Intestinal Occlusion

Mrs. Hiba is 40 years old admitted to hospital for occlusion syndrome. She
presented with acute abdominal pain, vomiting, absence of bowel elimination and
flatulence

1. The main objective of naso gastric tube insertion for this patient is:
a. Enteral alimentation
b. Medication administration
c. Gastric aspiration
d. Parenteral administration.

2. To reduce pain for Mrs. Hiba the doctor ordered morphine sulfate S/C.
The life threatening complications of this medication is:
a. Somnolence
b. Respiratory distress
c. Confusion
d. Hypotension.

3. The radiologic study specific for occlusion syndrome is:

a. Abdominal CT scan
b. Abdominal echography
c. Abdominal angiography
d. Abdominal MRI.

4. The intestinal occlusion may lead to dehydration. The initial manifestation that
indicates dehydration on Mrs. H. is:
a. Hematuria
b. Polyuria
c. Dysuria
d. Oliguria.

5. Blood transfusion was ordered to Mrs. Hiba post op due to severe anemia.
This needs an approval from.
a. Patient
b. Doctor
c. Nurse
d. Family.
Gastro-intestinal hemorrhage

Mr. Louis a 45 years old male admitted to the hospital presenting with
hematemesis, weakness and tachypnea. A gastroscopy is ordered. He has a
history of alcoholism, renal colic and intake of analgesic medication without a
doctor prescription.

1. Which of the following drugs causes gastro-intestinal bleeding?

a. Antibiotic
b. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
c. Histamine2 blockers
d. Proton-pump inhibitor.

2. In case of upper gastro-intestinal bleeding, which of the following you insert

immediately?
a. Foley catheter
b. Probe oximeter
c. Nasogastric-tube
d. Nasal Cannula.

3. Which of the following test should be taken before gastroscopy for Mr. Louis?
a. Glucose level
b. Urine analysis
c. Liver enzyme
d. Coagulation study.

4. What is the goal of nasogastric tube insertion in the case of Mr. Louis?
a. Aspiration
b. Alimentation
c. Rehydration
d. Surveillance.

5. Which of the following diet plans should Mr. Louis follow?

a. High fat diet
b. Hypo caloric diet
c. Low carbohydrate diet
d. High protein diet.
Gastric Ulcer

Giselle a 45 years old female is suffering from epigastric pain. She is a smoker. A
gastroscopy confirmed that she has gastric ulcer. Laboratory studies was done
before starting the treatment.

1. Antibiotics are used for patients with gastric ulcer in the presence of which
microorganism?
a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Pseudomonas.

2. When the pain will appear in case of gastric ulcer?

a. Immediately after meal
b. During intake of a meal
c. After 1-2 hours after meal
d. After 2-4 hours after meal

3. Where is the location of pain for a patient with gastric ulcer?

a. Hypogastric
b. Epigastric
c. Right lower abdominal quadrant
d. Left lower abdominal quadrant.

4. Which type of ulcer has high risk to progress into cancer?

a. Duodenal
b. Esophageal
c. Buccal
d. Gastric.

5. The patient next to Giselle is asking the nurse for information about Giselle’s
health. How should the nurse react?
a. Inform Giselle
b. Give her the information she asked for
c. Ensure for her the need of confidentiality
d. Discuss minimal information.
Cholecystectomy

Rola a 56 year old female admitted to the hospital suffering from acute
abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. She experienced malaise after heavy
meal. An echography was done and cholelithiasis is confirmed.

1. The pain associated with cholelithiasis site is?

a. Right upper abdominal quadrant
b. Left lower abdominal quadrant
c. Right flank
d. Left flank.

2. Upon physical examination which sign is detected on patient with

cholecystitis?
a. Homan’s sign
b. Mc Burney sign
c. Murphy Sign
d. Troussess sign

3. After cholecystectomy the patient is instructed to follow?

a. Low protein
b. High sodium
c. High calories
d. Low fat calories

4. Post-cholecystectomy which of the following drains is to be used:

a. Hemovac
b. Penrose
c. T-Tube
d. Suction tube.

5. The most common post-op complication during first 24 hours after

laparoscopic cholecystectomy:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Wound dehiscence
c. Sepsis
d. Pancreatitis.
Geriatric/Depression/Renal Failure

Mrs. Linda is 80 years old, admitted to the geriatric floor for hypertension, acute
renal failure and major depression. The treatment was diuretic (Furosemide and
anti-psychotic agent). She fell down while going to the bathroom; she is lives
alone.

1. Which treatment increases the risk of fall for Mrs. Linda?

a. Vitamin supplement
b. Antibiotic
c. Antidepressive
d. Anti platelets.

2. To prevent a fall, the nurse should have asked Mrs.Linda for:

a. Taking a nap once per day
b. Keeping bed rest all day
c. Walking with assistance
d. Going out of bed alone.

3. The main laboratory assessment for this patient related to taking Furosemide
is:
a. Potassium
b. Sodium
c. Chloride
d. Magnesium.

4. The possible complication of hypertension for this patient is:

a. Migraine
b. Epilepsy
c. Ischemic Cerebrovascular accident.
d. Hemorrhagic Cerebrovascular accident.

5. Mrs. Linda was ordered for discharge from the hospital. The nursing attitude
toward sending her home is:
a. Communication with family
b. Keep her at hospital
c. Transfer her to elderly care home
d. Transfer her to home directly
Meningitis

Case Study 1

Mr. Nabil, a 55 years-old male patient, was admitted to the hospital for headache
and nuchal rigidity. He is diagnosed with meningitis.

1. The nurse knows that one of the causes of meningitis is:

a. Abnormal genetic chromosome
b. Compound scapula fracture
c. Acute otitis media
d. Demyelination of the axon.

2. The patient is complaining of meningeal irritation (headache) that can be

reduced by the following nursing intervention?
a. Place client in a room with dim light
b. Suction excessive secretions
c. Keep the patient complete bed rest
d. Perform tepid sponging to decrease body temperature.

3. The patient is put in an air-borne isolation, how long should the patient be kept
in isolation?
a. Until therapy is completed
b. After 24 hours of antibiotics initiation
c. Until discharge of the patient
d. Until signs and symptoms are relieved.

4. The nurse assesses the patient for which of the following complications of
meningitis?
a. Encephalitis
b. Gastro esophageal
c. Pulmonary Edema
d. Myocarditis.

5. The nurse considers that Mr. Nabil is improving when he can perform which of
the following activities?
a. Move to a side-lying position
b. Neck flexion
c. Sit up and drink water
d. Dorsiflex both feet.
Meningitis

Case Study 2

A nurse is dealing with a new patient suspected to have meningitis. Upon

physical examination, the nurse notes that the patient exhibits a positive “kernig’s
sign”.

1. Which of the following observations is a characteristic of kernig’s sign?

a. Complaints of muscle and joint pain
b. Petechial and purpuric rashes are noted on the trunk
c. Neck flexion causes adduction and flexion of lower extremities
d. Difficulty to extend the leg when the thigh is flexed at the hip or knee.

2. Based on the mode of transmission of bacterial meningitis, which type of

isolations for this patient should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Contact isolation
b. Reverse isolation
c. Air-borne isolation
d. No isolation.

3. The physician performed a lumbar puncture to diagnose the type of

Meningitis. Lumber puncture is performed at the level of:
a. L2 - L3
b. L4 - L5
c. S1 – S2
d. S3 – S4.

4. The nurse reviews the result of the specimen, which element does not confirm
the presence of meningitis?
a. Protein
b. Glucose
c. While blood cells
d. Red blood cells

5. Which of the following signs would the nurse assess if the patient develop a
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) as a complication of meningitis?
a. Pitting edema
b. Hemorrhagic skin rash
c. Peripheral cyanosis
d. Dyspnea on exertion.
Renal Failure and Hemodialysis

A 53 year old man with end-stage renal disease secondary to diabetes. He also
had hypertension and started hemodialysis.

1. During hemodialysis, the filtrated blood is reinfused back from machine to the
body through the patient’s:
a. Vein
b. Aorta
c. Peripheral Artery
d. Capillary.

2. The filter that serves as an artificial kidney in hemodialysis is:

a. Hemolyzer
b. Dialyzer
c. Nephrolyzer
d. Glomerulyzer.

3. The nurse is assessing the patency of the arteriovenous fistula in the arm of
the patient. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent?
a. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula
b. Absence of bruit upon auscultation over the fistula
c. Presence of radial pulse in the left wrist
d. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the left arm.

4. The patient takes an anti-hypertensive medication daily in the morning. On the

day of dialysis the nurse should administer the medication:
a. Just before hemodialysis
b. During hemoldialysis
c. After hemodialysis
d. The day after hemodialysis.

5. Regarding teaching the patient self-monitoring between hemodialysis

sessions. Which sign should The patient record daily?:
a. Pulse
b. Respiratory rate
c. Blood pressure
d. Temperature
Diabetes Mellitus Type 2

Fouad a 58 years old male has type I Diabetes Mellitus presented with dyspnea,
dry cough and mild hyperthermia. He is on insulin therapy NPH (intermediate) at
8 am every day. Clinical examination revealed bronchitis. The doctor ordered
antibiotic therapy.

1. Which of the following manifestation indicate that Mr. Fouad is having

Hyperglycemia?
a. Hypertension
b. Hypotension
c. Tachycardia
d. Polyuria.

2. Which of the following clinical manifestation indicate hypoglycemic reaction?

a. Hot skin
b. Anorexia
c. Tremor
d. Muscle cramp.

