptinciples
and. processes in evaluating flood hydro-
graphs of basins?
1. Non-uniform areal distt.ibution within
a stonn
2. Intensity variation within a stmm
81. Groundwater flows through an aquifer
with a cross-sectional area of 1·0 x 104 m2
and a length of 1500 m. Hydraulic heads
are 300 m and 250 m at the groundwater
entry and exit points in the aquifer,
respectively. Groundwater discharges into
a stTeam at the rate of 750 m3/day. Then
the hydraulic conductivity of the aquifer is

3. The centre of the storm varying

(a) 1·50 m/day
from stonn to storm in case of
large catchments
(b) 2·25 m /day
4. Dividing into a number of sub-
basins and routing the ｩｮｾｶ､ｵ｡ｬ＠ (c) 3·50 m /day
DRHs through their respective
channels to obtain the composite (d) 4·25 m /day
DRH at the basin outlet
5. Large storages within the catchment 82. A hydraulic turbine develops 5000 kW
under a head of 30 m when running at
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
100 rpm. This turbine be_longs to the
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only category of
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
(a) Pelton wheel
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) Francis Turbine
80. Rainfall of magnitude 4· 3 em, followed
by 3·7 em, occurTed on two consecutive (c) Kaplan Turbine
4 h durations on a catchment area of
25 km2, and there resulted a DRH (after (d) Propeller Thrbine
isolation of base flow in the flood flow
hydrograph) with the following ordinates
starting from the beginning of the 83. The rate of rainfall for the successive
rainfall. (Adopt trapezoidal formula) 30 min periods of a 3-hour storm are :
1·6, 3·6, 5·0, 2·8, 2·2 and 1·0 em/hour.
Time 0 4 8 12 16 20 24 28 32 36 40 44 The corresponding surface runoff is
(hours) estimated to be 3·2 em. Then, the ¢
DRII 0 9 16 20 20 17·8 13·4 9·4 6·2 3·7 1·8 0 index is
(ordi-
ｮｾｴ･＠
m3 sec)
(a) 1·5 cm/h
What is the ¢ index value ?
(a) 0·149 cm / h (b) 1·8 cm/h
(b) 0·155 cm/h
(c) 2·1 cm/h
(c) 0·161 cm/h
(d) 0·167cm/h (d) 2·4 Clll/h

SKP-D-CVL- A 16

www.examrace.com
84. For stability analysis of slopes of purely
cohesive soils, the cnhcal cenn·e i!:i l.ulu:w
to lie at the intersection of
(a) The perpendicular bisector of the
slope and the locus of the centre
86. Annual rainfall values at station A in mm
for the ｙｐＭ ｾｲ＠ 2001 to 2010 are given in
the table below. If simple central 3-year
moving mean of this rainfall record is
calculated, the maximum and minimum
values in the moving mean list would be

Year 200 1 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 20 10
(b) The perpendicular drawn at the Annual
one-third slope from the toe and the Rainfall
Pat 586 621 618 639 689 6 10 59 1 604 621 650
locus of the centre station
A (mm)

(c) The perpendicular drawn at the (a) 689 mm and 602 rnm
two-third slope fi·om the toe and the (b) 649 mm and 602 mm
locus of the centre
(c) 689 mm and 586 mm

(d) Directional angles (d) 649 rnm and 586 rnm

87. Kl1osla 's formulae for assessing pressure

85. Consider the following statements regard-
ing water logging :
1. Water logging is the nse of
groundwater table leading to
possible increase in salinity resulting
in a reduction in the yield of crops
2. Water logging cannot be eliminated
in certain areas but can be
controlled only if the quantity of
water percolating into that soil is
checked and reduced
Which of the above statements is/are
conect?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
distribution under weir floors are based
on
(a) Potential flow in pe1meable layers
just beneath the floors
(b) Boundary layer flow with pressure
drop longitudinally
(c) Conformal transformation of poten-
tial flow into the w plane
(d) Simplification of 3-D flow
88. In a siphon aqueduct, the worst condition
of uplift on the floor occurs when
(a) The canal is full and the drainage is
empty, with water table at drainage
bed level
(b) The canal IS empty and the
drainage is full, with water table at
. drainage bed level
(c) Both the canal and the drainage
are full
(d) The canal IS empty and the
drainage is full, with water table
udow the floor

