MCQZ

ENT
1. All of the following are true of peripheral vertigo except:

(a) Onset is gradual.
(b) Nystagmus may be horizontal or horizontorotary in direction.
(c) It may be associated with nausea, vomiting, hearing loss and tinnitus.
(d) It is generally self-limited.
2. The most reliable sign of acute otitis media is:

(a) A tympanic membrane that is erythematous
(b) The presence of fever
(c) Loss of mobility of the tympanic membrane on pneumatic otoscopy
(d) The presence of a scarred and retracted tympanic membrane
3. Which of the following statements regarding malignant otitis externa is true?

(a) It is a common complication of otitis externa that afflicts otherwise
healthy patients.
(b) It is treated on an outpatient basis with oral antibiotics.
(c) It is caused by pseudomonas.
(d) Patients with this disease process are generally afebrile and exper
ience little pain.
4. Which of the following is least characteristic of croup?

(a) Barking cough
(b) High fever
(c) Preceding DRI
(d) Insidious onset
5. Appropriate antibiotic therapy of GABH Strep pharyngitis can limit or prevent all
of the following complications except:
(a) Rheumatic fever
(b) Glomerulonephritis
(c) Pharyngeal space infections
(d) Spread of the infection to others
6. Which of the following is/are the most common cause(s) of pharyngitis?

(a) GABH Strep
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Viruses
(d) Gonorrhea
7. Which of the nerve blocks listed below is most appropriate when midfacial
anesthesia is required?
(a) Inferior alveolar nerve block
(b) Infraorbital nerve block
(c) Supraorbital nerve block
(d) Posterior superior alveolar nerve block
1
8. All of the following statements regarding Ellis II fractures are true except:
(a) They involve both the enamel and dentin.
(b) They are associated with hot and cold sensitivity.
(c) Bleeding from the tooth is characteristic.
(d) Dental follow-up within 24 hours is recommended.
9. The most common arterial source of posterior epistaxis is:

(a) Sphenopalatine artery
(b) Anterior ethmoidal artery
(c) Posterior ethmoidal artery
(d) Kiesselbach's plexus
10. All the following statements regarding posterior epistaxis (including its treatment)
are accurate except:
(a) It is less common than anterior epistaxis.
(b) Most commonly occurs in children and young adults.
(c) Placement of a posterior pack can result in hypoxia and hypercarbia.
(d) Patients treated with a posterior pack should be admitted.
11. Bacterial tracheitis is most commonly caused by

(a) H. influenza
(b) Strep. pneumoniae
(c) Staph. aureus
(d) GABH Strep
12. Which is true regarding treatment of avulsed teeth:

(a) The tooth should be wiped clean before replanting
(b) Primary teeth should be replaced immediately
(c) Handling the tooth by the root is preferred
(d) Hanks solution + milk are better transport solutions than tap water
13. The initial study of choice for confirming the presence of a retropharyngeal
abscess is a soft-tissue lateral film of the neck. To avoid obtaining a false positive
result, this film must be taken:
(a) During expiration with the neck in slight extension
(b) During expiration with the neck in slight flexion
(c) During inspiration with the neck in slight extension
(d) During inspiration with the neck in slight flexion
14. Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is most commonly caused by:

(a) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
(b) Parainfluenza virus
(c) Adenovirus
(d) Influenza virus
2
15. A three-year-old is brought in for evaluation of sore throat, fever and refusal to
eat. The child's voice is muffled. Exam reveals a unilateral bulging of the posterior
pharyngeal wall, tender anterior cervical adenopathy and temperature of 102°F. The
most likely diagnosis is:
(a) Retropharyngeal abscess
(b) Peritonsillar abscess
(c) Ludwig's angina
(d) Masticator space abscess
3
RIVERS
ENT ANSWERS
1. A
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. B
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. A
1
170 ENT
THROAT AND ESOPHAGUS
Questions
357. Intermaxillary suture are sometimes raised forming a
longitudinal midline ridge known as: (AFMC 2003)
a. Torus auditory
b. Torus mandibularis
c. Torus palatine
d. Torus maxillaris
358. Peritonsillar abscess is also known as: (Karnataka 98)

a. Retropharyngeal abscess
b. Tonsillar abscess
c. Quinsy
d. Thornwaldt’s abscess
359. Third molar caries with extension of the lesion towards tonsillar
fossa and shift of tonsil reveals which of the following
complication? (UP 2002)
a. Parapharyngeal abscess
b. Retropharyngeal abscess
c. Tonsillar abscess
d. Dental abscess
360. Peritonsillar abscess can extend posteriorly into: (Delhi 2000)

a. Anterior triangle of neck
b. Parapharyngeal space
c. Posterior triangle on neck
d. Submaxillary space
361. Swelling between tonsillar area and superior constrictor muscle

is know as: (AI 1991)
a. Quinsy
b. Dental abscess
c. Parapharyngeal abscess
d. Retropharyngeal abscess
362. The most common malignancy of the oropharynx: (MP 2006)

a. Tonsil
b. Soft palate
c. Tongue base
d. Valleculae
170
Throat and Esophagus 171
363. Killiance dehiscence is seen in (JIPMER 1999)
a. Oropharynx
b. Nasopharynx
c. Cricopharynx
d. Vocal cords
364. Odynophagia is (MH PGM CET 2000)

a. Pain during swallowing
b. Difficulty in swallowing
c. Bad odour from mouth
d. Psychiatric disease
365. Openings of the tube of bronchoscope are known as: (CMC 2002)
a. Holes
b. Apertures
c. Vents
d. Any of the above
366. Indications for tracheostomy are all EXCEPT:

a. Acute epiglottitis
b. Maxillofacial trauma
c. Laryngeal malignancy
d. Extensive consolidation of lung
367. Most common complication of Tracheostomy is: (JIPMER 2000)

a. Stenosis
b. Infection
c. Pneumonia
d. Respiratory failure
368. Collar stud abscess is seen in: (Orissa 2004)

a. Pyogenic cervical abscess
b. Peritonsillar abscess
c. Retropharyngeal abscess
d. TB lymphadenitis
369. A tracheostomised patient, with portex tracheostomy tube, in

the ward, developed sudden complete blockage of the tube.
Which of the following is best next step in the management?
(AIIMS May 2004)
a. Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube
b. Suction of tube with sodium bicarbonate
c. Suction of tube with saline
d. Jet ventilation
172 ENT
370. After a long-standing tracheostomy patient developed almost
complete stenosis of trachea, treatment is: (AIIMS 2001)
a. Tracheal dilation
b. Laser with stent
c. Surgery
d. Removal of stenosed part with anastomosis
371. Not true regarding pterygopalatine fossa: (Orissa 2005)

a. Inferomedial to the foramen rotundum lies the Vidian (Pterygoid)
canal, which connects the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine
fossa.
b. Medially, the pterygopalatine fossa communicates through the
pterygomaxillary fissure with the infratemporal fossa
c. It communicates with the middle cranial cavity through the foramen
rotundum and pterygoid canal.
d. It contains the sphenopalatine ganglion and the third segment of
the maxillary artery.
372. White oral lesions are seen in EXCEPT: (Kar 2002)

a. Leukoplakia
b. Keratosis
c. Addison’s disease
d. Candidiasis
373. All of the following cause a grey-white membrane in the throat

EXCEPT (SGPGI 2005)
a. Streptococcal tonsillitis
b. Diphtheria
c. Ludwig’s angina
d. Adenoviral pharyngitis
374. True statement about faucial diphtheria is: (Delhi 2001)

a. Pearly white membrane
b. Bleeding occurs if the membrane is tried to remove
c. Bleeds when membrane is removed
d. Membrane can be removed easily
375. Collar stud abscess is seen in: (Orissa 2004)

a. Pyogenic cervical abscess
b. Peritonsillar abscess
c. Retropharyngeal abscess
d. TB lymphadenitis
376. Steeple sign is seen in: (SGPGI 2005)

a. Croup b. Acute epiglottitis
c. Laryngomalacia d. Quinsy
377. The antibiotic of choice in acute epiglottitis pending culture
sensitivity report is: (Kar 2001)
a. Erythromycin
b. Rolitetracycline
c. Doxycycline
d. Ampicillin
378. Which of the following statement is true for Ludwig’s angina?

(Delhi 2000)
a. It is an ischemic, painful condition of Pectoralis minor muscle
b. It is diffuse cellulitis affecting the floor of the mouth
c. Glycerin nitrate, local application is quite helpful
d. None of the above
379. Submandibular space infection is known as: (Manipal 2002)

a. Ludwig’s angina
b. Vincent’s angina
c. Parapharyngeal abscess
d. None
380. Which of the following structures are preserved in radical neck

dissection? (Kar 2002)
a. Vagus nerve
b. Accessory Nerve
c. Internal jugular vein
d. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
381. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: (SGPGI 2005)

a. Epilepsy
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Cerebellar infarction
d. Guillain Barre syndrome
382. What is the correct sequence of the following while resuscitating

an infant with Foreign Body Airway Obstruction? (UPSC 2004)
1. Chest thrust
2. Tongue-jaw lift
3. Back blows
Select the correct sequence form the codes given below:
Codes:
a. 1,3,2
b. 3,2,1
c. 3,1,2
d. 2,1,3
174 ENT
383. A patient presented with a 3.5 cms size lymph node enlargement,
which was hard and presented in submandibular region.
Examination of the head and neck did not yield any lesion. The
next investigation to be done: (CMC 2005)
a. CXR
b. Triple endoscopy
c. Supravital staining of oral mucosa
d. Laryngoscopy
384. Most common tumor to produce metastasis to cervical lymph

nodes: (AIIMS MAY 2002)
a. Glottic Carcinoma
b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c. Carcinoma Base of tongue
d. Carcinoma lip
385. Best diagnostic modality for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is:

(AIIMS 1997)
a. Angiography
b. Biopsy
c. CECT
d. MRI
386. Investigation of choice for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is:

(MP 2002)
a. MRI
b. CECT
c. Helical CT
d. Angiography
387. Causes of posterior soft tissue nasopharyngeal mass include all

EXCEPT: (AMU 1996)
a. Plasmacytoma
b. Choanal atresia
c. Thornwaldt’s Cyst
d. Aneurysm of the carotid artery
e. Chordoma
388. All muscles of Palate are supplied by cranial accessory nerve

except:
a. Tensor palati
b. Palatoglossus
c. Palatopharyngeus
d. None
389. All muscles of Pharynx are supplied by cranial accessory nerve
except:
a. Thyropharyngeus
b. Inferior constrictor
c. Stylopharyngeus
d. Superior constrictor
390. All muscles of Tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT:

a. Myoglossus
b. Palatoglossus
c. Genioglossus
d. Hyoglossus
391. Cranial accessory nerve supplies: (Orissa 99)

a. Palate
b. Pharynx
c. Palatoglossus
d. All
392. Mandibular nerve supplies: (PGI 89)

a. Tensor palati
b. Tensor tympani
c. Both
d. None
393. Most frequent site of branchial cyst is at: (MH-SS-CET 2005)

a. Upper third of posterior border of sternocleidomastoid
b. Lower third of anterior border of sternocleidomastoid
c. Upper third of anteromedial border of sternocleidomastoid
d. Supraclavicular fossa
394. The main differential diagnosis is second branchial cleft cyst

include all EXCEPT:
a. Thyroglossal duct cyst
b. Cystic hygroma
c. Laryngocele
d. Ranula
395. Which of the following is not the site for PARAGANGLIOMA? (AIIMS
Nov 2003)
a. Carotid bifurcation
b. Jugular foramen
c. Promontory in middle ear
d. Geniculate ganglion
176 ENT
396. Bano Begum presented with bleeding from ear, pain, tinnitus and
increasing deafness. Examination revealed red swelling/mass
behind the intact tympanic membrane that blanches on pressure
with pneumatic speculum. Treatments for her include all EXCEPT:
(AIIMS 2001)
a. Preoperative embolisation
b. Radiotherapy
c. Surgery
d. Interferons
397. Which of the following is the most beneficial technique of using

chemotherapy with a course of radiotherapy in head and neck
malignancies? (AIIMS NOV 2004)
a. Neo adjuvant chemotherapy
b. Adjuvant chemotherapy
c. Concurrent chemotherapy
d. Alternating chemotherapy and radiotherapy
398. Which implant is used in Nasopharyngeal carcinoma:

