MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

1. Long term change in the statistics of weather is referred to as________

A. Global Warming
B. Climate Change
C. Greenhouse Effect
D. Weather Change
ANSWER: B

2. Which one of the following is the major threat for biodiversity?

A. Reduction in the cutting of trees
B. Increase in the number of trees
C. Climate change
D. Balance in the predator and prey in forests
ANSWER: -C.

3. Climate change affects

A. Deforestation
B. Fires
C. Rainfall patterns
D. Soil erosion
ANSWER: C

4. Greenhouse effect refers to

A. Ability of atmosphere to retain water vapor
B. Ability of certain atmospheric gases to trap heat and keep the
planet relatively warm
C. Ability of cloud to scatter electromagnetic radiation
D. Ability of atmospheric conditions to convert into rain
ANSWER: B

5. How does climate change (global warming) affect human health?

A. By increasing allergies and infectious diseases
B. By increasing pain in in different organs
C. By increasing kidney disease
D. By increasing hunger
ANSWER: A

6. which of the following is not a natural cause of global warming?

A. Glacial retreat
B. movement of cluster plates
C. earth temperature
D. volcano eruptions
ANSWER: -A.

7. Which of the following gas does not contribute to the global warming?
A. Methane
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur
D. Acetylene
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

ANSWER: D

8. Cutting of trees on large scale is called

A. Deforestation
B. Reforestation
C. Afforestation
D. Forestry
ANSWER: A

9. Causes of deforestation
A. Urbanization
B. Commercial logging
C. Soil Erosion
D. Forestry
ANSWER: B

10. Consequences of deforestation

A. Food shortage
B. Exposing soil to heat
C. Health issues
D. Poverty
ANSWER: D

11. Effects of global warming

A. Increase in carbon dioxide and greenhouse gases
B. Shortage of water and food in urban areas
C. Tornadoes, hurricanes, drought, landslides
D. Burning of fossil fuels and emission of gases
ANSWER: C

12. Causes of global warming

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Greenhouse gases
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Nitric oxide
ANSWER: B

13. The main cause of wildfire is?

A. Volcanic activity
B. Lightening
C. Pollution
D. Human activity
ANSWER:-D
.
14. Desertification refers to
A. land degradation in arid, semi –arid areas
B. Land degradation in Tropical areas
C. Land degradation in Urban areas
D. Land degradation in Rainforest
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

ANSWER: A

15. Renewable Energy comes from

A. either directly or indirectly from the sun
B. Directly from Water
C. Windmills
D. Fossil Fuel
ANSWER: A

16. The renewable Energy Power Sector includes

A. Environment programs
B. Small hydropower programs
C. Afforestation programs
D. Reforestation programs
ANSWER: B

17. The best way to reduce deforestation is by_________________

A. Using more paper
B. Clear more area of trees to grow plant
C. Burning forest to create cultivated land
D. Clear more area of plants to grow trees
ANSWER: D

18. Which is not the correct approach to reduce global warming

A. Cutting down use of fossil fuels
B. Reducing deforestation
C. Improving efficiency of energy use
D. Cutting trees and increasing growth of human population
ANSWER: D

19. Identify the correct pair

A. Basel Convention – Biodiversity conservation
B. Kyoto protocol – climate change
C. Montreal protocol – Global Warming
D. Ramsar convention – Groundwater pollution
ANSWER: B

20. The solar energy that warms the Earth includes visible light, infrared and
_______________________ coming from the sun.
A. gamma rays
B. ultraviolet radiation
C. microwaves
D. Sunspots
ANSWER: B

21. Which gas is likely to be reduced in the atmosphere by deforestation?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

D. Sulphur dioxide
ANSWER:C

22. Greenhouse gases are

A. Sulphur dioxide
B. Carbon dioxide (co2), methane (ch4) and nitrous oxide (n2o)
C. Hydroxy flurocarbon
D. Carbon monoxide
ANSWER: B

23. Concentration of greenhouse gases is increasing due to

A. Deforestation
B. More of garbage
C. Increasing Urbanisation
D. More of Pollution
ANSWER: A

24. The depletion of the ozone layer is caused by

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrous oxide
C. Methane
D. Chlorofluorocarbon
ANSWER:D

25. Montreal protocol is related to the:

A. Global warming
B. Ozone layer depletion
C. Sustainable development
D. Food security
ANSWER: B

26. Ozone layer can be depleted by

A. Human action
B. Nature
C. Sulphur
D. Agriculture
ANSWER: A

27. An ozone-depleting substance is mainly used in:

A. Burning fossil fuels
B. Chimneys
C. All human activities
D. Cooling and refrigeration applications,
ANSWER: D

28. Ozone Hole enhances

A. UV radiations going up
B. Number of Diabetics
C. Skin cancers
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

D. Burning of trees
ANSWER: C

29. Air pollution is caused by

A. Sulphuric acid,
B. Carbon monoxide,
C. Nitrogen dioxide,
D. Fluorocarbons
ANSWER: B

30. Noise pollution leads to

A. High Blood Pressure
B. Diabetes
C. Cancer
D. Blindness
ANSWER: A

31. Air pollution is not caused by

A. Pollen grains,
B. Hydroelectric power
C. Industries,
D. Automobiles
ANSWER: B

32. Water pollution is due to

A. Sulphur dioxide,
B. carbon dioxide,
C. oxygen,
D. Industrial discharge
ANSWER: D

33. Modes of controlling pollution in large cities include

A. Cleanliness and less use of gases
B. Proper disposal of organic wastes, sewage and industrial effluents
C. Broader roads and increase urbanisation
D. Burning of fossil fuels
ANSWER: B

