1.

The cement concrete, from which entrained air and excess water are removed after placing it in
position, is called ________

a) Vacuum concrete

b) LWC

c) Prestressed concrete

d) Sawdust concrete

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Vacuum concrete is the type of concrete in which the excess water is removed for
improving concrete strength. The water is removed by use of vacuum mats connected to a vacuum
pump.

2. Light weight cement content for compressive strength 3000 psi is _______ pounds per cubic yard.

a) 400-510

b) 440-560

c) 530-660

d) 630-750

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Light weight cement content for compressive strength 3000 psi is 440-560 pounds per
cubic yard and 400-510 is for compressive strength 2500 psi.

3. The light-weight concrete is prepared by ____________

a) Mixing Portland cement with sawdust in specified proportion in the concrete

b) Using coke-breeze, slag as aggregate in the concrete

c) Mixing Al in the concrete

d) Mixing Fe in the concrete

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: The light-weight concrete is prepared by using coke-breeze, cinder or slag as aggregate
in the concrete.

4. Aerated Concrete is ______________

a) Very heavy weight

b) Heavy weight

c) Medium weight

d) Light weight

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Aerated concrete is also referred to as gas concrete, foam concrete, cellular concrete.
In India, we have at present a few factories manufacturing aerated concrete.

5. Entrainment of air also improves workability and durability.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Entrainment of air also improves workability and durability to produce such concrete
which would have resistance to weathering actions.

6. No fines concrete is manufactured by _____________

a) By adding no fines materials from normal concrete

b) By eliminating no fines materials from normal concrete

c) By reducing its strength

d) By increasing its strength

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: No fines concrete is one type of light weight concrete. As the name indicates that it is a
concrete mix without fine aggregate or sand.

7. Density of no fines concrete with light weight aggregate vary from ________ kg/m3.

a) 1600-1900

b) <300

c) >2500

d) >300

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The range of the density of no fines aggregates with the light weight aggregates vary
from less than 300 kg/m3.

8. In bridges, HDC is used.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In bridges, High Density Concrete is being used to reduce the number of beams for
supporting span.

9. What is the value of modulus of elasticity for Sulphur infiltered concrete?

a) 60-115 MPa

b) 10-16 MPa

c) 35-50 GPa

d) 500 GPa

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: 35-60 GPa is the range of modulud of elasticity for the Sulphur infiltered concrete
whereas the OPC has the range of 25-28 GPa.

10. Diameter of Round Steel Fiber lies in the range of ________ mm.

a) .3-.5

b) .25-.75

c) .155-.41

d) .25-.90

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Round steel fiber are commonly used and produced by cutting round wire into the
short length. The diameter lies in the range of 0.25mm to 0.75mm.

=====================

1. Shrinkage is the reduction in the volume of a fresh hardened concrete exposed to ambient temp
and humidity.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Shrinkage is the reduction in the volume of a fresh hardened concrete exposed to
ambient temp and humidity.

2. How many types of shrinkages, caused due to loss of water?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: There are 3 types of shrinkage that are caused due to loss of water i.e. plastic, drying
and autogenous.

3. How many types of shrinkages, caused due to cooling and carbonation?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: There are 2 types of shrinkage which are caused due to cooling and carbonation.

4. Reduction in the volume due to shrinkage causes ____________

a) Low volume

b) Volumetric strain

c) Volumetric stress

d) W/c ratio

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Reduction in the volume due to shrinkage causes volumetric strain in freshly hardened
concrete.

5. Volumetric strain is equal to ___________ times the linear strain.

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4
View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Volumetric strain is equal to 3 times the linear strain in freshly hardened concrete.

6. In practice, shrinkage is measured simply as a ____________

a) Linear strain

b) Linear stress

c) Volumetric strain

d) Volumetric stress

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In practice, shrinkage is measured simply as a linear strain in freshly hardened concrete.

7. Shrinkage in concrete is caused mainly by a loss of water by evaporation or by hydration of

cement.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Shrinkage in concrete is caused mainly by a loss of water by evaporation or by

hydration of cement.

8. However, fall of temperature and carbonation may also cause shrinkage.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: However, fall of temperature and carbonation may also cause shrinkage.

9. From the below figure, what does A signify?

concrete-technology-questions-answers-shrinkage-q9-10

a) Drying shrinkage

b) Wetting shrinkage

c) Expansion on re wetting

d) Contraction

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A is the total drying shrinkage i.e. of 2 contraction in the above figure of freshly
hardened concrete.

10. From the below figure, what does B signify?

concrete-technology-questions-answers-shrinkage-q9-10

a) Drying shrinkage

b) Wetting shrinkage

c) Expansion on re wetting
d) Contraction

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In the above figure, B signifies the expansion on re wetting from higher concentration
of drying to lower.

======================

1. Compressive strength of hardened concrete is done by _________

a) Cube test

b) Tensile splitting test

c) Concrete core test

d) Flexure test

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Compressive strength of hardened concrete is done by cube test. For cube test two
types of specimens either cubes of 15cm X 15cm X 15cm or 10cm X 10cm x 10cm depending upon
the size of aggregate are used.

2. It is about __________ times the tensile stress determined by the splitting test.

a) Equal

b) .5

c) 1.5

d) 2

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The theoretical maximum tensile stress at the bottom face at failure is calculated. This
is termed the modulus of rupture. It is about 1.5 times the tensile stress determined by the splitting
test.

3. A ratio of core height-to-diameter of __________ gives a standard cylinder test.

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A ratio of core height-to-diameter of 2 gives a standard cylinder test. The ratio of core
height to diameter and the location where the core is taken affect the strength.

4. In Concrete core test the strength is ________ at the top and _________ at the bottom.

a) Lowest, lowest

b) Lowest, highest

c) Highest, lowest

d) Highest, highest

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The strength is lowest at the top surface and increases with depth through the element.

5. Which of the following compound is used for fine polishing?

a) Aluminum oxide

b) Nitric oxide

c) Silicon carbide

d) Iron oxide

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Powder form of aluminum oxide is used for fine polishing process. It is surface
treatment process.

6. Evaluation of cracks _________ be determined after cracking.

a) Can

b) Can’t

c) Sometimes

d) Depends on the structure

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Evaluation of cracks can be determined after cracking i.e., due to structural, thermal,
chemical, physical activities.

==================================

1. How can we prevent cracks in concrete structures?

a) Due to heavy load

b) Low w/c ratio

c) Settlement of structure

d) High water cement ratio

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Low w/c ratio will directly affect the quality of concrete. A lower water cement ratio
leads to high strength in concrete therefore lesser cracks.

2. What is the maximum w/c ratio?

a) .2

b) .3

c) .4

d) .5
View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Water cement ratio should not exceed .5 in concreting because it will reduces the
workability of the concrete.

3. Which can be the possible option for cracking in the building?

a) Due to light load

b) Low w/c ratio

c) Temperature difference

d) Gain of water

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Concrete expands and shrinks when the temperature changes which directly leads to
cracking in the building.

4. Is it possible to have 0% crack in our building?

a) Yes

b) No

c) May be

d) Can’t be determined

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: It is not possible to have 0 % cracks in any building after construction. We can prevent it
but we can’t stop it.

5. Plastic shrinkage cracking occurs in ________ hours after placing.

a) .5

b) 24

c) 10
d) 5

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Plastic shrinkage concrete occurs within 1 hours and 8 hours after placing, when
subjected to a very rapid loss of moisture.

6. Which one can’t be the reason for the shrinkage of concrete?

a) W/c ratio

b) Temperature

c) Cement content

d) Formwork

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Formwork can never cause shrinkage in concrete even it helps to reduce the shrinkage
in concrete.

7. Evaluation of cracks ________ be determined before cracking.

a) Can

b) Can’t

c) Sometimes

d) Depends on the structure

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Evaluation of cracks can be determined before cracking i.e., due to plastic and
constructional movements.

==========================================
1. Symptoms for acid attack?

a) It will show disintegration of the concrete evidenced by loss of the cement paste

b) It will show concrete surfaces that are very rough in areas where the paste is leached

c) Affected concrete does not exhibit telltale features too distinctly

d) Expansion does not occur without reaction products

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Acid attack will show disintegration of the concrete evidenced by loss of the cement
paste.

2. Symptoms for aggressive water attack?

a) It will show disintegration of the concrete evidenced by loss of the cement paste

b) It will show concrete surfaces that are very rough in areas where the paste is leached

c) Affected concrete does not exhibit telltale features too distinctly

d) Expansion does not occur without reaction products

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: It will show concrete surfaces that are very rough in areas where the paste is leached.