(Kerala 2005)
a. Caesium
b. I-131
c. Gold
d. Iridium
399. A male aged 60 years has foul breath, he regurgitates food that
is eaten 3 days ago. Likely diagnosis is: (AIPGE 2001)
a. Zenker’s diverticulum
b. Meckel’s diverticulum
c. Scleroderma
d. Achalasia cardia
400. Main problem associated with carotid body tumor operation is:
(Maharashtra 2000)
a. The tumor blends with bifurcation of carotid artery
b. The tumor blends with jugular vein
c. Recurrence
d. Vaso vagal Shock
401. True about Carotid body tumor is all EXCEPT: (AIIMS Nov 2004)
a. It is highly vascular mass
b. True cut biopsy is investigation of choice
c. Operative intervention is best avoided in elderly patients.
d. Radiotherapy has no effect
402. Investigation of choice for carotid body tumor? (AFMC 2004)
a. Angiography
b. USG with colour Doppler
c. CECT
d. MRI
403. A 40 year old patient is suffering from carotid body tumor. Which
of the following is the best choice of treatment for him?
(AIIMS 2004 may)
a. Excision of tumor
b. Radiotherapy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Carotid artery ligation both proximal and distal to the tumor
404. Lower esophageal sphincter: (AIIMS 2005 may)

a. Has no tonic activity
b. Has a tone which is provided by the sympathetic system
c. Relaxes on increasing abdominal pressure
d. Relaxes ahead of the peristaltic wave
405. A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquids

than solids. The first investigation you will do is: (AIIMS may 2003)
a. Barium swallow
b. Esophagoscopy
c. Laryngoscopy
d. CT chest
406. Barium study in Trendelenburg position is done for the diagnosis

of: (Kerala 2003)
a. Upper GIT disorders
b. Hiatal disorders
c. Esophageal disorder
d. Crohn’s disease
407. On a chest radiograph, a double shadow behind the heart, signs

of aspiration pneumonia and absence of air in stomach is
suggestive of: (KAR 2003)
a. Aneurysm of thoracic aorta
b. Achalasia
c. Carcinoma esophagus
d. Peptic ulcer (stomach)
408. “Rat-tail” appearance on barium swallow examination is seen

in: (Maharashtra 2002)
a. Achalasia cardia
b. Carcinoma esophagus
c. Hiatus hernia
d. Diffuse esophageal spasm
178 ENT
409. “Cobble stone” esophagus is feature of: (Orissa 94)
a. Candidial oesophagitis
b. Cytomegalovirus oesophagitis
c. Herpes oesophagitis
d. Hiatus hernia
410. “Rat tail Appearance” in barium swallow is a feature of:

(KAR 2005)
a. Carcinoma of Esophagus
b. Achalasia Cardia
c. Barret’s esophagus
d. Chronic Reflux oesophagitis
411. ‘Cork-screw’ esophagus is seen in: (AI 2002; KAR 2001)

a. Vigorous achalasia cardia
b. Scleroderma
c. Diffuse esophageal spasm
d. Carcinoma esophagus
412. Dysphagia lusoria due to: (AIIMS Nov 2003; Manipal 2002)
a. Esophageal diverticulum
b. Aneurysm of aorta
c. Esophageal web
d. Compression of esophagus by aberrant blood vessel
413. Dysphagia lusoria is commonly due to: (Manipal 2002)

a. Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery
b. Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery
c. Compression by aortic arch
d. Obstruction by foreign body
414. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following

conditions? (AIPGE 2002)
a. Carcinoma esophagus
b. Scleroderma
c. Achalasia cardia
415. Treatment for achalasia associated with high rate of recurrence:

(AIPGE 2002)
a. Pneumatic dilatation
b. Laparoscopic myotomy
c. Open surgical myotomy
d. Botulinum toxin
416. Barrett’s oesophagus is: (AIPGE 2002)
a. Lower oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium
b. Upper oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium
c. Lower esophagus lined by ciliated epithelium
d. Lower esophagus lined by pseudostratified epithelium
417. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus develops in: (AIPGE 2002)

a. Barrett’s esophagus
b. Long standing achalasia
c. Corrosive structure
d. Alcohol abuse
418. Most common site for squamous cell Carcinoma esophagus is:
(AIPGE 2001)
a. Upper third
b. Middle third
c. Lower third
d. Gastro esophageal junction
419. Dysphagia lusoria is due to: (NOV. 2003 AIIMS)

a. Oesophageal diverticulum
b. Aneurysm of aorta
c. Oesophageal web
d. Compression by aberrant blood vessels
420. A 30 years old male, presents with symptoms of regurgitation of

foul smelling food, and dysphagia. He is diagnosed to have
cricopharyngeal diverticulum. Management of choice is:
( AIIMS 2001)
a. Excision of the diverticula
b. Cricopharyngeal myotomy alone
c. Myotomy with excision of the sac
d. Marsupialization of the sac
421. Bhanwarilal presents with feature of foul smelling food

regurgitation, dysphagia and pain. He was diagnosed to have
cricopharyngeal diverticulum. Treatment of choice will be:
(AIIMS 2000)
a. LASER vaporization
b. Excision of the diverticulum with cricopharyngomyotomy
c. Excision of the diverticulum
d. Marsupialisation of the diverticulum
180 ENT
422. Best substitute for esophagus after esophagectomy is:
(MP 99; Ai 96)
a. Stomach
b. Jejunum
c. Right colon
d. Left colon
423. A young patients with dysphagia move for liquids than solids. He
regurgitates food often at night. Radiography shows a rat-tailed
appearance. Likely diagnosis is: (AIIMS May 1996)
a. Achalasia cardia
b. CA oesophagus
c. Zenker’s diverticulum
424. A male aged 60 years has foul breath; He regurgitates food that
is eaten 3 days ago a gurgling sound is often heard on swallowing:
Likely diagnosis is: (AI 2001)
a. Zenkers diverticulum
b. Meckels diverticulum
c. Scleroderma
d. Achalasia cardia
425. All are true regarding Plummer Vinson syndrome, except:

(AIIMS Dec 97)
a. Oesophageal web
b. Predisposes to malignancy
c. Koilonychia
d. Common in elderly males
426. The following are predisposing factors for Esophageal carcinoma

except: (AI 1996)
a. Plummer-Vinson syndrome
b. Tylosis palmaris
c. Chronic Achalasia
d. Benzene therapy
427. Hyperkeratosis of palm and sole is seen in: (AIIMS Dec 97)
a. Carcinoma colon
b. Hepatoma
c. Adenocarcinoma lung
d. CA oesophagus
428. The adenocarcinoma of esophagus-developed in: (AI 2002)
a. Barrett’s esophagus
b. Long standing achalasia
c. Corrosive structure
d. Alcohol abuse
429. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in: (AI 1998)

a. Achalasia acardia
b. Barrett’s oesophagus
c. Plummer Vinson syndrome
d. Chronic smoking
430. Most common site for squamous cell carcinoma esophagus is:
(AI 2001)
a. Upper third
b. Middle third
c. Lower third
d. Gastro-esophageal junction
431. Which neo-adjuvant chemotherapy is used in Esophageal

carcinoma: (AI 1996)
a. Cisplatin
b. Cyclophosphamide
c. Doxorubicin
d. Methotrexate
432. The commonest side effect of cisplatinum in a patient using it for

esophageal carcinoma is: (AIIMS May 01)
a. Acute tubular necrosis
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Hepatic failure
d. Cardiomyopathy
433. Constrictions normally present in esophagus are all EXCEPT:

(MH-PGM-CET-2000):
a. 10 cm from the incisor teeth
b. 15 cm from the incisor teeth
c. 25 cm from the incisor teeth
d. 40 cm from the incisor teeth
434. Which of the following play vital role in preventing gastro

oesophagus reflux? (PGI 2001)
a. Sphincteric action of lower esophageal muscle fibers or fibers of
right cura.
b. Mucosal flap produced by muscularis mucosa of the stomach.
c. Difference between intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure.
d. Acute gastroesophageal angle.
182 ENT
435. The most common complication seen in hiatus hernia is: (AI 2005)
a. Oesophagitis
b. Aspiration pneumonitis
c. Volvulus
d. Oesophageal stricture
436. The hypopharynx includes all the following EXCEPT: (JIPMER 2003)
a. Pyriform fossa
b. Epiglottis
c. Post cricoid region
d. Valeculae
THROAT AND ESOPHAGUS
Answers
357. Ans: (c) (Torus palatine)
Torus palatine
Intermaxillary suture are sometimes raised forming a longitudinal
midline ridge called torus palatine.
Torus auditory
The posteroinferior wall of external meatus occasionally presents
a smooth to roughened longitudinal elevation, known as auditory
torus.
Torus mandibularis
Above Mylohyoid line, the bone medial to roots of molar teeth is
sometime developed into a rounded ridge called torus
mandibularis.
Torus maxillaris
It is occasionally present on the alveolar process spanning the
palatal aspect of subcervical roots of upper molar teeth.
358. Ans: (c) (Quinsy)

(Ref. Diseases of ENT by PL Dhingra – 2nd edition – 261)
Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy) is collection of pus between capsule
of tonsils and superior constrictor muscle.
It is characterized by hot potato voice and odynophagia and halitosis.
While draining it should be opened at the point of maximum bulge
above upper pole of tonsil or just lateral to point of junction of anterior
pillar, with a line drawn through the base of uvula.
Tonsils are removed 4-5 weeks following an attack of Quinsy.
Retropharyngeal abscess
♦ Acute (Pediatric)
♦ Chronic (Adult, LN tuberculosis)
Parapharyngeal abscess is abscess of pharyngomaxillary or
lateral pharyngeal spaces.
359. Ans: (a) (Parapharyngeal abscess)

The parapharyngeal space is located lateral to the pharyngeal
constrictor muscles. The fibrofatty plane adjacent to the
nasopharyngeal wall constitutes the symmetrical parapharyngeal
space. The posterior boundary of the parapharyngeal space is
formed by the carotid sheath, which contains the carotid artery,
jugular vein, cranial nerves (IX-XII), sympathetic plexus, and
183
184 ENT
lymphatic system. The styloid process with the origin of its three
muscles (styloglossus, stylopharyngeus, and stylohyoid) lies
posterolateral to the parapharyngeal space. The deep portion of
the parotid gland forms the lateral border of the parapharyngeal
space. The parapharyngeal space extends from the base of skull
to the level of the hyoid bone and is triangular, with the base
extending to the skull table. Hence, third molar caries with extension
of the lesion towards tonsillar fossa and shift of tonsil is suggestive
of parapharyngeal abscess.
360. Ans: (b) (Parapharyngeal space)