3. To avoid hypoglycemic reaction due to effect of insulin peak, Mr. Fouad should
make his activity?
a. Before lunch
b. After lunch
c. After breakfast snack
d. Before bed time.

4. Which of the following is a factor that causes hyperglycemia for Mr. Fouad?
a. Gender
b. Infection
c. Insulin therapy
d. Age.

5. Which of the following glucose results within the normal range?

a. 60 mg/dL
b. 100 mg/dL
c. 160 mg/dl
d. 300 mg/dL.
Renal Failure

The nurse is caring for a 65 years-old female patient with renal failure who is
prepared for hemodialysis.

1. Which is the important nursing diagnosis for this patient with end-stage renal
disease?
a. Risk for injury
b. Altered nutrition less than body requirements
c. Activity intolerance
d. Fluid volume excess.

2. Which diet is best to be provided on days between dialysis sessions?

a. Low protein diet with unlimited amounts of water
b. Low protein diet with prescribed amounts of water
c. No protein in diet and use of a salt substitute
d. No restrictions of protein.

3. This patient is undergoing hemodialysis with an arteriovenous fistula in place.

What do you do to prevent complications associated with this device?
a. Insert IV lines above the fistula
b. Palpate pulses above the fistula
c. Report a bruit or thrill over the fistula to the doctor
d. Avoid taking blood pressure in the arm with the fistula.

4. This patient reports pruritis. Which instruction should the nurse include in the
patient’s teaching plan related to pruritis?
a. Keep fingernails short and clean
b. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel
c. Take frequent baths
d. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin.

5. Which of the following is the most common cause of hypertension in renal

failure?
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Hypovolemia
c. Hypervolemia
d. Anemia.
Renal Failure

Mr. Naji a 60 years old male client, presented to the emergency department
overdosed accidently by tobramycin (a nephrotoxic antibiotic)

1. What type of renal failure would the nurse expect to see?

a. Prerenal failure
b. Postrenal failure
c. Extrarenal failure
d. Intrarenal failure.

2. Mr. Naji develops early chronic renal failure. Which of the following would the
nurse expect to note as assessment of Mr. Naji?
a. Polyuria
b. Polydypsia
c. Oliguria
d. Anuria

3. Mr. Naji’s potassium level is 6 meq/L. The nurse would plan which of the
following as a priority action?
a. Check the sodium level
b. Place Mr. Naji on a cardiac monitor
c. Encourage increased vegetables in the diet
d. Allow an extra 500 ml fluid intake.

4. Mr. Naji asks the nurse why he is anemic. Which of the following responses by
the nurse is best?
a. There is a decreased production by the hormone erythropoietin
b. We will need to review your dietary intake of iron-rich foods
c. It is most likely that you have hereditary traits for the development of anemia
d. The increased metabolic waste products in your body depress the Bone
Marrow.

5. Which of the following laboratory data is the most accurate indicator that Mr.
Naji is recovering?
a. Decreasing BUN levels
b. Decreasing Serum Creatinine
c. Decreasing neutrophil count
d. Decreasing lymphocyte count.
Renal Failure

Mrs. Alia, a 60 years old female, admitted to the hospital with crush injury to the
right lower leg and as massive bleeding, She develops acute renal failure.

1. The nurse interprets that this type of renal failure is due to:
a. Pre renal causes
b. Renal causes
c. Post renal causes
d. Extra renal causes.

2. Mrs. Alia has a serum of potassium (K+) level of 5.8 mEq/L. The nurse would
plan which of the following as a priority action?
a. Allow an extra 500 ml of fluid intake
b. Encourage increased vegetables in the diet
c. Place the client on a cardiac monitoring
d. Check the sodium level.

3. Keyexalate is used in renal failure to:

a. Exchange potassium for sodium
b. Correct acidosis
c. Reduce serum phosphates level
d. Prevent constipation.

4. The nurse expects a patient in the oliguric phase of renal failure to have 24
hours urine output less than:
a. 200 ml
b. 400 ml
c. 800 ml
d. 1000 ml.

5. The nurse instructs this patient about collecting a midstream urine sample for
culture and sensitivity. Which of the following does the nurse include in client
teaching?
a. Bathe before collecting the specimen
b. Label specimen with the provider’s name
c. Cleanse the perineum with antiseptic front to back
d. Collect urine at the beginning of urination.
Urinary tract infection

Ms. Nadia is 26 a year-old female, has been constantly going to the bathroom.
She is complaining of dysuria and foul smelling in urine. The patient is diagnosed
with urinary tract infection (UTI).

1. Which of the following statements would the nurse expect the patient to say?
a. I urinate a lot at night
b. It burns when I urinate
c. I spend hours without the urge to urinate
d. I urinate clear urine.

2. Which method should be used to collect a specimen for urine culture?

a. Have the client void in a clean container
b. Insert a Foley catheter to drain urine
c. Have the client void in a urinal then pour the urine in a container
d. Clean the genital area and put the urine in a sterile container.

3. Which of the following action is included in a plan of care for this patient with
recurrent urinary tract infection?
a. Perform frequent catheterization
b. Perform frequent hygiene measures
c. Restrict daily activities
d. Wear nylon underwear.

4. Ms. Nadia has received instruction ‘s on self-care and prevention of further

infection. The nurse determines that the patient needs further education if the
patient states that she will:
a. use vaginal condoms to prevent disease transmission
b. Return to the clinic as requested for follow up culture in 1 week
c. use antibiotics prophylactically by her own to prevent symptoms
d. Reduce the chance of reinfection by increasing intake of fluids.

5. Which of the following patients is at risk for developing a urinary tract

infection?
a. A 35 year old female with a fractured wrist
b. A 20 year old female with asthma
c. A 50 years old diabetic woman
d. A 45 years old female with angina.
Thyroidectomy

Case Study 1

Mrs. Yeldz is a 40 years old female who underwent subtotal thyroidectormy.

1. During preoperative teaching for this patient, the nurse should include which of
the following statements?
a. The head of your bed must remain flat for 24 hours after surgery.
b. You should avoid deep breathing and coughing exercise after surgery
c. You will not be able to swallow for the first 2 days
d. You should keep head elevated 45 degrees.

2. During evening round the nurse assesses her and finds that she has nausea,
fever, tachycardia and extreme restlessness. What could be the cause of
these signs?
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Thyroid crisis
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Tetany.

3. During the second day post op, in assessing Mrs. Y. the nurse observed that
she had muscle twitching, tingling, and numbness in the extremities. The
nurse should suspect which complication?
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hemorrhage
d. Laryngeal nerve damage.

4. Patient teaching for Eltroxin (Synthetic Thyroid Hormone) would be:

a. Watch for palpitations
b. Watch for constipation
c. Watch for diarrhea
d. Watch for hoarseness of voice

5. Eltroxin (Synthetic Thyroid Hormone) is prescribed to Mrs. Y. The instruction of

the nurse is:
a. Take Eltroxin with meal
b. Take Eltroxin with milk
c. Take Eltroxin in the early morning before 2 hours of meal
d. Take Eltroxin with orange juice.
Chemotherapy (Case Study No. 1)

The nurse is caring for a 58 years old male patient with leukemia who is receiving
chemotherapy through central venous line. This is his second chemotherapy
session.

1. While assessing this patient during his chemotherapy session, what should the
nurse ask the patient:
a. Is your hair falling out now abundantly?
b. Do you have nausea?
c. Do you have loss of smell at the moment?
d. Are you experiencing visual problems

2. The laboratory values of the patient showed neutropenia. Which action should
the nurse implements?
a. Restrict visitors and apply reverse isolation
b. Provide the patient raw meat and green salad
c. Restrict fluid intake
d. Insert a Foley catheter.

3. Which of the following manifestations indicate an infection in a neutropenic

patient?
a. Fever
b. Pain
c. Tachycardia
d. Dyspnea.

4. Which of the following symptoms indicate a toxicity response to the

chemotherapy?
a. Decrease in Appetite
b. Drowsiness in the morning
c. Spasms of the diaphragm
d. Cough and shortness of breath.

5. When the patient states that he refuses to take chemotherapy, the nurse
understands the patient’s right to refuse the treatment. The term that explains
the patient’s right to refuse is:
a. Confidentiality
b. Beneficence
c. Autonomy
d. Justice.
Chemotherapy (Case study 2)

Mrs. Samia, a 65 years old female is hospitalized for chemotherapy. Her blood
tests reveals the following results:
WBC: 2.800/mm3, Neutrophils= 47 %, RBC= 3560 millions/mm3 ,Hb = 12 g/dl,
Hct = 35 %, Platelets = 150,000/mm3.

1. The primary nursing care intervention should be:

a. Protection from infection
b. Administration of blood transfusions
c. Administration of platelets
d. Increase in parenteral nutrition.

2. The definition of “Nadir” is:

a. The maximum level of white blood cells or neutrophils after chemotherapy
b. The maximum level of white blood cells or neutrophils before chemotherapy
c. The minimum level of white blood cells or neutrophils after
chemotherapy
d. The minimum level of white blood cells or neutrophils before chemotherapy.

3. Mrs. Samia is complaining of anemia, fever and epistaxis. The nurse should
know that these signs are due to which side effect of chemotherapy?
a. Alopecia
b. Bone marrow suppression
c. Cardio toxicity
d. Headache.

4. When caring for Mrs. Samia who has a central venous line, which of the
following nursing actions should be implemented in the plan of care for
chemotherapy administration?
a. Inspect the site for swelling, erythema or drainage
b. Administer a cytotoxic agent even if blood return is not present
c. Change the central line dressing twice per day
d. Administer 1 ml heparin before and after chemotherapy.