3. Symptoms for aggressive ACR reaction?

a) It will show disintegration of the concrete evidenced by loss of the cement paste

b) It will show concrete surfaces that are very rough in areas where the paste is leached

c) Affected concrete does not exhibit telltale features too distinctly

d) Expansion does not occur without reaction products

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: ACR affected concrete does not exhibit telltale features too distinctly. AAR results in
deleterious expansive cracking of concrete occurring at the later ages after construction.

4. Symptoms for aggressive ASR?

a) It will show disintegration of the concrete evidenced by loss of the cement paste

b) It will show concrete surfaces that are very rough in areas where the paste is leached

c) Affected concrete does not exhibit telltale features too distinctly

d) Expansion does not occur without reaction products

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Harmful ASR expansion does not occur without reaction products. But reaction
products can occur without harmful ASR expansion.

5. What should be the minimum water cement ratio?

a) .45

b) .5

c) <.45

d) >.45

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Concrete should be workable with minimum water cement ratio (< 0.45). It should be
well compacted by vibrator.

6. Cement not more than ________ months old should be used.

a) 1

b) 1.5

c) 2

d) 3

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Cement not more than 3 months old should be used. Proper cement to be used to
prevent sulphate and chloride attack.

7. Powder epoxy is fusion bonded to bar at about _________0C temperature.

a) 100

b) 250

c) 300

d) 350

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Fusion bonded epoxy coating process has good results in protecting reinforcement bars
from corrosion. Powder epoxy is fusion bonded to bar at about 2500C temperature.

8. At the construction stage, binding wires ____________

a) Should touch the formwork

b) Should not touch the formwork

c) To be turned outside

d) To be turned whole structure

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Binding wires to be turned inside (should not touch formwork). G.I. wires to be used in
aggressive environment.

9. Creep is ____ to the strength of concrete.

a) Equal

b) Similar

c) Directly proportional

d) Inversely proportional

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Creep increases with increase in water/cement ratio. In other words, it can also be said
that creep is inversely proportional to the strength of concrete.

============================================

1. What is the moisture content in slurry for wet process?

a) 35-50%

b) 12%

c) 40-45%

d) 100%

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The moisture content in slurry for wet process is 35-50%. 12% is the moisture content
for dry process.

2. The use of crushed aggregates may results in 10 to 20% higher compressive strength.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The use of crushed aggregates may results in 10 to 20% higher compressive strength
due to development of stronger aggregate-mortar bond.

3. Dry intervals in surface wetting leads to ____________

a) Cracking

b) Fogging

c) High strength

d) Good workability
View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Dry intervals or patches can lead to crazing or cracking on the slab surface. The effect of
surface wettability on the dynamics of crack formation and their characteristics are examined during
the drying of aqueous colloidal droplets containing nano particles.

4. The rate of creep rapidly ___________ with time.

a) Increase

b) Decrease

c) Doesn’t affect

d) Depends on the temperature

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The rate of creep rapidly decreases with time. The time taken by a concrete structure to
attained creep is 5 years.

5. The rate of creep generally ____________ with the ____________ of the size of aggregates.

a) Increase, increase

b) Decrease, decease

c) Increase, decrease

d) 2.5, 12mm

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The rate of creep generally decreases with the increase of the size of aggregates. Time
rate of deformation of a material subject to stress at a constant temperature. It is the slope of the
creep vs. time diagram obtained in a creep test.

6. Reduction in the volume due to shrinkage causes __________

a) Low volume
b) Volumetric strain

c) Volumetric stress

d) W/c ratio

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Reduction in the volume due to shrinkage causes volumetric strain in freshly hardened
concrete.

============================

1. IS code for Specification for ordinary Portland cement, 33 grade?

a) IS 269:1989

b) IS 383:197

c) IS 455:1989

d) IS 456:2000

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: IS 269:1989 code is for specification for ordinary Portland cement of 33 grade. This
standard covers the manufacture and chemical and physical requirements of ordinary Portland
cement.

2. IS 457:1957 is for _____

a) Code of practice for general construction of plain and reinforced concrete for dams and other
massive structures

b) Specification for Portland pozzolana cement flyash based

c) Specification for Portland pozzolana cement calcined clay based

d) Methods of test for pozzolanic materials

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: IS 457:1957 Code of practice for general construction of plain and reinforced concrete
for dams and other massive structures.

3. IS 1489(Part 1):1991 is for ___________

a) Code of practice for general construction of plain and reinforced concrete for dams and other
massive structures

b) Specification for Portland pozzolana cement Part 1 Flyash based

c) Specification for Portland-pozzolana cement: Part 2 Calcined clay based

d) Methods of test for pozzolanic materials

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: IS 1489(Part 1):1991 Specification for Portland pozzolana cement Part 1 Flyash based.

4. IS 1489(Part 2):1991 is for ______________

a) Code of practice for general construction of plain and reinforced concrete for dams and other
massive structures

b) Specification for Portland pozzolana cement Part 1 Flyash based

c) Specification for Portland-pozzolana cement: Part 2 Calcined clay based

d) Methods of test for pozzolanic materials

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: IS 1489(Part 2):1991 Specification for Portland-pozzolana cement: Part 2 Calcined clay
based.

5. IS 1727:1967 is for ____________

a) Code of practice for general construction of plain and reinforced concrete for dams and other
massive structures

b) Specification for Portland pozzolana cement Part 1 Fly ash based

c) Specification for Portland-pozzolana cement: Part 2 Calcined clay based

d) Methods of test for pozzolanic materials

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: IS 1727:1967 Methods of test for pozzolanic materials to the need of civil engineering.

6. IS 650:1991 is for _____________

a) Specification for standard sand for testing of cement

b) Methods of samplingand analysis of concrete

c) Specification for pozzolana cement

d) Methods of test for pozzolanicmaterials

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: IS 650:1991 Specification for standard sand for testing of cement to the need of civil
engineering.

7. IS 1199:1959 is for __________

a) Specification for standard sand for testing of cement

b) Methods of samplingand analysis of concrete

c) Specification for Portland-pozzolana cement: Part 2 Calcined clay based

d) Methods of test for pozzolanicmaterials

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: IS 1199:1959 Methods of sampling and analysis of concrete to the need of civil
engineering.

===============================

1. An ultrasonic pulse velocity test is an _____________

a) Ex-situ, nondestructive test

b) In-situ, nondestructive test

c) Ex-situ, destructive test

d) In-situ, destructive test

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: An ultrasonic pulse velocity test is an in-situ, nondestructive test to check the quality of
concrete and natural rocks.

2. In this test, the strength and quality of concrete or rock is assessed by measuring the ___ of an
ultrasonic pulse.

a) Length

b) Velocity

c) Weight

d) Surface Tension

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In this test, the strength and quality of concrete or rock is assessed by measuring the
velocity of an ultrasonic pulse passing through a concrete structure or natural rock formation.

3. Higher velocities indicate __________

a) Good quality and continuity of the material

b) Bad quality and continuity of the material

c) Concrete with many cracks

d) Concrete with many voids

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Higher velocities indicate good quality and continuity of the material, while slower
velocities may indicate concrete with many cracks or voids.

4. Slower velocities may indicate ___________

a) Good quality and continuity of the material

b) Good quality and discontinuity of the material

c) Bad quality and continuity of the material

d) Concrete with many voids

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Slower velocities may indicate concrete with many cracks or voids, while higher
velocities indicate good quality and continuity of the material.

5. Mechanical pulse having an oscillation frequency in range of `_____________

a) 30 kHz to 40 kHz

b) 40 kHz to 50 kHz

c) 50 kHz to 60 kHz

d) 60 kHz to 70 kHz

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Mechanical pulse having an oscillation frequency in range of 40000 Hz to 50000 Hz.

6. The number of cylces per second is the definition of ____________

a) Wave speed

b) Frequency

c) Hertz

d) Velocity

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: One hertz (Hz) stands for one cycle per second and it is the SI unit of frequency.
Velocity means displacement covered per second.

7. A discontinuity that occurs during the casting of molten metal which may be caused by the
splashing, surging, interrupted pouring is ___________

a) Burst

b) Cold shut

c) Flaking

d) Blow hole

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A discontinuity that occurs during the casting of molten metal which may be caused by
the splashing, surging, interrupted pouring, or the meeting of two streams of metal coming from
different directions is called cold shut.