(Ref. above Q for explanation)
Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy) is collection of pus between capsule
of tonsils and superior constrictor muscle. Peritonsillar abscess
can extend posteriorly into parapharyngeal space.
361. Ans: (a) (Quinsy)

(Ref. Disease Of ENT By PL Dhingra 2nd ed.-261, 3rd ed. 318; ref.
above Q. for explanation)
Quinsy is collection of pus between capsule of tonsils and superior
constrictor muscle.
♦ Retropharyngeal abscess is a complication of bacterial
pharyngitis observed in children younger than 6 years. The
patient presents with abrupt onset of high fevers, difficulty
swallowing, refusal to feed, sore throat, hyperextension of the
neck, and respiratory distress.
♦ Peritonsillar abscess is an infection in the potential space
between the superior constrictor muscles and the tonsil. It is
common in adolescents and preadolescents. The patient
develops severe throat pain, trismus, and trouble swallowing
or speaking.
362. Ans: (a) (Tonsil)

Carcinomas of the tonsil are the most common malignancies of
the oropharynx. They may spread posterolateral to the internal
jugular vein group of nodes and digastric nodes. Extension along
mucosal surfaces to the glossopharyngeal sulcus and hypopharynx
requires intravenous contrast to differentiate tumors from lingual
tonsils. At times, differentiation of tonsillar carcinomas from tongue-
base carcinomas may be impossible by CT or MR. Since mucosal
changes are difficult to detect with these modalities, clinical
information is essential for determining the exact site of origin.
Lateral spread through the superior constrictor muscle to the space
may cause lingual, hypoglossal, and inferior alveolar nerve deficits.
Pharyngeal wall carcinomas generally present late because of the
lack of symptoms associated with tumors in this region. Deep
posterior invasion to the anterior spinal ligament rarely occurs,
despite the relatively large tumor size at presentation. Spread to the
parapharyngeal space occurs more often. The most common route
of lymph-node spread is to the retropharyngeal nodal group and to
the highest internal jugular chain.
363. Ans: (Cricopharynx)

(Ref. Disease Of ENT By PL Dhingra 2nd ed.-235, 3rd ed.290)
Inferior constrictor muscle has two parts:
Thyropharyngeus (oblique fibers)
Cricopharyngeus (transverse fibers)
Between these two parts exists a potential gap, known as “Killiance
dehiscence” (gateway of tears).
Clinical significance:
Perforation during esophagoscopy
Pharyngeal pouch
364. Ans: (a) (Pain during swallowing)

(Ref. Disease Of ENT By PL Dhingra 2nd ed.-332, 3rd ed.402, 444)
Odynophagia → painful deglutition.
Dysphagia → difficulty in deglutition.
Dysphagia lusoria → esophageal compression due to aberrant
vessel, leading to dysphagia.
Globus hystericus → psychiatric condition characterized by
dysphagia.
Halitosis is → bad odour from mouth.
365. Ans: (c) (Vents)

(Ref. Bronchology by Lukomsky – 40; Diseases of ENT by PL
Dhingra 2nd ed. 484, 528)
Bronchoscope is similar to esophagoscope, but has openings at
the distal part of the tube, called VENTS, which help in aeration of
the side bronchi.
Size of bronchoscope will vary with age of the patient, with adult
size being 9mm luminal diameter and 40cm length of tube. Vents
are so placed that at least the upper few are above the level of
carina to ventilate the rest of the lung when the bronchoscope is
inserted into the major bronchus.
Jackson’s Dictum: In the case of suspected or expected foreign
body, it is safer to perform bronchoscopy rather than with holding it.
Advantage of flexible fibre-optic bronchoscopy;
♦ Provides magnification and better illumination.
♦ Permits examination of sub-segmental bronchi.
♦ Easy in patients with neck/jaw abnormalities
186 ENT
♦ Can be performed under topical anaesthesia
♦ Suction/biopsy channels are provided which helps to remove
secretions, inspissated plugs of mucus or even small foreign
bodies.
♦ It can be easily placed through endotracheal tube or
tracheostomy opening. However, it has limited utility in children
due to problem of ventilation.
366. Ans: (d) (Extensive consolidation of lung)

Indications for tracheostomy
A. Obstructive causes
B. Non-obstructive causes
A. Obstructive causes
1. Congenital
Subglottic stenosis
Laryngomalacia
Glottic webs
Hemangioma
Large cyst
Pierre Robinson syndrome
Cystic hygroma
Lymphangioma
Hemangioma of base of tongue
2. Inflammatory
Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
Acute epiglottitis
Diphtherial laryngitis in children
Laryngeal edema
Extra-laryngeal Parapharyngeal abscess
Retropharyngeal abscess
3. Traumatic
Laryngeal trauma
Inhalation of fumes
Swallowing of corrosives
Maxillofacial trauma
Haematoma of the base of tongue
Mandibular fracture
Cervical haematoma
4. Neoplastic
Respiratory recurrent papilloamatosis
Adenoma
Chondroma
Laryngeal malignancy
Pharyngeal malignancy
Third malignancy
Esophageal malignancy
Mediastinal malignancy
5. Neurological
Bilateral abductor paralysis
Thyroidectomy
Cardiac surgery
Allergic Angioneurotic edema
B. Nonobstructive causes
Assisted ventilation
Aspiration
Anaesthesia
Atelectasis
367. Ans: (b) (Infection)

Complications of tracheostomy
I. Immediate
a. Apnea due to sudden decrease in CO2. Treated with
carbogen.
b. Bleeding from veins or thyroid gland
c. Collapse of lung
d. Cardiac failure (excess adrenaline, rapid rise of pH and
hypercalcemia)
e. Damage of surrounding structures (nerves, vessels,
cartilage, esophagus)
f. Embolism (air), position of patient will prevent embolism
g. Emphysema (subcutaneous)
h. Fistula (TO fistula)
II. Intermediate
a. Dislodgement of the tube
b. Blocked tube
c. Tracheitis
d. Emphysema
e. Bleeding
f. Tracheovenous fistula
g. Pneumothorax
III. Late
a. Tracheocutaneous fistula leads to
i. Continuous secretions
ii. Skin irritation
iii. Disturbed phonation
iv. Frequent infection
v. Poor cosmosis
b. Tracheal stenosis (inflatable cuff, scar contracture, repeated
incision, tracheal infection, organic disease of trachea)
c. Difficult decannulation
188 ENT
368. Ans: (d) (TB lymphadenitis)
Tubercular cervical adenopathy with caseation in nodes
369. Ans: (a) (Immediate removal of the tracheostomy tube)

(Ref: Logan Turner’s 10th Ed.-196)
In a tracheostomised patient, with portex tracheostomy tube who
has developed sudden complete blockage of the tube, immediate
removal of it with insertion of new tube is warranted.
370. Ans: (d) (Removal of stenosed part with anastomosis)

(Refer above Q for explanation)
Tracheal stenosis developing in a patient with long-standing
tracheostomy should be treated with removal of stenosed part of
trachea and anastomosis.
371. Ans: (b) (Medially, the pterygopalatine fossa communicates

through the pterygomaxillary fissure with the infratemporal
fossa)
PTERYGOPALATINE FOSSA
The pterygopalatine fossa is situated between the posterior wall of
the maxillary antrum and the pterygoid plates. Its medial margin is
the perpendicular plate of the palatine bone; this is perforated by
the sphenopalatine foramen, which connects the fossa with the
nasal cavity. Laterally, the pterygopalatine fossa communicates
through the pterygomaxillary fissure with the infratemporal fossa.
The pterygopalatine fossa also communicates with the middle
cranial cavity through the foramen rotundum and pterygoid canal,
the orbit through the inferior orbital fissure, and the oral cavity through
the pterygopalatine canal. The fossa contains the sphenopalatine
ganglion and the third, or pterygopalatine, segment of the maxillary
artery.
372. Ans: (c) (Addison’s disease)

(Ref. Diseases of ENT by Bhargava 6th ed. 211)
White patch on the tongue or oral mucosa is seen in:
Leukoplakia (Premalignant)
Lichen planus (Premalignant)
Behcet’s syndrome
Streptococcal infection
Diphtheria, Vincent’s angina, Syphilis
Moniliasis (Oral thrush or Candidiasis)
Aphthous ulcers with slough at the base
Viral pharyngitis
Oral submucous fibrosis and erythroplakia are other premalignant
oral lesions.
373. Ans: (c) (Ludwig’s angina) (Refer above Q for explanation)
Ludwig’s angina, a cellulitis of the fascial spaces of the floor of the
mouth and upper neck initiated by infected teeth, has a fatal outcome
in as many as 10% of cases because of compromise of the upper
airway, spread to the anterior mediastinum, or both. It does not
cause membrane formation in throat.
374. Ans: (b) (Bleeding occurs if the membrane is tried to remove)

(Ref. PL Dhingra 3rd ed. 195)
Faucial diphtheria
IP is 2-6 days
Children are more commonly affected.
Oropharynx is commonly involved and larynx, nose may also be
involved. Greyish-white membrane forms over tonsils and
spread to soft palate and posterior pharyngeal wall.
Bull neck can result due to nodal enlargement.
Patient is usually toxic.
Membrane formed is tenacious and bleeds on trial to remove.
375. Ans: (d) (TB lymphadenitis)

Tubercular cervical adenopathy with caseation in nodes
376. Ans: (a) (Croup) (Ref. RRM Dahnert 5th ed. 377)
Croup or Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis
Croup is most common viral in etiology with parainfluenza viruses
often being implicated. It mainly involves the subglottis and trachea
with swelling causing obstruction at the level of the cricoid cartilage
Parainfluenza or RSV causes Croup or acute laryngotracheo-
bronchitis or acute viral spasmodic laryngitis, with peak incidence
between 2-3 years of age. Hoarse cry and brassy cough are its
characteristic features. Steeple sign is characteristic radiographic
feature of croup characterized by subglottic ‘inverted V’ i.e.
symmetrical funnel-shaped narrowing 1-1.5 cm below lower
margins of pyriform sinuses on AP radiograph (loss of normal
‘shouldering’ of air column caused by mucosal edema and external
restriction of cricoid), accentuated on expiration, paradoxical
inspiratory collapse, less pronounced during expiration.
Thumb sign is seen in acute epiglottitis on lateral neck radiograph
Acute laryngitis can be caused by a variety of bacterial and viral
agents that may cause edema, ulceration, and pseudomembrane
formation.
377. Ans: (a) (Erythromycin)

Acute epiglottitis occurs mainly in children and can rapidly progress
to airway obstruction. The most common organism implicated in
Hemophilus influenza type B, and response to macrolides is the
rule.
190 ENT
378. Ans: (b) (It is diffuse cellulitis affecting the floor of the mouth)
(Ref. Dhingra 3rd ed. 277)
Ludwig’s angina
It is the infection of submandibular space, which lies between
mucous membrane of the floor of mouth and tongue on one side
and superficial layer of deep cervical fascia extending between the
hyoid bone and mandible on the other.
It is divided into two compartments by the Mylohyoid muscle, but
they continue posteriorly.
a. Sublingual (above the Mylohyoid)
b. Submaxillary and submental compartment (below the Mylohyoid)
Causative organism:
Aerobes and anaerobe.
Alpha hemolytic streptococci
Bacteroids are common.
H. influenza rarely.
Etiology:
Dental infections
Submandibulary sialadenitis
Injury of oral mucosa
Mandibular fractures
Treatment: Antibiotics and I and D.
379. Ans: (a) (Ludwig’s angina)

It is the infection of submandibular space, which lies between
mucous membrane of the floor of mouth and tongue on one side
and superficial layer of deep cervical fascia extending between the
hyoid bone and mandible on the other.
380. Ans: (a) (Vagus nerve)