5. Knowing that Mrs. Samia is of a different from cultural background, what

should the nurse do when planning nursing care for her?
a. Allow the family to provide care during the hospital stay
b. Identify how these cultural variables affect her health problem
c. Speak slowly and use pictures to make sure the patient understand
d. Explain how the patient must adapt to hospital routine.
Craniotomy

Mr. Farid, 54 years old male patient with brain tumor admitted to hospital for
craniotomy. Chemotherapy started pre-surgery.

1. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate increased intra cranial
pressure:
a. Blindness
b. Change in mental status
c. Tachycardia
d. Deafness

2. Mr. Farid becomes restless and confused post-op with the dilation of the pupil.
The physician orders mannitol for which reason?
a. To reduce intraocular pressure
b. To prevent acute tubular necrosis
c. To promote osmotic dieuresis
d. To increase systemic blood pressure.

3. Which nursing diagnosis would receive priority for the patient?

a. Risk for ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion
b. Imbalanced nutrition, more than body requirement
c. Impaired social interaction
d. Disturbed thought process.

4. The patient developed extravasations of chemotherapy. Your priority nursing

action will be:
a. Notify the doctor
b. Slow the infusion rate
c. Stop the infusion
d. Give analgesic.

5. Even though the nurse may verify the client’s signature on a form, obtaining
consent for surgery, is the responsibility of the:
a. The Client
b. The Physician
c. The Student nurse
d. The family.
Thyroidectomy

Mr. X is a 45 years old male patient admitted for hyperthyroidism. The doctor
ordered a thyroid ultrasound, blood tests and thyroid scintigraphy. He is known to
be hypertensive and a non-insulin dependent diabetic patient.

1. What are the hormones secreted by thyroid gland?

a. TSH
b. T3, T4, Calcitonin
c. ACTH
d. TRH.

2. What is the complication that may occur post thyroidectomy?

a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypercholesterolemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypokalemia.

3. What is the clinical sign of hyperthyroidism?

a. Bradycardia
b. Weight gain
c. Constipation
d. Tachycardia.

4. What is the dietary regimen that patient will follow?

a. Regular salt and caloric intake
b. Low salt and hyper caloric intake
c. Low salt and hypo caloric intake
d. Regular salt and hyper caloric intake.

5. The patient develops hypoglycemic fatigue. What is the main intervention for
hypoglycemia?
a. Continue activity
b. Keep NPO
c. Take a fast food meal
d. Take a sugar cube.
Herniated disk

A 40 year old male was admitted to a surgical floor for laminectomy due to
herniated lumbar disk in L4-L5:

1. The nurse assesses the client pre-op, it is expected that pain becomes
worsened on:
a. Bed rest
b. Activity
c. Bending or lifting
d. Leg flexion.

2. The primary post-op examination to ensure proper neuromuscular function is

to monitor lower extremities for:
a, Skin color
b. Temperature
c. Toes sensation
d. Legs motion.

3. An Anti-inflammatory was prescribed for this client. The nursing instruction

for this drug is to take it:
a. On empty stomach
b. With meal
c. Before meal
d. With orange juice.

4. The main home-based education for this client regarding correct posture is:
a. Keep the back straight
b. Stay on complete bed rest
c. Drive your car after 2 days
d. Bending knees is allowed.

5. To prevent constipation post-op, the client should be instructed about:

a. Taking a high caloric diet
b. Taking a high protein diet
c. Keeping on high fat diet
d. Increase high fiber diet.
Osteoporosis and Tibial Fracture

Mona is a 70 years old female patient was brought to Emergency Department for
complete open tibia fracture. She is known to have chronic osteoporosis since 10
years.

1. The main characteristics of pain in tibial fracture for this patient is:
a. Sudden onset of sharp pain
b. Presence of pain in the calf region
c. Intense pain during foot movement
d. Minimum pain with rest.

2. The life threatening potential complication associated mainly with long bone
fracture is:
a. Stress ulcer
b. Infection
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. A vascular necrosis.

3. Compartment syndrome is a potential complication after cast that can lead to

irreversible neuromuscular damage within:
a. 2-4 hours
b. 4-6 hours
c. 6-8 hours
d. 8-10 hours.

4. For post-menauposal women the main drug supplement that may prevent a
rapid fracture in osteoporotic patient is:
a. Calcium
b. Estrogen
c. Vitamin D
d. Calcitonin.

5. The main home-based education for this patient regarding safety measures
during activity for affected casted leg is:
a. Apply isometric exercise
b. Use assistive cane in walking
c. Wear an elastic bandage
d. Place balanced suspension traction.
Hip fracture

Mrs. Noha an 80 years old woman presented to Emergency Department after

slipping on the ground. She had reported right hip pain and an inability to move
the leg. Physical examination and hip x-ray showed that she had hip fracture.

1. The first line management in patient with hip fracture is:

a. Splinting the hip
b. Immobilization
c. Reduction of the dislocation
d. Proper hip manipulation.

2. The primary nursing role to ensure an adequate peripheral circulation for this
patient is assessment for:
a. Pain
b. Paresthesia
c. Rapid capillary refill
d. Peripheral pulse.

3. The drug of choice that should be administered for this patient to prevent
potential
embolism is:
a. Lavenox
b. Aspirin
c. Streptokinase
d. Sintrom.

4. The primary nursing intervention for this patient post-op to maintain proper
wound drainage is:
a. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
b. use aseptic technique of dressing
c. Assess wound characteristics and appearance
d. Monitor signs of infection.

5. The correct instruction that this patient should be educated about to prevent
hip dislocation at home is to keep:
a. Legs in desirable position
b. A pillow between legs
c. Hip precautions for about 4 months post surgery
d. An assistive device for mobilization.
Acute Myeloid Leukemia

Mr. Moufid, 47 years old, was hospitalized in the hematology department for AML
(Acute myeloid leukemia). A bone marrow biopsy was obtained by sternal
puncture to confirm the diagnosis.

1. Acute myeloid leukemia is defined as:

a. A cancer starting in the bone marrow and affects immature myeloid
cells.
b. A disease that affects mature myeloid cells
c. A cancer of lymph nodes
d. A cancer formed by malignant plasma cells.

2. The nurse is assessing Mr. Moufid, which assessment data support the
diagnosis
of AML:
a. Nausea and vomiting
b. Fever and infection
c. Excessive energy and high platelets counts
d. Cervical lymph nodes enlargement.

3. An induction chemotherapy started and Allopurinol is prescribed for Mr.

Moufid.
What is the purpose of this prescription?
a. To prevent allergic reaction of chemotherapy
b. To stimulate the immune system
c. To prevent anemia
d. To prevent tumor lyses syndrome and hyperuricemia.

4. The nurse is about to analyze laboratory result of Mr. Moufid. The results are
as Follows:
WBC 9.000, Neutrophils 70%, RBC 3 millions/mm 3, Hb 10.5 g/dl, Hct 35%
and platelets 50.000/mm3 . . Which of the following actions should the nurse
consider?
a. Teach the patient about iron rich diet and food high in iron
b. Isolate this patient and take precautions of Neutropenia
c. Teach the patient not to take suppositories or rectal temperature
d. Assess the patient’s allergic reaction.

5. Mr. MP is newly diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia. The most prominent
emotion the nurse would expect Mr. Moufid to experience at the time of her
diagnosis is:
a. Acceptance
b. Denial
c. Depression
d. Guilt.
Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

Case study 1

A recently hospitalized patient with multiple sclerosis ( MS) complaining of

generalized weakness and a fluctuating physical status.

1. The patient ask for information about his disease; you teach him that MS is
a/an:
a. Autoimmune disease
b. Communicable disease
c. Myelination disease
d. Acute and curable disease.

2. The patient undergoes lumbar puncture. Which of the following findings

increase in the cerebrospinal fluid of this patient?
a. RBC
b. WBC
c. Glucose concentration
d. Protein level.

3. Which clinical indicator should the nurse expect the patient with exacerbation
of “MS” to experience?
a. Double vision
b. Resting tremors
c. Flaccid paralysis
d. Mental retardation.

4. Which measure would be included in teaching this patient to avoid

exacerbation of the disease?
a. Patching the affected eye
b. Sleeping 8 hours each night
c. Taking hot baths for relaxation
d. Increasing fluid intake 3 liters/day.

5. The patient undergone plasmapheresis to diminish the symptoms by

removing:
a. Catecholamine
b. Antibodies
c. Erythrocytes
d. Lymphocytes.
Epilepsy

Case study 1

You are caring for a 35 year old patient who was admitted to the hospital for
evaluation of his seizure status. The patient has been diagnosed for seizure
since 5 years and he is on medical treatment.

1. What is the primary intervention of a nurse during a client’s generalized

motor seizure?
a. Inserting a plastic airway between the teeth.
b. Determining whether an aura was experienced
c. Administering the prescribed anticonvulsant drug
d. Clearing the surrounding environment for client safety.

2. The typical diagnostic tool to confirm epilepsy is:

a. EEG
b. CT scan
c. Cerebral angiography
d. MRI.

3. The patient recalls smelling an unpleasant odor before his seizure. Which term
describes this symptom?
a. Atonic seizure
b. Aura stage
c. Icterus stage
d. Tonic-clonic stage.