8. When the motion of the particles of a medium are at right angles to the direction of wave motion,
the wave being transmitted is called a ___________

a) Longitudinal wave

b) Shear wave

c) Surface wave

d) Lamb wave

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: When the motion of the particles of a medium are at right angles to the direction of
wave motion, the wave being transmitted is called a longitudinal wave.

9. A second name for compression wave is __________

a) Longitudinal wave

b) Shear wave

c) Surface wave
d) Lamb wave

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Lamb waves are similar to longitudinal waves, with compression and rarefaction, but
they are bounded by the sheet or plate surface causing a wave-guide effect.

10. The interference field near the face of a transducer is often referred to as the ______________

a) Fresnel zone

b) Acoustic impedance

c) Exponential field

d) Phasing zone

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Radio frequency line of sight is defined by Fresnel Zones which are ellipse shaped areas
between any two radios.

============================================

1. Which among the following is not a type of Non-destructive testing?

a) Compression test

b) Visual testing

c) Ultrasonic testing

d) Eddy current testing

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Compression test is a type of destructive testing. This test is used to determine
behavior of metals under compressive load. Visual testing, ultrasonic testing, eddy current testing
are types of non-destructive testing.
2. Identify the type of destructive testing ______________

a) Radiographic test

b) Dye penetrant test

c) Creep test

d) Visual testing

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Creep test is a type of destructive test. It is defined as slow plastic deformation at high
temperatures for a longer time under constant stresses. Creep occurs at room temperature and at
high temperatures.

3. Which among the following is the last step in magnetic particle test method?

a) Observation and inspection

b) Circular magnetization

c) Demagnetization

d) Magnetization

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Different steps involved in magnetic particle test are cleaning the surface, magnetizing
the metallic component, application of ferromagnetic powder, observation and inspection and
demagnetization.

4. Which of the following statements is/are true for the ultrasonic test?

a) Equipment used for ultrasonic testing is portable

b) Complicated shapes can be easily scanned

c) Waves generated are health hazardous

d) Waves generated are health hazardous and complicated shapes can be easily scanned

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Ultrasonic test uses sound waves of high frequency to detect discontinuities. This
method is used to detect flaws on the surface and also deep inside the component. The waves travel
in straight line and are reflected from metal gas interface or discontinuities in their patch.

5. Which test can be performed without skilled labour?

a) Probe test

b) Bend liquid test

c) Dye penetrant test

d) Torsion test

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Dye penetrant test does not require any skilled labour. This method only detects
surface discontinuities and this test needs to be observed with naked eyes or with a low magnifying
glass.

6. What is nondestructive test?

a) Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing their
usefulness

b) Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of the materials such
as pressure testing

c) Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials with impairing their
usefulness

d) Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that do not impair the use of the
materials such as pressure testing

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Nondestructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing
their usefulness.

7. What is a destructive test?

a) Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials without impairing their
usefulness

b) Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of the materials such as
pressure testing

c) Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws in materials with impairing their usefulness

d) Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that do not impair the use of the materials
such as pressure testing

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Destructive tests are applications for detecting flaws that impair the use of materials
such as pressure testing.

==========================================

1. The breaking up of cohesion in a mass of concrete is called ________

a) Workability

b) Segregation

c) Bleeding

d) Creep

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Segregation in concrete is commonly thought as separation of some size groups of

aggregates from cement mortar in isolated locations with corresponding deficiencies of these
materials in other locations.

2. The separation of water or water-cement mixture from the freshly mixed concrete is known as
bleeding.

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The separation of water or water-cement mixture from the freshly mixed concrete is
known as bleeding.

3. The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to application of external loads, is called
__________

a) Workability

b) Segregation

c) Bleeding

d) Creep

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The continuous strain, which the concrete undergoes due to application of external
loads, is called creep.

4. Harshness in concrete is due to the excess of _____________

a) Water

b) Finer particles

c) Middle sized particle

d) Coarser particle

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: It is the rough finishing property of concrete and causes improper proportioning, less
compaction, low water content, excess of medium sized aggregates, deficiency of sand etc.

5. In order to avoid segregation, the concrete should not be thrown from a height.

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: In order to avoid segregation, the concrete should not be thrown from a height of 100
cm.

6. Reinforced cement concrete is equally strong in taking __________

a) Tensile and compressive stresses

b) Compressive and shear stresses

c) Tensile, compressive and shear stresses

d) Tensile and shear stresses

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: According to IS 456:2000, Reinforced cement concrete is equally strong in taking

Tensile, compressive and shear stresses.

7. Plain cement concrete is strong in taking ___________

a) Tensile stress

b) Compressive stress

c) Shear stress

d) Tensile, compressive and shear stresses

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Plain cement concrete is strong in taking compressive stress and week in tensile stress.

8. How many types of sulphates attack occur in concrete?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4
View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: There are two types of sulphates attack in concrete and mortar i.e., internal attack and
external attack.

9. What is internal sulphates attack?

a) Sulphate are more usually are a result of high-sulphate soils

b) Sulphate are more usually are a result of ground water

c) Industrial waste water

d) Hydraulic cements

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Internal sulphates attack are rarer but originates from such concrete-making materials.

10. What is internal sulphates attack?

a) Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates

b) Soil may contain excess of gypsum

c) Sulphate are more usually are a result of ground water

d) Industrial waste water

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Internal sulphates attack are rarer but originates from such concrete-making materials
like Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates.

11. What is external sulphates attack?

a) Industrial waste water

b) Presence of natural gypsum in the aggregates

c) Hydraulic cements
d) Portland cement might be over-sulphated

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: External sources of sulphate are very common and are usually are a result of high-
sulphate soils and ground waters or can be result into industrial pollution.

12. Fly ash affects the sulphate attack.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The addition of a pozzolanic admixture e.g. fly ash. It reduces the C3A content of
cement which cause sulphates attack.

13. Low w/c ratio helps to control suphate attack.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Low water cement ratio directly cause low permeability which is the best protection
towards sulphate attack.

===================================================

1. Durability of concrete is proportional

to _________

a) Sand content

b) Water cement ratio

c) Aggregate ratio

d) Cement aggregate ratio

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Volume chances due to

difference in thermal properties of the

aggregates and cement paste.

2. Strength of concrete show an increase

with _________

a) Decrease in rate of loading

b) Increase in rate of loading

c) Unaffected by rate of loading

d) Depends on application of load

View Answer

Answer: b

Page 1

New Text Document.txt

Explanation: Strength of concrete is

directly proportional to the nature of the

loading.

3. Strength of concrete is ___________

a) fck=K(cC+W+A)2

b) fck=K(C+AC+W+A)2

c) fck=K(C+WC+W+A)2

d) fck=K(C+W+AC+W+A)2

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: It is the formula to find the

Strength of concrete when we have the

volume of cement, aggregates and water.

4. As per & 5456:200 Young’s modulus of

concrete is _______________

a) 1000 fck

b) 5000 fck2

c) 5700 fck

d) 150 fck

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: 5000 fck2 is the formula of

young’s modulus of the concrete according

to IS 5456:200.

5. Strength of concrete is proportional to

______________

Page 2

New Text Document.txt

a) Sand content

b) Water cement ratio

c) Aggregate ratio

d) Cement water ratio

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Strength of concrete is

proportional to Cement water ratio and

inversely proportional to w/c ratio.

6. Strength of concrete increase with

_____________
a) Increase with w/c ratio

b) Decrease with w/c ratio

c) Decrease in size of aggregates

d) Decrease in curing time

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: As mentioned above that

Strength of concrete is inversely

proportional to w/c ratio.

7. Strength of concrete increase with

_________

a) Increase with w/c ratio

b) Increase in fineness of cement

c) Decrease in size of aggregates

d) Decrease in curing time

Page 3

New Text Document.txt

View Answer

8. Approximate ratio of the strength of the

cement conc of 7 days to that of 28 days

(2/3)?

a) .75

b) .85

c) 1

d) 1.15

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: After the lab broke the

seven-day cylinders, the cylinder from the

pier with added water broke at 1980 psi.

The other seven-day cylinders were as high

as 2620 psi.

9. Approximate ratio of strength of the 30

cm cube to that of 15 cm cube is

_____________

a) 1.1

b) 1

c) .9

d) .75

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The strength of cylinder with

diameter of 15cm and 30cm tall can be

approximated as 0.84 of the strength of a

15x15x15 cm cube according to Eurocodes.