(Ref. Bhargava 6th ed. 211)
Radical neck dissection
Structures excised Structures preserved

1. Fascia and fatty ICA
tissue ECA (may be sacrificed)
2. Lymph nodes Brachial plexus
3. Sternomastoid Hypoglossal nerve
4. IJV Vagus nerve
5. EJV Phrenic nerve
6. Accessory nerve Facial nerve (cervical and
7. Submandibular marginal mandibular branches)
gland Sympathetic trunk
8. Tail of Parotid
Commonest incisions:
1. Crile’s incision (modified Y incision)
2. Macfee’s incision (double horizontal incision) in irradiated neck.
381. Ans: (b) (Multiple sclerosis)

Palatal myoclonus can occur in multiple sclerosis.
382. Ans: (c) (3,1,2)

Aspiration of foreign body is common in children aged 1-2 years.
Usually, foreign bodies are food such as nuts, hot dogs, popcorn,
and hard candy that is inhaled. A history of coughing and choking
that precedes development of respiratory symptoms may be
present.
Lack of ventilation is an acute or subacute sign of bronchial foreign
body. After weeks or months, infection sets in beyond the foreign
body, and the appearance is one of collapse and pneumonia.
Recurrent fever and unchanging collapse in one or more adjacent
basal segments should immediately suggest a retained bronchial
foreign body.
The correct sequence of the following while resuscitating an infant
with Foreign Body Airway Obstruction is back blows (Helmich
maneuver) tongue-jaw lift chest thrust.
383. Ans: (b) (Triple endoscopy)

The patient in question has developed cervical lymphadenopathy
and there is no obvious cause in head and neck, hence as bronchi,
larynx or upper gastrointestinal system can be the source of occult
primary, search for primary at these site with the help of triple
endoscopy (laryngoscopy +bronchoscopy + upper GI scopy) will be
the most fruitful examination.
384. Ans: (b) (Nasopharyngeal carcinoma)

(Ref. Logan Turner, 10th Ed.203)
Primary sites producing metastasis to cervical lymph nodes are in
decreasing order of frequency:
1. Nasopharynx
2. Tonsil
3. Base of tongue
4. Thyroid gland
5. Supraglottic larynx
6. Floor of the mouth
7. Palate
8. Pyriform fossa
9. Bronchus
10. Esophagus
11. Breast
192 ENT
12. Stomach
Glottic carcinoma never metastasizes to lymph nodes and
carcinoma lip metastasizes rarely and very late.
385. Ans: (c) (CECT)

(Ref. Grainger’s Diagnostic Radiology, 4th ed., 2556, 2618)
Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
It is a tumor of adolescent boys.
It typically presents as nasal mass with recurrent epistaxis.
Life-threatening hemorrhage has occurred from biopsy and
therefore radiological features are relied upon to establish
diagnosis.
It is the most common benign nasopharyngeal tumor, which can
grow enormously and invade local vital structures.
Age: Teenagers (peak 15 yrs); almost exclusively in males.
It is highly vascular mass supplied primarily by internal maxillary
artery.
Extensions:
Posterolateral wall of nasal cavity; via pterygopalatine fossa into
retroantral region, orbit; Middle cranial fossa and laterally into
infratemporal fossa
Radiological features:
Widening of pterygopalatine fossa (90%) with anterior bowing of
posterior antral wall, invasion of sphenoid sinus through floor of
sinus (66%), Widening of inferior orbital fissure (orbital spread)
and Superior orbital fissure (middle cranial fossa spread).
Angiography is not required to establish the diagnosis, but has
valuable role in preoperative therapeutic embolization to reduce
blood loss.
CECT is investigation of choice for diagnosis and evaluation of the
mass.
It shows bright intense contrast enhancement immediately and
long erosion and invasion can be best visualized.
A reliable imaging sign is erosion of medial pterygoid plate and
enlargement of sphenopalatine foramen.
HRCT allows accurate diagnosis since these tumors start in
pterygopalatine fissure, which enlarge before they extend. MRI is
reliable for defining tumor extension, which may involve the posterior
nasopharynx, middle cranial fossa and infratemporal fossa.
MRI shows intermediate signal intensity on T1W1 with discrete
punctate areas on hypointensity.
Biopsy is contraindicated.
Combination of CT and CEMRI may be required for accurate
diagnosis imaging which reveals an enhancing mass, which arises
from the posterolateral nasal wall adjacent to sphenopalatine
foramen.
386. Ans: (b) (CECT)
387. Ans: (b) (Choanal atresia)

Choanal atresia does not produce any mass lesion.
Thornwaldt’s Cyst
In 3% of individuals, a pit or outpouching exists high in the posterior
midline nasopharynx, which is lined by pharyngeal epithelium.
Although a persistent tract of Rathke’s pouch may be present at
birth, it usually causes no problem unless the opening of the
pharyngeal bursa becomes closed by inflammation that results in
cyst formation. Males and females are affected equally, usually in
the second and third decades of life. The presenting complaint is
usually persistent postnasal discharge with unpleasant taste or
halitosis.
Hypertrophied and normal lymphoid tissue is commonly seen in
the nasopharynx of individuals up to 35 years old.
MALIGNANT TUMORS related to posterior nasopharyngeal wall:
Squamous-cell carcinoma
♦ Adenocarcinoma
♦ Adenoid cystic carcinoma
♦ Lymphoma
♦ Chordoma
♦ Rhabdomyosarcoma
♦ Fibrosarcoma
♦ Chondrosarcoma
♦ Plasmacytoma
♦ Hemangiopericytoma
♦ Chemodectoma
♦ Malignant melanoma
♦ Malignant tumors with secondary nasopharyngeal involvement
arising from the Nasal cavity, Sinuses, Parotid gland and
Metastatic lymph nodes.
388. Ans: (a) (Tensor palati)

♦ All muscles of Palate are supplied Tensor palati
by cranial accessory nerve except (Mandibular Nerve)
♦ All muscles of Face are supplied LPS
by VII cranial nerve except (Occulomotor)
♦ Cranial accessory nerve supplies Palate
Pharynx
Palatoglossus
♦ Mandibular nerve supplies Tenor palati
and tympani
194 ENT
389. Ans: (c) (Stylopharyngeus)
♦ All muscles of Pharynx are Stylopharyngeus
supplied by cranial accessory (IX nerve)
nerve except
390. Ans: (b) (Palatoglossus)

♦ All muscles of Tongue are supplied Palatoglossus
by hypoglossal nerve except (Cranial accessory
nerve)
391. Ans: (d) (All)

392. Ans: (a), (b)

Beyond the ganglion, the nerve trifurcates into the ophthalmic,
maxillary and mandibular divisions. The ophthalmic nerve goes
through the inferolateral aspect of the cavernous sinus before
entering the orbit through the superior orbital fissure. The maxillary
and mandibular branches exit through foramen rotundum, and
foramen ovale, respectively. The nerve is primarily involved with
sensory innervation to the face, eye, and mucosa of nasal and oral
cavities, including the teeth. The mandibular nerve also has motor
supply to the muscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, medial,
and lateral pterygoids), tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, anterior
belly of digastric, and mylohyoid.
393. Ans: (c) (Upper third of anteromedial border of sternocleido-

mastoid)
(Ref. Grainger Diagnostic Radiology 4th 2619)
Branchial Cyst
Branchial cysts are embryological cysts derived from the cervical
pouch.
First branchial cleft cyst results in cyst near external auditory canal
or parotid gland.
Second branchial cleft cyst is most common (95% of all branchial
cleft anomalies) and present as mass in anterior triangle of neck
close to the angle of mandible. Type II second branchial cysts are
most common among the 4 types of second branchial cleft cysts
and are classically located at anteromedial border of
sternocleidomastoid muscle, lateral to carotid space and at
posterior margin of submandibular gland in close proximity to
internal and external carotid artery.
Third branchial cleft cyst present as posterior cervical space mass
394. Ans: (d) (Ranula)
The main differential diagnosis is second branchial cleft cyst is
(thyroid remnant cyst) TRC. A true TRC passes posterior to carotid
bifurcation and terminates in the pyriform sinuses, while the sec
ond branchial cysts passes in between the internal and the exter
nal carotid arteries and ends in the superior tonsillar pillar. About
50% of TRC extend into the superior mediastinum where as medi
astinal extension with branchial cleft anomalies do not occur. If a
mass is located in the area of inferior pole of the thyroid gland, a
thymic origin of the lesion should be considered. The other differ
ential diagnosis of TRC is thyroglossal duct cyst, Lymphatic mal
formation, Cystic neuroblastoma, lymphadenopathy, external laryn
gocele and vallecular cyst.
395. Ans: (d) (Geniculate ganglion)

(Ref. Osborn’s Neuroradiology, 450 and 507; Grainger’s Diagnostic
Radiology, 4th edi., 368, 2341, 2547, 2561)
Parasympathetic paragangliomas (Chemodectomas, Glomus
tumor)
These arise from the paraganglia that exist in various locations in
the body, the most common head and neck sites of these tumors
being the carotid body/bifurcation (carotid body tumor/
chemodectoma/potato tumor), jugular foramen (Glomus jugulare)
and middle ear (Glomus tympanicum) and Vagus nerve (Glomus
vagale).
♦ Glomus jugulare is situated in the jugular bulb adventitia
immediately below the middle ear.
♦ Glomus tympanicum are the paragangliomas that are localized
to cochlear promontory in the middle ear cavity.
♦ Glomus jugulotympanicum tumors extend from jugular foramen
into the middle ear cavity.
♦ The “salt and pepper” appearance is typical for paraganglioma
on MR scan study.
♦ Pheochromocytoma of adrenal medulla is the most common
paraganglioma.
♦ Other extraadrenal sites are spine, mediastinum and
paraaortic.
396. Ans: (d) (Interferons)

(Ref. LB 21st-678; Dhingra 2nd 144)
Red swelling/mass behind the intact tympanic membrane that
blanches on pressure with pneumatic speculum with clinical
complaints of bleeding from ear, pain, tinnitus and increasing
deafness in a female patient is likely to be glomus tympanicum.
196 ENT
397. Ans: (a) (Neo adjuvant chemotherapy)
(Walter and Miller’s textbook of radiotherapy 5th ed. 313)
In general for early disease radical RT or surgery may offer
comparable local control. For advanced disease, the prospects to
cure by local RT diminish and radical surgery is preferred.
Chemotherapy is not curative but useful palliator can sometimes
be achieved in advanced disease now controlled by surgery or RT.
398. Ans: (d) (Iridium)