34. What is the full form of UNFCCC?

A. United Nations Framework Convention on climate Change
B. United Nations Framework Climate Change Convention
C. United Nations Formation of Convention on climate Change
D. United Nations Conference on climate change
ANSWER: A

35. Kyoto Protocol is related to

A. Reduction in Greenhouse gas emission
B. Sustainable development
C. Protection of environment
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

D. Human Rights
ANSWER: A

36. Kyoto protocol is an international treaty to reduce

A. War
B. Global warming
C. Climate change
D. Greenhouse gases
ANSWER: D

37. Objectives of the Kyoto Protocol

A. setting targets for nations to reduce greenhouse gases emission
B. Setting rules for use of chlorofluorocarbons
C. Emission permission to release carbon
D. Giving permission to exchange carbon
ANSWER: A

38. What are Carbon Credits?

A. It is the difference between the carbon emission allowed and
actually emitted carbon
B. It is the loan amount by IMF for reducing pollution
C. It is loan given to poor people for buying Modern Stoves
D. Money given to buy more energy resources
ANSWER: A

39. Carbon credit is traded in the form of

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Climate change
C. A New currency
D. Fossil fuels
ANSWER: C

40. What is Sustainable Development?

A. Development which meets the needs of current generation without
compromising the ability of future generations
B. Equal development of all living beings
C. Equal distribution of resources
D. Saving the environment
ANSWER: A

41. Recommended actions for Sustainable development

A. Recycling water, polluted air and waste
B. Reducing deforestation and climate change
C. Reducing pollution, population growth and waste
D. Recycling food, water and shelter
ANSWER: C

42. Silent Spring - (Bringing public awareness)

A. A book published in the US in the mid 1960’s warning people
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

B. about the disastrous effects of pesticides and particularly DDT

C. An Environmental Movement for creating awarness
D. the Environmental protection Agency established in 1970.
ANSWER: A

43. Chipko is an Environmental movement

A. against cutting of trees.
B. Against recycling of plastic
C. Against killing of wild animals
D. Against water pollution
ANSWER: A

44. Silent Valley Movement started in the year

A. 1972
B. 1973
C. 1981
D. 1989
ANSWER: B

45. Chipko Movement gained momentum under

A. Sunder Lal Bahuguna
B. Amrita Devi
C. Shamsher Singh Bisht
D. Govind Singh Rawat
ANSWER: A

46. Aapikko Movement started in

A. 1983
B. 1982
C. 1979
D. 1980
ANSWER: A

47. Leader of Narmada Bachao Andolan is

A. Menaka Gandhi
B. Medha Patkar
C. Vandana Siva
D. Sunder Lal Bahuguna
ANSWER: B

48. Which of the following was started in 1973 to save the evergreen tropical forest
in the Palakkad district of Kerala, India from being flooded by a hydroelectric
project?

A. Chipko Movement
B. Silent Valley Movement
C. Aapikko Movement
D. Narmada Bachao
ANSWER: B
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

49. Environmental Movements in India

A. Appiko & Narmada Bachao
B. Rachel Carsons & Medha Patkar
C. Tiger Movement & Clean India
D. Sustainable Development & Mangroves
ANSWER: A

50. Narmada bachao andolan is an.

A. Movement for rights
B. Movement for development
C. Environmental movement.
D. Environment Education programme
ANSWER: C

51. The Narmada Bachao Andolan was started in which state?

A. Gujarat
B. Rajasthan
C. Haryana
D. Karnataka

ANSWER: A

52. Project Tiger was launched in which year_______?

A. 1975
B. 1985
C. 1973
D. 1984
ANSWER: C

53. Mangroves act as a natural shield and guard

A. against natural calamities and disasters
B. for the protection of tribal forest
C. against land destruction
D. for the buildings in urban areas
ANSWER: A

54. ________________ are salt tolerant plants of tropical and subtropical inter-tidal
regions of the world
A. Roses
B. Trees
C. Mangroves
D. Bamboos
ANSWER: C

55. ________ Port has already been accused of violating Coastal Regulation Zone and
destroying mangroves.
A. Dindayal
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

B. Mundra
C. Mumbai
D. JNPT
ANSWER: B

56. The Sundarbans is divided by which two countries?

A. India-China
B. India-Bhutan
C. India-nepal
D. India-Bangladesh
ANSWER:-D.

57. CRZ- coastal regulation zone is formulated for

A. Protection of coastal land
B. Protection of the Indian coast.
C. Protection of houses in the coast
D. Protection of animals in the coast
ANSWER: B

