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Review of Preventive and Social Medicine
Multiple Choice Questions
SMALLPOX and CHICKENPOX
1. The infectivity of chickenpox lasts for:
(a) Till the last scab falls off [AIPGME 2002]
(b) 6 days after onset of rash
(c) 3 days after onset of rash
(d) Till the fever subsides
2. Chickenpox is characterised by all except:
(a) Scabs are infective [AIIMS May 1995]
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases
(b) Pleomorphic stages
(c) Rashes symmetrical centripetal dew-drop like
(d) Palms and soles not affected by rash
3. Smallpox eradication was successful due to all of the
following reasons except: [AIIMS Nov 2010]
(a) Subclinical cases did not transmit the disease
(b) A highly effective vaccine was available
(c) Infection provided lifelong immunity
(d) Cross-resistance existed with animal pox
4. All of the following are true about Varicella virus
except: [AIIMS Nov 2010]
(a) 10-30% chances of occurrence
(b) All stages of rash are seen at the same time
(c) Secondary attack rate is 90%
(d) Rash commonly seen in flexor area
5. Smallpox eradication was successful due to all of the MEASLES
following reasons except: [AIPGME 2011]
(a) Subclinical cases did not transmit the disease
(b) A highly effective vaccine was available
(c) Infection provided lifelong immunity
(d) Cross-resistance existed with animal pox
6. WHO declared global eradication of Small pox on: (d) Infection confers lifelong immunity
(a) 26th October 1977 [NUPGET 2013]
(b) 5th July 1975
(c) 17th May 1975
(d) 8th May 1980
7. Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is:
(a) 60  [Recent Question 2013]
(b) 50
(c) 90 epidemiological determinants of measles?
(d) 40
8. Chicken pox vaccine is: [Recent Question 2012]
(a) Live vaccine
(b) Killed vaccine
(c) Conjugated vaccine
(d) Toxoid vaccine
306
9. Chicken pox is infective [Recent Question 2014]
(a) 2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance
(b) 2 days before and 5 d ays after rash appearance
(c) 4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance
(d) 4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance
Review Questions
10. Infectivity of Chickenpox lasts up to:
(a) 3 days after rash
[UP 2002]
(b) All the scabs fallout
(c) 6 days after rash
(d) Eruption of rash
11. All are true about chickenpox except:
(a) Crusts contain live virus [MP 2001]
(b) Centripetal in distribution
(c) Pleomorphic rashes seen
(d) Rapid progression from macule to vesicle
12. About chickenpox all are true except: [MP 2002]
(a) Lesions appear in crops
(b) Centripetal distribution of rashes
(c) Rashes shows rapid progression from macule to
vesicle
(d) Crusts contain live virus
13. Which of the following is not true of Measles?
(a) High secondary attack rate [AIPGME 2008]
(b) Only one strain causes infection
(c) Not infectious in pro-dromal stage
14. Which of the following is the ‘Least common’
complication of measles? [AIIMS May 2006, May 2007]
(a) Diarrhea [Recent Question 2014]
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Otitis media
(d) SSPE
15. Which of the following statements is true about the
[AIIMS Nov 2005]
(a) Measles virus survives outside the human body for 5
days
(b) Carriers are important sources of infection
(c) Secondary attack rate is less than that of rubella
(d) Incidence of measles is more in males than females
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Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

16. True about measles is all except: [AIPGME 1996] (c) 85

(a) Kopliks spots appear as rash disappears (d) 95
(b) It is prevented by both active and passive immuniza-
tion
25. Measles vaccine is not given before: [DNB 2003]
(a) 9 months
(c) Otitis media and meningitis are the most common
complications (b) 12 months
(d) TB is aggravated in post measles (c) 15 months
(d) 18 months
17. All are true regarding measles vaccine except:
[AIPGME 1996] 26. To eradicate measles the percentage of population to be
(a) Freeze dried live attenuated vaccine vaccinated is at least____%: [DNB 2005]
(b) Single intramascular dose of 0.5 ml (a) 70
(c) Is occasionally associated with TSS (b) 80
(d) Contraindicated in pregnancy (c) 85
18. Which of the following is the reservoir for measles? (d) 95
(a) Man [DPG 2007] 27. For measles: [Bihar 2003]
(b) Soil (a) Incubation period is 10 days
(c) Fomites
(b) Infectious 4 days before the rash

Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(d) Monkey
(c) Koplik’s spots are seen
19. True about measles: [PGI June 04] (d) All
(a) Koplik spot appears in Prodromal stage
(b) Fever stops after onset of Rash 28. In measles Koplik spot is seen in: [Bihar 2006]
(c) Vaccine given at 9 months (a) Prodromal stage
(d) It is not diagnosed when coryza and rhinitis is absent (b) Postmeasles stage
(c) Eruptive stage
(e) Incubation period is 6 days
(d) None of the above
20. Measles vaccination campaign between 9-14 years age 29. Most common cause of post measles death:
for elimination is: [AIIMS PGMEE November 2013]
(a) Diarrhea [Bihar 2006]
(a) Keep up
(b) Follow up (b) RTI
(c) Mop up (c) Weakness
(d) Catch up (d) SSPE
21. Koplik spots are seen in: [DNB December 2011] 30. In Measles, infective period is: [UP 2008]
(a) Prodromal stage (a) 3 days before and 4 days after the appearance of rash
(b) Incubation (b) 4 days before and 3 days after the appearance of rash
(c) Eruptive (c) 4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash
(d) Convalescent stage (d) 5 days before and 4 days after the appearance of rash
22. Most serious complication of Measles is: 31. The incubation period of Measles is: [AP 2001]
[NUPGET 2013] (a) 3 days [Recent Question 2013]
(a) Koplik spots (b) 10 days
(b) Parotitis (c) 21 days
(c) Meningoencephalitis (d) 30 days
(d) Nephritis 32. All are true about measles except: [MP 2000]
23. Most common cause of death due to measles is (a) Both active and passive immunization are given
(a) Pneumonia [AP 2014] simultaneously
(b) Secondary bacterial infection (b) Flaring up of TB
(c) Measles encephalitis (c) Most infectious during rashes
(d) Otitis media (d) Causes pneumonia and otitis media

Review Questions
33. A baby was given a dose measles vaccine at 6 months
of age due to epidemic of measles/malnutrition. Correct
giving subsequent dose will be: [MH 2007]
24. To eradicate measles the percentage of infant popula- regarding (a) Give one more dose as soon as possible
tion to be vaccinated is at least ____%: [DNB 2001] (b) Give after 14-16 months with booster dose
(a) 70 [Recent Question 2012] (c) Give after 9 months age
(b) 80 (d) No dose required

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RUBELLA
(b) Most commonly associated with CVS anomalies,
cataract and hearing loss
34. Recommended vaccination strategy for rubella is to
(c) High risk if infected after 16 weeks
vaccinate first and foremost: [AIPGME 2007]
(d) IgM antibodies may be seen shortly after birth
(a) Women 15-49yrs
(b) Infants MUMPS
(c) Adolescent girls
(d) Children 1-14yrs 42. M.C. complication of mumps in children is:
35. Risk of the damage of fetus by maternal rubella is (a) Pneumonia [RJ 2004]
maximum if mother gets infected in [AIIMS Nov 2005] (b) Pancreatitis
(a) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy (c) Aseptic meningitis
(b) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy (d) Encephalitis
(c) 24-28 weeks of pregnancy 43. Incubation period of Mumps is: [Recent Question 2013]
(d) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy (a) 7 days (b) 10 days
(c) 14 days (d) 18 days
36. Risk of the damage of fetus by maternal rubella is maxi-
mum if mother gets infected in:
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(a) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy [AIIMS June 1997] INFLUENZA

(b) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy
(c) 24-28 weeks of pregnancy 44. Which of the following is not true about influenza
(d) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy virus? [AIIMS June 1999]
(a) Influenza virus A is subject to frequent antigenic
37. All of the following statements are true about Congeni- variations
tal Rubella except: [AIPGME 2005] (b) Antigenic drift is a gradual antigenic change over a
(a) It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at period of time
birth (c) Antigenic shift is due to genetic recombination of
(b) It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist for more virus
than 6 months (d) Major epidemics are due to antigenic drift
(c) Most common congenital defects are deafness, car-
diac malformations and cataract
45. Newer Influenza vaccine include: [PGI June 08]
(a) split – virus vaccine
(d) Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major
(b) neuraminidase
(c) live attenuated vaccine
congenital defects
38. MMR vaccine is recommended at the age of: (d) killed vaccine
[Recent Question 2013] (e) Recombinant vaccine
(a) 9-12 months
(b) 15-18 months
46. True about epidemology of influenza:
(a) Asymptomatic seen rarely [PGI June 05]
(c) 2-3 years
(b) Incubation period 10-12 hrs
(d) 10-19 years
(c) Pandemic rare
(d) Extra human reservoir not seen
eview Questions
R (e) All ages and sex equally affected