Tongue (T1 and T2) → Iridium implant (65-70 Gy)
Tongue (T3 and T4) → inoperable à 60 Gy in 25 daily fractions over
5 weeks (4-6 MV photons)
Buccal cheek 40 Gy in 20 daily fractions for 4 weeks followed by
iridium implant
Low grade NHL → 35 Gy in 20 daily fractions over 4 weeks
High grade NHL → 40-45 Gy in 20 daily fractions over 4 weeks
Nasopharyngeal Ca → 40 Gy in 20 daily fractions over 4 weeks
(iridium)
Pinna → 50 Gy in 10 daily fractions over 2 weeks
Salivary gland tumors → 60 GY in 25 daily fractions over 5 weeks
Megavoltage (4-6 MV photons or high energy electrons)
Ca Larynx → 60 GY in 25 daily fractions over 5 weeks
Postcricoid malignancy → 60 GY in 25 daily fractions over 5 weeks
Esophagus → 52.5 GY in 20 daily fractions over 4 weeks (9-10
MV photons)
399. Ans: (a) (Zenker’s diverticulum)
Zenker’s diverticulum is pulsion diverticulum, where pharyngeal

mucosa herniates through the Killian’s dehiscence (a weak area
between two parts of inferior Constrictor)
Age: This condition is usually seen after 60 years of age (elderly)
Symptoms:
Dysphagia: As mouth of the sac is wider than the opening of
esophagus, food preferentially enters the sac. When the pouch
gets filled with food, it presses on the esophagus and produces
dysphagia.
Gurgling Sound is produced during swallowing.
Cough and Aspiration pneumonia: Food eaten over the last few
days may regurgitate as it collects in pouch causing cough and
aspiration pneumonia.
Malnutrition: Patient is often malnourished due to dysphagia.
400. Ans: (a) (The tumor blends with bifurcation of carotid artery)
(Ref. Bailey and Love-23rd ed.-955, 24th 774)
Chemodectoma / Carotid body tumor / Potato tumor
Most frequent paraganglioma of head and neck
Derived from third branchial arch and neural crest cells.
Rare neurogenic tumor presenting in 5th decade, arising from
chemoreceptor cells on medial aspect of carotid bulb and, at this
point tumor is adherent to carotid wall. This makes its surgical
excision potentially serious.
Most common age =30-40 yrs
M:F=1:3
Bilateral in 5%
Multicentric in 3% (associated with other paragangliomas)
Located within the adventitia of carotid bifurcation
Usually asymptomatic
But presents as slowly enlarging painless lump in neck at the level
of carotid bifurcation i.e. a pulsatile neck mass below the angle of
mandible The mass is firm, rubbery, pulsatile and mobile from
side to side only.
Malignant transformation in 6%
May be associated with pheochromocytomas
Radiological features:
CT:
It is highly vascular mass and CECT neck is ideal modality as an
investigation to diagnose it.
Oval mass involving the carotid space splaying the internal and
external carotid arteries
Focal hypodense area may be seen due to necrosis with marked
enhancement (may be minimal or absent if thrombosis had
occurred)
Calcification is rare
May extend into Para pharyngeal space in 8% cases
MRI:
Characteristic ‘Salt & pepper’ appearance with areas of
hypointensity and hyperintensity on enhanced T1W1 due to multiple
vessels within
The mass and enhancing stroma
Tumor is predominantly isointense on T1W1 & T2W1 with patchy
areas of T2-hyperintensity
Marked enhancement (variable if thrombosis has occurred)
ANGIOGRAPHY:
Spaying of internal and external carotid arteries
Nutrient vessels seen in arterial phase
Marked vascularity with dense tumor blush in the capillary phase
401. Ans: (b) (True cut biopsy is investigation of choice)

Carotid body tumors are one of many of a family of paragangliomas
that involve the head and neck. These are usually benign, well-
198 ENT
encapsulated masses located at the carotid bifurcation. These
tumors are hypervascular and may be bilateral, frequently producing
an audible bruit. Some produce catecholamines that can produce
sudden changes of blood pressure postoperatively or after
manipulation of the carotid bifurcation vessels. Carotid body tumors
arise from the carotid body at the level of the carotid bifurcation.
Many extend medially far enough to produce a bulge in the
oropharyngeal wall. On an angiogram, they appear as vascular
masses producing a characteristic splaying of the internal and
external branches of the carotid artery.
402. Ans: (c) (CECT)

Carotid body tumors arise from the carotid body at the level of the
carotid bifurcation. On CECT, they appear as well-defined highly
vascular masses producing a characteristic splaying of the internal
and external branches of the carotid artery. Many extend medially
far enough to produce a bulge in the oropharyngeal wall
403. Ans: (a) (Excision of tumor)

Management of carotid body tumor:
Resection is for cure and radiation for control.
But, operative intervention is best avoided in elderly patients.
Some times mass may not be separable from the vessels and
resection will be necessary with graft for continuity in carotid
system.
Radiotherapy has no good effect.

The given patient is 40 years old (not elderly); hence, Excision or
resection of tumor will be best treatment for him.
404. Ans: (d) (Relaxes ahead of the peristaltic wave)

The presence of a physiologic sphincter at the lower end of the
esophagus, called the LES, is currently accepted as the main choice
for the antireflux barrier.
The presence of a physiologic sphincter characterized by a 2 to 4
cm high-pressure zone in the EGR has been acknowledged for
several decades. This high-pressure zone has been called the
lower esophageal sphincter, or LES, and is believed to be the main
candidate for the antireflux barrier. Attempts to identify the LES
anatomically have been largely unsuccessful, although asymmetric
muscle thickening approximately the cardiac incisura has been
shown recently.
This physiologic sphincter corresponds generally in location to the
anatomic lower esophageal vestibule. In the resting state, the LES
is a tonically contracted area that normally maintains a closing
pressure of 15 to 35 mmHg higher than the intragastric pressure.
Within several seconds after swallowing, the LES relaxes and
remains relaxed until the peristaltic wave reaches the end of the
esophagus.
The two important physiologic functions of the LES are prevention
of gastroesophageal reflux and relaxation with swallowing to permit
movement of ingested material into the stomach.
405. Ans: (a) Barium Swallow

(Ref. Grainger’s Diagnostic Radiology, Vol II)
Endoscopic USG only overcomes limitation of CT in assessing
esophagus. Role of CT in esophageal disease is mainly confined
to cancer staging. Despite widespread application of endoscopy,
barium studies still remain the primary imaging technique in
suspected esophageal disorders, especially in cases of dysphagia.
Barium studies are simple to perform, inexpensive and highly
sensitive. Endoscopy will often be required after a barium swallow,
especially for biopsy purposes. It is helpful that barium studies
precede endoscopy. This particularly applies to high dysphagia
when an unsuspected pharyngeal pouch can be readily entered
and perforated with scope. Also esophagoscopy is less good at
identifying motility disorders.
406. Ans: (b) (Hiatal disorders)

(Ref. Grainger Diagnostic Radiology 4th ed.1011)
Examination of hiatal area requires the patient to be placed in prone/
oblique position on a horizontal table and given a bolus of barium
to swallow so there is maximal distension of hiatal segment.
When looking for reflux during barium studies, the usual technique
is to have the patient in a supine horizontal position and then slowly
to lift left side off the couch while screening continuously.
407. Ans: (b) (Achalasia)

(Ref. Grainger’s Diagnostic Radiology, 4th ed., 1024)
Achalasia is a motility disorder of esophagus, probably due to
degeneration of myenteric plexus in gastroesophageal junction
region, resulting in failure of relaxation of the gastroesophageal
junction.
Clinical features include increasing dysphagia, repeated attacks of
aspiration pneumonia (when esophagus becomes dilated and fills
with food debris).
CXR may reveal absent fundic bubble, areas of aspiration
pneumonitis in lung fields and mediastinal air-fluid level. Earliest
change seen on Barium study is defective distal peristalsis
associated with a slight narrowing at G-E junction. Sometimes
marked nonpropulsive contractions in the body of esophagus
(vigorous achalasia) may be seen.
200 ENT
The characteristic “bird-beak” appearance of GE junction, best
demonstrated in erect position, may also be seen.
With severe achalasia substantial esophageal dilatation (sigmoid
esophagus) occurs containing huge food residue and fluid, seen
as fluid level at aortic arch.
Apart from pneumatic dilatation of affected segment, Heller’s
operation is surgical treatment for achalasia.
408. Ans: (b) (Carcinoma esophagus)

(Ref. Grainger Diagnostic Radiology, 4th ed., 1025)
Barium study feature of few esophageal diseases:
A. Tertiary esophageal contractions (presbyesophagus, diffuse
esophageal spasm, neuromuscular diseases)
“Yo-Yo” motion of barium
“Corkscrew” appearance (scalloped configuration of barium
column)
“Rosary-bead/Shish kebab” configuration
(compartmentalization of barium column)
B. Feline esophagus (transient contraction of longitudinally
oriented muscularis mucosa)
Normal variant
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
C. Double-barrel esophagus
Dissecting intramural haematoma
Mallory-Weiss tear
Intramural abscess
Intraluminal diverticulum
D. Achalasia cardia
Megaesophagus/sigmoid esophagus
“Bird beak” deformity
Absence of primary peristalsis below level of cricopharyn
geus
Hurst phenomenon (temporary transit through cardia when
hydrostatic pressure of barium column is above toxic LES
pressure)
Vigorous achalasia (numerous tertiary contractions in
nondilated distal esophagus of early achalasia)
E. Scleroderma
Esophageal shortening
Sliding hiatus hernia
Hidebound esophagus
409. Ans: (a) (Candidial oesophagitis)

Candidial oesophagitis
Cobble stone mucosa
Shaggy/fuzzy contour of the esophagus with small diffuse
superficial ulcers
Plaques
Thickened mucosal folds
Cytomegalovirus oesophagitis
Giant ovoid flat ulcers (vasculitis of submucosal vessels)
Gastroesophageal junction with adjacent part of stomach
is commonly affected.
Herpes oesophagitis
Discrete superficial punctate/linear serpentine/stellate/
diamond shaped ulcers
Hiatus hernia
Epiphrenic bulge
> 4 longitudinal coarse thick gastric folds above
gastroesophageal junction or in the suprahiatal pouch
Distance between B ring and hiatal margin > 2 cm
Peristalsis causes above hiatus
410. Ans: (a) (Carcinoma of Esophagus)

(Ref. Grainger Diagnostic Radiology, 4th ed., 1025)
Carcinoma oesophagus is characterized on barium swallow by:
Rat-tail esophagus
Shouldering sign
Mucosal irregularity
411. Ans: (c) (Diffuse esophageal spasm)
(Ref.PL Dhingra ENT 3rd ed. 399; Sutton’s Textbook of Radiology,
549)
Esophageal motility disorders
a) Primary - Achalasia
Diffuse esophageal spasm
Presbyesophagus
Nutcracker oesophagus
Achalasia
Congenital TO fistulae
Intestinal pseudoobstruction
b) Secondary - Connective tissue disorders
Neuromuscular disease
Chemical/physical injuries
Metabolic and endocrine disorders
Diffuse esophageal spasm: Compartmentalization of esophagus

by numerous tertiary contractions, i.e., episodes of pronounced
abnormal motility occurs without cause, causing severe chest pain.
202 ENT
The intermittent nature of the disorders makes it difficult to diagnose
by Barium studies; 24 hours. Manometry is required. The tertiary
contractions are nonpropulsive, uncoordinated and nonperistaltic
and hence seen as intermitted riggles along the wall of esophagus,
as multiple simultaneous contraction rings, or as a segmented
Barium column producing a ‘cork-screw’ appearance.
412. Ans: (d) (Compression of esophagus by aberrant blood vessel)