17 A- SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
89. Zero hardness of water is achieved by 93. Consider the following statements regard-
ing groundwa ter pollutants :
(a) Lime-soda process
1. Most of the groundwa ters are
(b) Ion exchange treatment
generally non-alkaline
(c) Excess lime treatment
· 2. A moderate amount of fluoride,
(d) Excess alum dosage about 0·6 mgll to 1·5 mg/l, in
drinking water, would help in good
90. Five-days BOD of a 10% diluted sample developm ent of teeth
having D 0 = 6·7 mg/l, Ds = 2 mg/l
· 3. Natural waters do not have
and consumpt ion of oxygen in blank =
dissolved mineral matter in them
0·5 mgll, will be
Which of the above statements is /are
(a) 22 mg/l
correct?
(b) 42 mg/l
(a) 1 only
(c) 62 mgll
(b) 2 only
(d) 82 mg/l
(c) 3 only
91. Which one of the following statement s (d) 1, 2 and 3
related to testing of water for municipal
use is correctly applicable ? 94. Consider the following statements
(a) Pseudo-hardness is due to presence regarding anchorage of pipelines con-
of fluoride in water veying water :

(b) When alkalinity ::=:: total hardness, 1. At bends, pipes tend to pull apatt
Carbonate hardness in mg ll = Total 2. At bends, forces exerted on the
hardness in mg/l joints due to .longitudinal shearing
(c) Bicarbonate alkalinity = total alkali- stresses are enormous and the joints
nity - (carbonate alkalinity - may get loosened
hydroxide alkalinity) 3. To avoid problems by hydrodynamic
(d) Hydroxide alkalinity = Carbonate effects, pipes are anchored using
alkalinity + Bicarbona te alkalinity concrete blocks which absorb side
thrusts at bends
92. The capacity of a service reservoir in a 4. Pipes are also anchored on steep
campus should cater to slopes
(a) Sum total of balancing storage, Which of the above statements are
breakdown storage and fire reserve correct?
(b) Sum total of balancing storage and (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
fire reserve
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Sum total of breakdown storage and
fire reserve (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) Balancing storage only (d) 1, 2, 3 ami 4

SKP-D-C VL- A 18

www.examrace.com
95. Consider the following statements with 97. The purpose of re-carbonation after
reference to biueuergy al:l u rcncwublo ｷｃｬｴｾｲ＠ ::\Oftenin(i by the lime-soda process
energy source : is the
1. Plants ensure continuous supply of (a) Removal of excess soda from the
gas ､ｵｾ＠ to their continuous growth water
2. Cost of obtaining energy from (b) Removal of non-carbonate hardness
biogas is less than that from fossil in the water
fuels
(c) Recovery of lime from the water
3. Digestion of sludge may ·produce
H 2S and NOx which are injurious (d) Conversion of precipitates to soluble
to human health forms in the water
4. 'Floating dome' installation is the
preferred option as it supplies. gas 98. Environmental flow of a river refers
at constant pressure irrespective of to the quantity, quality and timing of
the flow
quantity of gas produced
Which of the above statements are (a) Required in the river to. sustain the
correct? river ecosystem
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) Required to maintain healthy eco-
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only logical conditions in the command
area of a river ､･ｶｬｾｰｭｮｴ＠ project
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Generated by the ecosystem of the
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
catchment of the river
96. Consider the following statements (d) As the minimum requirement to
regarding waste stabilization ponds : support the cultural practices of the
1. The pond has a symbiotic process community living on the banks of
of waste stabilization through algae the river
on one hand and bacteiia on the
other 99. The moisture content of a certain
Municipal Solid Waste with the following
2. The oxygen in the pond is provided composition will be
by algae through photosynthesis
3. The detention period is of the order Wet, Dry,
of two to three days %weight %weight
Food waste 10 03
4. The bactex:ia which develop in the Paper 35 30
pond are aerobic bacteria Yard waste 20 10
Which of the above statements are Others 35 20
correct?
(a) 100%
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 63%
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 37%
(d) 1 and 4 only (d) n%

