Instructions To The Candidates: Entrance Examination For Icmr-Jrf Examination - 20Xx

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TEST BOOKLET CODE (A) TEST BOOKLET NUMBER _________________
POSTGRADUATE INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL EDUCATION & RESEARCH, CHANDIGARH
DURATION: 2 HOURS ROLL NO. __________________

Max Marks : 125
ENTRANCE EXAMINATION FOR ICMR-JRF EXAMINATION – 20XX
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

NB: No candidate will leave the Examination Hall before the expiry of the period of at least 60
minutes of the start of the paper.
1. Write your Roll Number clearly in the designated space on the answer sheet and on the question
paper.
2. The enclosed paper contains 2 Sections. Section I (A) has 50 questions and is
compulsory for all candidates with each question carrying 1 mark.
Sections II and III pertain to Life Sciences (B) and Social Sciences (C). The candidate may
attempt questions in one of the two sections (II (B) or III (C)). Each division of Section II (B)
or Section III (C) has 100 questions and the candidate is to attempt any 75 questions in the
pre-designated area of Section B or C. Candidates are required to indicate the option for
section B or C.
3. In case a candidate attempts more than 75 questions in Section II (B) or Section III (C), only the
first 75 attempted answers will be considered for evaluation.
4. The answer to the questions in the enclosed question paper shall be written on a separate
answer sheet. Chosen alternative is to be indicated by darkening the appropriate numeral on the
answer sheet e.g.
Q No. 1 2 3 ●
5. Negative marking for wrong answers (responses) will be done to the tune of -0.25 mark for
every incorrect answer.
6. Use of Calculators/Log Tables/ Mobile Phone is not permitted.
7. Use only black or blue ball point pen.
8. The question paper is confidential and on no account be removed from the examination hall. It
must be handed over to the invigilator at the end of the examination together with the answer
sheet before leaving the examination hall.
9. Candidates must not deface the question paper or the answer sheet.
10. Please dispossess yourself of any paper or material from which you may be able to derive help in
the examination. If any material is recovered from your possession, you will render yourself liable
to action for resorting to unfair means.
11 Smuggling by writing of questions on a piece of paper or any part of your body is liable to
disciplinary action and may lead to cancellation of your examination.
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Section I (A)
Aptitude (compulsory for all candidates)
1. Molality is defined as: 11. xxxxxxxxxx

1. Number of moles of solute/L of solvent 1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Grams of solute/L of solvent 2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Number of moles of solute/Kg of solvent 3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Number of Grams equivalent of solute/L of solvent 4. xxxxxxxxxx
2. An ‘inbred’ strain of an animal refers to: 12. xxxxxxxxxx

1. Genetically undefined animal 1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Animals bred in a laboratory 2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Isogenic animals 3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Immunodeficient animals 4. xxxxxxxxxx
3. The limits of Pearson’s Correlation coefficient are: 13. xxxxxxxxxx

1. 0≤Y≤1 1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. -1 ≤ Y ≤ 0 2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. -1 ≤ Y ≤ +1 3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. 0<Y<1 4. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Which of the following tests will be used for testing 14. xxxxxxxxxx
of mean between two groups?
1. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Students unpaired ‘t’ test 2. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Students paired ‘t’ test 3. xxxxxxxxxx
3. ANOVA 4. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Chi square test
15. xxxxxxxxxx
5. When p < 0.05, which of the following is true?
1. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Probability of type I error is less than 0.05 2. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Probability of type II error is less than 0.05 3. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Probability of type I error is more than 0.05 4. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Probability of type II error is more than 0.05
16. xxxxxxxxxx
6. Aspirin was first obtained from the bark of:
1. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Cinchona tree 2. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Neem tree 3. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Willow tree 4. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Eucalyptus tree
17. xxxxxxxxxx
7. An isotope of an element has:
1. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Same number of neutrons 2. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Same number of electrons and neutrons 3. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Same number of protons and neutrons 4. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Same number of protons
18. xxxxxxxxxx
8. The branch of science that deals with cancer is
known as: 1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Serology
3. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Oncology
4. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Pathology
4. Radiology
19. xxxxxxxxxx
9. Which of the following waves cannot be transmitted 1. xxxxxxxxxx

through vacuum: 2. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Light waves 3. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Heat waves 4. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Sound waves
4. Electromagnetic waves 20. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
10. Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo are the co- 2. xxxxxxxxxx
discoverers of the following virus: 3. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Ebola 4. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Hepatitis-B
3. Small Pox
4. HIV
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21. xxxxxxxxxx 32. xxxxxxxxxx