(Ref. Grainger’s Diagnostic Radiology 4th ed., 946, 1027)
Dysphagia lusoria
♦ Dysphagia due to vascular rings is known as dysphagia lusoria.
♦ Abnormalities of the great vessels can contract the structures in
mediastinum, namely the trachea and esophagus.
♦ Many vascular rings can be explained by the persistence of
failure to regress of parts of the aortic arch system during
embryonic development.
♦ Barium swallow, bronchoscopy or angiography are
investigations to diagnose but angiography is diagnostic.
♦ Impressions and displacement of esophagus from vascular
causes may be congenital or acquired. Congenital lesions like
aberrant right subclavian artery (0.5%) and right-sided aortic
arch with aberrant left subclavian artery may rarely cause
esophageal symptoms (dysphagia lusoria) and are often
demonstrated as chance findings.
♦ The aberrant right subclavian artery arises as the last branch of
aortic arch; its first part is persistence part of distal right arch,
which may be larger than its expected diameter, known as
KOMMERELL’S diverticulum. This aberrant vessel passes
obliquely upwards and to right, posterior to esophagus,
causing posterior indentation on it. If the vessel is dilated at this
point it makes wide indentation. There is no vascular ring with
this anomaly and it is almost always asymptomatic.
♦ Aberrant left subclavian artery from right aortic arch is the last
branch and passes upwards and to left behind esophagus. A
vascular ring is usually formed by arterial depth joins the left
pulmonary artery to the left subclavian artery, which occasionally
may cause significant esophageal compression.
♦ Treatment is indicated for the relief of symptoms and is usually
directed at dividing the nondominant avascular component of
the rings.
413. Ans: (a) (Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery)

(Ref. Grainger’s Diagnostic Radiology, 4th ed. 946, 1027 and above
Q)
Aberrant left subclavian artery is a common cause of dysphagia
lusoria. Aberrant left subclavian artery from right aortic arch is the
last branch and passes upwards and to left behind esophagus. A
vascular ring is usually formed by arterial depth joins the left
pulmonary artery to the left subclavian artery, which occasionally
may cause significant esophageal compression.
414. Ans: (d) (Diffuse esophageal spasm)

(Ref. Harrison 15th Edition, Pg.1675; 14th Edition, Pg.1592; Bailey
and Love 22nd Edition, Pg.660)
Diffuse esophageal spasm is synonymous with ‘corkscrew
esophagus’ or Rosary esophagus. In diffuse esophageal spasm,
barium swallow shows that normal sequential peristalsis below
the aortic arch is replaced by uncoordinated simultaneous
contractions that produce the appearance of curling or multiple
ripples in the wall, sacculations, and pseudodiverticula the
“corkscrew” esophagus.
415. Ans: (b) (Laparoscopic myotomy)

Efficacy of botulinum toxin is not yet established and follow up in
such patients has been disappointing. Myotomy (Laparoscopic or
open surgical) and pneumatic dilatation are the two most widely
used and analyzed methods of definitive therapy in achalasia cardia.
Treatment of Achalasia Cardia is directed towards relieving the
obstruction caused by non-relaxing lower esophageal sphincter.
Early Stages of Disease before esophagus dilates

Use of sublingual nitroglycerine, long acting nitrates
and Calcium channel blockers

Late Stage

Definitive Treatment
(Disruption of the circular muscle layer
within ther LES)

Forceful Dilatation Esophagomyotomy
- Pneumatic / Hydrostatic Heller’s myotomy is
ideally suited to a minimal
acess approach by either
204 ENT
Intrasphincteric botulinum toxin injection into the LES through a
flexible esophagoscope is a novel pharmacological treatment.
The potent neurotoxin inhibits the release of acetylcholine from
nerve endings. However follow up in such patients has been
disappointing despite encouraging early results
(Ref. Sabiston, Pg. 16,721; Harrison 15th Edition, Pg.1645)
416. Ans: (a) (Lower oesophagus lined by columnar epithelium)

Barrett’s esophagus is defined as a columnar metaplasia of distal
esophagus.
The metaplastic columnar epithelium may be gastric or intestinal
in type.
To qualify for the term Barrett’s, the metaplastic epithelium either:
must extend 3 cm above normal G. E. junction or
in shorter segments must have intestinal type metaplasia on biopsy.
417. Ans: (a) (Barrett’s esophagus)

In Barrett’s esophagus there is a metaplastic change in the
esophageal mucus membrane. The resulting columnar epithelium
is susceptible to the development of the adenocarcinoma. The risk
of developing adenocarcinoma in Barrett’s esophagus is 50-100
times that of general population. If 100 patients with Barrett’s
esophagus are followed prospectively for one year, one
adenocarcinoma can be expected for that group.
Alcohol abuse, achalasia, and smoking are all risk factors for the
development of squamous carcinoma of the esophagus.
418. Ans: (b) (Middle third)

(Ref. Harrison 14th Edition, Pg.568, 15th Edition, Pg.579)
Squamous cell Ca and Adenocarcinoma are the commonest types
of Carcinoma esophagus:
Squamous cell Ca is the commonest type in India.
Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type in most western countries
and is increasing in incidence. Squamous cell Ca is commonest
carcinoma that often affects upper 2/3 of the esophagus.
Commonest site of squamous cell carcinoma is the middle 1/3rd.
Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type of carcinoma that affects
the lower 1/3 of esophagus.
This is so because; the carcinoma that arises in Barrett’s
esophagus is an adenocarcinoma.
Squamous cell Carcinoma
Cervical esophagus is affected in : 15%
Middle 1/3rd:45%
Lower 1/3rd : 40%
Commonest site of carcinoma esophagus is middle 1/3rd of
esophagus.
419. Ans: (d) (Compression by aberrant blood vessels)
(Ref. Bailey and Love, 23rd Edition, Pg. 859)
Several vascular anomalies may produce dysphagia by
compression of the esophagus. Classically this is due to an
aberrant right subclavian artery (arteria lusoria). However, vascular
rings, such as a double aortic arch, more commonly compress the
oesophagus. Dysphagia occurs in only a minority of cases and
usually presents early in childhood, although it can occur in the
later years. Treatment is usually by division of the non-dominant
component of the ring.
420. Ans: (c) (Myotomy with excision of the sac)

(Ref. Bailey and Love, 23rd Edition, Pg. 887)
“The optimum treatment for Zenker’s diverticulum is excision of
the diverticulum combined with cricopharyngeal myotomy to deal
with underlying obstruction.”
In frail patients or those who refuse operation diverticulo-
esophagostomy is done (ie the septum between the esophagus
and the diverticula is divided, by the use of an endoscopic stapler
gun known as Dohlman’s procedure).
Zenker’s diverticulum
It is a pulsion diverticulum. It lies between the oblique and horizontal
fibres of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor.
421. Ans: (b) (Excision of the diverticulum with cricopharyngomyotomy)
(Ref. Harrison 14th ed. 1595)
Hypopharyngeal (Zenker’s) Diverticulum
This pulsion diverticulum is situated posteriorly, low in the neck,
bulging through the potentially weak area between the oblique and
horizontal fibers of the cricopharyngeus muscle.
When small, these diverticula are always posterior, but larger ones
tend to flop to one side (usually to the left), and may become so
large that esophageal compression or obstruction may result. Stasis
is a prominent feature because the neck of the diverticulum is higher
than the diverticulum itself, and an air-fluid level is commonly seen
on soft-tissue films. Below the diverticulum, the cricopharyngeal
sphincter is usually prominent. Many authorities believe that
dyskinesia between pharyngeal contraction and cricopharyngeal
relaxation plays a major role in pathogenesis.
The approach to treatment is controversial, ranging from
diverticulopexy alone (to aid in drainage), to diverticulectomy with
no myotomy, to excision of the diverticulum combined with
cricopharyngeal myotomy. More correlative studies are in favour of
excision of the diverticulum combined with cricopharyngeal myotomy.
422. Ans: (a) (Stomach)

(Ref. Sabiston Surgery 16th/744)
206 ENT
Generally stomach is preferred over all the other visceral organs as
a visceral esophageal substitute, being far more resilient than either
jejunum or colon and easily reaching the neck to replace the entire
thoracic esophagus. It has a good blood supply. Colonic inter
position is a tremendous operative undertaking in a patient with
esophageal carcinoma and should be utilized only when stomach
is not suitable for esophageal replacement. Colon is used if the
patient has undergone a partial or total gastrectomy previously, or if
tumor involves the stomach to preclude a 5 cm margin. Jejunal
loops can also be used, but limited vascular supply restricts mobility.
423. Ans: (a) (Achlasia cardia)

Ref: (Dhingra ENT-3rd/400)
Presence of dysphagia which is more for liquids than for solids
along with a characteristic rat tail appearance on radiography in a
young patient suggests the diagnosis of achlasia.
Malignancy (CA esophagus) usually presents with dysphagia which
is more for solids than for liquids and is seen in the elderly.
Zenker’s diverticulum and esophageal spasm do not show a rat-
tail appearance on radiography.
424. Ans: (a) (Zenker’s diverticulum)

Ref: (Dhingra-3rd/330)
Regurgitation of food eaten 3 days ago hints to the possibility of
another sac / diverticulum which stores food. Age of the patient and
gurgling sound support the diagnosis of Zenkers diverticulum.
Zenker’s diverticulum
What it is:
It is a pulsion diverticulum where pharyngeal mucosa
herniates through the Killian’s dehiscence
(a week area between two parts of Inferior constrictor)
Age of presentation
This condition is usually seen after 60 years of age (elderly)
Symptomatology / presentation
Dysphagia: As mouth of the sac is wider than the opening
of esophagus, food preferentially enters the sac. When the
pouch gets filled with food, it presses on the esophagus
and produces dysphagia.
Gurgling Sound in produced during swallowing.
Cough and Aspiration pneumonia: food eaten over the last
few days may regurgitate as it collects in the puch causing
cough and aspiration pneumonia.
Malnutrition: Patients is often malnourished due to dysphagia.
425. Ans: (d) (Common in elderly male):
Ref: (Harrison-14th/1595; Harrison-15th/1648, 579; (Not in Harrison-
16th) Kumar Clark-5th/267; Dhingra-3rd/399)
Plummer Vinson syndrome refers to the combination of
hypopharyngeal webs and iron deficiency anaemia in middle aged
women.
Plummer Vinson Syndrome (Patterson Kelly)
Upper esophageal web
Iron deficiency anaemia
Koilonychias
Glossitis and angular stomatitis
426. Ans: (d) (Benzene therapy):

Ref: (Harrison-15th/578; Harrison-16th/524)
1. Alcohol consumption
2. Smoking cigarettes
3. Ingested Carcinogens
Nitrates
Smoked opiates
Fungal toxins is pickled vegetables
4. Mucosal damage
Chronic Achalasia
Lye ingestion/ Hot tea
Radiation induced strictures
5. Host Susceptibility
Patterson Kelley syndrome or Plummer Vinson syndrome
Esophageal web + Glossitis + Iron deficiency
Tylosis palmaris et plantaris : Congenital hyperkeratosis
and pitting of palms and soles
6. Chronic Gastric Reflux, ie. Barrett’s esophagus for
Adenocarcinoma
427. Ans: (d)(Ca Esophagus):
(Ref. Harrison-15th/579; Harrison-16th/524)
Congenital hyperkeratosis and pitting of palms and soles (i.e. tylosis
palmaris et plantaris) is a known etiological factor for squamous
Ca of Esophagus – Harrison.
428. Ans: (a) (Barrett’s Esophagus):
Ref: (Schwartz Pre-Test/Q. 434)
In Barrett’s esophagus there is a metaplastic change in the
esophageal mucus membrane. The resulting columnar epithelium
is susceptible to the development of the adenocarcinoma. The risk
208 ENT
of developing adenocarcinoma in Barrett’s esophagus is 50-100
times, that of general population. If 100 patients with Barrett’s
esophagus are followed prospectively for one year, one
adenocarcinoma can be expected in that group. Alcohol abuse,
achalasia, lye stricture and smoking are all risk factors for the
development of squamous carcinoma of the esophagus.
429. Ans: (b) (Barrett’s esophagus)