39. Rubella features include all except: 47. Which of the following is true about influenza:
[AP 2003] (a) Affects all ages and sexes [PGI June 06]
(a) Tender lymphnodes in the neck (b) I. P 18 – 72 hrs
(b) Congenital infection with cataract (c) Pandemics rare
(c) Incubation period < 10 days (d) Asymptomatics rare
(d) Caused by RNA virus (e) No animal reservoir
40. Under eradication of congenital rubella syndrome pro- 48. Which of the following lead to an outbreak of Influenza
gram the first priority group for rubella vaccination is: in China in 2013? [PGI May 2013]
(a) All nonpregnant women of age 15-44 years (a) H1N1 (b) H3N2
(b) All adolescent nonpregnant girls 15 to 24 of age (c) H2N2 (d) H7N9
(c) All female children at one year [RJ 2008] (e) H5N1
(d) All nonpregnant women
49. Incubation period of swine flu: [Recent Question 2013]
41. False about congenital rubella syndrome: (a) 1-3 days (b) 2-3 weeks
(a) IgG is diagnostic [AIIMS May 2011] (c) 10-15 days (d) 5 weeks

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Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

50. Pig in H1N1 influenza acts as: [DNB December 2010] (c) Penicillin
(a) Carrier (d) DPT
(b) Amplifying host
(c) Reservoir 58. Schick test does not indicate: [Kolkata 2003]
(d) Vector (a) Immunity to diphtheria
51. Major reason for H5N1 not to become a global pandemic (b) Susceptibility to diphtheria
(c) Hypersensitivity to diphtheria
is
(d) Carrier of diphtheria
[AIIMS November 2014]
(a) Route of transmission is not respiratory
(b) Man to man transmission is rare 59. Diphtheria carrier are diagnosed by: [MP 2000]
(c) Does not cause serious disease among humans (a) Throat culture (b) Gram’s staining
(d) Restricted to few countries only (c) Albert’s staining (d) Schick test
60. A Negative Schick test indicates: [MP 2007]
DIPHTHERIA (a) Immunity to Diphtheria
(b) Susceptibility to Diphtheria
52. True about Diphtheria are all except: (c) Immunity to Pertusis
(a) Carriers are more common sources of infection than (d) Immunity to Mumps

Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

cases [AIPGME 1996] [AIIMS Nov 1996]
(b) Incubation period is 2-6 days
(c) 25 Lf of diphtheria toxoid are present per ml in DPT
vaccine[ AIIMS Nov 1996]
(d) Diphtheria is an endemic disease in India
53. Positive Schick test indicates: [AIPGME 1996]
(a) Immunity to diphtheria [AIIMS Dec 1994]
(b) Susceptibility to diphtheria
(c) Hypersensitivity to diphtheria
(d) Infection with diphtheria
54. A herd immunity of over …….. % is considered neces- (a) Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000
sary to prevent epidemic spread of diphtheria: (b) Vaccine efficacy is more than 95%
[Recent Question 2012]
(a) 50%
(b) 55%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
55. Management of non immunized diphtheria contacts (a) It is associated with
include all except [PGI November 2014]
(a) Prophylactic penicillin
(b) Single dose of toxoid
(c) Daily throat examination
(d) Daily throat swab culture
(e) Weekly throat swabs examination
Review Questions
WHOOPING COUGH
61. The usual incubation period for pertussis is:
(a) 7-14 days
[AIIMS Nov 2005, AIIMS Nov 1996]
(a) 7-14 days [AIIMS June 2000]
(b) 3-5 days
(c) 21-25 days
(d) Less then 3 days
62. Which of the following statements is true regarding
pertussis? [AIPGME 2002]
(c) Erythromycin prevents spread of disease between
children
(d) Leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough
63. True regarding pertussis is all except:
[AIIMS Nov 1997, AIIMS May 1995]
an inspiratory whoop
(b) It is a droplet infection
(c) Parapertussis causes more severe disease then
pertussis
(d) Pneumonia is most common complication
64. True about Pertussis is/are: [PGI May 2012]
(a) Incubation period is 7-14 days
(b) Main source of infection is chronic carriers
(c) Can affect any age