4. The nurse concludes that the patient’s health is improving when he can
perform which of the following activities:
a. Maintain a side-lying position in bed
b. Sit-up and drink water
c. Flex the chin to the chest
d. Dorsiflex both feet.

5. During a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, if the patient has an IV line, the first
medication should be given is:
a. Phenobarbital (Gardenal)
b. Phenytoin (Epanutin)
c. Valium (Diazepam)
d. Valproic acid (Depakine)
Pneumonia

Mr. Said 75 years old male patient, known as a heavy smoker, admitted to a
regular floor for pneumonia. While taking history, the patient noted that he has
osteoarthritis. He is very obsessed with cleanliness and follows a vegetarian diet.

1. Which of the following is the predisposing factor for pneumonia:

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Age
c. Vegetarian diet
d. Cleanliness

2. Knowing that the patient has bacterial pneumonia, the nurse recognizes the
characteristics of sputum as:
a. Rusty
b. Clear
c. Bloody
d. Purulent.

3. Upon auscultation, breath sounds that are heard at the level of the small
bronchi
are high-pitched and musical. These are called:
a. Wheezes
b. Rales
c. Rhonchi
d. Crackles.

4. An arterial blood gas (ABG’s) was done. Which of the following indicators
reflect the adequacy of alveolar ventilation:
a. SaO2
b. PaCO2
c. PH
d. SPO2

5. The patient reported fever at 39.2C, is diaphoretic and has productive cough.
The nurse should include which of the following measures in the plan of care:
a. Position changing
b. Nasotracheal suctioning
c. Ensuring adequate hydration
d. Frequent offering of the bed pan
Tuberculosis

You are a medical-surgical nurse working with Mr. Sami, a 40 years old male,
Mr. Sami shows a positive PPD (purified protein derivative) test after 2 days of
admission.

1. Which of the following symptoms is common in patients with active

Tuberculosis?
a. Increased appetite
b. Weight loss
c. Dyspnea on excursion
d. Mental state changes.

2. Mr. Sami was prescribed anti-tubercular drugs. The duration of medical

treatment of tuberculosis is:
a. 2 months
b. 4 months
c. 6 months
d. 8 months.

3. Mr. Sami was scheduled for bronchoscopy, the nurse is aware of the
complications of the procedure which is:
a. Gastric perforation
b. Fluid overload
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Pneumothorax.

4. Mr. Sami is put in an isolation room. Which isolation is recommended for

this case?
a. Contact
b. Air-borne
c. Geographic
d. Reverse.

5. The nurse is preparing a list of home instructions for the patient before
discharge. Select the instruction that the nurse should include:
a. Perform exercises as soon as possible
b. Avoid contact with this family before 2 weeks
c. Cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing
d. Perform a sputum culture every one week.
Heart Failure

Mr. X admitted to ER complaining of orthopnea and palpitation. He is a heavy

smoker and weighs 105 kgs. He is experiencing the above symptoms since one
month. After physical examination the patient is diagnosed with left CHF
(Congestive heart failure)

1. The main manifestation of left CHF is:

a. Lower limb edema
b. Hepatomegaly
c. Lung crackles
d. Neck vein distention

2. The main diagnostic study that confirms left CHF is:

a. Chest MRI
b. Echocardiography
c. Thoracocenthensis
d. Stress test.

3. The main nursing intervention to be implemented immediately for this patient

is:
a. Put patient on cardiac monitoring.
b. Observe skin color
c. Assess ambulatory status
d. Assess nutritional status.

4. What should be monitored if he is on dobutrex (Dobutamine):

a. Respiratory rate
b. SpO2
c. Temperature
d. Diuresis.

5. The main nursing education for this patient related to physical activity is:
a. Maintain a sendentary life
b. Walk 3 hours daily
c. Start activity progressively
d. Perform swimming daily.
High Blood Pressure

Mr. Boulos a 65 years old male patient who is known to have diabetes mellitus
was admitted to the hospital for management of uncontrolled blood pressure.
Physical examination showed essential high blood pressure as a complication of
cardiopathy without correlation to other organs.

1. The main cause of high blood pressure for this patient is an alteration in the
function in which of the following:
a. Renal
b. Vascular
c. Endocrine
d. Digestive.

2. The main complication of hypertension is:

a. Peripheral arteriopathy
b. Increased visual acuity
c. Cerebro vascular accident
d. Liver cirrhosis.

3. The patient was prescribed Furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should observe the
patient for which side effect?
a. Hypotension
b. Decreased thirst
c. Hypertension
d. Hyperthermia.

4. To assess blood pressure accurately, the best position of the patient should
be:
a. Lateral position after 5 minutes rest
b. Semi-sitting position after 5 minutes rest
c. Lateral position after 10 minutes rest
d. Semi-sitting position after 10 minutes rest

5. The main diet regimen the patient should follow is:

a. Regular salt
b. Low salt
c. High calorie
d. High lipids.

Acute Rheumatoid Arthritis

A 24 years old patient was admitted to the hospital. He was complaining of joint
pain at the level of the ankle and the knee with redness and swelling. A group of
diagnostic studies were done and showed Acute Rheumatoid Arthritis.

1. Rheumatoid Arthritis is mainly associated with:

a. Tonsillitis
b. Endocarditis
c. Arthritis
d. Pericarditis.

2. The main pathogen of Rheumatoid Arthritis is:

a. Streptococcus pneumonia
b. Hemophilus Influenza
c. Streptococcus B hemolytic
d. Maraxello – catarrhalis.

3. The main medical treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis is:

a. Immunosuppressant
b. Steroidal anti inflammatory
c. Non steroidal anti inflammatory
d. Analgesics.

4. The nurse knows that the main sign and symptom of rheumatoid arthritis
Is:
a. Morning stiffness
b. Generalized fatigue
c. Mood swings
d. Night sweat.

5. The essential diagnostic study that confirms Rheumatoid Cardiopathy is:

a. Echocardiography
b. electrocardiogram
c. Trans esophagography
d. Cardiac holter monitor.

Chronic Rheumatoid Arthritis

A 50 years old female patient admitted to the hospital for investigation and
management of Chronic Rheumatoid Arthritis.

1. The early symptom of Rheumatoid Arthritis that can be detected by physical

examination is:
a. Presence of rheumatoid nodules symptoms
b. Joint deformity
c. Morning stiffness
d. feeling of joint warmth.

2. The initial diagnostic test to confirm evaluation of Rheumatoid Arthritis is:

a. R. Factor
b. Anti – CCP
c. ESR
d. CRP.

3. The drug of choice that is recommended in Rheumatoid Arthritis treatment to

prevent joint damage is:
a. Steroidal anti inflammatory
b. Non-steroidal anti inflammatory
c. Disease modifying anti rheumatoid drugs
d. Tumor necrosis factor blocker.

4. The best choice in exercise therapy for patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis in
order to limit joint pain is:
a. Range of motion exercises
b. Warm water exercises
c. Walking
d. Rest.

5. Joint replacement is recommended for this patient and physical therapy post-
op, is very important to enhance:
a. Joint strength
b. Functional mobility
c. Prothesis stability
d. Gait and balance.
Pulmonary Edema

Mr. Ziad was admitted to Emergency Department for left congestive Heart Failure
(CHF) was complaining of dyspnea and hemoptysis. ABG’s was showed hypoxia
and hypercapnia

1. Left congestive heart failure is characterized as:

a. Lower limb edema
b. Upper limb edema
c. Lung crackles
d. Neck vein distended.

2. Before starting diuretic treatment, the main serum electrolytes that should be
Assessed:
a. Magnesium
b. Bicarbonate
c. Potassium
d. Chloride.

3. The main diagnostic study that confirms pulmonary edema is:

a. Chest X-ray
b. Echocardiography
c. EKG
d. Chest CT scan.

4. The best position for placing is:

a. Semi sitting
b. Dorsal sitting
c. Lateral
d. Trendelenburg

5. Mr. Ziad refused the consent form of diagnostic studies. The best nursing role
should be done is:
a. Inform his doctor
b. Cancel the studies
c. Inform the family
d. Convince the patient.
Chronic Obstruction Pulmonary disease

Mr. Nabil a 70 years old male has COPD and presents to your medical floor for
(shortness of breath) dyspnea and fever.

1. Which of the following chest form will be revealed upon physical assessment
for this COPD patient?
a. Barrel
b. Pigeon
c. Funnel
d. Scoliosis.

2. An oxygen delivery is prescribed for Mr. Nabil. Which of the following types of
oxygen delivery system will be anticipated?
a. Venturi mask
b. Aerosol mask
c. Face mask
d. Tracheostomy collar.

3. The priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with COPD is:

a. Pain
b. Impaired gas exchange
c. Fluid volume excess
d. Anxiety.

4. While administering Atrovent via Nebulizer, the nurse should observe the
patient for which of the following side effect?
a. Tachycardia
b. Bradycardia
c. Dyspnea
d. Hyperthermia.

5. Upon discharge of Mr. Nabil, the nurse should emphasize which of the
following instructions?
a. Participate regularly in aerobic exercises
b. Maintain a high fat diet
c. Avoid contact with immuno compromised patient
d. Stop cigarette smoking.

Hepatic Cirrhosis
Mr. M. with liver cirrhosis was complaining of epigastric pain accompanied with
dark black stool and hematemesis diaphoresis, dyspnea, paleness and anxiety.

1. The suspected complication for this patient is:

a. Hepatic encephalopathy
b. Rupture of the esophageal varices
c. Abdominal ascitis
d. Portal hypertension.