58. What is CRZ?

A. Coastal Regulatory Zone
B. Coastal Reformation Zone
C. Coral Reef Zone
D. Coastal Road Zone

ANSWER: A

59. The CRZ Act divided India’s coastal zones into --------zones
A. Six
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
ANSWER: C

60. Ecologically sensitive areas like mangroves and coral reefs are included under
which category?
A. CRZ I
B. CRZ II
C. CRZ III
D. CRZ IV
ANSWER: A

61. The aquatic area from low tide line to territorial limits is classified as_________
A. CRZ I
B. CRZ II
C. CRZ III
D. CRZ IV
ANSWER: D
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

62. Non-conventional source of energy

A. Air, water, and Gas
B. Sulphur, Nitrogen and Carbon
C. Nitrogen, Carbon, CFC’s
D. coal, natural gas and nuclear energy
ANSWER: D

63. Non-Governmental Organizations working in the field of India are

A. O & M
B. Vindhyan
C. WWF-India
D. Silent spring
ANSWER: C

64. Human Rights are called as

A. Fundamental Rights
B. Basic Rights
C. Natural Rights
D. A, B & C
ANSWER: D

65. Which of the following describes ‘human rights’?

A. The rights an individual possesses by virtue of being a human being.
B. The freedom that only rich people should have
C. The rights of animals that human should protect
D. The rights of adults only
ANSWER: A

66. What are Human Rights?

A. Rights of a man
B. Rights derived from the inherent dignity of the human being
C. Equal rights
D. Rights granted by state
ANSWER: B
67. The concept of the Human Right is based on the concept that all human beings
are
A. Equal in Status and Rights
B. Equal in Education and Rights
C. Equal in Dignity and Rights
D. Equal in Law and Rights
ANSWER: C

68. What is the full form of UDHR?

A. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
B. United Decision on Human Rights
C. United Nations Decision on Human Rights
D. United Declaration of Human Rights
ANSWER: A
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

69. What is the legal nature of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)?
A. The UDHR is a multilateral treaty
B. The UDHR is a UN General Assembly resolution
C. The UDHR is a UN Security Council resolution
D. The UDHR is a declaration adopted by several States at an international
conference
ANSWER:-B.

70. Importance of UDHR

A. Universal and binding for all member nations
B. Not Binding on member nations
C. Violation is not a concern
D. Can deny Fundamental rights
ANSWER: A

71. The UDHR maintains that

A. It is a social, economic, cultural, and political process
B. “All humans are born free and equal in dignity and rights
C. Human Rights cannot be granted
D. It’s an alienable right
ANSWER: B

72. How many different articles are included in the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights?
A. 500
B. 80
C. 30
D. 100
ANSWER: C

73. What is DRD?

A. Department of Rural Development
B. Declaration on Right to Development
C. Demand of Right to Develop
D. Developmental Rights for Departments
ANSWER: B

74. When was DRD adopted?

A. 2010
B. 1986
C. 2011
D. 1995
ANSWER: B

75. What is the main provision of DRD?

A. Improve the well-being of children
B. To protect women
C. To improve the well-being of the entire population and all human
beings
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

D. To improve the development of country

ANSWER: C

76. Right to Development is

A. an inalienable human right
B. A collective right
C. Not legally binding
D. Not transparent
ANSWER: A

77. Which convention promotes ‘Establishing competent national tribunals and

other public institutions to protect women and take appropriate measures
against all forms of traffic in women and exploitation of women.
A. Child’s Rights Convention
B. Convention on Elimination of Discrimination Against Women
C. Universal declaration of Human Rights
D. Domestic Violence Act
ANSWER: B

78. CRC came into force in which year?

A. 1985
B. 1990
C. 1991
D. 1992
ANSWER: B

79. What is CRC?

A. Child Recreation centre
B. Convention of the Rights of Child
C. Conservation of Rights of Child
D. Creation of child’s Reformation centre
ANSWER: B

80. CRC- is the 1st legally binding international instrument to

A. incorporate human rights to protect women
B. incorporate human rights to protect Children
C. Incorporate rights for freedom
D. Incorporate right to freedom of speech
ANSWER: B

81. The right of child to participate fully in family, cultural and social life is provided
under
A. CEDAW
B. PNDT
C. CRC
D. CRY
ANSWER: C.
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

82. Governance means the process of decision making and the process by which
____________________are implemented
A. Rights
B. Acts
C. Decisions
D. Solutions
ANSWER: C

83. With reference to Right to Development Weaker sections of society like women,
children and tribal
A. Do not have right to development
B. Do not have the right to participate in development
C. Do have all the rights inclusive of Right to development
D. Do not have a higher claim to this right
ANSWER: C

84. Guiding Principle of Earth Charter

A. To build democratic societies that are economically viable and developed
B. To secure Earth’s bounty and beauty for present and future generations.
C. To care for the community of life with more unequal societies
D. To create a world that exploits more resources
ANSWER: B

85. CEDAW is made to protect the rights of

A. Children
B. Human beings
C. Women
D. Transgenders
ANSWER: B

86. Full form of CEDAW is

A. Convention of Elimination of Discrimination Against Women
B. Centre of Elimination of Discrimination Against Women
C. Centre of Eradication of Discrimination Against Women
D. Centre of Eradication of Discrimination Against Workers
ANSWER: A