10. Approximate ratio of direct tensile

strength to flexural strength is

____________

a) .25

b) .33

c) .5

d) .05

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Approximate ratio of direct

tensile strength to flexural strength is .5 according to the formula.

===========================

1. The addition of a pozzolanic admixture such as fly ash reduces the ____________

a) C3S

b) C3A

c) C2S

d) C4AF

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The addition of a pozzolanic admixture such as fly ash reduces the C3A content of
cement.

2. Lowering of ____________ might also help, since this would reduce the amount of CH that forms.

a) C3S

b) C3A

c) C2S

d) C4AF

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Lowering of C3S might also help, since this would reduce the amount of CH that forms.

3. When the ____________ content is low, most ettringite will be formed in the plastic state.

a) C3SS

b) C3AA
c) C2S

d) C4AF

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: When the C3A content is low, most ettringite will be formed in the plastic state.

4. The philosophy of prescribing low ____________ cement to improve resistance to sulphate

attack.

a) C3S

b) C3A

c) C2S

d) C4AF

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The philosophy of prescribing low C3A cement to improve resistance to sulphate attack
hinges on the need to minimize ettringite formation after the concrete hardens.

5. The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ permeability, is the best protection against
sulphate attack.

a) High

b) Medium

c) Low

d) Very low

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The quality of concrete, specifically a low permeability, is the best protection against
sulphate attack.

6. For concrete exposed to a very aggressive environment the w/c should be lower than __________
a) 1

b) .5

c) .4

d) .8

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Higher is the aggressiveness of the environment lower should be the w/c ratio. For
concrete exposed to a very aggressive environment, the w/c should be lower than 0.40.

7. The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ w/c ratio, is the best protection against
sulphate attack.

a) High

b) Medium

c) Low

d) Very low

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The quality of concrete, specifically a low w/c ratio, is the best protection against
sulphate attack.

8. The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ cement content, is the best protection
against sulphate attack.

a) High

b) Medium

c) Low

d) Very low

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The quality of concrete, specifically a high cement content, is the best protection
against sulphate attack.

9. Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water ___________ ppm for mild exposure.

a) <150

b) 150-1500

c) 150-10000

d) >10000

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water less than 150 ppm for mild exposure.

10. Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water ___________ ppm for severe exposure.

a) <150

b) 150-1500

c) 150-10000

d) >10000

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Concentration of water-soluble sulphates in water 150-10000 ppm for severe exposure.
Repair and Rehabilitation of Concrete Structures (2180607)
Multiple Choice Questions
1. In prestressed concrete structures the primary problem is damaged caused to
_____
a) Bridge decks
b) Spans
c) Anchorages
d) Ridges
Answer: c
Explanation: In prestressed concrete structures the primary problem is damage
caused to anchorages and unbounded tendons due to rusting under exposure to
humid weather conditions and good maintenance practice requires periodical
surveillance identification of local damage, deterioration and loss of durability of the
structure due to environmental and other load effects and in such cases local repairs
are needed.
2. Rehabilitation of structures may be required due to several reasons. Choose the
correct reason.
a) Environmental effects
b) Tensile effects
c) Compressive effects
d) Range effects
Answer: a
Explanation: Rehabilitation of structures may be required due to several reasons one
reason is:
Environmental effects some common causes are constructional deficiency,
environmental effects, deficiency in design, overloading of structures either due to un
anticipated loading or due to accidents and user made changes in the structures
during the service life of the structure.
3. What is the problem of rehabilitation?
a) Unique
b) Submerged
c) Lined
d) Layered
Answer: a
Explanation: The problem of rehabilitation is Unique, For the particular structure and
hence the use of common techniques for rehabilitation of various structures is limited
and as far as maintenance is concerned, several new cementations materials and
epoxy resigns and compounds have been developed which are highly effective in
protecting the basic structure from the destructive effects of severe exposure
conditions in the environment.
4. Maintaining prestressed concrete structures of various types in a fit and
serviceable condition is primary function of ____________
a) Maintenance engineer
b) Design engineer
c) Surface engineer
d) Structural engineer

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Answer: a
Explanation: Maintaining prestressed concrete structures of various types in a fit and
serviceable condition is primary function of Maintenance engineer investment
towards effective periodical maintenance forms only a fraction of the cost to be
incurred due to major repairs to rehabilitate the structures and hence it is always
advisable to establish a programmed preventive maintenance system to detect any
signs of distress in the initial stages itself through inspection procedures and
appropriate repairs.
5. The structural concrete slab panels can be repaired by ____________
a) Internal bonding
b) External bonding
c) Stress bonding
d) Layered bonding
Answer: b
Explanation: The structural concrete slab panels and beams exhibiting distress can
be repaired by external bonding of steel plates to the soffit by using epoxy adhesives
and hollows, honey combs and cavities in concrete can be repaired by the process
of guniting and shortcreting applied pneumatically with impact force.
6. The impression of structure is?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: Routine inspection under this category, general inspections are carried
out quickly and frequently by highway maintenance engineers having reasonably
practical knowledge of highway structures through not necessarily experts in design.
Detailed inspection: This type of inspection can be further divided as general and
major depending upon the frequency and extent of inspection.
Special inspection: Special inspection is resorted to under extraordinary situations
such as earthquakes, high intensity/ abnormal loading, floods etc.
7. Which type of inspection is more intensive involving examination of structural
elements?
a) Minor inspection
b) General inspection
c) Major inspection
d) Reverse inspection
Answer: c
Explanation: Major inspection is generally more intensive involving detail
examination of all structural elements and even requiring setting up of special access
facilitates (like soffits of long span beams and articulation locations, bearing etc)
where required depending upon the importance of the structure, this type of
inspection is spaced between 2 and 3 years or may be at smaller intervals for
sensitive structures which are exposed to aggressive environments.
8. Prestressed concrete structures showing visible signs of distress in the form of _
a) Surface cracks
b) Patterns

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c) Patches
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Prestressed concrete structures showing visible signs of distress in the
form of surface cracks, spalling of concrete should be special inspection using
instruments to users the extent of damage to the structure.
9. One of the testing equipment used for inspection is?
a) Strain gauges
b) Measuring jar
c) Test tubes
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Modern testing equipment which could be of use to the specialized
inspection team are listed below:
Rebound hammer compressive strength (Schmidt hammer), ultrasonic pulse velocity
detection of cracks, snooper-crawler and adjustable ladders, magnetic decor for
measuring thickness of concrete cover and for locating reinforcement bars,
mechanical extensometer, transparent templates and microscope for reading of
crack widths on the surface of the concrete hydraulic jacks, pressure transducers or
load cells for measurement of forces etc, electronic strain gauges for measurement
of strain in concrete and steel, vibration measuring equipment, electrical resistance
meter(for rust pockets).
10. The pachometer is used to locate the ____________
a) Steel reinforcement
b) Aluminium reinforcement
c) Tensile reinforcement
d) Surface reinforcement
Answer: a
Explanation: A wide variety of electronic equipment is presently available in the
market in many countries for monitoring and inspection of distress in different types
of structures and ultrasonic meters are used to determine the degree of deterioration
and distress and / or material imperfections that are relevant to the structural integrity
of the structure to be inspected and pachometer is used to locate the steel
reinforcements and measures the sizes of the bars embedded in concrete to an
accuracy of 3m.
11. In case of bridge greater than 10.7m in height and which cannot be inspected
from beneath due to watery situation the instrument suited for inspection work is?
a) Electrical resistance meter
b) Strain gauges
c) Barins snooper vehicle
d) Rain guages
Answer: c
Explanation: In the case of bridges greater than 10.7m in height and in those bridges
which cannot be inspected from beneath due to rugged terrain or watery situations, a
mechanical contraction widely known as Barins snooper vehicle is ideally suited for
inspection work and the snooper is mounted on a heavy duty truck with a swiveling
platform and the underside of the bridge deck can be inspected by using the
hydraulically operated platform.