2. Hepatic cirrhosis is an irreversible disease mainly caused by:

a. Obesity
b. Smoking
c. Alcoholism
d. Immobility

3. To fight hepatic cirrhosis, a life style change includes:

a. Rich –fiber diet
b. Decrease fluid intake
c. Law salt diet
d. Stop alcohol intake.

4. To confirm diagnosis of hepatic cirrhosis the following should be done:

a. Abdominal ultrasound
b. Abdominal CT
c. Hepatic biopsy
d. Gastro duodenal endoscopy.

5. The main complication of liver transplantation is:

a. Infertility
b. Rejection
c. Hypertension
d. Anaphylactic shock.
Angina

Mr. Imad admitted to hospital complaining of chest pain with dyspnea. He is

known as hypertensive and heavy smoker. The medical diagnosis for this patient
was stable angina

1. The location of pain in stable angina starts in:

a. Abdomen region
b. Substernal region
c. Peripheral region
d. Dorsal region

2. The drug of choice for stable angina is a:

a. Nitrates
b. Digitalis
c. Diuretics
d. Analgesics.

3. The primary nursing intervention for this patient upon admission is:
a. Assess Vital Signs
b. Provide him a light meal
c. Educate him about his case
d. Insert a Foley catheter.

4. Cardiac catheterization is ordered for this patient. The essential laboratory

studies before catheterization are:
a. Liver enzymes
b. Lipid panel
c. BUN and Creatinine
d. Electrolytes

5. The first life style modification for this patient should be:
a. Avoid stress
b. Stop smoking
c. Avoid exercise
d. Decrease body weight.
Diabetes Type 1

Mrs. Sara, a 77 years old female patient, known as diabetic type 1, admitted for
polyuria and polyphagia.

1. In general the function of Insulin is:

a. Source of energy
b. Transfer glucose into the cells
c. Transfer fat into the cells
d. Anabolic agents.

2. Which blood test should be performed to monitor diabetes of Sara?

a. Iron stores
b. Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C)
c. Red blood cells (RBCs)
d. Calcium

3. Mrs. Sara presented with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which of the following

methods of insulin administration would be used in the initial treatment of
hyperglycemia in a patient with ketoacidosis?
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intramuscular
c. IV Bolus only
d. IV Bolus followed by continuous infusion.

4. Insulin forces which of the following electrolyte out of the plasma and into the
cells?
a. Calcium
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorous
d. Potassium.

5. Before discharge, which instruction should the nurse provide Sara to prevent
diabetic foot?
a. Use an alcohol rub
b. Cut the toenails at the lateral corners
c. Dry feet thoroughly especially between the toes
d. Keep the feet moist throughout the day.
Diabetes Type 2

Mr. Helou, known to be diabetic with type 2, admitted to the hospital for
hyperglycemia.

1. The nurse is asked to do fasting blood sugar (FBS) test for Mr. Helou. The
normal range of FBS is:
a. 50-65 mg/dl
b. 70-110 mg/dl
c. 90-130 mg/dl
d. 100-140 mg/dl

2. Due to hyperglycemia, the patient might complain of:

a. Excessive thirst
b. Insomnia
c. Loss of appetite
d. Urinary retention.

3. The rotating injection sites while administering insulin subcutaneously prevents

which of the following complications?
a. Insulin allergy
b. Insulin sensitivity
c. Insulin resistance
d. Insulin lipodystrophy.

4. NPH insulin was prescribed twice per day. The nurse instructs the patient that
the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:
a. 2-4 hours after administration
b. 6-10 hours after administration
c. 12-16 hours after administration
d. 18-24 hours after administration.

5. Which complication should the nurse caring for this diabetic patient expect to
exhibit?
a. Cholecystitis
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Retinopathy
d. Gastro esophageal reflux.
Diabetes

Ms. Julia, 18 years old diagnosed with diabetes type 1 (DM type I). She was
admitted to hospital due to FBS result that is equal to 40 mg/dl.

1. From your knowledge as a nurse about diabetes, you know that polyuria is due
to:
a. Hyperglycemia making kidneys unable to reabsorb glucose while
causing osmotic diureses
b. The increase insulin secretion that has an effect on the osmotic diureses
c. Electrolyte changes resulting in retention of Sodium and Potassium
d. Microvascular changes that affect kidney function.

2. What are the probable symptoms that Ms. Julia has?

a. Sweating and tachycardia
b. Hypertension and bradycardia
c. Hematuria and constipation
d. Anuria and diarrhea.

3. What is the nursing intervention for Julia having hypoglycemia?

a. Administer insulin as prescribed in IV
b. Administer Glucagon IM
c. Insert a Foley catheter
d. Administer an antidiarrheic.

4. Julia is treated by Insulin NPH every morning at 8 am If she is going to

experience a hypoglycemic episode, it will probably be around:
a. 10:00 am
b. 2:00 pm
c. 8.30 pm
d. 11:00 pm

5. Julia is at risk of nephropathy. In the plan of teaching, the nurse explains to

Julia that the early sign of Nephropathy is:
a. Hematuria
b. Exercise intolerance
c. Anuria
d. Microalbuminuria.
Deep Venous Thrombosis

Mrs. Layla 28 years old admitted to Emergency Department with pain, warmth
and edema in right lower limb not relieved by analgesics since 48 hours. The
patient was diagnosed as having right lower limb phlebitis.

1. The pathological mechanism of phlebitis is:

a. Arterial thrombosis
b. Venous thrombosis
c. Venous stenosis
d. Arterial stenosis.

2. The major complication of phlebitis is:

a. Pulmonary embolism
b. Myocardial infarction
c. Unstable angina
d. Atelectasis.

3. The main diagnostic study that confirms phlebitis:

a. Arterial Echo Doppler
b. Peripheral angiography
c. Venous Echo Doppler
d. Thoraco-abdominal pelvis scan.

4. The main prescribed treatment for this case is:

a. Anticoagulant
b. Antibiotic
c. Analgesic
d. Vasodilator.

5. In case of phlebitis, the main nursing intervention is:

a. Keep patient CBR
b. Wear elastic stocking
c. Mobilize legs
d. Ambulate regularly.
Glomerulonephtitis

Mr. Robert, a 56 years old male patient admitted to the hospital, presenting with
flank pain and hematuria. He was diagnosed with glomerulonephritis.

1. Which statement regarding acute glomerulonephritis indicates that the patient

understands the teaching provided by the nurse?
a. This disease occurs after a Urinary tract infection
b. This disease is associated with renal vascular disorders
c. This disease occurs after a streptococcal infection
d. This disease is associated with structural anomalies of the genitourinary
tract.

2. When evaluating the urine analysis report of Mr. Robert, the nurse should
expect which result:
a. Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity
b. Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity
c. Hematuria and proteinuria
d. Bacteriuria and hematuria.

3. The nurse should make which dietary recommendation to a client who has
been newly diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis?
a. Decreased calories
b. Increased potassium
c. Increased protein
d. Moderate restricted sodium.

4. When teaching a client how to prevent recurrence of acute glomerulonephritis.

Which instruction should the nurse include?
a. Avoid physical activity
b. Collect all urine
c. Seek early antibiotics treatment
d. Monitor urine specific gravity

5. Acute glomerulonephritis may lead to:

a. Anemia
b. Sterility
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Prostatitis.
Radiotherapy/Lung Cancer

Mr. Farid, 70 years old, is diagnosed with lung cancer. He is receiving a radiation
for treatment.

1. The nurse is taking the social history from Mr. Farid. Which information is
significant for this disease?
a. The patient worked with asbestos for a short time many years ago
b. The patient has no family history for lung cancer
c. The patient has numerous tattoos covering both upper and lower arms
d. The patient smoked two packs of cigarette a day for 20 years.

2. The delivery of high-energy radiation (election s, x rays, protons) to kill cancer

cells by using a machine to focus a beam of radiation therapy
a. External radiation therapy
b. Internal-beam radiation therapy
c. Brachy therapy
d. Biochemotherapy.

3. Patient education for skin care in the marked area of radiation includes:
a. Apply antibacterial ointment daily
b. Avoid contact with other one
c. Avoid rubbing or scratching treated skin area
d. Cleanse the skin with plain water.

4. Patient is having stomatitis, the nurse advises the client to use which of the
following as mouth wash?
a. Hydrogen peroxide mixture
b. Normal saline with bicarbonate
c. Lemon flavored solution
d. Alcohol- based solution.

5. Mr. Farid will be treated also by antineoplastic medication. The clinic nurse
prepares a teaching plan. When implementing this plan, the nurse teach the
patient to:
a. Take aspirin as needed for headache
b. Drink beverages containing moderate amount of alcohol
c. Consulting physician before receiving any immunizations
d. Be sure to receive the flu and pneumonia vaccine.
Lymphoma

Mr. Sami is admitted to the medial-surgical floor with Hodgkin’s B symptoms

disease. The doctor orders a lymph node biopsy as a diagnostic test.

1. Which of the following manifestations indicate Hodgkin’s B symptoms?

a. Back pain
b. Weight gain of 5 %
c. Night sweats
d. Constipation.

2. When assessing the patient, the nurse should observe which of the following
findings that indicate Hodgkin’s’ B disease?
a. Enlargement of cervical lymph nodes
b. Discolored teeth
c. Hemorrhage
d. Diarrhea.

3. Which of the following actions is correct in handling the lymph node biopsy
specimen for histological examination:
a. Use a mask and a gown
b. Maintain a sterile technique
c. Add heparin to the specimen
d. Place the specimen in a clean container.