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Section II (B)
Life Sciences
51. Which of the followings is rich in triglycerides? 56. Which of the following is an inhibitor of protein
synthesis?
1. Chylomicrons
2. LDL 1. Pencillin
3. VLDL 2. Chloramphenicol
4. HDL 3. Actinomycin D
4. Bacitracin
52. Which enzyme has impaired activity in Vitamin B1
deficiency? 57. The Ames test is used to:
1. Succinate dehydrogenase 1. To detect bacteria
2. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 2. To detect viruses
3. Transketolase 3. To detect enzymes
4. Citrate synthase 4. To detect mutagens
53. Which of the following is useful for identifying 58. In which of the following tissues insulin enhances
amino terminal residue of proteins? transport of glucose?
1. Cyanogen bromide 1. Brain
2. Fluorodinitrobenzene 2. Lens
3. Performic acid 3. Red blood cell
4. Dansyl chloride 4. Adipose tissue
54. Which is the most abundant RNA in a cell? 59. Which class of RNA characteristically contains
methylated purines and pyrimidines?
1. tRNA
2. mRNA 1. tRNA
3. rRNA 2. mRNA
4. SnRNA 3. rRNA
4. 16sRNA
55. Which of the following statements concerning
characteristics of histones is FALSE? 60. Km of any enzymatic reaction describes:
1. They are highly basic proteins found in the nucleus 1. Reaction velocity expressed as mols per second
2. They form non-covalent bonds with eukaryotic 2. Dissociation constant of E-S complex
DNA called nucleosomes 3. Amount of the enzyme required to convert half of
3. They are very highly conserved proteins the substrate to E-S complex
4. They are associated with both prokaryotic and 4. Substrate concentration to achieve half of Vmax
eukaryotic DNA
61. A Codon consists of:
1. One molecule of amino acyl-t RNa
2. Two complementary base pairs
3. Three consecutive nucleotide units
4. Three individual nucleotides
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62. One mmol of NaCI contains: 72. xxxxxxxxxx
1. 35.5 g 1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. 35.5 mg 2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. 58.5 g 3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. 58.5 mg 4. xxxxxxxxxx
63. Piezoelectric crystals are used in: 73. xxxxxxxxxx

1. NMR imaging 1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Crystallography 2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Ultrasonography 3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Xeroradiography 4. xxxxxxxxxx
64. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Imaging technique is 74. xxxxxxxxxx

based on the gyromagnetic property of:
1. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Neutron 2. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Electron 3. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Proton 4. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Positron
75. xxxxxxxxxx
65. Hydrogen-3 is a pure:
1. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Alpha emitter 2. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Gamma emitter 3. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Beta emitter 4. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Positron emitter
76. xxxxxxxxxx
66. When a positron is emitted from a radioisotopic
atom, the atomic number of the daughter product: 1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Increases by one
3. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Decreases by one
4. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Decreases by two
4. No change
77. xxxxxxxxxx
67. The sedimentation velocity of a protein in a 1. xxxxxxxxxx
centrifuge tube does NOT depend on the: 2. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Density of the solution 3. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Density of protein 4. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Mass of protein
4. Charge of the protein 78. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
68. Which law states that: At constant temperature, the 2. xxxxxxxxxx
volume of a given quantity of any gas is inversely 3. xxxxxxxxxx
proportional to the pressure upon the gas?
4. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Boyle’s law
2. Charle’s law 79. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Henry’s law 1. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Dalton’s law 2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. xxxxxxxxxx
69. Western blot is a technique used for: 4. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Protein expression
2. DNA expression 80. xxxxxxxxxx
3. RNA expression 1. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Fat expression 2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. xxxxxxxxxx
70. When a molecule absorbs light of a particular 4. xxxxxxxxxx
wavelength and continues to emit light of higher
wavelength for a considerable time after excitation,
the phenomenon is called: 81. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Phosphorescence 1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Fluorescence 2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Chemiluminescence 3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Cerenkov radiations 4. xxxxxxxxxx

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Section III (C)

Social Sciences
51. Which of the following is the correct Dental 3. Southeast Asia