Page 3 of 12
12. In the case of dormant cracks wider than about 1m, it is more economical to use
_
a) Epoxy resin
b) Grouting
c) Tensioning
d) Ranging
Answer: b
Explanation: In the case of dormant cracks wider than about 1mm, it is more
economical to use the grouting and sealing technique and this method involves
enlarging the crack along its exposed face and then the crack is cleaned and grouted
and the surface is then sealed with a suitable joint sealant and various other
techniques widely used for repair of dormant or dead cracks include dry packing,
polymer impregnation over lays and surface treatments and autogenous handling.
13. How many sealants are there used depending upon their suitability in a given
situation?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
d) 1
Answer: a
Explanation: The following three types of sealants are generally used depending
upon their suitability in given situation: Mastics are asphalts with a low melting point
with added fillers or fibers and they are recommended where the total movements
will not exceed 15 percent of the width of groove, Thermoplastics comprising of
asphalts, pitches and coal tar become liquid or semi viscous when heated and the
groove depth to width ratio should 1:1 and the total design movement is of order of
25 percent of groove width and Elastomers include a wide range of materials such
as poly sulphides, epoxy poly sulphides, poly urethane, silicones and acrylics and
these materials advantages since they can be used without heating.
14. How many types of damages are present in classification of damage?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: Minor damage requires superficial patching by using epoxy grout or
guniting using Shortcrete and the damages and delaminated concrete is removed by
hand tools and the surface is cleaned before the application of epoxy grout,
moderate damage involves extensive spalling and cracking of concrete is generally
applicable as in minor repairs and in Several damage Prestressed concrete girders
requires a detailed structural analysis of a design check based on the conditions of
the damage and the best engineering assumptions and judgments.
15. If the loss of prestress is excessive resulting in tensile cracks, which method
should be used?
a) Preloading method
b) Hollow method
c) Transparent method
d) Layered method

Page 4 of 12
Answer: a
Explanation: If the loss of prestress is excessive resulting in tensile cracks,
preloading methods should be seriously considered in making concrete repairs in
order to restore the equivalent full or partial prestress effect, as per original designs.
16. The repair and rehabilitation of damaged or spalled concrete is done by
removing the ____________
a) Loose concrete
b) Collapsing
c) Breakage
d) Bonding
Answer: a
Explanation: Repair and rehabilitation of damaged or spalled concrete is done by
removing the unsound or loose concrete by providing temporary supports to the
girder to relieve dead load stresses and the case of pretressed concrete bridge
decks, special stress check up is essential before starting the repair works.
17. In many cases of heavily loaded girders, shear distress is observed near the ___
a) Edges
b) Supports
c) Span
d) Length
Answer: b
Explanation: In many cases of heavily loaded, girders shear distress is observed
near the supports in the form of diagonal tension cracks and shear cracks may arise
due to improper detailing or compaction of concrete near the support zone in such
cases holes are drilled diagonally and rebars are placed and grouted to arrest the
shear cracks.
18. Bridge girders located in zones of very severe exposure conditions suffer
_______
a) Spalling
b) Bleeding
c) Winding
d) Spinning
Answer: a
Explanation: Bridge girders located in zones of very severe exposure conditions are
like it to suffer: Spalling extensive spalling of concrete exposing the reinforcements
and in such cases the unsound or loose concrete around the girders is removed and
repairing against the loss of concrete section is done by jacketing the girders using a
steel form.
19. The crack propagation in the concrete girders can be arrested by using the
principles of ____________
a) Pre tensioning
b) Post tensioning
c) Prestressing
d) Loading
Answer: b
Explanation: Crack propagation in the concrete girders can be arrested by using the
principles of post tensioning and in this tensile cracking in the girder are arrested by

Page 5 of 12
including compression using tension ties forced to the sides of the girder at locations
of tensile cracks.
20. In some cases of repairs of girders damaged by collision, the damage is severe
what is used?
a) Trusses and bars
b) Struts and pins
c) Links and dowels
d) Lace and anchores
Answer: c
Explanation: In some cases, the damage is more severe deeper so that the high
tensile wires and strands are exposed and in such cases, the damaged portion is
repaired by using links ad dowels along with wire mesh tied to the reinforcements
and the entire damaged part is repaired using mortar or non shrink grout.
21. The corrosion of reinforcement due to extreme exposure is common for structure
located in ____
a) Dry conditions
b) Costal zones
c) Regional zones
d) Hot condition
Answer: b
Explanation: Due to various reasons such as corrosion of reinforcements due to
extreme exposure conditions, especially when un bonded tendons are used, the high
tensile strands may get damaged resulting in loss of prestresss in the girder.
22. In case of damaged prestressed concrete I girders which are used for restoring
strength?
a) Pretensioning
b) Post tensioning
c) Chemicals
d) Dies
Answer: b
Explanation: Post tensioning rods (one on either side of the web) in conjugation with
jacking (concrete) corbels located outside the damaged areas can be used to restore
the strength of the prestressed girder and to start with the calculated preload is
applied and the damaged concrete is repaired.
23. In restoration of strength by adding external reinforced concrete the damages
concrete is first repaired by applying ____________
a) Preload
b) Tensile load
c) Compressive load
d) Overload
Answer: a
Explanation: In this method, the damaged concrete is first repaired by applying the
required preload and the concrete a corbels are constructed with the required
conventional steel reinforcement and it shows adding external reinforcement
concrete to restore the strength of the damaged girder.
24. In method 3 the restoration is done y addition of ____________
a) Metal sleeve jacket

Page 6 of 12
b) Aluminium jacket
c) Steel jacket
d) Water proof jacket
Answer: a
Explanation: In this methods preload is applied prior to the repair of the damaged
concrete and removed after the completion of repairs and a metal sleeve jacket is
installed around and beyond the damaged area and the gap between the metal
sleeve girders is filles with epoxy grout by pressure injection.
25. The depth of structural element is increased by adding ____________
a) Excess concrete
b) Low concrete
c) Prestressed concrete
d) Dies
Answer: a
Explanation: The depth of structural elements is increased by adding an new layer of
concrete on top of an existing cross sections and bonding the old and new elements
with modern epoxy resin adhesives and the total reinforcement in the cross section
is increased by epoxy bonding of thin steel plates on the tension face of the beam to
increase the flexural and shear strength.
26. The restoration of structures by rectifying constructional deficiencies are as a
result of ____________
a) Cross section
b) Span
c) Dimensioning
d) Slab
Answer: c
Explanation: The range of application of this strengthening technique is ideally suited
for the following situations: restoration of structures by rectifying constructional
deficiencies that impair the safety of the structure as a result of faulty dimensioning,
corrosion of reinforcement, insufficient reinforcement, overloading etc.
27. The first attempt to strengthen concrete flexural elements by externally bonded
steel plates was attempted in?
a) Germany
b) France
c) America
d) Russia
Answer: b
Explanation: The first reported attempts to strengthen concrete flexural elements by
externally bonded steel plates were attempted in France around 1964-65 and
practical applications date back to 1966-67 in France and South Africa followed by
Japan and Russia.
28. The load bearing capacity of a structural element can be increased by changing
___
a) Foundation
b) Design
c) Span
d) Loads

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Answer: c
Explanation: The strengthening of an existing structural element by increasing its
load bearing capacity and altering the load supporting system by changing spans by
shifting or removing of supports, conversion of continuous beam to single span beam
and vice versa etc.
29. In Switzerland the externally bonded steel plates were used for ____________
a) Bridges
b) Crops
c) Dams
d) Tanks
Answer: a
Explanation: In Switzerland this method has been extensively used in both buildings
and bridges and experiments conducted have shown that reinforced concrete
beams, when epoxy bonded with steel plates on the tension face it exhibits
significant increase up to 3% in the ultimate flexural strength in comparison with non
plated beams.
30. Which grade of structural steel is suitable for bonded reinforcing plates?
a) M25
b) M35
c) Any grade
d) M10
Answer: c
Explanation: Generally any grade of structural steel is suitable for bonded reinforcing
plates and plate gauges below 3mm are not suitable because sand blasting can
deform them and steel plates between 6-16mm thick were used in some
strengthening works.
31. The pretreatment of concrete surface is generally carried out by ____________
a) Sand blasting
b) Forrowing
c) Bleeding
d) Blasting
Answer: a
Explanation: Pretreatment of the concrete surface is generally carried out by sand
blasting, shotcrete blasting, grinding or roughening with pneumatic needle gun or
granulating hammer and the grain structure of the concrete must be exposed before
the steel plates are fixed.
32. The tensile shear strength of the adhesive is initially proportional to the square
root of ____________
a) Span
b) Thickness
c) Area
d) Eccentricity
Answer: b
Explanation: The adhesive joint is generally between 1-3mm thick and tests have
shown that the tensile shear strength of the adhesive is initially proportional to the
square root of the thickness however the tensile shear strength reaches a maximum
and then starts decreasing as the adhesive thickness is further increased and hence
the thinner layers prove stronger and have greater resistance than thick ones.