87. Which statement is NOT correct with reference to CEDAW?

A. Discrimination against women and girls must end
B. Equal rights for all irrespective of gender
C. Participation at national and international fronts
D. Right to work should be gender based
ANSWER: D

88. CEDAW can make a difference for women and girls specifically to:
A. Reduce sex trafficking and domestic violence
B. Reduce violence in society
C. Ensure the right to justice
D. Ensure Right to participate in a democracy
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

ANSWER: A

89. By 2010, how many countries had ratified CEDAW?

A. 24
B. 99
C. 186
D. 200
ANSWER: C

90. Which of the following rights are a special provision for women as per the
CEDAW?
A. Right to Equality,
B. Provisions under Factories Act
C. Freedom of speech,
D. Education rights
ANSWER: B.

91. Domestic & family violence act was enacted in the year ____________
A. 2001
B. 2004
C. 2005
D. 2007
ANSWER: C

92. Domestic violence is recognized by law

A. As a criminal offence.
B. As not punishable by law
C. As an accepted offence
D. As a permissible act
ANSWER: A

A. the domestic and family violence protection act does not give people legal
protection from?
A. violent relationships
B. child abuse
C. physical or sexual abuse
D. coercive
ANSWER: B.

93. Which of these do not come under the provisions of the Domestic Violence Act
Any conduct that drives a woman to suicide
A. Conduct that causes grave injury to life or health
B. Demand for separation based on emotional disconnect
C. Harassment because the woman or relatives are unable to fulfill demand
for money or property
ANSWER: C

94. Violence under Domestic Violence Act 2005 is categorized under

A. Physical, Sexual, Emotional, Social
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

B. Physical, Sexual, Vocational, Economic

C. Physical, Sexual, Emotional, Economic
D. Social, Physiological, Emotional, Psychosocial
ANSWER: C.

95. The constitution guarantees

A. Elections
B. Human Rights
C. Property
D. Family
ANSWER: B

96. Which of the following constitutional right is not guaranteed by the Indian
constitution to women?
A. discrimination by the state
B. equal pay for equal work
C. Right to Vote
D. Right to freedom of speech
ANSWER: B.

97. Problems faced by women are

A. Modern outlook
B. Sexual harassment at workplace
C. No due respect in society
D. Not allowed to work
ANSWER: B

98. The Sexual Harassment at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal Act
and Rules, came into force on
A. 9th December 2013
B. 25th December 2013
C. 18th December 2013
D. 31st December 2013
ANSWER: A

99. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 includes:

A. Acid attack, Sexual Harassment, Stalking
B. Throwing stones, giving dowry, Paying less salary
C. Working in corporate sector
D. Access to medical help
ANSWER: A

100. what is the Criminal Law Amendment Act also popularly known as?
A. anti-rape act
B. anti- violence act
C. anti-dowry act
D. Acid attack Act
ANSWER: A.
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

101. Pre- Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Regulation and Prevention of Misuse) Act,
1994 was amended in ______
A. 2001
B. 2002
C. 2003
D. 2008
ANSWER: C

102. Under the POCSO act 2012 any person below the age of _____________________ is
described as a child
A. 14
B. 18
C. 16
D. 21
ANSWER: B

103. Child labor is a social evil and the violation of human rights should be
A. universally abolished
B. universally applied
C. universally considered
D. universally discussed
ANSWER: A

104. The constitution provides the children with:

A. Free education for the age group 18- 22
B. Free compulsory education for children in the age group 6-14
C. Total ban on forced labour
D. B & C
ANSWER: D

105. Legislative measures pertaining to children are:

A. Compulsory education for children above 18yrs
B. Prohibits employment of children in hazardous factories below the age of
14yrs
C. Children are allowed to work anywhere
D. Children are allowed to work in Bric-kilns
ANSWER: B

106. Percentage of children enrolling in secondary schools in the age group 14-17 is
much ____________when compared to developed countries and other developing
countries
A. less
B. More
C. Greater
D. Equal
ANSWER: A

107. Juvenile Justice Act 2015 deals with

A. Age group of 10-12 can be tried as adults if they commit heinous crime
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

B. A heinous offence attracts a minimum seven years of imprisonment

C. Do not have right to development
D. Crimes committed by teenagers
ANSWER: B

108. The penalty/fine charged for child trafficking is

A. 1 lac
B. 5 lac
C. 7 lac
D. 9 lac
ANSWER: A

109. A person caught for child trafficking will be punished with imprisonment of
A. 15 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years
ANSWER: C.

110. Heinous offences under the juvenile justice act are punishable with
imprisonment of how many years?
A. 2years or more
B. 5years or more
C. 7years or more
D. 3years or more.
ANSWER: C.

111. When were the physically disabled children included in the right to education
act?
A. 2012
B. 2013
C. 2015
D. 2010
ANSWER: A.