19 · A - SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
100. Consider the following statements: 102. A sand sample has a porosity of 30%
and specific gravity of solids as 2·6.
1. When a soil sample is chied beyond
What is its degree of saturation at
its shrinkage limit, the volume of the
moisture content of 4·94% ?
soil slowly decreases
2. Plastic limit is always lower than (a) 40%
the liquid limit for any type of soil (b) 35%
3. At the liquid limit, the soil behaves
(c) 30%
like a liquid and possesses no shear
strength at all (d) 25%
4. When subjected to drying, the volume
of the soil remains unchanged once 103. What will be the unit weight of a fully
the water content of the soil goes saturated soil sample having water
below its shrinkage limit content of 38% and grain specific gravity
of 2·65?
Which of the above statements are
correct? (a) 19·88 kN/m3
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 17·88 kN/m3
(b) 1 and 4 only (c) 16·52 kNfm3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 14·65 kN/m3
(d) 2 and 4 only
104. How many cubic metres of soil having
101. Consider the following statements m void ratio of 0·7 can be made from
respect of the troposphere : 30 m3 of soil with void ratio of 1·2?
1. The gaseous content constantly (a) 36·6 m3
chums by turbulence and mixing
(b) 30·0 m3
2. Its behaviour makes the weather
(c) 25·9 m3
3. The ultimate energy source for
producing any weather change 1s (d) 23·2 m3
the sun
4. The height of the troposphere is 1OS. A dry sand specimen is put through a
nearly 11 krn at the equatorial belt tri-axial test. The cell pressure is 50 kPa
and is 5 km at the poles and the deviator stress at failure is
100 kPa. The angle of internal friction
Which of these are true of the
for the sand specimen is
troposphere ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 15°

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 30°

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 45°

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 55°

SKP-D-CVL- A 20

www.examrace.com
106. The theory of consolidation predicts Which of the above statements are
f;ettlement clue to primary consolidation; correct?
it cannot include settiement due to
(a) 1 and 2 only
initial compression nor due to secondary
consolidation. This happens because of (b) 2 and 3 only
the following assumptions made 111
(c) 3 and 4 only
developing the theory :
(d) 1 and 4 only
1. Suil g1aius aml walt:! cUe 111-
compressible
108. Consider the following statements with
2. Soil is fully saturated regard to Soil Testing :
1. The origin and pole are at the same
3. Compression takes place 111 the point in a Mohr's circle
vertical direction only
2. The shear stress is maximum on
4. Time lag in consolidation is entirely ｴｨｾ＠ failure plane
due to low permeability of soil
3. Mohr's circle drawn with data from
Which of the above statements are an unconfined compression test
correct? passes through the origin
4. Maximum shear stress occurs on a
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
plane inclined at 45° to the principal
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only plane
Which of the above statements are
(c) 3 and 4 only correct?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
107. Consider the following statements :
(c) 3 and 4 only
1. Secondary consolidation results due (d) 1 and 4 only
to prolonged dissipation of excess
hydrostatic pressw·e
109. A soil yielded a maximum dry unit
2. Primary consolidation happens under weight of 18 kN/m3 at a moisture
expulsion of both air and water content of 16% during a Standard
from voids in early stages Proctor Test. What is the degree of
saturation of the soil if its specific
3. Initial consolidation in the case of gravity is 2·65 ?
fully saturated soils is mainly due to (a) 98-42%
compression of solid particles
(b) 95·50%
4. Primary consolidation happens more
(c) 84·32%
quickly in coarse-grained soils than
in fine-grained soils (d) 75·71%