Page 8 of 12
33. The repair procedure in severe damage includes ____________
a) Grouting
b) Collapse
c) Shortcrete
d) Mud
Answer: c
Explanation: The detailed examination of the damage and review of calculations will
help in selecting a cost effective and appropriate restoration technique for the
damaged structure and the loss of prestress is excessive resulting in tensile cracks,
preloading method should be seriously considered in making concrete repairs in
order to restore the equivalent full or partial prestresss effect, as per original designs
and the repair procedure may also include epoxy resin pressure injection, Shortcrete
and additional welded fabric with drilled anchors and guniting.
34. Before patching the exposure strands should be coated with ____________
a) Thick cement grout
b) Slurry cement grout
c) Hardened cement grout
d) Watery cement grout
Answer: b
Explanation: In moderate damage it is recommended that welded wire fabrics be
attached to drilled dowels placed at about 500mm spacing or to the existing
reinforcement in the damaged area and if the prestressing strands are exposed,
sufficient care must be taken so as not to damage the steel during the cleaning
operation and the exposed strands should be coated with epoxy resin bonding
compound or slurry cement grout before patching.
35. Elastomers have excellent adhesion to concrete and are not susceptible to
____________
a) Hardening
b) Shaving
c) Collapsing
d) Softening
Answer: d
Explanation: Elastomers have excellent adhesion to concrete and are not
suspectable to softening within the normal range of ambient temperatures and
normally Elastomers exhibit a higher degree of elongation of as much as 10 percent
extension but in practice, this should be limited to 50 percent and the groove depth
to width ratio should be 1.2, the material should be prevented from adhering to the
bottom so that the crack remains free as a live crack.
36. The super structure in Swanley bridges in U.K is made up of a continuous slab
supported on ____________
a) Longitudinal piers
b) Transverse piers
c) Inclined piers
d) Curved piers
Answer: c
Explanation: These highway bridges from part of M25 and M20 mortar way
intersection and the super structure is made up of continuous slab supported on the

Page 9 of 12
inclined piers and shortly after the bridge was opened for traffic, cracks were
observed on the soffit of deck slab at the end sections.
37. A design review indicated that the reinforcements at the cracked locations were
__
a) Adequate
b) Inadequate
c) Collapse
d) Deform
Answer: b
Explanation: A design review indicated that the reinforcements at the cracked
locations were inadequate hence the missing reinforcement was introduced in the
form of bonded steel plates 6mm thick, 250mm wide and 3 to 6m long plates bonded
in three layers in each strip and each strip of reinforcement was 12m long and 15
strips were distributed over the entire width of the bridge.
38. The concrete deck slab and girders of Gizener bridge, Switzerland was built in
the year?
a) 1911
b) 1920
c) 1915
d) 1900
Answer: a
Explanation: The concrete deck slab and girders of this bridge built in the year 1911
and located in Switzerland has to be strengthened to withstand planned future
loading and the damaged parts of the bridge deck slab was repaired using epoxy
resin mortar.
39. The super structure of Obra singrauli bridge, located on eastern railway in Indian
is of span ____________
a) 14.3
b) 18.3m
c) 16.3m
d) 12.3m
Answer: b
Explanation: The super structure of Obra singrauli bridge located on eastern railway
in India comprises of 4 numbers of 18.3m spans and one number of 24.4m span and
decking is made up of two prestressed concrete girders stressed with Freyssinet
system of post tensioning and after 15 years of service the prestressed girders
developed large number of cracks at the junction of girder and deck slab on both
internal and external faces.
40. The deck in Quinton bridge in U.K is made of ____________
a) Voided slabs
b) Concrete slabs
c) Prestressed slabs
d) Elongated slabs
Answer: a
Explanation: The deck is made up of voided slabs 90-105cm thick and routine
inspection indicated cracks in the soffit of end and central sections and review of
design calculations indicated deficient tensile reinforcements at certain locations of

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the deck slabs, the following two rehabilitation methods were examined: installation
of prestressing elements and external reinforcement with bonded on steel plates.
41. The super structure of Katepura bridge in Maharashtra state comprises of
________
a) Cantilever beam
b) SSB
c) Point
d) Simple beam
Answer: b
Explanation: The super structure of Katepura bridge in Maharashtra state comprises
of simply supported concrete girders with reinforced concrete structures deck slab
and the bridge has 4 spans of 37.8m and the girders were cast in place over
temporary staging and side shifted to position after necessary post tensioning of the
girders.
42. The restoration of the end block of the girder can be done completely dismantling
the ____________
a) Concrete
b) Cement
c) Water
d) Aggregates
Answer: a
Explanation: The restoration of the end block of the girder was done by completely
dismantling the concrete in the end block after distressing of the cables and new
reinforcement was welded with the existing reinforcement of the girder and new
concrete with vertical joint was provided with extra care.
43. The Chambal bridge is on a state highway connecting which states?
a) Karnataka and Kerala
b) Delhi and Hyderabad
c) Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
d) West Bengal and Assam
Answer: c
Explanation: The Chambal bridge is on a state highway connecting Uttarpradesh and
Madhya Pradesh, built across river Chambal near etawah in Uttarpradesh and the
bridge is 592m long with a bridge deck comprising of single cell reinforced concrete
box girders of 11.1m length projecting on either side of the pier and the suspended
span comprises of two prestressed concrete girders with reinforced concrete deck
slab of span 40.6m.
44. The suspended span comprises of how many prestressed concrete girders?
a)4
b) 2
c) 6
d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: The suspended span comprises of two prestressed concrete girders
with reinforced concrete deck slab of span 40.6m and cast steel rocker and roller
bearings have been provided at articulations for supporting the suspended span and
soon after the bridge was constructed and opened to traffic in1975, it developed
distress due to improper placing of roller bearings.

Page 11 of 12
45. The investigations revealed that the bearings were not at ____________
a) 60 degrees
b) 30 degrees
c) 90 degrees
d) 20 degrees
Answer: a
Explanation: The investigations revealed that the bearings were not at right angles to
the axis of the bridge and the level of downstream side bearing was lower by 35mm
as compared to the elevation of upstream bearing and hence due to transfer
inclination of the bearings towards downstream, the span had a tendency to move in
the transverse direction.