112. RTE-Right to Education is included in

A. UDHR and CRC
B. Fundamental Rights and DOP
C. CEDAW and Constitution
D. DV Act and CEDAW
ANSWER: A

113. Right to Education is given under article _____ of Indian Constitution

A. Article 21a
B. Article 32a
C. Article 14a
D. Article 17 a
ANSWER: A
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

114. When was the Right to Education Act of the Parliament of India enacted?
A. 6 August 2009
B. 4 August 2009
C. 6 August 1999
D. 4 August 1999
ANSWER: B

115. What does PCPNDT stand for?

A. Post-conception and pre-natal diagnostic technique
B. Pre-conception and post-natal diagnostic technique
C. Pre-conception and pre-natal diagnostic technique
D. Post-conception and post-natal diagnostic technique
ANSWER: C.
116. Preconception & Prenatal Diagnostic Techniques Act was introduced in
A. 1974
B. 1984
C. 1994
D. 2004
ANSWER: C
117. As per PCPNDT Act, which of the following does not form a part of essential
communication to be given to the patient?
A. Explanation of all side effects of the test
B. Verbal consent to be taken before procedure
C. Prominent display of registration certificate in the clinic
D. Display in local language that disclosure of sex of foetus is prohibited
under law
ANSWER: B.

118. Features of PNDT Act does not include

A. Punishment for clinics advertising sex determination facility
B. Client or relatives asking for sex determination are liable for punishment
C. Offense under PNDT is non-cognizable and bailable
D. Mandatory registration of all clinics coming under the scope of PCPNDT
ANSWER: C

119. As per Transplantation of Human Organ Act 1994, which of the following is not
mandatory?
A. Written permission of the donor or relative is mandatory
B. All multispecialty hospitals are eligible to carry out activities that under
the THOA Act
C. Donor and recipient are made aware of side effects
D. Central government can appoint officers to investigate a complaint
ANSWER B

120. When is Removal of human organs not authorized?

MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

A. In presence of witnesses the donor authorizes removal of organs on his

death
B. If relative of deceased person has no objection for removal of organs for
therapeutic reasons
C. The Prohibition On Removal of organs is authorized only on confirmation
of death by certified medical experts
D. Person with authority believes that a near relative is likely to claim the
body of an unidentified person.
ANSWER: D.

121. Which year was the transplantation of human organs act amended for
allowance of swapping of organs widens the donor pool by including
grandparents and grandchildren in the list?
A. 2012
B. 2015
C. 2013
D. 2011
ANSWER: D.

122. Which of the near relatives are not considered as donors under the
transplantation of human organs act 2002?
A. cousins
B. spouse
C. siblings
D. parents
ANSWER: -A.

123. Sale of Cigarettes And Other Tobacco Products Around Educational Institutions
Rules, 2004 does not envisage
A. Extends to the whole of India
B. Applicable from first day of December 2004.
C. Display of board – prohibiting sale
D. Distance of 100 yard from inner compound of the institute
ANSWER :D

124. Corruption among public servants can be of:

A. Sanctioning of contract
B. Passing bills
C. Issuing of cheques
D. A, B & C
ANSWER: D

125. Commonwealth Games Scam was of

A. 70,000 Crore
B. 14,000 Crore
C. 20,000 Crore
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

D. 100 Crore
ANSWER: A

126. RTI Act 2005 came into force on

A. 12 October 2005
B. 15 August 2005
C. 15 June 2005
D. 1 November 2005
ANSWER: A

127. The long title of the RTI Act seeks to promote the following qualities in the
working of every public authority:
A. Transparency
B. Punctuality
C. Efficiency
D. Reputation
ANSWER: A

128. What is the time limit to get the information under RTI Act 2005?
A. 15 days
B. 45 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
ANSWER: C

129. Provisions of Soli Sorabjee Committee call for

A. Central complaint authority
B. Flexible tenure
C. State authority to select chief of organisation
D. Physical training
ANSWER: D
130. Recommendations of the Sorabjee committee for Police Reforms are
A. Fixed tenure
B. Criminal penalties
C. Separation of investigation and law and order duties.
D. A, B & C
ANSWER: D

131. Which of the following are indicative of corruption and criminalization of

politics?
i. use of public office for private gain
ii. Sustainable development of the constituency
iii. Favoritism to friends, relatives,
iv. Fraud & embezzlement
A. I, II, III
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV
ANSWER C.

132. THE WHISTLE BLOWERS PROTECTION ACT, 2011 does not require
A. The provisions of this Act shall apply to all the government bodies
B. provide adequate safeguards against victimisation of the person
C. Receives complaint against a public servant and misuse of authority
D. Extends to all states of India including J & K
ANSWER D.