56. A herd immunity of over____ % is considered necessary (d) Secondary 90%

attack rate in unimmunised persons is
to prevent epidemic spread of diphtheria:
(e) More common in Summers
(a) 50% [DNB 2000]
(b) 55%
(c) 60% Review Questions
(d) 65%
(e) 70%
65. Treatment for pertussis contacts children for:
(a) Prophylactic antibiotic for 10 days [UP 2000]
57. Treatment of choice for diphtheria carriers is: (b) Prophylactic antibiotic for 14 days
(c) Prophylactic antibiotic for 12 days
(a) Erythromycin [DNB 2003]
(b) Tetracycline (d) Prophylactic antibiotic for 11 days

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66. A child with pertussis should be isolated for: 74. Meningococcal vaccine available is:
(a) 1-2weeks [Kolkata 2003] [Recent Question 2013]
(b) 2-4weeks (a) ACW135Y (b) ABCW135
(c) 3-4weeks (c) CYW135B (d) ABCY
(d) 4-6weeks
Review Questions
67. About pertussis true is: [MP 2000]
(a) Secondary attack rate 90%
(b) No cross immunity with parapertussis
75. The neurological complications of DPT are due to:
(a) Pertussis component [Bihar 2003]
(c) Most infectious during paroxysmal stage
(b) Diphtheria
(d) Affects only humans
(c) Tetanus
(d) All
MENINGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS
76. Chemoprophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis:
68. True about meningococcal meningitis is: (a) Ampicillin [Kolkata 2008]
(a) Causative agent is a gram –ve diplococci (b) Tetracycline
(b) Cases are the most important source of infection (c) Rifampicin
[AIIMS May 1994] (d) Erythromycin
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

(c) Treatment with penicillin eradicates carrier state

(d) Vaccine can be given in pregnancy ARI
69. The following statements about meningococcal menin-
gitis are true, except: [AIPGME 1991, AIIMS Nov 1997, 77. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a
AIIMS Jun 98, AIPGME 2003] history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to
(a) The source of infection is mainly clinical cases drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was
(b) The disease is more common in dry and cold months having weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of 45/minute
of the year with fever. The child will be classified as suffering
(c) Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of cases is rec- from: [AIPGME 2004, 2005, AIIMS June 2000]
ommended (a) Very severe disease (b) Severe Pneumonia
(d) The vaccine is not effective in children below 2 years (c) Pneumonia (d) No Pneumonia
of age
78. A child aged 24 months was brought to the Primary
70. Xavier and Yogender stay in the same hostel of the Health Centre with complaints of cough and fever for
same university. Xavier develops infection with Group the past 2 days. On examination, the child weighed 11
B meningococcus. After a few days, Yogender develops Kg. respiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest indrawing
infection due to Group C meningococcus. All the was present. The most appropriate line of management

following are true statements except: [AIPGME 2002] for this patient is? [AIPGME 2002, IPGME 2003]
(a) Educate students about meningococcal transmission
(a) Classify as pneumonia and refer urgently to second-
and take preventive measures ary level hospital

(b) Chemoprophylaxis against both Group B and Group
(b) Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotic and advise to
C report after 2 days
(c) Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Xavier
(c) Classify as severe pneumonia, start antibiotics and
(d) Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Yogender refer urgently
71. Vaccine for meningococcal meningitis should be rou-
(d) Classify as severe pneumonia and refer urgently
tinely given to: [AIIMS PGMEE May 2013] 79. Most important feature to diagnose severe pneumonia:
(a) Laboratory workers [Recent Question 2013]
(b) Young adolescents (a) Cyanosis (b) Chest indrawing
(c) 4-8 years old children (c) Nasal flaring (d) Fast breathing
(d) Elderly population
72. Prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis is: 80. Aof 10cough month old child is brought to a PHC with history
and cold. On examination, he has respiratory
[DNB December 2009] rate of 48 breaths per minute and there is absence of
(a) Ciprofloxacin (b) Rifampicin chest indrawing. His weight is 5 kg. He is probably
(c) Penicillin (d) Gentamycin suffering from [AIIMS November 2014]
73. WHO criteria for High endemicity for Meningococcal (b) Pneumonia
(a) No pneumonia
disease include: [AIIMS PGMEE May 2013]
(a) 0.1% (b) 0.01% (c) Severe pneumonia
(c) 0.001% (d) 1.0% (d) Very severe pneumonia