Page 12 of 12
1 Simplest method of identifying weak spots are
a. Visual Inspection b. Tapping the surgace
c. Chipping the weak concrete d. Both (a) & (b)
2 In a brick masonry structures the following defects are noticed during inspection. Which one of them
requires immediate maintenance repair?
a. Dampness on wall b. Growth of vegetation
c. Structure failure by settlement d. Falling of plaster
3 Interior walls of a building have developed cracks. Remedial measures adopted will be to
a. Fill cracks by Portland cement b. Fill cracks with bitumen
mortar
c. Use expansive cement mortar d. Use water proofing compound
for filling cracks to fill cracks
4 A roof has fallen in rainy season. Its maintenance will be classified under which of the following
maintenance
a. Special repair b. Routine
c. Pre-monsoon d. None of the above
5 The main aim of maintain any structure is to
a. Improve its appearance b. Utilise the funds provided
c. Stabilise the structure so as to d. Utility services of incharge
enable it to carry the functions maintenance
for which it is constructed
6 Which one of the following is the preventive maintenance
a. Filling up cracks in masonry b. Repair of pot holes on road
c. Painting of doors and windows d. Renewal of flooring
7 Tile turning of tiled roof in the month of may the example of
a. Special repair b. Pre-monsoon repair
c. Remedial repair d. Post-monsoon repair
8 The high pH of the fresh concrete make a thin oxide film around the reinforcement steel
a. True b. False
9 The corrosion of reinforcement steel is because of
a. Carbonation b. Presence of salt
c. Porosity of concrete d. All of the above
10 If the cracks width is less than 0.1 mm they are called
a. Fine b. Thin
c. Medium d. Wide
11 Cracks are caused because of
a. Settlement b. Concentrated loads
c. Expansion & contraction d. All of the above
12 How can we prevent cracks in concrete structures?
a. Due to heavy load b. Low w/c ratio
c. Settlement of structure d. High w/c ratio
13 List I enlists cracks, List II provides width. Match the crack with its width
List I
i. Fine
ii. Thin
iii. Medium
iv. Wide
List II
A. Width more than 2 mm
B. Width 0.1 mm to 1 mm
C. Width less than 0.1 mm
D. Width 1 mm to 2 mm
a. i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv- A b. i-C, ii-B, iii-D, iv- A
c. i-D, ii-B, iii-C, iv- A d. i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv- D
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14 List I enlists Direction of crack, List II provides effect on the foundation. Match the direction of
crack with its effect on the foundation.
List I
i. Vertical cracks
ii. Horizontal cracks
iii. Diagonal cracks
iv. Vertical cracks wider at top
List II
A. Settlement of foundation
B. Excessive shear, settlement of isolated foundation
C. Swelling of soil below the foundation
D. Differential settlement of foundation
a. i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv- B b. i-C, ii-B, iii-D, iv- A
c. i-D, ii-B, iii-C, iv- A d. i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv- D
15 Scouring: Water moving upwards against form face.
a. Abrasion b. Erosion
c. Cavitation d. None of the above
16 List I enlists type of crack, List II provides causes of crack. Match the type of crack with its causes
of crack.
List I
i. Plastic settlement
ii. Plastic shrinkage
iii. Crazing
iv. Alkali aggregate reaction
List II
A. Impermeable formwork
B. Excess bleeding
C. Reactive aggregate and high alkaline cement
D. Rapid early drying
a. i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C b. i-C, ii-B, iii-D, iv-A
c. i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C d. i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
17 Classes of damage and repair classification as per CPWD, of India.
a. 5 b. 4
c. 3 d. 2
18 “Minor structural cracks observed and /or carbonation depth reached reinforcement level”. The
above statement is of which class of damage?
a. Class 1 b. Class 3
c. Class 2 d. Class 4
19 Which of the following is not a NDT test.
a. Rebound hammer test b. UPV test
c. Nuclear method d. CAPO-test
20 List I enlists test on concrete, List II provides purpose. Match the test on concrete with its purpose of
doing it.
List I
i. Rebound hammer test
ii. Ultra pulse velocity test
iii. Half-cell method
iv. Windsor probe test
List II
A. Resistance of concrete
B. Surface strength of concrete
C. Quality of concrete
D. Measuring corrosion potential
a. i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C b. i-C, ii-B, iii-D, iv-A
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 c. i-B, ii-C iii-D, iv-A d. i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
21 The plunger is held against at ______ to the smooth concrete surface, firmly supported and pressed.
a. 45° b. 60°
c. 75° d. 90°
22 What is the IS code for the testing and correlation between concrete cube strength and rebound
hammer.
a. IS : 13311 (Part – 1) b. IS : 13311 (Part – 2)
c. IS : 13111 (Part – 1) d. IS : 13331 (Part – 1)
23 What will be the quality of concrete for a good layer from rebound hammer values, as per IS code.
a. >40 b. 30 to 40
c. 20 to 30 d. <20
24 What will be the quality grading for excellent concrete as per UPV test.
a. > 4.5 km/s b. 3.5 to 4.5 km/s
c. 3.0 to 3.5 km/s d. < 3 km/s
25 What is the diameter for probe in LOK-test?
a. 20 b. 25
c. 30 d. 35
26 What is the loading rate for hydraulic jack in LOK-test?
a. 30 ± 10 kN/min b. 30 ± 1.0 kN/min
c. 30 ± 05 kN/min d. 25 ± 5 kN/min
27 ______ equipment consists of a gun powder actuated driver, hardened alloy rod probe, loaded
carridges, a depth gauge and other related accessories.
a. LOK-test b. Penetration resistance test
c. CAPO-test d. UPV test
28 A method in which photographs are taken to see the details inside the concrete.
a. DTA b. X-ray diffraction
c. Radiography d. None of the above
29 What is the correct sequencing for the condition survey.
1. Planning stage
2. Field and laboratory testing
3. Preliminary inspection
4. Visual inspection
a. 3, 2, 1, 4 b. 3, 1, 4, 2
c. 4, 2, 1, 3 d. 3, 2, 4, 1
30 The temperature at which concrete can resist fire.
a. 200-300°C b. 150-250°C
c. 100-200°C d. 250-300°C
31 How much amount is sprayed solution of phenolphthalein on concrete.
a. 0.1% b. 0.2%
c. 0.25% d. 0.15%
32 The quantity of cement in concrete should not be less than ____ kg/m3 for permeability in concrete.
a. 320 b. 340
c. 350 d. 360
33 As per IS : 456 – 2000, chlorides content of mixing and curing of water should not exceed _____
ppm.
a. 1100 b. 1120
c. 1000 d. 1050
34 As per IS : 456 – 2000, sulphate content of mixing and curing of water should not exceed _____
ppm.
a. 450 b. 500
c. 550 d. 600
35 What is the minimum size of core as per BS : 1881 (Part -4).
a. 125 mm b. 150 mm
c. 175 mm d. 100 mm
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36 The activities to be undertaken after the construction of the building has been completed to keep,
facility that has been provided in the building.
a. Building Maintenance b. Structural care
c. Both (a) and (b) d. None of the above
37 The formation of series of hair cracks on plastered surface is called
a. Blistering b. Crazing
c. Flaking d. Popping
38 List I enlists various defects on building, List II provides remedies. Match the various defects on
building with its remedies.
List I
i. Defects in plastering
ii. Dampness in building
iii. Termite attack
iv. Leakage through roof
List II
A. Waterproofing treatment
B. Chemical treatment to soil
C. Use of water free from salts
D. Laying D. P. C. at plinth
a. i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C b. i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A
c. i-B, ii-C iii-D, iv-A d. i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
39 Consider the following statements regarding visual inspection of a building:
1. to give a quick scan of the structure.
2. Preparation of good photographic record.
3. To conduct the field/laboratory test.
a. 1 alone is correct b. 2 alone is correct
c. 2 and 3 are correct d. 1 and 2 are correct
40 The measures taken to prevent wear or decay of a building is known as
a. Periodical maintenance b. Remedial maintenance
c. Preventive maintenance d. None of the above
41 Repairing of any part of a building after damage is known as
a. Periodical maintenance b. Remedial maintenance
c. Preventive maintenance d. None of the above
42 Removing of chokage of drainage pipes is which type of repair?
a. Special Repair b. Annual repair
c. Day to day repair d. None of the above
43 White washing, colour washing is which type of repair?
a. Special Repair b. Annual repair
c. Day to day repair d. None of the above
44 Replacement of doors, windows frame and shutter are which type of repair?
a. Special Repair b. Annual repair
c. Day to day repair d. None of the above
45 Maintenance consist of the following actions
a. Replace of component b. Repair of component
c. Service of component d. All of the above
46 Regular cleaning at pre-planned intervals is known as:
a. Periodical maintenance b. Scheduled maintenance
c. Routine maintenance d. None of the above
47 To control corrosion, concrete with _________ is used
a. Low permeability b. Low thermal coefficient
c. More cement content d. More coarse aggregate
48 The process of implementing detection and characterization strategy for engineering structures is
called __________
a. Structural health maintenance b. Structural health monitoring
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 c. Building services d. None of the above
49 Which of the following is preventive measure
a. Filling up cracks in masonary b. Repair of pot holes on road
c. Painting of doors and windows d. Renewal of flooring
50 Which of the following jobs will you classify as special maintenance