133. Which of the following doe the RTI Act not cover?
A. Information from intelligence bureau
B. Press notes, orders, circulars, notices
C. Microfilms, floppy discs, Facsimile
D. Documents, Records, Memos
ANSWER: A

134. Which of the following are not covered under the Jan Lokpal Bill
A. Lokayukta at centre
B. Members of Jan Lokpal to be appointed by Judges and Citizens
C. Corrupt Lokpal members to be dismissed within 2 months
D. There would be no influence of legislature or executive
ANSWER: A

135. Jan Lokpal Bill 2011 aims to

A. Effectively deter complaints
B. Provide Right to vote
C. Compensate citizen grievances and protect whistle blowers
D. Provide defective information system
ANSWER: C

136. The Lokpal bill is an _______ bill

A. Anti-Corruption
B. Whistle Blower
C. Anti-State Violence
D. RTI
ANSWER: A
137. Jan Lokpal Bill is often referred to as_______
A. Citizen Amendment Bill
B. Citizen Ombudsman Bill
C. Citizen Vigilance Bill
D. Whistle Blower Bill
ANSWER: B.
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

138. Nepotism means:

A. Unaccountability
B. Undue favour from holder of patronage to relatives
C. Using others money for one’s own use
D. Wrong support
ANSWER: B

139. Telgi Scam 2002- 20,000 Crore is about

A. The cement scandal
B. The animal husbandry scandal
C. The fake stamp and stamp paper scandal
D. The securities scandal
ANSWER: C

140. White collar crime includes

A. Embezzlement and tax fraud
B. Pollution
C. Mislabelling
D. Violation of health and safety regulations
ANSWER: A

141. The net effect of politicization of crime is :

A. An effective state.
B. Country’s progress gets hindered
C. Decrease in crime rate
D. Success of police in enforcing law and order
ANSWER: B

142. Satyendra Dubey, was murdered when he tried to expose the corruption
of
A. Commonwealth Games scam
B. The treasury fraud
C. The National Highway Authority’s Road project
D. 2G Spectrum case
ANSWER: C

143. Causes of corruption

A. Corrupt politicians
B. Supply of money to political parties
C. Effective control and vigilance
D. A&B
ANSWER: D

144. Adarsh Society scam is about

A. 155mm field howitzer
B. Urea scam
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

C. Flats for the wives of martyrs in Kargil war

D. Purchase of weapons during the Kargil war
ANSWER: C

145. Whistle Blower Act means

A. One who blows whistle
B. To unveil information about illegal or unethical practices
C. To punish the person who blows whistle after seeing a girl
D. Anti-corruption Act
ANSWER: B

146. The Whistle Blowers Protection Bill, Amendment in the year:

A. 2011
B. 2012
C. 2013
D. 2015
ANSWER: D

147. Which statement is NOT correct with respect to Whistle Blower Act:
A. To protect whistle blowers
B. To disclose the identity of complainant
C. Every complaint has to include the identity of the complainant
D. Any person can make a disclosure to state or Central Vigilance
Commission
ANSWER: B

148. Key feature of Whistle Blowers Protection Bill

A. Does not protect honest officials from undue harassment
B. It does not punish any person for making false complaints
C. Prohibits the reporting of a corruption related to scientific interests and
the security of India
D. Provides penalty for victimizing a complainant.
ANSWER: C

149. __________ is a member of communist guerrilla group

A. Communist
B. Naxals
C. Terrorists
D. Anti-Social elements
ANSWER: B

150. Who was the main leader of Naxalbari uprising?

A. Charu Majumdar
B. Chandi Prasad Bhatt
C. Mao Tse Tung
D. Veerapaan
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ANSWER: B

151. Naxalism arose from certain basic factors like

A. Powerful mass base
B. Ignorance of military affairs and a formal attitude towards land reforms.
C. Economic inequality and the failure of the system to redress the
grievances of the suffering people
D. Due to lack of strong party organization
ANSWER: C

152. Impact of Naxalism on economic development

A. Declining in per capita income
B. Higher GDP
C. Increased Spending
D. Higher spending on defence and lower exports
ANSWER: D

153. According to sources United Liberation Front of Assam was founded on

A. 7 April 1979
B. 15 April 1979
C. 20 October 1979
D. 12 November 1979
ANSWER: A

154. ____________ is an armed rebellion against government authority.

A. Terrorism
B. Riots
C. Insurgency
D. Revolt
ANSWER: C

155. The intension of terrorism is:

A. Produce widespread employment
B. Harass and weaken the society
C. Supply food to rural folk
D. Make the richer more richer
ANSWER: C

156. Remedial Measures for terrorism in India

A. Reducing poverty level
B. Reducing corruption rate
C. Sealing Ultrasound machines
D. A&B
ANSWER: D

157. What is the full form of AFSPA?

MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

A. Anti-Force special Protection Act

B. Armed Forces Special Protection Act
C. Anti-force State Protection Act
D. Armed Forces State Protection Act
ANSWER: B

158. The AFSPA was passed on 18 August:

A. 1958
B. 1959
C. 1960
D. 1961
ANSWER: A

159. Which of the following statement are true about AFSPA?

i. Stands for ‘Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act’, 1958
ii. Grants special powers to ‘Indian Armed Forces’ such as shoot on
sight, arrest without warrant, search without warrant etc. in
disturbed areas.
iii. Till July 2016, Armed forces had immunity from prosecution from
courts for offences committed under AFSPA
iv. Local police plays a major role in keeping a control along with
Central Armed forces

A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, III,
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, IV,
ANSWER: B