4. After the biopsy procedure, what does the nurse assess?

a. The incision site for bleeding
b. The airway patency for tachypnea
c. The patient’s color of lips
d. The neurologic sign for irritability.

5. The patient developed hyperthermia at 40C. Which of the following

interventions should be done?
a. Give antiemetic medication
b. Ask the patient to ambulate
c. Ask the patient to take a warm shower
d. Apply cold sponges.
Iron Deficiency Anemia

Mrs. Reena, a 30 year old female patient, known to have iron deficiency anemia.
Oral iron supplements are prescribed for Mrs. Reena

1. Which of the following describes one of the signs and symptoms of Mrs.
Reena?
a. Pain in the extremities
b. Pyrosis
c. Dyspnea upon effort
d. Hypertension.

2. The common cause of iron deficiency anemia of Mrs. Reena is:

a. Abundant menstruation
b. Cirrhosis
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Diabetes

3. The nurse instructs the patient to take iron with which of the following food?
a. Water
b. Orange Juice
c. Milk
d. Soft drinks.

4. The nurse reviews the laboratory tests results. Which laboratory result
indicates this type of anemia?
a. Elevated hemoglobin level
b. Elevated red blood cells count
c. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic
d. Elevated white blood cell count.

5. The normal range of hemoglobin for a healthy 30 year old female should be:
a. 6-10 mg/dl
b. 12-16 mg/dl
c. 18-22 mg/dl
d. 24-26 mg/dl.
Renal Stone

Mr. Robert a 56 year old male patient admitted to the Emergency Department
presenting with flank pain, hematuria and dysuria. The patient is diagnosed with
urolithiasis. The patient passes a urinary stone, and laboratory analysis of the
stone indicates that it is composed of calcium oxalate

1. Based on the presented signs and symptoms of Mr. Robert, the priority
nursing intervention should be?
a. Immobilize patient
b. Administer antibiotics
c. Insert foley catheter
d. Relieve pain.

2. Which of the following would the nurse specifically include in the dietary
instructions?
a. Increase intake of meat, fish and cranberries
b. Avoid citrus fruits and citrus juices
c. Avoid green leafy vegetables such as spinach
d. Increase intake of dairy products.

3. The nurse knows that a factor contributing to the development of calculi is:
a. Increased calcium loss from the bone
b. Increased kidney function
c. Decreased calcium intake
d. High fluid intake.

4. Which intervention does the nurse plan to include with this patient?
a. Maintain bed rest
b. Increase protein diet
c. Restrict fluid intake
d. Collect and filter the urine.

5. Based on your knowledge, what does renal colic mean?

a. Lumbar pain begins in the flank and radiates to the hypochondrium
b. Abdominal Pain radiating down
c. Back Pain radiating up
d. Chest pain radiating down
Dementia

Mr. Sami, a 90 years old male patient comes to the clinic for consultation with his
son. During the heath history, the nurse identifies that the patient has dementia.

1. The nurse knows that the common cause of dementia is:

a. Lumbar injury
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Hepatitis
d. Thrombocytopenia.

2. The nurse asks the patient what day of the week it is; what is the date, month,
and year and where the patient is: the nurse is assessing?
a. Delirium
b. Orientation
c. Preservation
d. Confabulation.

3. The nurse should know that the description of dementia is:

a. Loss of cognitive abilities, and impaired ability to perform activities of
daily living
b. Loss of memory and attempt of committing suicide
c. Loss of consciousness, decreased activity and vision
d. Loss of memory as part of natural consequence of aging.

4. Which of the following will the nurse use when communicating with Mr. Sami?
a. Use pictures and gestures instead of words
b. Talk loudly and repetitively
c. Use short words and simple sentences
d. Remain calm ad don’t talk.

5. Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for Mr. Sami who has
dementia?
a. The patient will return to his level of self-functioning
b. The patient will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety
c. The patient wool seek new resources in the community for support
d. The patient will follow an established schedule for activities of daily
living.
Myocardial Infarction

Mr. H. admitted to the hospital for chest pain radiating to the left shoulder, jaw
and upper arm. This pain is not relieved by nitroglycerine. Femoral cardiac
catheterization was done emergently.

1. What is the medical diagnosis of this case?

a. Stable angina
b. Nervousness
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Gastric ulcer.

2. What is the quick laboratory finding that will detect the diagnosis?
a. Troponine
b. Gamma GT
c. Alkaline Phosphatase
d. SGPT.

3. What is the peripheral pulse that may be absent as a post catheterization

complication?
a. Radial
b. Brachial
c. Popliteal
d. Humeral.

4. What is the predisposing factor of coronary athloscrelosis?

a. Myopathy
b. Dyslipidemia
c. Polyneuritis
d. Gastritis.

5. Nitroglycerine is classified as:

a. Beta Blocker
b. Diuretics
c. Vasodilator
d. Digitalis.
Gerontology

Mrs. Mhanna, an 82 years old lady admitted to medical surgical unit with a
suspected urinary tract infection, she begun to exhibit signs of dementia.

1. When interviewing older adults during history taking, which communication

strategy is recommended to establish rapport?
a. Addressing the patient by the first name
b. Asking open-ended questions
c. Taking the history from the family caregiver
d. Raising one’s voice to make sure the patient can hear.

2. In assessing the cognitive ability of Mrs. Mhanna, the nurse should be aware
that:
a. Cognitive impairment is considered a normal change of aging
b. The mini cognitive test is the cornerstone in diagnosing dementia
c. Cognitive functioning decline is likely to occur in acute illnesses
d. The mini cognitive test is a sensitive and specific tool to test mood
disorders.

3. Which of the following dimension of the assessment is most relevant to the

evaluation of an older adult?
a. Functional assessment
b. Specific symptoms
c. Developmental scoring
d. Vital Signs

4. A sign of infection in Mrs. Mhanna that could be more common than fever is:
a. Pain
b. Diarrhea
c. Cough
d. Confusion.

5. Mrs. Mhanna scores 12 on the geriatric depression scale. We can conclude

from this observation that she is:
a. Depressed
b. not depressed
c. Mildly depressed
d. Highly depressed
Gerontology

Mr. Bassem 85 years old had been planning for many years to retire from his
position as an accountant at a software company. He now finds that he only gets
out of his house to work.

1. One of the misconceptions regarding Mr. Bassem is that he:

a. Is cognitively impaired
b. Will have multiple medical problems
c. Want to enjoy life just like younger adults
d. Might develop depression.

2. Availability of a personal support system and economic well-being are part of

what type of assessment of Bassem?
a. Cognitive assessment
b. Social assessment
c. Functional assessment
d. Psychosocial assessment.

3. The study of the aging process is referred to as:

a. Ageism
b. Geriatrics
c. Gerontology
d. Gerontics.

4. The term “frail older people” describes:

a. Older people at greater risk for chronic illness
b. Older people who function independently
c. Older adults within 65-74 years age group
d. Older adults with age less than 60 years old

5. Which of the following interventions is to prevent risk of fall?

a. Take his antidiuretic treatment at 11 pm
b. Take sedative
c. Wear non-slippery shoes
d. Sleep in dim room.
Asthma

1. Mr. Mounir with asthma presents to the Emergency Department with

respiratory distress and the following arterial blood gases are reported: (PH=
7.35, PCO2 = 40 mmHg, PO2 = 63 mmHg, HCO2 = 23). Which of the following
represents analysis of the etiology of those ABGs:

a. Hypercapnia
b. Hypoxia
c. Acidosis
d. Alkalosis.

2. The wife of the client wants to know how she can recognize if her husband is
having an asthmatic attack. You tell her that the classic manifestations would
be:
a. Rapid shallow breathing
b. Cough and rhinorrhea
c. Generalized malaise
d. Shortness of breath and wheezing on expiration

3. Asthma is caused by: `

a. Decreased mucus production
b. Dilation of the airways
c. Cold air, irritants or allergens
d. Constriction of the large airways.

4. Clinical manifestations that characterizes asthma include both:

a. Expiratory wheezing and dyspnea
b. Inspiratory wheezing and anemia
c. Shortness of breath and laryngeal spasm
d. Barrel chest and bronchodilation.

5. Obstruction of the airway in the client with asthma is caused by:

a. Destruction of the alveolar wall
b. Contraction of muscles surrounding the bronchi
c. Plaques obstructing the airways
d. Presence of bronchial fibrosis
Hepatitis

Mr. X was admitted to the hospital presenting with jaundice, anorexia and
malaise. The doctor suggested doing laboratory studies and liver biopsy to
confirm hepatitis.

1. After contaminated needle stick injury the immediate nursing action that should
be taken is:
a. Make blood tests
b. Continue regular work
c. Wash hands
d. Take a sick report.

2. Which type of Hepatitis needs an oral-fecal precaution?

a. Hepatitis D
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis A
d. Hepatitis B.

3. Which is an elevated blood test that confirms hepatitis?

a. WBC’s
b. Bilirubin
c. Interferon
d. Liver enzymes.

4. What is the recommendation the nurse should instruct the client with hepatitis
B concerning activity?
a. Limit daily activities
b. Encourage ambulation
c. Keep sleep most of the time
d. Keep on regular activities.

5. After liver biopsy the patient developed peritonitis. The nurse’s role is to
assess for:
a. Bloody diarrhea
b. Abdominal distention
c. Abdominal flatulence
d. Abdominal pain.
Hepatitis

The client is admitted to the hospital with viral hepatitis, complaining of

“No appetite” and “losing taste for food”

1. Which type of hepatitis is transmitted by oral fecal route?

a. Hepatitis B
b. Hepatitis A
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

2. Vaccinations are available for which type of hepatitis?

a. Hepatitis A and B
b. Hepatitis A and C
c. Hepatitis C and D
d. Hepatitis B and C.