Formula of the primitive Eutherian mammal? 4. Madagascar islands
1. 3143/3143
2. 2343/2343 60. Introns are those segments of DNA which are:
3. 3413/3413 1. Directly responsible for producing specific traits
4. 4323/4323 2. Responsible for controlling the activities of
structural genes
52. Which of the following is NOT a fossil? 3. Non functioning spacer segments within a
structural gene
1. Stone tools
4. Structural genes coding for various traits
2. Petrified remains of the bones
61. Among primates the bilophodont molars are
3. Lucy found among:
4. Coprolites
1. Old world monkeys
2. New world monkeys
53. Which of the following methods is used for dating
the fossils older than 75000 years? 3. Lemurs
4. Marmosets
1. Carbon dating
2. Potassium argon method
62. Which of the following genera is the earliest
3. Dendrochronology human ancestor:
4. Density
1. Sivapithecus
2. Dryopithecus
54. The name of the book Charles Darwin wrote is:
3. Australopithecus
1. Origin of species 4. Aplidium
2. Natural history
3. Origin of man 63. Bitot’s spot is caused due to deficiency of which of
4. Process and product the following vitamins:
1. Vitamin B-12
55. During the last fifty years the adult height of 2. Vitamin E
Japanese has increased. This is known as:
3. Vitamin A
1. Secular trend 4. Vitamin C
2. Medronic trend
3. Physique 64. Micro-blades are the characteristic tool types of
4. Growth gradient the following phase of human prehistory:
1. Lower palaeolithic
56. Which of the following is the crippling disorder 2. Mesolithic
that results from excessive consumption of
Khesari daal? 3. Upper palaeolithic
4. Middle palaeolithic
1. Endemic goitre
2. Marasmus
65. The diploid number of chromosomes in man is:
3. Malaria
4. Lathyrism 1. 64
2. 23
57. Bushman and Hottentots are the racial groups 3. 32
found in: 4. 46
1. South India
2. South Africa 66. The study approach that involves application of
evolutionary principles to the behavior of animals
3. South America is known as:
4. Central Europe
1. Paleontology
2. Sociobiology
58. Khasis are the tribes inhabiting:
3. Zoogeography
1. Nilgiri hills of South India 4. Paleo-primatology
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Madhya Pradesh 67. In India a Homo erectus fossil skull cap was found
4. North-East India in:
1. Shivalik Hills
59. Ring tailed lemurs are found in: 2. Kaveri basin
1. South America 3. Narmada basin
2. Sri Lanka 4. Ganga basin
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77. xxxxxxxxxx
68. Haemophilia, a sex linked disease affecting only 1. xxxxxxxxxx
males, is:
2. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Recessive X-linked 3. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Dominant X-linked 4. xxxxxxxxxx
3. Y-linked
4. Dominant autosomal 78. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
69. Array is:
2. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Comparing a number of people affected by a 3. xxxxxxxxxx
disease and who are at risk
4. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Another alternative in displaying data pictorially
and allowing rapid assimilation of finding by the
reader 79. xxxxxxxxxx
3. A display where the horizontal and vertical axes 1. xxxxxxxxxx
of a graph are formed according to the scale 2. xxxxxxxxxx
values and the frequencies of the distribution
respectively 3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. A systematic arrangement of the gathered data 4. xxxxxxxxxx
either in an ascending or descending order
80. xxxxxxxxxx
70. Incidence: 1. xxxxxxxxxx
1. Is the number of cases that will occur within a 2. xxxxxxxxxx
population during a specified period of time 3. xxxxxxxxxx
2. Indicates what proportion of a given population 4. xxxxxxxxxx
is affected by a condition at a given point of
time
3. The ratio of the number of people affected by a 81. xxxxxxxxxx
disease compared to a number of people at risk 1. xxxxxxxxxx
in a given population
2. xxxxxxxxxx
4. Is a snapshot picture of the presence of a
particular disease over the year 3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. xxxxxxxxxx
71. xxxxxxxxxx
82. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
4. xxxxxxxxxx
72. xxxxxxxxxx
83. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
4. xxxxxxxxxx
73. xxxxxxxxxx
84. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
4. xxxxxxxxxx
74. xxxxxxxxxx
85. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
4. xxxxxxxxxx
75. xxxxxxxxxx
86. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
4. xxxxxxxxxx
76. xxxxxxxxxx
87. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
4. xxxxxxxxxx
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141. xxxxxxxxxx
1. xxxxxxxxxx
2. xxxxxxxxxx
3. xxxxxxxxxx
4. xxxxxxxxxx
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TEST BOOKLET CODE (A) TEST BOOKLET NUMBER _________________