160. AFSPA gives armed forces the power to

A. Secure due to imposition of AFSPA
B. shoot to kill, indiscriminate arrest and harass people
C. Protection to civilians
D. Army Cannot enter without a search warrant
ANSWER: B

161. Which insurgency group is active in Assam?

A. ULFA
B. PLA
C. UNLF
D. BLT
ANSWER: A

162. Reasons for conflict in North East India

MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

A. Historical reasons of divide and rule

B. Tensions between these states and the central government.
C. Well connected with present Indian mainland.
D. Well-connected tourism across states
ANSWER: B

163. Self Determination and Secession (Separatist movements) are

A. The Naga Movement
B. Bodo and Assam Movement
C. Janashiksha Movement Tripura
D. A&B
ANSWER: D

164. The only state where prominent insurgency is active

A. Nagaland
B. Manipur
C. Assam
D. Tripura
ANSWER: B

165. Issues of North East India

A. Facilitating conducive atmosphere for investment and development
B. Strategic planning and coordination of various developmental projects in
the region
C. Developing strong links between the North east India and with the China,
Myanmar and ASEAN countries, which would undermine the unity and
integrity of India.
D. Investment in mega-projects
ANSWER: C

166. Factors responsible for terrorism

A. Political instability and Political Insurgency
B. Global Cooperation
C. Effective National Security Strategy
D. National Consensus.
ANSWER: A

167. Which of the following are not directly responsible for growth of terrorism?
A. Political instability
B. Extremism
C. Regional disputes
D. Unemployment
ANSWER D

168. Provisions under MIDC do not include

A. Supply of water
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

B. Centralised resource planning

C. Hassel free export environment
D. Specialised infrastructure facilities for specific industry
ANSWER: B.

169. Benefits under SEZ includes

i.No sunset clause
ii.Tax free enclave throughout stay in SEZ
iii.Duty-free enclave for 10 years
iv.24X7, 365 days operation
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III,IV
ANSWER C.

170. What is MIDC?

A. Multimedia Instructional Development Center
B. Measurement and Instrumentation Data Center
C. Maharashtra Industrial Development Center
D. Maharashtra Industrial Development Company
ANSWER: C

171. IT Parks in MIDC are located at

A. Waluj near Aurangabad
B. Airoli Knowledge Park, Navi Mumbai
C. Butibori 5 Star MIDC, Nagpur
D. Avadhan MIDC, Dhule
ANSWER: B

172. SEZ stands for

A. Special Export Zone
B. Southern Economic Zone
C. Special Economic Zone
D. Standard Economic Zone
ANSWER: C

173. Industrial Group A is classified as

A. Less developed Area
B. Lesser developed Area
C. Some development has taken place
D. Developed Area
ANSWER: D

174. SEZ covers a broad range of

A. Export Processing Zones
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

B. Industrial Business zones

C. Free Travel Zones
D. International Trade zones
ANSWER: D

175. Maharashtra SEZ comprises of

A. Santacruz Electronic Export Processing Zone
B. Navi Mumbai Special Economic Zone
C. Maha Mumbai Special Economic Zone
D. Nashik Special Economic Zone
ANSWER: A

176. Which ONE of the following is NOT the benefit of SEZ?

A. Time saving procedures for clearance and minimum inspection
B. Dilutes the power of local self-government
C. Tax incentives, duty exemption
D. Permit Off-shore banking units
ANSWER: B

177. What is the name of the mobile app specially developed for SEZs?
A. SEZ Bharat
B. SEZ Asia
C. SEZ India
D. SEZ HINDUSTAN
ANSWER: C

178. What is MSMED?

A. Maharashtra State Medium Enterprise Development
B. Micro, small and Medium Enterprise Development
C. Minor Scale and Major Enterprise Development
D. Micro, small and Medium Economic development
ANSWER: B -

179. Which of these are not amongst the provisions of the National Food Security Bill
2013?
A. Antyodaya households 35 Kgs of grains p/month
B. 15kg grains per person
C. 6months-6years- free age appropriate meal through anganwadi
D. Maternity benefit or Rs 6000/- in instalments
ANSWER: B

180. Food Security Act, was signed on

A. 18 September 2013
B. 12 September 2013
C. 20 September 2013
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D. 28 September 2013
ANSWER: B

181. Under the National Food Security Bill, the --------------------- do not have the right
to identify the beneficiaries, or make efforts for giving better food security.
A. State Government
B. Local Government
C. Central Government
D. Collation Government
ANSWER: A

182. Who announced the introduction of National Food Security Act?

A. Pranab Mukherjee
B. Manmohan Singh
C. P.Chidambaram
D. Arun Jaitley
ANSWER: A

183. The rural population covered under TPDS

A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 60%
ANSWER: C

184. What is the full form of PDS?

A. People Distribution System
B. Public Distribution System
C. Product Distribution Sheet
D. Primary Distribution System
ANSWER: B

185. TPDS stands for

A. Targeted Public Distribution System
B. Test Procedures Development System
C. Transactions on Parallel and Distribution System
D. Tactical Public Distribution System
ANSWER: A