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Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

81. Not evaluated in Clinical evaluation pneumonia at 88. National Tuberculosis Institute is located at:
PHC [Recent Question 2014] (a) New Delhi [AIIMS Nov 2003]
(a) Respiratory rate (b) Chingelput
(b) Inability to feed (c) Bangalore
(c) Oxygen saturation (d) Chennai
(d) Chest in drawing
89. Decrease in which of the following parameters indicate
the decrease in tuberculosis problem in India?
Review Questions (a) Incidence of infection [DPG 2004]
(b) Prevalence of infection
82. Respiratory rate can be diagnosed as fast breathing in a (c) Incidence of disease
less than 2-month-old infant, if respiratory rate/minute (d) Prevalence of disease
is more than: [Kolkata 2004]
(a) 29 (b) 39
90. The overall prevalence of tuberculosis infection in In-
dia as per 4th round of longitudinal survey was:
(c) 49 (d) 59
(a) 20% [Karnataka 2004]
(b) 30%
TUBERCULOSIS
(c) 40%

Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

83. All of the following are the targets of STOP TB STRAT- (d) 50%
EGY partnership except: 91. The percentage of positive Mantoux test in Indian if 20-
(a) Achieve a diagnosis rate > 70% and cure rate 40 yrs age group is: [PGI Dec 03]
> 85% (by 2005) [AIIMS Nov 2008] (a) < 5% (b) 5 – 10%
(b) Reduce prevalence to < 150 per 100,000 population (c) 20 – 30% (d) > 50%
(e) > 80%
per year (by 2010)
(c) Lower deaths to < 1 per 100,000 population per year 92. Population of a village on 1 June 2007 is 16,500. Since
st

(by 2010) 1 January 2007, 22 new cases of TB were detected. Total

st

(d) Global incidence of TB disease < 1 case per million registered cases were 220. what is the incidence of TB?
population per year (a) 133 per 100, 000 [AIPGME 2010]
(b) 121 per 100, 000
84. If the objective of the investigator is to assess the in- (c) 111 per 100, 000
cidence of tuberculosis infection in a community, the (d) 100 per 100, 000
most appropriate methodology would be to:
[AIIMS Nov 2005, 2006, AIPGME 2007] 93. Which
of the following is not false about annual risk of
(a) Identify all individuals with positive tuberculin test TB? [AIPGME 2010]
(b) Perform sputum examination of chest symptomatics (a) ARI of 1% = 75 new cases
(c) Identify new converters to Tuberculin test (b) Current ARI in India is 1.7%
(d) Screen all under-five children with Tuberculin test (c) It represents new cases of TB.
(d) It is assessed by tuberculin conversion in previously
85. Point of control in tuberculosis the infection is: non-vaccinated children
(a) < 1% in 0-14 group of children
(b) > 1% is all children 0-5 yrs age group 94. McKneown’s Theory states that reduced prevalence of
(c) < 1% in 15-49 of age group [AIPGME 1991] Tuberculosis occurs due to: [AIPGME 2011]
(d) < 2% in 0-14 group (a) Enhanced knowledge and awareness
(b) Medical advancements
86. Which of the following is true about tuberculin test? (c) Behavioural modification
(a) It gives the immune status of patient [AIPGME 1997] (d) Social and environmental factors
(b) It may be negative in dissociated tuberculosis
(c) It tells about prior exposure to Mycobacterium 95. A lactating woman has sputum positive Tuber-culosis
tuberculosis only and her neonate child is 3 months old. What is the rec-
(d) It is highly positive in a post measles case ommended chemoprophylaxis? [AIIMS May 2011]
(a) INH 3mg/kg for 3 months
87. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tu- (b) INH 5mg/kg for 3 months
berculosis infection in a community is:
(c) INH 3mg/kg for 6 months
[AIIMS May 92, AIPGME 04]
(d) INH 5mg/kg for 6 months
(a) Mass Miniature Radiography
(b) Sputum examination [Recent Questions 2014] 96. Antitubercular drug which causes Optic neuritis is:
(c) Tuberculin Test [NUPGET 2013]
(d) Clinical examination (a) Ethambutol (b) Rifampicin
(c) Isoniazid (d) Pyrizinamide
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97. Number of (+) for tubercle bacilli if count in AFB 107. Sputum positive TB patients on chemotherapy should
be isolated at least for 
sample is > 10 per oil immersion fields? [Recent Question 2014]
[Recent Question 2013] (a) 2 weeks
(a) + (b) ++ (b) 3 weeks
(c) +++ (d) Scanty (c) 4 weeks
98. One TB infected person can infect how many people in 108. (d) 6 weeks
1 year? [Recent Question 2013] Contacts of Sputum positive tuberculosis patient who
(a) 20 (b) 30 should be given preventive chemotherapy
(c) 10 (d) 5 (a) Pregnant women [Recent Question 2014]
(b) Old people
99. Incidence of TB in a community measured by: (c) Children above 6 years
[DNB December 2011]
(d) Children below 6 years
(a) Sputum smear + [Recent Questions 2014]
(b) Tuberculin test +
(c) Sputum culture Review Questions
(d) Mantoux test +
100. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tu- 109. In(a) T.B/ a ‘case’ is”:
Cough (b) Sputum positive
[DNB 2001]
Communicable and Non-communicable Diseases