21 A- SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
110. Consider the following assumptions 113. Consider the following statements :
regarding Coulomb's Wedge Theory: 1. In a reinforced concrete member
subjected to flexure, the externally
1. There is equilib1ium of every
applied moment is resisted by an
element within the soil mass of the
internal couple fmmed by steel and
material
concrete and their magnitudes vary
2. There is equilibrium· of the whole with the applied moment, while the
of the material lever a1m of the intemal couple
remains constant
3. Backfill is wet, cohesive, and ideally
elastic 2. In a prestressed concrete . member,
the external moment is resisted by
4. The wall surface is rough an internal couple, but it is the lever
Which of the above assumptions are a1m that changes with the loading
conect? conditions and the stress in steel
remains practically constant
(a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/ are
(b) 1 and 4 only correct?
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
111. In a clayey soil having 50 k:N/m2 as unit
cohesion and 18 kN/m3 as unit weight, 114. Consider the following statements with
an excavation is made with a vertical regard to Global Positioning Systems
face. Taking Taylor 's stability number as (GPS):
0· 261, what is the maximum depth of 1. The position of an object can be
excavation so that the vertical face exactly determined by a single
remains stable ? satellite
(a) 5·30 m 2. The position of the observer (moving
person or vehicle) on ground is
(b) 7·06 m detern1ined by an orbiting satellite
(c) 10·6 m 3. Atomic clocks are fixed in satellites
to calculate the positiooing of the
(d) 12-4m
satellite to aid in determining t'ravel
times
112. What is the Boussinesq's vertical stress
4. Absolute positioning, where accuracy
at a point 6 m directly below a concen-
of 1 em to 5 em is needed, depends
trated load of 2000 kN applied at the
upon the health of the satellite
ground surface ?
Which of the above statements are
(a) 53·1 kN/m2 COlTeCt?
(b) 26·5 kN/m2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 11·8 kN/m2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 8·8 kN/m2 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

SKP-D-CVL- A 22

www.examrace.com
115. A temporary bench mark has been Which of the above statements are
established at the softit ot a chejja 011 a COlTCCt?
window opening, and its known eleva- (a) 1 and 2 only
tion is 102·405 m above mean sea level.
The backsight used to establish the (b) 1 and 3 only
height of the instrument is by an inverted (c) 2 and 3 only
staff reading of 1·80 m. A foresight
(d) 1, 2 and 3
reading \Vith the ｳ｡ｭｾ［Ｚ＠ ﾷ ＢｴＺｾｦＬ＠ held
nmmall y, is 1· 215 m on a recently
118. The rate of equilibrium superelevation
constructed plinth. The elevation of the
on a road is
plinth is
1. Directly proportional to the square
(a) 95-42 m O.D of vehicle velocity
2. Inversely proportional to the radius
(b) 99·39 m O.D
of the horizontal curve
(c) 102·42 m O.D 3. Directly proportional to the square
of the radius of the horizontal curve
(d) 105·99 m O.D
Which of the above statements are
correct?
116. A transition curve is to be provided for a (a) I and 2 only
circular railway curve of 300 m radius,
the gauge being 1·5 m with the maxi- (b) 1 and 3 only
mum superelevation restticted to 15 em. (c) 2 and 3 only
What is the length of the transition curve (d) 1, 2 and 3
for balancing the centrifugal force ?
119. As per IRC 37 : 2012, the fatigue life
(a) 72·3 m
of a flexible pavement consisting of
(b) 78·1 m granular base and sub-base depends
upon
(c) 84·2 m 1. Resi lient Modulus of bituminous
layers
(d) 88·3 m
2. Horizontal tensile strain at the
bottom of bituminous layer
117. Consider the following statements
3. Mix design of bitumen
regarding Remote Sensing Survey :
4. Vertical subgrade strain
1. Information transfer is accomplished
Which of the above statements are
by use of electromagnetic radiation
correct?
2. Remote Sensing from space is done (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
by satellites (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