3. The nurse would instruct the client to which diet to provide adequate nutrition :
a. Eat frequent large meal
b. Eat less often meal
c. Increase fluid intake
d. Select food high in fat.

4. The nurse is caring for a black client who has a diagnosis of acute viral
hepatitis. The nurse assesses for jaundice by checking which specific area?
a. Flexor surfaces of extremities
b. Hard palate of mouth
c. Nail beds
d. Skin.

5. A client is suspected of having hepatitis which of the following test results will
assist in conforming this diagnosis?
a. Decreased ESR
b. Increased serum bilirubin
c. Increased hemoglobin
d. Increased BUN
Bleeding Disorder

A patient with hemophilia A is experiencing hemarthrosis.

1. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to the patient?

a. Alternate aspirin and acetaminophen to relieve pain
b. Apply cold packs several times a day on the affected area
c. Perform active range of motion exercises on the extremity
d. Put the affected extremity in a lateral position.

2. The first year student nurse, asks the nurse in charge of this patient “How
does someone get hemophilia A. The nurse should answer?
a. “There is a deficiency of the clotting factor VIII
b. “It is an inherited Y-linked recessive disorder”
c. ’”Hemophilia A is exactly a transmitted disease”
d. “The person acquires Hemophilia A at age of 70”

3. Which sign should the nurse expect the patient to develop?

a. Nasal congestion
b. Petechiae
c. Subcutaneous emphysema
d. Intermittent claudication.

4. Which of the following doctor’s orders should the nurse hesitate about and
question?
a. CBC test to check for the platelets
b. Take the vital signs every 4 hours
c. Give Vitamin B12 intramuscularly
d. Prepare 2 units of blood.

5. Blood transfusion is recommended for this patient. If a transfusion reaction

occurs, what should the nurse do as a primary intervention?
a. Call the doctor and wait for the prescription with detection of causes
b. Reduce the rate of transfusion and observe if worsening of patient’s
condition occurs
c. Reduce the rate of transfusion and add in the same line 1 liter of
5%dextrose water
d. Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the vein open with
physiologic saline or normal saline 0.9%.
Appendectomy/Appendicectomy

A 15 years old female patien admitted to Emergency Department complaining of

acute abdominal pain, fever with sweating and severe vomiting. Diagnostic
evaluation showed that she has appendicitis and needs urgent appendectomy.

1. The client had a positive Mcburney sign. This sign is performed in:
a. Right upper abdomen
b. Right lower abdomen
c. Left upper abdomen
d. Left lower abdomen.

2. The major early complication for acute appendicitis is:

a. Peritonitis
b. Intestinal obstruction
c. Aspiration pneumonia
d. Diverticulitis.

3. The client develops a fever after appendectomy. The nursing role in

investigating the cause of fever is to observe:
a. Pus in urine
b. Characteristics of vomiting
c. Wound drainage
d. Oral secretion.

4. The laboratory studies that the nurse should check before patient discharge is:
a. Electrolytes
b. Complete Blood Count and Differential
c. Liver function tests
d. Kidney function tests

5. Upon discharge of the patient, the nurse instructs her patient and her parents
to:
a. Avoid eating fast food
b. Avoid taking medications routinely
c. Avoid lifting heavy objects
d. Avoid drinking orange juice.
Thyroidectomy (Hyperthyroidism)

A 50 year old patient was admitted to the surgical floor for total thyroidectomy
due to complicated hyperthyroidism.

1 During physical examination the main clinical sign that confirms the diagnosis
of hyperthyroidism is:
a. Palpitation
b. Bradycardia
c. Constipation
d. Fatigue.

2. Immediate post op intervention should focus on:

a. Place patient in dorsal position
b. Monitor signs of respiratory distress
c. Keep defibrillator at bedside
d. Apply oral suction.

3. The client developed dysphonia after surgery. The appropriate nursing action
regarding this complication is:
a. Keep patient NPO
b. Give patient warm liquid
c. Inform the surgeon quickly
d. Inform the patient that it is a normal condition.

4. The post op clinical sign that leads to urgent investigation and can be a major
complication is:
a. Acute headache
b. Laryngeal stridor
c. Abdominal cramps
d. Surgical site pain.

5. The patient education related to thyroid supplement treatment (Levothyroxine)

will be:
a. Avoid narcotics
b. Restrict fluid intake
c. Take drug at bedtime
d. Monitor sign of diarrhea.
Thyroidectomy

Mrs. Samia a 40 years old female patient is scheduled for thyroidectomy.

The nurse caring for Mrs. Samia will be monitoring her for signs of damage to the
parathyroid gland post-operation.

1. The nurse is preparing the patient for operation when the patient states
“I guess I will have to wear a scarf after surgery” Which nursing diagnosis
should the nurse use to address this patient’s need?
a. Disturbed Body Image
b. Ineffective denial
c. Ineffective coping
d. Risk of anxiety.

2. The nurse who is caring for this patient provides instructions about the surgical
procedure which statement would indicate that the patient understand the
nurse’s instruction?
a.”I expect to experience some tingling of my toes and fingers after surgery”
b. “I will definitely have to continue taking anti-thyroid medication after
surgery”
c. “I need to place my hands behind my neck when I have to cough or
change position”
d. “I need to turn my head and neck front, back, and side to side every hour for
the first 72 hours.

3. The nurse should be sure of the presence of which equipment as a priority by

the patient’s bed side upon arrival from OR?
a. An apnea monitor
b. Oxygen bottle
c. A blood transfusion warmer
d. An ampoule of vitamin K.

4. Which of the following findings would indicate damage to the parathyroid

gland?
a. Neck pain
b. Hoarseness
c. Respiratory distress
d. Tingling around the mouth.

5. The physician visiting this patient got a call. So, he stated to the nurse “I am in
a hurry. Can you write an order to decrease Paracetamol to 2 grams daily?”
Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
a. Write the order on the kardex
b. Call the nursing supervisor to write the order
c. Inform the patient of the change in medication
d. Ask the doctor to return to the nursing unit to write the order.
Cushing Syndrome

A 54 years old patient admitted to the hospital for unstable condition of Cushing
Syndrome related to pituitary tumor.

1. The main cause of Cushing Syndrome is:

a. Hyper secretion of gluco corticoid
b. Hypo secretion of gluco corticoid
c. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone
d. Hypo secretion of thyroid hormone.

2. During physical examination, the main clinical sign that confirms Cushing
Syndrome is:
a. General weakness
b. Skin pigmentation
c. Moon face
d. Lower limb edema.

3. During nursing assessment, the nurse should closely monitors:

a. Level of consciousness
b. Arterial blood pressure
c. Skin cyanosis
d. Arterial blood gases.

4. The medical management for this case is based on:

a. Chemotherapy
b. Adrenalectomy
c. Nephrectomy
d. Hypophysectomy.

5. Upon discharge of the patient, which of the following dietary instructions

should the nurse provide him?
a. Regular diet
b. Low fat diet
c. Diet rich in Potassium
d. Diet rich in Sodium.
Pancreatitis

A 72 year old male patient admitted to the hospital complaining of jaundice and
pruritis. He had epigastric pain radiating posteriorly, prominent and worsen with
feeding.
- Medical history: non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus. With loss of 10 kg
weight.
- Lab studies, elevated liver enzymes and PT 47 %

1. Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis:

a. Pancreatitis
b. Cholecystitis
c. Appendicitis
d. Intestinal obstruction.

2. The first diagnostic study that should be done from the following list is:
a. Thoracic X-Ray
b. Fibroscopy gastroscopy
c. M R I
d. Abdominal Echography.

3. The patient has abnormal PT level. Which vitamin deficiency may be the
causative
factor:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K.

4. From data of the patient’s history, which indicates the worsening of the
disease:
a. Epigastric pain
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Losing 10 kg weight
d. Elevated liver enzymes.

5. Mr. X.is taking morphine sulphate S/C. The nurse will assess which of the
Following criteria in relation to morphine sulfate?
a. Respiratory problem
b. Epigastric pain
c. Gastric reflux
d. Hypoglycemia.
Arterial Hypertension

Madame Linda is a 50 year old patient complaining from intense headache and
tinnitus, since few days she was admitted to the hospital for investigation. The
doctor diagnosed the case as arterial hypertension.

1. Arterial hypertension is defined as:

a. Systolic arterial pressure equal or above 120mmHg
b. Systolic arterial pressure equal or above 180 mmHg
c. Systolic arterial pressure equal or above 140 mmHg
d. Diastolic arterial pressure equal or above 140 mmHg.

2. Orthostatic hypotension is defined as an alteration of mechanism in which

system?
a. Neurovascular
b. Immunological
c. Gastrointestinal
d, Respiratory.

3. The criteria that should be respected during measuring arterial blood pressure
is to place patient in which position?
a. Sitting
b. Left lateral
c. Prone
d. Standing.

4. In the early diagnosed of hypertension, the initial medical treatment should

be:
a. Analgesic
b. Vasodilator
c. Anxiolotic
d. Anti inflammatory.

5. The patient education regarding dietary regimen should be:

a. Low caloric
b. High protein
c. High lipid
d. Low salt.
Nosocomial Infection

Mr. Mazen admitted to the hospital complaining from leg ulcer. He has medical
history of diabetes mellitus since five years. He started to experience fever during
his presence in the hospital, due to nosocomial infection.