Ref: (Bailey Love-23rd/870)
Adenocarcinoma is seen in Barrett’s esophagus.
Barrett’s esophagus is a metaplastic change in the lining mucosa
of esophagus in response to chronic gastroesophageal reflex.
In Barrett’s esophagus the junction between esophageal mucosa
(squamous) and gastric mucosa (columnar) moves proximally such
that the lower part of esophagus now becomes lined with different
types of gastric mucosa. This part of oesophagus has an increased
risk for adenocarcinoma i.e. Adenocarcinoma is seen in Barrett’s
esophagus.
430. Ans: (b)(Middle third)

Ref: (Harrison-14th/568, 15th/579; 16th/524)
Cervical esophagus is affected in: 15%
Middle 1/3rd esophagus is affected in: 35%
Lower 1/3rd esophagus is affected in: 50%
Squamous cell Carcinoma and Adenocarcinoma are the

commonest types of
Squamous cell carcinoma is the commonest type in India
Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type in most western countries
and is increasing in incidence.
Commonest site of carcinoma esophagus is lower one third.
Commonest site of squamous cell carcinoma of esophagus is
middle one third.
Common site of adenocarcinoma of esophagus: Lower one third.
Squamous cell CA is the commonest carcinoma that often affects
upper 2/3 of the esophagus.
Adenocarcinoma is the commonest type of carcinoma that affects
the lower 1/3 of esophagus. This is so because; the carcinoma that
arises in Barrett’s esophagus is an adenocarcinoma.
431. Ans: (a) (Cisplatin)

Ref: (Bailey-23rd/879; Bailey-24th/1015)
Chemotherapy for esophageal cancer has improved considerably
with the advent of Regimens containing Cisplatin – Bailey.
The best responses are seen in Squamous cell carcinomas.
432. Ans: (a) (Acute tubular necrosis)
(Ref. KD Tripathi -5th ed. 777)
The most important toxicity of cisplatinum is renal impairment.
Acute tubular necrosis is a manifestation of renal impairment.
433. OESOPHAGUS:
1. Average length of oesophagus is 25 cm.
2. It has got four constrictions normally present at following sites:
a) 10 cm from the incisor teeth (At the junction of cricopharynx,
the narrowest part).
b) 15 cm from the incisor teeth (where it is crossed by left
bronchus).
c) 25 cm from the incisor teeth (where it is indented by left
atrium).
d) 40 cm from the incisor teeth (at the oesophago-cardiac
junction).
3. It is the most muscular segment of GIT
4. Upper one third has striated muscle, lower two third
oesophageal wall is composed of inner circular muscle and
outer longitudinal muscle without serosal layer.
5. Toughest layer of oesophagus is muscularis mucosa.
6. Only myenteric plexus is present in lower two third of oesophagus
while in upper one third, both myenteric and meissner’s plexuses
are absent.
7. Mucosal lining is squamous except in distal 1–2 cm, which is
lined by columnar epithelium.
8. Oesophagus reaches abdomen through a hiatus in
right crus of diaphragm at the level of T10.
9 Blood supply of oesophagus:
a) Upper one-third—Inferior thyroid artery
b) Middle one-third—Oesophageal branches of aorta
c) Lower one-third—Branches from left gastric artery.
434. Ans: (a), (b), (c), (d)

Following factors guard against reflux of gastric contents in to the
oesophagus:
Sphincteric action of lower oesophageal muscle fibers or fibers of
right crura.
Mucosal flap produced by muscularis mucosa of the stomach.
Difference between intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure.
Acute gastroesophageal angle.
435. Ans: (a) (Oesophagitis)

(Ref. Robbin’s pathology-7th Edn-802)
♦ Hiatal hernia is characterized by separation of diaphragmatic
crura and widening of the space between the muscular crura
and esophageal wall.
210 ENT
♦ Types:
a) Sliding or axial hernia (95%)
b) Paraesophageal or nonaxial hernia (5%)
♦ Complications of hiatal hernia are numerous, but reflux
esophagitis is frequent with sliding hernias and loss of tone
of LES with regurgitation of peptic juices into esophagus is
probably the result of rather than the cause of a sliding hernia.
♦ Other complications include:
♦ Aspiration pneumonitis
♦ Oesophageal perforation
♦ Carcinoma oesophagus
♦ Ulcerations and bleeding of esophagus
♦ Strangulation/obstruction
436. Ans: None

The nasopharynx (epipharynx) extends from the base of the skull to
the tip of the soft palate (uvula) and is concerned only with respiration.
The oropharynx (meso) extends from the pharyngeal surface of the
soft palate to the hyoid bone, and the hypopharynx (laryngo-) from the
hyoid bone to the pharyngoesophageal segment; it includes the crico-
pharyngeus muscle.
From above downward hypopharynx, consist of epiglottis, valeculae,
pharyngeal walls, and pyriform sinuses.
MCQ in Otolaryngology
1-The following are anatomic structures of the auricle except :

a- Helix
b-Tragus
c-Concha
d-Antrum
( The antrum is the largest air cells of the mastoid bone )
2-The auriculo temporal nerve

a-supplies the skin of the upper 2/3 of the lateral surface of the auricle
b- is a branch of maxillary nerve
c- supplies the middle ear mucosa through the tympanic plexus
d- non of the above
-The auriculo-temporal nerve is a branch of mandibular division of the trigeminal

nerve
- The middle ear mucosa is supplied by the tympanic branch of Glosspharyngeal
nerve called Jacobson nerve
3-The lobule of the ear has its sensory innervation from:

a-great auricular nerve
b- auriculotemporal nerve
c-arnold branch of vagus
d- facial nerve
4-The tympanic membrane is divided into:

a- Two equal parts called pars tensa and pars flaccida
b- A major upper part called pars flaccida and a small lower part called pars tensa
c-A small upper part called pars flaccida and a major lower part called pars tensa
d- non of the above
5-The bulge seen on the medial wall of the middle ear is :

a- known as the promontory
b- formed by the bony semicirculr canal
c-is formed by the basal turn of the bony cochlea
d-all of the above
e- both 1 and 2
f- both 1 and 3
6-The Eustachian tube is opened by contraction of :

a- tensor tympani muscle
b-levator palati muscle
c-tensor palati muscle
d-Salpingopharyngeus muscle
7-The sensory end-organ of the semicircular canal is :

a- the organ of Corti
b- the macula
c- the crista
d- non of the above
-The organ of Corti is the sensory end organ of hearing in the cochlea
-The macula is the sensory end organ in the utricle and saccule
8-Auricular hematoma
a- may be complicated by otitis externa
b- cauli ear is one of its complications
c- evacuation of the extra-vasated blood is not essential
d- all of the above
-Auricular hematoma may be complicated by perichondritis and
cauli ear
evacuation of the extra-vasated blood is essential to avoid complications
9-It is better to avoid ear wash for removal of :

a- wax
b- animate foreign body
c- impacted vegetable foreign body
d- non of the above
- Vegetable FB will swell if ear wash fails to get it out which will cause more
impaction
10-It is better to avoid ear wash for removal of :

a- wax
b- animate foreign body
c-calculator battery
d- non of the above
-Don’t wash if the FB is a calculator battery as this may lead to leak of acid and
chemical burn of the skin
11-The causative organism in ear fruncle is :

a- proteus
b- Pseudomonas
c- staph. Aeureus
d- E coli
12-The causative organism in malignant otitis externa :

a- proteus
b-Pseudomonas
c-staph. Aeureus
d- morexella catarrhalis
13-Malignant otitis externa is :

a- a truly malignant disease eroding the external canal
b- is most commonly seen in elderly uncontrolled diabetics
c- staphylococcus aureus is the causative organism
d- non of the above
14-In the adult, the Eustachian tube is approximately the following lehgth :
a- 30 mm
b- 20 mm
c- 36 mm
d- 45 mm
15-In Gradenigo syndrome diplopia is due to inflammation of the following

cranial nerve :
a- IV nerve
b- V nerve
c- III Nerve
d- VI nerve
-This syndrome is charecterized by:
1- otorrhoea
2-facial pain due to iritation of V cranial nerve
3-diplopia and squint due to iritation of VI cranial nerve in Dorello canal
16-Conductive deafness in longtudinal temporal bone fracture may be due to:

a- Rupture of the tympanic membrane
b- Ossicular disruption
c- Non of the above
d- Both 1 and 2
17-Longtudinal temporal bone fracture :

a- is less common than the transverse type
b- is usually associated with sensori-neural hearing loss
c- facial nerve paralysis is a common association with this type
d- non of the above
18-The following organisms are involved in acute otitis media except

a- streptococcus pneumonia
b-hemophilus influenza
c-Pseudomonas aeroginosa
d-morexella cararrhalis
19-All of the following are diagnostic of tympanic membrane retraction except

a- fore-shortened handle of malleus
b- prominent lateral process of malleus
c- Schwartz sign
d- distorted cone of light
-Schwartz sign is a flamingo red tinge of the tympanic membrane due to increased
vascularity of the promontory and indicates active otosclerosis
20-Throbbing and severe earach is present in the following stage of acute otitis
media :
a- stage of salpingitis
b- stage of catarrhal otitis media
c- stage of suppurative otitis media
d- stage of tympanic membrane perforation
21-The tympanic membrane perforation in acute otitis media is
a- central in the pars tensa
b- marginal in the pars tensa
c- small in the pars flaccida
d- non of the above
22-Type c tympanogram is consistent with :

a- secretory otitis media
b- otosclerosis
c- Eustachian tube dysfunction
d- otosclerosis
-In Type C there is Normal compliance but the peak of the tympanogram is at the
negative side so it is consistent with ET dysfunction in which there is negative
pressure in the middle ear
23-By central drum perforation we mean :

a- a perforation at the central part of the drum
b- a perforation in the pars tensa which is surrounded by a rim of tympanic membrane
c a perforation of the pars flaccida
d- a perforation in the pars tensa which is not surrounded by a rim of tympanic
membrane
24-All of the following may be seen in the tubotympanic type of chronic

suppurative otitis media except
a- mucopurulent otorrhoea
b- central tympanic membrane perforation
c- marginal tympanic membrane perforation
d- profuse otorrhoea
25-Cholesteatoma is characterized by
a- continuous mucopurulent ear discharge
b-A foul smelling ear discharge
c- A central tympanic membrane perforation
d- non of the above
26-A child with retraced drum and conductive deafness after inadequate
treatment of acute suppurative otitis media is suffering from :
a-chronic tubotympanic otitis media
b-chronic atticoantral otitis media
c- otitis media with effusion
d- all of the above
e-non of the above
27-The commonest cause of conductive deafness in children is:

a- wax
b-secretory otitis media
c-otomycosis
d- otosclerosis
28-The commonest cause of conductive deafness in adults is:

a- wax
b-secretory otitis media
c-otomycosis
d- otosclerosis
29-In a patient suffering from purulent otorrhoea and attic perforation :

a- treatment is essentially surgical
b- medical treatment and follow up is sufficient
c- myringoplasty is the only needed treatment
d- non of the above
-The presence of foul odour otorrhoea and attic perforation is diagnostic of
cholesteatoma. Treatment of this case is essentially surgical by mastoidectomy
operation ( radical or modified radical)
30-In a 45 years old female patient presenting with pulsating tinnitus and red
mass behind the drum, all of the following are true except :
a- glomus tumour is a possible diagnosis
b-more assessment is needed by CT scan or MRI
c- MRI angiography confirm the diagnosis
d-biopsy is essential to verify the pathological nature
-Biopsy is contraindicated as it will lead to profuse bleeding
31-Bezold abscess is a collection of pus :