POSTGRADUATE INSTITUTE OF MEDICAL EDUCATION & RESEARCH, CHANDIGARH

DURATION: 2 HOURS ROLL NO. __________________

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION FOR ICMR-JRF EXAMINATION – 20XX

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

6. Use of Calculators/Log Tables/ Mobile Phone is not permitted.

7. Use only black or blue ball point pen.

1. Molality is defined as: 11. xxxxxxxxxx

2. An ‘inbred’ strain of an animal refers to: 12. xxxxxxxxxx

3. The limits of Pearson’s Correlation coefficient are: 13. xxxxxxxxxx

9. Which of the following waves cannot be transmitted 1. xxxxxxxxxx

22. xxxxxxxxxx 33. xxxxxxxxxx

23. xxxxxxxxxx 34. xxxxxxxxxx

24. xxxxxxxxxx 35. xxxxxxxxxx

25. xxxxxxxxxx 36. xxxxxxxxxx

26. xxxxxxxxxx 37. xxxxxxxxxx

27. xxxxxxxxxx 38. xxxxxxxxxx

28. xxxxxxxxxx 39. xxxxxxxxxx

29. xxxxxxxxxx 40. xxxxxxxxxx

30. xxxxxxxxxx 41. xxxxxxxxxx

31. xxxxxxxxxx 42. xxxxxxxxxx

44. xxxxxxxxxx 48. xxxxxxxxxx

45. xxxxxxxxxx 49. xxxxxxxxxx

46. xxxxxxxxxx 50. xxxxxxxxxx

63. Piezoelectric crystals are used in: 73. xxxxxxxxxx

64. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Imaging technique is 74. xxxxxxxxxx

71. xxxxxxxxxx 82. xxxxxxxxxx

84. xxxxxxxxxx 95. xxxxxxxxxx

85. xxxxxxxxxx 96. xxxxxxxxxx

86. xxxxxxxxxx 97. xxxxxxxxxx

87. xxxxxxxxxx 98. xxxxxxxxxx

88. xxxxxxxxxx 99. xxxxxxxxxx

89. xxxxxxxxxx 100. xxxxxxxxxx

90. xxxxxxxxxx 101. xxxxxxxxxx

91. xxxxxxxxxx 102. xxxxxxxxxx

92. xxxxxxxxxx 103. xxxxxxxxxx

93. xxxxxxxxxx 104. xxxxxxxxxx

106. xxxxxxxxxx 117. xxxxxxxxxx

107. xxxxxxxxxx 118. xxxxxxxxxx

108. xxxxxxxxxx 119. xxxxxxxxxx

109. xxxxxxxxxx 120. xxxxxxxxxx

110. xxxxxxxxxx 121. xxxxxxxxxx

111. xxxxxxxxxx 122. xxxxxxxxxx

112. xxxxxxxxxx 123. xxxxxxxxxx

113. xxxxxxxxxx 124. xxxxxxxxxx

114. xxxxxxxxxx 125. xxxxxxxxxx

115. xxxxxxxxxx 126. xxxxxxxxxx

128. xxxxxxxxxx 139. xxxxxxxxxx

129. xxxxxxxxxx 140. xxxxxxxxxx

130. xxxxxxxxxx 141. xxxxxxxxxx

131. xxxxxxxxxx 142. xxxxxxxxxx

132. xxxxxxxxxx 143. xxxxxxxxxx

133. xxxxxxxxxx 144. xxxxxxxxxx

134. xxxxxxxxxx 145. xxxxxxxxxx

135. xxxxxxxxxx 146. xxxxxxxxxx

136. xxxxxxxxxx 147. xxxxxxxxxx

137. xxxxxxxxxx 148. xxxxxxxxxx

Section III (C)

51. Which of the following is the correct Dental 3. Southeast Asia

89. xxxxxxxxxx 100. xxxxxxxxxx

90. xxxxxxxxxx 101. xxxxxxxxxx

91. xxxxxxxxxx 102. xxxxxxxxxx