3. Remote Sensing has no application (c) 1, 2 and 3 only

in Eatihquake predtct10n (u) 2, J ·and 4 only

23 A - SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
120. Which one of the following types of 123. 'Composite Sleeper Index' ts relevant
steel is used . in the manufacturing of in determining :
metro and mono rails ? adoptable sleeper
1. Required and
density
(a) Mild steel
2. Durability of sleeper units
(b) Cast steel 3. Mechanical strength of the stock of
wooden sleepers
(c) Manganese steel
Which of the above statements is / are
(d) Bessemer steel CO!Tect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
121. A sample of dty soil is coated with a (b) 2 and 3 only
thin layer of paraffin and has a mass
(c) 1 only
of 460 g. It displaced 300 cc of water
when immersed in it. The paraffin is (d) 3 only
peeled off and its mass was found to be
9 g. If the specific gravity of soil solids 124. The normal flows on two approach
and paraffin are 2·65 and 0·9 respec- roads at an intersection are respectively
tively, the voids ratio of soil is nearly 500 pcu/h and 300 pcu/h. The corres-
ponding saturation flow is 1600 pcu/h
(a) 0·92 on each road. The total lost time per
single cycle is 16 s. The optimum cycle
(b) 0·71 time by Webster's method is
(a) 72·5 s
(c) 0·59
(b) 58·0 s
(d) 0·48
(c) 48·0 s
(d) 19·3 s
122. Marshalling yard in railway system
provides facilities for
125. In the offshore region at a particular
(a) Maintenance of rolling stock harbour facility, an oscillatory wave train
approaches with wavelength of 80 m
(b) Safe movements of passengers and where the mean sea depth is 30m.
coaches What would be the velocity of the
individual waves ?
(c) Receiving, breaking up, re-forming (a) 17·15 m/s
and dispatching onwards - of trains
(b) 16·05 m/s
(d) Receiving, loading, unloading and 15·15 m/s
(c)
delivery of goods and vehicles, and
scheduling their further functioning (d) 14·05 m/s

SKP-D-CVL- A 24
www.examrace.com
126. For proper planning of harbours, oscilla- 127. Statement (I) : Glass, used as sheets in
luly wavc15 in the relevant off ohore btJilding<:_, ｩｾ＠ fl ｲＮｹｒｴｦｬｩｮｾ＠
region must be taken into account. If the solid and is transparent.
sea depth is 30 m and an oscillatmy
waves train is observed to have
wavelength of 50 m, what would be the Statement (II) : Glass is obtained by the
fusion of silicates of
velocity of the individual waves ?
sodium and calcium, both
of which oro oryotalline
(a) 9·43 m/s in st:tucture.

(b) 9·21 m/s

128. Statement (I) : Lime-surkhi mortar IS
(c) 9·08 m/s used in construction of
Anicuts (dams) since the
(d) 8·83 m/s 19th century.

Directions : Statement (II) : Portland cement is a

recent matetial compared
to surkhi-mortar which is
Each of the next Twenty Four (24) items
best suited for hydraulic
consists of two statements, one labelled as
structures.
'Statement (I)' and the other as 'Statement
(II)'. Examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these items using
the codes given below: 129. Statement (I) : Rapid method of con-
crete mix-design will
take 3 days for trials.
Codes:

(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement Statement (II) : This rapid method
(II) are individually ttue; and State- depends on cming the
ment (II) is the correct explanation concrete in warm water
of Statement (I) at or above 55°C.

(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement

(II) are individually true; but State- 130. Statement (I) : R.M.C. is preferably used
ment (IT) is NOT the conect expla- in construction of large
nation of Statement (I) projects.

(c) Statement (I) is true; but Statement Statement (II) : R.M.C. is adoptable to
(II) is false achieve any desired
sn·ength of concrete,
(d) Statement (I) is false; but Statement . with simultaneous quality
(II) is ｬｴｵｾ Ｎ＠ cont:t·ol.