a. Replacing door frame damaged b. Renewal coat to W. B. M. road
by white ants surface
c. White washing and colour d. Painting of steel roof trusses of
washing of buildings a workshop
51 Durability of concrete is proportional to _________
a. Sand content b. Water cement ratio
c. Aggregate ratio d. Cement aggregate ratio
52 Strength of concrete increase with _____________
a. Increase with w/c ratio b. Decrease with w/c ratio
c. Decrease in size of aggregates d. Decrease in curing time
53 The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ permeability, is the best protection against
sulphate attack.
a. High b. Medium
c. Low d. Very low
54 The restitution of the strength the building had before damage is called
a. Rehabilitation b. Retrofitting
c. Restoration d. Repair
55 The quality of concrete, specifically a ____________ w/c ratio, is the best protection against
sulphate attack.
a. High b. Medium
c. Low d. Very low
56 Mortar or concrete conveyed through pressure hose and applied pneumatically at high velocity on to
a surface is called
a. Guniting b. Grouting
c. Sealing d. Spraying
57 Drying shrinkage can be reduced by
a. Using practical amount of b. Using shrinkage compensating
aggregate cement
c. Lowest usable water content d. All of the above
58 The most appropriate cement for repairing in R. C. C. work is
a. Portland cement b. Expansive cement
c. Quick setting cement d. Low heat cement
59 Efflorescence is the ill effect of
a. Dampness b. Growth of vegetation
c. Action of weathering agents d. Chemical action of mortar on
masonary
60 The capability of the material to withstand the test against the adverse effect of climate is called
a. Strength b. Durability
c. Consolidation d. None of the above
61 What is plastic shrinkage?
a. It is not a result of any change b. Loss of water by evaporation
in the concrete production from the surface of concrete or
process. by the absorption by aggregate.
c. The shrinkage take place after d. No moisture movement to or
the concrete has set and from the past is permitted, when
hardened. temperature is constant and
some shrinkage may occur.
62 What is drying shrinkage?
a. It is not a result of any change b. Loss of water by evaporation
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 in the concrete production
process.
c. The shrinkage take place after
the concrete has set and
hardened.
63 What is autogeneous shrinkage?
a. It is not a result of any change
in the concrete production
process.
c. The shrinkage take place after
the concrete has set and
hardened.
64 What is carbonation shrinkage?
a. It occurs when the concrete is
exposed to air containing
carbon dioxide
c. The shrinkage take place after
the concrete has set and
hardened.
65 What is internal sulphates attack?
a. Presence of natural gypsum in
the aggregates
c. Sulphate are more usually are a
result of ground water
66 What is external sulphates attack?
a. Sulphate are more usually are a
result of high-sulphate soils
c. Presence of natural gypsum in
the aggregates
67 The repair and rehabilitation of damaged or spalled concrete is done by removing the
a. Loose concrete
c. Breakage
68 Factors which promote alkali aggregate reaction are
a. Reactive type of aggregate
c. Availability of moisture
69 Ferro-cement is another name given to
a. Plain cement concrete
c. Prestressed cement concrete
70 The cement concrete, from which entrained air and excess water are removed after placing it in
position, is called
a. Vacuum concrete
c. Prestressed concrete
71 Symptoms for acid attack?
a. It will show disintegration of
the concrete evidenced by loss
of the cement paste
c. Affected concrete does not
exhibit revealing features too
distinctly
72 Symptoms for aggressive ASR?
a. It will show disintegration of
from the surface of concrete or
by the absorption by aggregate.
d. No moisture movement to or
from the past is permitted, when
temperature is constant and
some shrinkage may occur.
b. Loss of water by evaporation
from the surface of concrete or
by the absorption by aggregate.
d. No moisture movement to or
from the past is permitted, when
temperature is constant and
some shrinkage may occur.
b. Loss of water by evaporation
from the surface of concrete or
by the absorption by aggregate.
d. No moisture movement to or
from the past is permitted, when
temperature is constant and
some shrinkage may occur.
b. Soil may contain excess of
gypsum
d. Industrial waste water
b. Sulphate are more usually are a
result of ground water
d. Both (a) & (b)
b. Collapsing
d. Bonding
b. High alkali content
d. All of the above
b. Reinforced cement concrete
d. None of the above
b. Light weight concrete
d. Sawdust concrete
b. It will show concrete surfaces
that are very rough in areas
where the paste is leached
d. Expansion does not occur
without reaction products
b. It will show concrete surfaces
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 the concrete evidenced by loss that are very rough in areas
of the cement paste where the paste is leached
c. Affected concrete does not d. Expansion does not occur
exhibit revealing features too without reaction products
distinctly
73 Sometimes the structures are to be temporarily supported. This is achieved by what is known as the
a. Scaffolding b. Shoring
c. Underpinning d. Grouting
74 In ______ shore arrangement, the inclined supports are given to the external walls from the ground.
a. Raking shore b. Flying shore
c. Dead shore d. None of the above
75 In _______ arrangement, the horizontal supports are given two parallel walls which have become
unsafe due to the removal or collapse of the intermediate building.
a. Raking shore b. Flying shore
c. Dead shore d. Inclined shore
76 In ___________ arrangement, the horizontal members, known as the needles are supported by
vertical members.
a. Raking shore b. Flying shore
c. Dead shore d. Inclined shore
77 The placing of new Foundation below and existing foundation of the process of strengthening the
existing Foundation is known as the ___________ of foundation.
a. Shoring b. Underpinning
c. Grouting d. Scaffolding
78 A construction ________ can arise due to many factors such as design mistake, poor workmanship
or use of inferior materials.
a. Damage b. Defect
c. Deterioration d. None of the above
79 The concrete building is having a cracking, fire, overloading, chemical attack can be called as
a. Damage b. Defect
c. Deterioration d. None of the above
80 The concrete structure is having a corrosion, erosion, sulphate attacks etc.
a. Damage b. Defect
c. Deterioration d. None of the above
81 As per IS : 456 - 2000 the % air entrained for 20 mm aggregate is
a. 5 ± 1 b. 5 ± 2
c. 4 ± 1 d. 4 ± 2
82 List I enlists various types of deterioration, List II provides preventive measures. Match the various
types of deterioration with its preventive measures..
List I
i. Freeze-thaw
ii. Alkali aggregate reaction
iii. Alkali silica reaction
iv. Sulphate attack
List II
A. Use of air-entrainment
B. Selection of non-reactive type aggregates
C. Use of low alkali cement
D. Adequate air entrainment
a. i-D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C b. i-C, ii-D, iii-B, iv-A
c. i-D, ii-B iii-C, iv-A d. i-C, ii-A, iii-B, iv-D
83 To prevent sea water attack which content in cement should be reduced?
a. C3S b. C2S
c. C3A d. C4AF
84 As per IS : 456 – 2000 what is the minimum cover for footing?
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 a. 50 mm b. 40 mm
c. 45 mm d. 75 mm
85 As per IS : 456 – 2000 for moderate exposure condition what is the maximum free w/c ratio
a. 0.55 b. 0.50
c. 0.45 d. 0.40
86 The maximum quantity of cement in concrete ____ kg/m3 as per IS : 456 -2000.
a. 420 b. 340
c. 450 d. 360
87 As per IS : 456 - 2000 total water soluble sulphate content (SO3) in concrete should not be more than
______ by mass of cement in the mix.
a. 3 % b. 4 %
c. 5 % d. 6 %
88 The value of coefficient of thermal expansion for ordinary concrete is
a. 9*10-6 to 12*10-6 /°C b. 9*10-7 to 12*10-7 /°C
-6 -6
c. 8*10 to 12*10 /°C d. 9.5*10-6 to 11*10-6 /°C
89 Any crack width, which allows aggressive chemicals to travel freely into the concrete, is termed as
a. Micro crack b. Macro crack
c. Wide crack d. Thin crack
90 The pH of hardened concrete is
a. 12.5 to 13.5 b. 11 to 12
c. 11.5 to 12.5 d. 7 to 8
91 Cement which is used for getting early strength
a. OPC b. Expansive cement
c. PPC d. Rapid hardening cement
92 ________ takes place when two materials called as epoxy resin and epoxy hardner are mixed
a. Resin b. Epoxies
c. Modified epoxies d. None of the above
93 Gypsum, starches, sugars etc are commonly which type of admixtures?
a. Super plasticizers b. Accelerators
c. Waterproofing d. Retarders
94 The reduction of water to an extent of 30 % without reducing workability of the mix.
a. Super plasticizers b. Accelerators
c. Waterproofing d. Retarders
95 In ferro cement fine aggregates confirming to zone I and II with particles size between are used ___
a. 4.75 mm to 150 μm b. 1.18 mm to 600 μm
c. 2.36 mm to 150 μm d. 600 μm to 150 μm
96 In ferro cement what is the diameter of skeleton steel
a. 4 to 8 mm b. 5 to 11 mm
c. 2 to 7 mm d. 3 to 8 mm
97 The aerated concrete is made by introducing air or gas bubbles into the plastic cement mortar mix is
called as
a. Foam concrete b. Plastic concrete
c. Ordinary concrete d. Colourecrete
98 What is the proportion of cement sand mix in dry packing
a. 1:3 b. 1:2
c. 1:1.5 d. 1:2.5
99 To bring back the architectural shape of the building so that all services start working is called
a. Rehabilitation b. Retrofitting
c. Restoration d. Repair
100 The process of repairing or modifying a structure to desired useful condition.
a. Rehabilitation b. Retrofitting
c. Restoration d. Repair

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