1. Which of the following doesn’t affect the immunity of the patient?

a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Coronary Artery Disease
c. Old Age
d. Insertion of a urinary catheter.

2. the most common system that iattains nosocomial infection is:

a. Vascular system
b. Respiratory tract
c. Urinary tract
d. Gastro-intestinal tract.

3. The most effective way to break the chain of infection is by:

a. Performing hand hygiene
b. Wearing gloves
c. Placing patient in isolation
d. Providing private rooms for all patients.

4. What patient characteristic increases the rate for nosocomial infection ?

a. Age > 70 years
b. Female gender
c. Age > 40 years
d. Law socioeconomic status.

5. The nurse would ensure airborne precautions for a client with which of the
following medical conditions:
a. AIDs
b. Tuberculosis
c. Viral pneumonia
d. Lung carcinoma.
Parkinson

Mrs. Samia is 68 years old admitted to geriatric floor since 3 months. Knowing
that she has Parkinson disease since 9 years, she has dependent physical
activities and movements. Mrs.Samia was complaining of insomnia related to
nocturia 4 times per night presented with dystonia.

1. What is the primary sign of Parkinson disease?

a. Tremor at rest
b. Trouble in gait
c. Fall down
d. Dysphagic.

2. Definition of dystonia is:

a. Muscle pain
b. Bone pain
c. Muscle contraction
d. Abdominal contraction.

3. Name the type of complication that Mrs. Samia suffers from in her motion:
a. Dysphasia
b. Dyskinesia
c. Akinesia
d. Aphasia.

4. Before developing a care plan, the nurse will apply a regular evaluation for:
a. Digestive function
b. Cognitive function
c. Cardiovascular status
d. Integumentry status

5. At the initial period of Parkinson disease, the symptoms are treated by:
a. Donopezil
b. Rivastigmine
c. Levodopa
d. Memantine.
Pneumonia/Bronchoscopy

Mr. Sami a 68 year old male who was admitted to the hospital after one week of
dyspnea and cough. Bronchoscopy and chest X-ray were performed and he was
diagnosed as having pneumonia of the right lower lobe.

1. During the insertion of the bronchoscopy tube, the patient experiences

a vasovagal response. The nurse should expect:
a. Dilated pupils
b. Bronchodilatation
c. Decreased gastric secretions
d. Bradycardia.

2. Which of the following measures would help reduce the thickness of the
secretions?
a. Ensuring that Mr. Sami’s diet is low in salt
b. Ensuring that Mr. Sami’s oxygen therapy is continuous
c. Helping Mr. Sami maintain a high fluid intake
d. Keeping Mr. Sami in a semi-sitting position as much as possible.

3. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a need to remind the

patient to cough and deep breathe?
a. Coarse wheezes and crackles
b. Chest pain
c. Capillary refill < 3 seconds
d. Low grade fever.

4. A pulse oximetry gives which information about the patient?

a. Amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
b. Saturation of oxygen in the blood
c. Percentage of hemoglobin in the blood
d. Respiratory rate and depth.

5. Which nursing diagnosis should take priority for Mr. Sami?

a. Acute pain related to lung expansion
b. Risk for imbalanced fluid volume
c. Anxiety related to dyspnea
d. Ineffective airway clearance.
Prostatectomy

Mr. Amir, 72 years old, admitted to Emergency Department for urinary retention.

1. The specific physical exam that confirms urinary retention is:

a. Blunt (direct) percussion
b. Abdominal auscultation
c. Sub-pubic palpation
d. Rectal examination.

2. A prostatic hypertrophy is detected after a rectal examination. Which

diagnostic test reveals an early detection of prostate cancer?
a. PSA (Prostatic Specific Antigen) in the blood
b. PSA (Prostatic Specific Antigen) in the urine
c. Cystoscopy
d. IVP (Intravenous Pyelography)

3. In Emergency Department, Mr. Amir complained of dysuria. Which statement

does the patient says and means the term of dysuria?
a. “I urinate frequently”
b. “I feel a burning sensation”
C. “I cannot hold myself from urinating”
d. “I have a difficulty in urinating”

4. Mr. Amir was operated and subjected to radical prostectomy through

endoscopy. He returns from the operating room having a Foley catheter of
three ways with irrigation. After his discharge with the urinary catheter within 2
hours, Mr. Amir complains of suprapubic pain. Which of the following is the
adequate nursing action.
a. Call the treating physician
b. Administer analgesics as prescribed
c. Verify the patency of the urinary catheter
d. Tell the patient that it is normal and he has to wait.

5. The nurse in charge of Mr. Amir should include within his patient education,
information regarding
a. Constipation
b. Urinary incontinence
c. Follow up for CBC (Complete Blood Count)
d. IVP (Intravenous Pyelography) every 2 months.
HIV

Rami, a 30 years old male patient hospitalized for pneumonia due to

pneumocystis carini. Before several months, he was diagnosed as a carrier of
human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

1. Which of the following tests confirms the disease?

a. CMV serology (cytomegalovirus)
b. Syphilis Test
c. Elisa test (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
d. CBC (complete blood count)

2. This patient is high risk for:

a. Risk of supra-infection related to his immunodepression
b. Risk of diarrhea related to intestinal germs
c. Altered nutrition: less that body requirements related to diminished oral
intake
d. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to infection process

3. The transmission of HIV is through:

a. Ingestion of contaminated food
b. Swimming in the same pool with a person having HIV
c. Sexual intercourse
d. Direct contact, while shaking hands.

4. Nadim, the nurse caring for Rami, wants to explain the purpose of the
therapy. From the following explanations, which statement explains the aim
(purpose) of combination of antiretroviral therapy (ART):
a. “This will eliminate the HIV virus from your body”
b. “You will be unable to transmit the disease when you take these
medications together”
c. “You will have less side effects when you take these medications
together”
d. “This prevents the virus from developing resistance to treatment”.

5. The healthcare workers have a risk of HIV contamination through:

a. Wearing gloves
b. Recapping of needles
c. Wearing eye glasses
d. Performing hand hygiene.
HIV

Mr. Khaled, a 35 years old male patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic
diarrhea and loss of 5 kg. Additional findings included dry mucus membrane and
diminished , skin turgor. He was known to have AIDS (Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome).

1. Which nursing diagnosis focuses attention on the client’s initial problem?

a. Fluid volume deficit
b. Imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirement
c. Disturbed thought process
d. Knowledge deficit.

2. Which of the following problems related to altered nutrition is a consequence

of AIDS?
a. Increased appetite
b. Decreased protein absorption
c. Decreased lipid absorption
d. Increased weight.

3. Mr. Khaled was also diagnosed with candidiasis, which should be treated
with?
a. Augmentin (Amoxicillin, Cluvalanate)
b. Lasix (Furosemide)
c. Diflucan (Fluconazole)
d. Zovirax (Acyclovir).

4. Which type of isolation should be applied for Mr. Khaled?

a. Contact
b. Droplet
c. Airborne
d. Standard.

5. When caring for this ill patient, it is important for the nurse to ensure:
a. Professional secrecy and privacy
b. No communication with the patient
c. No hygienic measures
d. Providing him medication as a trial.
Stable Angina

Mr.Tabbara, a 58 years old male, is rushed to the emergency unit with

complaints of crushing substernal pain after arguing with one of his customer. A
tentative diagnosis of stable angina pectoris is made.

1. Which of the following modifiable risk factors is maybe assessed on Mr.

Tabbara?
a. Jogging only 3 times a weeks
b. Being 58 years old
c. Losing his son recently
d. Smoking.

2. Which of the following explains Mr. Tabbara’s chest pain?

a. Absence of supply to myocardial tissue
b. Imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand
c. Alteration in myocardial efficiency with sufficient supply
d. Increase in the oxygen carrying capacity to the myocardium.

3. Which of the following diagnostic findings supports the diagnosis made for Mr.
Tabbara?
a. Blood Pressure : 138/85
b. Sinus tachycardia
c. Total cholesterol level of 280mg/dl
d. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl.

4. Mr. Tabbara is started on Aspirin 80 mg daily. The primary purpose of this

treatment is to:
a. Dissolve the thrombus that triggered angina pectoris
b. Reduce the risk of thrombus formation in coronary arteries
c. Suppress inflammatory process resulting from occluded arteries
d. Prevent plaque deposition in the walls of the coronary arteries.

5. The nurse would anticipate that Mr. Tabbara’s extent of arterial blockage is
increasing when he reports that chest pain:
a. Occurs during physical activity
b. Radiates the right shoulder
c. Happens during an argument with his wife
d. Is experienced at rest.
GERD

A 25 year old patient admitted to the hospital complaining of chest discomfort

following a meal. He is undergoing esophagogastroduodonoscopy to confirm
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

1. The nurse informs the client to lie in which appropriate position?

a. Dorsal with head flat
b. Prone with head flat
c. Left lateral with head elevated
d. Right lateral with head elevated.

2. The dietary product that decreases the esophageal sphincter pressure and
doesn’t provoke the gastroesophageal reflux is:
a. Butter
b. Low fat milk
c. Chocolate
d. Coffee.

3. GERD is closely related to which type of cancer?

a. Colon
b. Stomach
c. Mouth
d. Esophageal.

4. Reflux is an alternative term of:

a. Vomiting
b. Erosion
c. Regurgitation
d. Salivation.

5. The nurse tells the client to take antacid with:

a. Milk
b. Orange Juice
c. Yogurt
d. Water.