186. Causes of farmers suicide are

A. Bad Seeds, no work and Wrong crops grown
B. No water, No jobs, No money
C. Expensive land,
D. Monsoon failure, High debt burdens, Government policies
ANSWER: D
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

187. Which ONE of the following is NOT the reason of farmer’s suicide?
A. Agrarian Crisis
B. Lot of other opportunities
C. Decline income and Rising Debts
D. Unsatisfactory realization of prices
ANSWER: B

188. Excessive use of fertilizers lead to

A. Excess Crop
B. Improved Quality Soil
C. Infertile Soil
D. Extra Income
ANSWER: C

189. Tribes are concentrated in

A. Developed Area
B. Industrial Area
C. Heavily forested Area
D. Rural Area
ANSWER: C

190. The Jharkhand Mukti Morcha was established in

A. 1971
B. 1972
C. 1973
D. 1974
ANSWER: B

191. Jharkhand means:

A. The land of Jungles
B. The land of rocks
C. Dessert land
D. The Huge land
ANSWER: A

192. Jharkhand state was created in the year

A. 1972
B. 1986
C. 1995
D. 2000
ANSWER: D

193. Bodos are one of the earliest settlers of:

A. Manipur
B. Nagaland
C. Assam
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

D. Tripura
ANSWER: C

194. The Forest Rights Act was introduced in the year:

A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008
ANSWER: B

195. Bodo Movement was for the largest tribes of

A. Nagaland
B. Manipur
C. Orissa
D. Assam
ANSWER: D

196. The Schedule Tribes and other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition
of Forest Rights) Act passed on
A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008
ANSWER: B

197. Who is not considered as forest dweller?

A. Primarily residing in forests or forest lands
B. In case one is other traditional forest dweller
C. If you belong to tribal community
D. Depends on forests and forest land for a livelihood
ANSWER: C

198. Forest Rights Act 2006, include the following:

A. Right to water bodies, Rehabilitation, and settlement rights
B. Right to land settlements
C. Right to intellectual property related to biodiversity and cultural diversity
D. A & C
ANSWER: D

199. Land Acquisition Act aims at

A. Transparent process, Provide just and fair compensation
B. Macro development plans, Reforestation
C. Claiming Urban Land for rural folk
D. Developing urban land and constructing buildings for poor people
ANSWER: D
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

200. Provisions of Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation & resettlement Act 2013 do not
include
A. Just compensation to PAP
B. Disbursement of compensation once the land is taken over
C. Employment opportunity for one member of ousted family
D. Mandatory People’s participation
ANSWER: B.

201. The major task to secure India internally is by

A. Environment Protection
B. Setting up industrial units
C. Modernizing Police force
D. Blacklist corrupt businessmen
ANSWER: C

202. Maximum no. of illegal immigrants come from

A. Pakistan
B. Bangladesh
C. Afghanistan
D. Tibet
ANSWER: B

203. Reason for illegal immigration from Bangladesh

A. Easy to walk to cross the borders on foot
B. Culturally like Bengali people in India
C. Indian Citizen
D. Non-Resident Indian
ANSWER: B

204. What is insurgency?

A. Orthodox
B. An active revolt or uprising
C. Submission
D. Harmony
ANSWER: B

205. Which ONE of the following is NOT the social impact of illegal immigration?
A. Crisis of identity
B. Environmental improvement
C. Difficult to identify the illegal migrants
D. Community tension
ANSWER: B

206. What is rule of Law?

No person is above Law
Politicians are above Law
MCQ FOR CONTEMPORARY ISSUES ONLINE EXAMINATION OCTOBER 2020

Police is above Law

Citizens are above Law

ANSWER: A

207. What is acceptable in the Rule of Law

A. Arbitrary arrests
B. Corruption in the electoral process
C. The right to fair trial without delay
D. Secret trials
ANSWER: C

208. The greatest obstacle to Police reforms

A. Time constrain
B. Lack of political will
C. Economic Issues
D. Social pressure
ANSWER: B

209. Which committee drafted Model Police Act for police reforms?
A. Gore Committee
B. Malinath Committee
C. Bhore Committee
D. Sorabjee Committee
ANSWER: D

210. What is Migration?

A. Physical movement of people from one place to another either voluntary
or forced
B. Forced movement of people because of large scale development projects
C. Settlement of people in different place
D. Restoration to the former state
ANSWER: A

211. Loss of land, job and home, Food insecurity, and Social disintegration is the
outcome of
A. Migration
B. Resettlement
C. Rehabilitation
D. Displacement

ANSWER: D –

212. Displacement results in:

A. Marginalization
B. Social equality
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C. Economic disturbance
D. Social Isolation
ANSWER: A

213. National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation of 2003 was replaced

by
A. National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation of 2005
B. National Policy on Rehabilitation and Resettlement of 2007
C. National Policy on Rehabilitation and Resettlement of 2008
D. National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation of 2009
ANSWER: B

214. Issues of Development –Induced Displacement are

A. Communication network and power projects connecting people
B. Rural areas to become landless labourers
C. Manufacturer and handicrafts Industry become successful
D. Construction Industry gets destroyed
ANSWER: B