a- above and in front of the auricle
b-behind the auricle
c-in the upper part of the neck deep to the sternomastoid
d- in the peritonsillar space
32-During ear examination the reservoir sign is diagnostic of:

a- acute otitis media
b- mastoiditis
c- petrositis
d- cholesteatoma
33-An early and diagnostic sign of mastoiditis is :

a- reservoir sign
b-sagging of the posterosuperior part of the bony canal
c-perforated tympanic membrane
d- postauricular mastoid abscess
-Sagging means bulging downwards of the posterosuperior part of the bony external
canal and is due to periostitis of the bone overlying the mastoid antrum. It is an early
and diagnostic sign of mastoiditis
34-Vertigo and nystagmus induced by pressure on the tragus is diagnostic of :

a- serous labyrinthitis
b- circumscribed per- labyrintserous
c suppurative labyrinthitishitis
d all of the above
35-In a case of cholesteatoma, sever spontaneous vertigo with Nausea and

vomiting is suspicious of
a- circumscribed peri-labyrinthitis
b- diffuse serous labyrinthitis
c- extradural abscess
d- petrositis
36-In a patient having acute suppurative otitis media with bulging drum,
myringotomy is benificial to
a-drain the middle ear
b- avoid rupture of the tympanic membrane
c-avoid complications
d-all of the above
37-The most common complication of myringotomy operation is

a- injury of facial nerve
b-dislocation of the incus
c-injury of the jagular bulb
d- residual perforation
38-In myringotomy operation the posterosuperior quadrant of the tympanic

membrane must be avoided :
a- to avoid injury of dehiscent jagular bulb
b- to avoid injury of the ossicles
c- non of the above
d- both 1 & 2
39-The combination of unilateral otorrhoea, severe facial pain and diplopia is

known as :
a- Piere Robin syndrome
b- Gradenigo’s syndrome
c- Kartagner syndrome
d- Ramsay Hunt sundrome
40-A child with an attic drum perforation who developed nausea, projrctile
vomiting and fever of 40 degree is suspicious to have got :
a- otogenic meningitis
b- otogenic labyrinthitis
c- petrositis
d- mastoiditis
41-The first line of treatment in a child who develops lower motor neurone facial
paralysis after acute otitis media is :
a- antibiotics and corticosteroids
b- decompression of facial nerve
c- exploration of facial nerve
d- myringotomy
42-Intermittent fever with rigors and headach in a patient with cholesteatma

may be due to :
a-otogenic meningitis
b-otogenic brain abscess
c- lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
d-extradural abscess
43-A positive Kernig sign means

a-reflex flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed
b- inability to extend the knee completely when the hip is flexed on the abdomen
c- inability to do rapid ulternating movement
d- non of the above
44-A positive Brudzniski sign means

a-reflex flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is flexed
b- inability to extend the knee completely when the hip is flexed on the abdomen
c- inability to do rapid ulternating movement
d- non of the above
45-A persistent profuse ear discharge after acute otitis media is

a- cholesteatoma
b- secretory otitis media
c-mastoiditis
d- diffuse otitis externa
-in mastoiditis there is profuse mucopurulent or purulent otorrhoea which recurs
rapidly after remova ( a diagnostic sign called reservoir sign)
46-In otitic barotrauma, the following statements are correct except:

a-occurs during airplane ascent
b- occurs during airplane rapid descent
c- can cause rupture of the tympanic membrane
d- occurs during diving
47-The commonest cause of vertigo is

a- meniere’s disease
b-labyrinthitis
c-benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
d-ototoxicity
48-Most cases of extradural abscess of the temporal lobe

a- are asymptomatic and discovered accidentally during mastoidectomy
b- present with persistent ipsilateral temporal headach
c- present with vertigo
d- present with pulsating discharge,hearing loss and tinnitus
49-The type of hearing loss in otosclerosis may be

a- conductive
b- sensorineural
c-mixed
d-all of the above
-In stapedial otosclerosis hearing loss is conductive
-In cochlear type the hearing loss is sensorineural
-In combined otosclerosis the hearing loss is mixed
50-The commonest cause of bilateral sensorineural hearing loss in elderly

individuals is
a- cochlear otosclerosis
b- presbyacusis
c- diabetes milltus
d- ototoxicity
51-A 30 years old patient with recurrent attacks of vertigo, hearing loss and
tinnitus associated with nausea and vomiting has
a- benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
b-vestibular neuronitis
c-Meniere’s disease
d-acoustic neuroma]
explanation
1- In benign paroxysmal positional vertigo there is recurrent attacks of vertigo for
seconds which occurs when the patient assumes certain head position
2- in vestibular neuronitis there is sudden severe vertigo for dayes but bo hearing loss
3- in Meniere’s disease recurrent attacks of vertigo, hearing loss and tinnitus
associated with nausea and vomiting
52-Before tympanoplasty in a 30 years old patient, the following is required

a- audiogram
b- ensure dry perforation
c-treatment of any underlying nasal or paranasal sinus infection
d-all of the above
e- non of the above
53-The XI, X and XI cranial nerves may be involved in all of the following except
a-acoustic neuroma
b-transverse temporal bone fracture
c-malignant otitis externa
d- squamous cell carcinoma of the middle ear
-in transverse temporal bone fracture the involved nerves are VII & VIII
54-In lower motor neurone facial paralysis with intact taste sensation at the
anterior 2/3 of the tongue, the level of the lesion is :
a- in the internal auditory canal
b-in the horizontal tympanic part
c- in the vertical part above the stapes
d- in the stylomastoid foramen
55-Failure to close the eye voluntarily is a symptom of

a- paralysis of the trigeminal nerve
b- upper motor neurone facial paralysis
c- lower motor neurone facial paralysis
d- non of the above
56-Uncontrolled diabetes in elderly patient may predispose to

a- cholesteatoma
b- malignant otitis externa
c- presbyacusis
d- vestibular neuronitis
57-A large near total perforation following acute necrotizing otitis media must be
followed up for fear of
a- recurrent middle ear infection
b- secondary acquired cholesteatoma
c-retraction pocket
d-tympanosclerosis
58-By modified radical mastoidectomy we mean

a- removal of mastoid air cells and all middle ear contents
c- removal of diseased mastoid air cells
c- removal of mastoid air cells and all middle ear contents with preservation of
healthy remnants of tympanic membrane and ossicles
d- non of the above
59-By radical mastoidectomy operation we mean

a- removal of mastoid air cells and all middle ear contents except stapes
b- removal of diseased mastoid air cells
c- removal of mastoid air cells and all middle ear contents with preservation of
healthy remnants of tympanic membrane and ossicles
d- non of the above
60-Extensive cholesteatoma is best treated by

a- cortical mastoidectomy
b- radical mastoidectomy
c- modified reducal mastoidectomy
d- myringotomy wiyh insertion of T tube
61-Which of the following statements is false concerning Cochlear implant

a-postlingually deaf get far better benefit than prelingually deaf
b-it is indicated in total sensory hearing loss
c-the auditory nerve should be intact
d- After the operation speech discrimination is good and lip reading is not needed
62-Which of the following statements is wrong concerning myringotomy

Operation :
a- it is indicated in acute suppurative otitis media with bulging drum
b- it is indicated in secretory otitis media after failure of medical Treatment
c- it is better done in the postero superior quadrant of the tympanic membrane
d-residual perforation of the tympanic membrane is one of its complications
63-Etiology for pulsatile tinnitus includes the followings except:
a) Arteriovenous malformation of neck.
b) Otosclerosis.
c) Glomus jugulare tumors.
d) Hyperthyroidism.
e) Atherosclerosis.
64-Which of the following drugs are known to cause tinnitus?

a-Salicylates.
b-Loop Diuretics.
c-Aminoglycosides.
d-NSAID.
e-All of the above
65-Which of the following is associated with objective tinnitus

a-Menière's disease.
b-Ear wax impaction.
c-Acoustic neuroma.
d-Palatal myoclonus.
e-Middle ear effusion
66-The following have an ototoxic effect except

a- gentamycin
b- frusemide
c- streptomycin
d- amoxicilline
e- quinine

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ENT

1. All of the following are true of peripheral vertigo except:

2. The most reliable sign of acute otitis media is:

3. Which of the following statements regarding malignant otitis externa is true?

4. Which of the following is least characteristic of croup?

6. Which of the following is/are the most common cause(s) of pharyngitis?

9. The most common arterial source of posterior epistaxis is:

11. Bacterial tracheitis is most commonly caused by

12. Which is true regarding treatment of avulsed teeth:

14. Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is most commonly caused by:

THROAT AND ESOPHAGUS

358. Peritonsillar abscess is also known as: (Karnataka 98)

360. Peritonsillar abscess can extend posteriorly into: (Delhi 2000)

361. Swelling between tonsillar area and superior constrictor muscle

362. The most common malignancy of the oropharynx: (MP 2006)

364. Odynophagia is (MH PGM CET 2000)

366. Indications for tracheostomy are all EXCEPT:

367. Most common complication of Tracheostomy is: (JIPMER 2000)

368. Collar stud abscess is seen in: (Orissa 2004)

369. A tracheostomised patient, with portex tracheostomy tube, in

371. Not true regarding pterygopalatine fossa: (Orissa 2005)

372. White oral lesions are seen in EXCEPT: (Kar 2002)

373. All of the following cause a grey-white membrane in the throat

374. True statement about faucial diphtheria is: (Delhi 2001)

375. Collar stud abscess is seen in: (Orissa 2004)

376. Steeple sign is seen in: (SGPGI 2005)

378. Which of the following statement is true for Ludwig’s angina?

379. Submandibular space infection is known as: (Manipal 2002)

380. Which of the following structures are preserved in radical neck

381. Palatal myoclonus is seen in: (SGPGI 2005)

382. What is the correct sequence of the following while resuscitating

384. Most common tumor to produce metastasis to cervical lymph

385. Best diagnostic modality for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is:

386. Investigation of choice for Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is:

387. Causes of posterior soft tissue nasopharyngeal mass include all

388. All muscles of Palate are supplied by cranial accessory nerve

390. All muscles of Tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT:

391. Cranial accessory nerve supplies: (Orissa 99)

392. Mandibular nerve supplies: (PGI 89)

393. Most frequent site of branchial cyst is at: (MH-SS-CET 2005)

394. The main differential diagnosis is second branchial cleft cyst

397. Which of the following is the most beneficial technique of using

398. Which implant is used in Nasopharyngeal carcinoma:

404. Lower esophageal sphincter: (AIIMS 2005 may)

405. A young patient presents with history of dysphagia more to liquids

406. Barium study in Trendelenburg position is done for the diagnosis

407. On a chest radiograph, a double shadow behind the heart, signs

408. “Rat-tail” appearance on barium swallow examination is seen

410. “Rat tail Appearance” in barium swallow is a feature of:

411. ‘Cork-screw’ esophagus is seen in: (AI 2002; KAR 2001)

413. Dysphagia lusoria is commonly due to: (Manipal 2002)

414. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following

415. Treatment for achalasia associated with high rate of recurrence:

417. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus develops in: (AIPGE 2002)

419. Dysphagia lusoria is due to: (NOV. 2003 AIIMS)

420. A 30 years old male, presents with symptoms of regurgitation of

421. Bhanwarilal presents with feature of foul smelling food

425. All are true regarding Plummer Vinson syndrome, except:

426. The following are predisposing factors for Esophageal carcinoma

429. Adenocarcinoma of esophagus is commonly found in: (AI 1998)

431. Which neo-adjuvant chemotherapy is used in Esophageal

432. The commonest side effect of cisplatinum in a patient using it for