25 A- SKP-D-CVL

www.examrace.com
131. Statement (I) : In a bolted joint, all
similarly placed bolts
share the load equally.
Statement (II) : Bolts are placed in holes
having slightly larger
diameters.
132. Statement (I) : In an RC beam, bond
stress developed is due
to pure adhesion, and
frictional and mechanical
resistance.
Statement (II) : Inadequacy of bond
strength can be compen-
sated by providing end
anchorage in the rein-
forcing bars.
133. Statement (I) : A Dummy is an activity
in the network.
Statement (II) : A Dummy is a repre-
sentation in the network
requiring neither time nor
resources.
134. Statement (I) : In areas where extreme
cold conditions are a
regular feature, and
more so particularly in
winter, it is necessary to
use lighter oil for auto-
mobiles than in summer.
Statement (IT) : 'Lighter' in Statement (I)
refers to the oil density,
which may be adjusted
by admixtures.
SKP-D-CVL - A
135. Statement (I) : Bernoulli's equation is
applicable to any point in
the flow field provided
the flow is steady and
irrotational.
Statement (II) : The integration of Euler's
equation of motion to
derive Bernoulli's equa-
tion involves the assump-
tions that velocity poten-
tial exists and that the
flow conditions do not
change with time at
any point.
136. Statement (I) : A sloping glacis is
always preferred over
a horizontal bed for
locating a hydraulic
Jump.
Statement (II) : The hydraulic jump is
the best dissipator of
energy of the flowing
water.
137. Statement (I) : Anaerobic sludge digester,
by itself, is considered
to be the better method
than other methods of
sludge treatment.
Statement (II) : During Anaerobic sludge
digestion, CH4 is pro-
duced; also rodents and
other pests are attracted
when digester sludge
is dried.
26
www.examrace.com
138. Statement (I) : A nomogram is a ready
re<.;kune!' to compulc auy
two hydraulic parameters
like discharge, pipe
diameter, pipe slope and
flow velocity in the pipe
if the other two are
lmnwn.
Statement (II) : Hydraulic parameters can
be determined by using
Mannings or Chezy's
formulae; and a Nomo-
gram is an organized
compilation of a number
of such, varied computa-
tions.
139. Statement (I) : The field capacity of
Municipal solid waste is
the total moisture that
can be retained in a
waste sample against
gravity.
Statement (II) : The field capacity of
Municipal solid waste is
of critical impmtance in
determining the volume
of leachate in landfills.
140. Statement (I) : Proximate analysis of
MSW is canied out to
determine moisture con-
tent, volatile matter, and
fixed carbon.
Statement (II) : Ultimate analysis of
MSW is carried out to
determine the full range
of chemical composition
and the energy value.
27
141. Statement (I) : The impact of Green
Homa" GaR emission on
the environment may
comprise accelerated
increase in global warm-
ing as well as a significant
lise in mean sea levels.
Statemenl (TI) . ｏｴｾｈ＠ Ilou5c Gas cmia
sion is responsible for
decreased land masses,
increased population den-
sities and food shortages.
142. Statement (I) : The fundamental princi-
ple of surveying is (to
work from the whole to
the part'.
Statement (IT) : Working from the whole
to the part ensures pre-
vention of accumulation
of possible errors in
survey work over large
areas.
143. Statement (I) : Compass survey is still
used by Geologists to
locate the magnetic ores.
Statement (II) : Local attraction causes
errors m compass survey
due to terrestrial features
- either natural or man-
made.
144. Statement (I) : PCA is a preferred raw
material for construction
of Bituminous pavements
in areas of heavy rainfall.
Statement (II) : In PCA, no. stripping
is needed as there is
improved binding; and
thereby stability is also
improved.
A - SKP-D-CVL
www.examrace.com
145. Statement (I) : Bituminous roads dis-
integrate even with light
traffic, but such failures
are not exclusively attri-
hut.ahle to wrong surface
treatment.
Statement (II) : Improper preparation of
the subgrade and the
foundation is often res-
ponsible for this · dis-
integration. .
146. Statement (I) : Cermet, as a refractory
material (Clay 80% +
Aluminium 20%), is used
in the construction of
rockets and jets.
Statement (II) :. Cermet containing metals,
which are stable at
temperatures as high as
600°C, resists sudden
shocks.
147. Statement (I) : Aluminium alloy with
less than 6% copper is
used in making auto-
mobile pistons.
Statement (II) : Duraluminium containing
4% copper has a high
tensile strength and is
well usable wherever
alkaline environment ts
not present.
SKP-D-CVL- A
148. Statement (I) : There is no practical
method of concrete mix
design based ·on the
specific surface of
｡ｧｲ･ｴｾＺ［Ｎ＠
Statement (II) : Surface area of aggre-
gates plays a vital role in
achieving the right mix
desired for a desired
strength.
149. Stater,nent (I) : Air seasoning of struc-
tural timber renders it
more durable, tough and
elastic.
Statement (II) : Air seasoning of timber
is the most economical
and eco-friendly method
of treatment when time
is not a constraining
criterion. .
150. Statement (I) : Lining of nuclear plants
with specially heavy
concrete is needed for
shielding and protecting
against several dangerous
conditions.
Statement (II) : Limonite is one special
type of aggregate pos-
sessing a high density.
28
www.examrace.com