berculosis infection in a community is: [DNB 2007]

(c) Mantoux positive (d) X-ray positive
(a) Mass miniature radiography
(b) Sputum examination 110. National tuberculosis institute is situated at:
(c) Tuberculin test (a) Bombay [DNB 2003]
(d) Clinical examination (b) Calcutta
101. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in humans is (c)(d) Bangalore Delhi
most common because of: [Recent Question 2013]
(a) Contact (b) Inhalation 111. Tuberculin unit is: [DNB 2003]
(c) Infiltration (d) Inoculation (a) 0.0001 mg
102. One of the following is known as Tuberculin Conver- (b) 1 unit of PPD RT3
(c) 0.1 mg BCG
sion Index: [NUPGET 2013]
(d) None of the above
(a) Incidence of infection
(b) Prevalence of infection 112. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of
(c) Incidence of disease tuberculosis infection in a community is?
(d) Prevalence of disease (a) Mass miniature radiography [DNB 2007]
(b) Sputum examination
103. Xpert MTB/RIF test is used to detect: [PGI May 2013] (c) Tuberculin test
(a) For assessing resistance to isoniazid
(d) Clinical examination
(b) For assessing multi drug resistant TB
(c) For assessing rifampicin resistance 113. By WHO best criteria for TB diagnosis is:
(d) Monitoring drug response in MDR TB (a) Sputum + ve [Bihar 2005]
(e) Diagnosis of TB (b) Chest pain
104. TB multidrug regimen is given to: (c)(d) X-ray Cough – 3 weeks
finding
[Recent Question 2013]
(a) Prevent resistance 114. A case of TB a/c to WHO is detected by: [Bihar 2005]
(b) Broad spectrum (a) Sputum exam
(c) Prevent side effects (b) Mass Miniature radiography
(d) None (c) Montoux test
105. Sputum positive TB is: [DNB June 2009] (d) Elisa
(a) 1 out of 2 sputum sample +ve 115. True about tuberculosis-: [MP 2000]
(b) 2 out of 3 sputum sample +ve (a) >10 bacilli are required in sputum for detection
4

(c) BACTEC +ve (b) Mantoux test can differentiate between BCG and in-
(d) Mantoux test positive fection
106. Tuberculin positive means: [DNB June 2011] (c) Can be grown on ordinary culture media
(a) Immunodeficient patient (d) Drug sensitivity is tested by schick test
(b) Resistance to tuberculin protein
(c) Patient is infected with mycobacterium
116. In tuberculosis combination of Antimicrobials is used:
(a) To delay the development of resistance [MP 2002]
(d) Patient is suffering from disease
(b) To reduce toxicity
312