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Oral Questionnair_01_pdf Date November 01, 2006 Revision No.03

1. What the first 4 things you do when entering the ¾ Flight planning and performance manual
(Boeing Doc. No. MDC-009103) page 2.2.14
cockpit?
¾ Light control panel SET Flight Crew System
¾ Nav&Wing/Nacl light sw ON/OFF Required Pressure (PSIG) for 77 FT3 Cylinder
¾ Status page Check
¾ Config page Check Flight time Number of persons using oxygen
2 Active Crew 2 Active
2. What circuit breakers you cannot reset? Hours Minutes
+ 1 Observer Crew
¾ Fuel circuit breakers 0.00 0.0 565 565
3. Name the emergency equipment you are looking for 0.17
0.33
10.0
20.0
565
565
565
565
in the cockpit? 0.50 30.0 565 565
¾ Fire axe 0.67 40.0 565 565
0.83 50.0 565 565
¾ Fire extinguisher
1.00 60.0 565 565
¾ Oxygen 1.13 69.0 565 565
¾ PBE 1.17 70.0 580 565
¾ Escape rope 1.33 80.0 640 565
¾ Life vests (3) 1.50 90.0 700 565
¾ Gear pins (3) 1.67 100.0 760 565
4. Check the crew oxygen during transit in Samui, you 1.83 110.0 820 565
2.00 120.0 880 605
discover that the pressure indicates only 600 psi
instead of 1,800 psi. Where can you find out that you
5. During cockpit preparation, you observe that the
can proceed back to Bangkok with that amount of
engine fire detection loop is selected on “B”. By
oxygen pressure?
¾ RD10.2 Reference data in operating procedure
checking the log book, it is written that loop “A” is
unserviceable. After performing the fire test, it
Crew Oxygen Pressure Requirements for Dispatch To 10,000’
or Higher With 176700-77 Cylinder (77 Cubic Feet) indicates that loop “B” is OK. Where can you re-
confirm that the aircraft can be dispatched?
¾ MEL 26-11-01

6. How long of recording do you have in the cockpit

voice recorder (CVR)?
¾ 2 hours
7. What condition you need to have before you can
erase what has been recorded?
¾ Aircraft on ground
¾ Parking brake set
¾ Push erase >1/2 second
8. When does the CVR start recording?
¾ Whenever power is available to the airplane
9. How long the data recorder can record?
¾ 25 hours
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Oral Questionnair_01_pdf Date November 01, 2006 Revision No.03

10. What do you understand the square button marked 16. Can the aircraft be dispatched with the cargo
“Event” on the aft overhead panel? compartment fire suppression system inoperative?
¾ Mark the desired events ¾ MEL26-13-01
11. Name 3 conditions which cause the ADIRU NAV
OFF lights flashing.
¾ Aircraft move during alignment
¾ Failure of position comparison test
¾ Failure of ADIRU to receive position
initialization data within 5-10 minutes after
turn on

12. What is the normal and back up power source of the

ADIRU1 and ADIRU2? 17. Can you dispatch the aircraft when the hydraulic
¾ ADIRU1 normally by AC EMER bus, back up
by aircraft battery
control rudder “OFF” light illuminated on ground?
¾ ADIRU2 normally by R AC bus, back up by ¾ MEL29-11-01
independent battery(minimum 30 minutes)
13. How to perform a quick alignment of the ADIRUs?
¾ Rotate NAV→OFF→ NAV within 5 sec.
14. How many smoke detectors are there in the cargo
smoke detection system?
¾ 12 (8 fwd, 4 aft)

15. When you are holding the cargo smoke test button
during you preflight preparation, the PUSH lights will 18. What systems are powered by the left hydraulic
illuminated flashing or steady? system?
¾ Steady ¾ Left/Right inboard spoilers
¾ Left thrust reverser
¾ Elevator augmentation
19. What systems are powered by the right hydraulic
system?
¾ Left/Right outboard spoilers
¾ Right thrust reverser
¾ Rudder
¾ Landing gear
20. Describe briefly the main functions of hydraulic AUX
pump?
¾ Backup right hydraulic system
¾ Supply hydraulic pressure when engine not
operate
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Oral Questionnair_01_pdf Date November 01, 2006 Revision No.03

21. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity requirement 28. How many buses are you powering with the EMER
on the ground when the system is pressurized? PWR and BATT switches “ON”?
¾ 4 quarts ¾ BATT ON- BAT direct bus & DC transfer bus
22. Describe how you test the ground proximity warning
system?
¾ Verify GPWS TERRAIN OVRD switch light is
extinguished and guard is down.
¾ Observe the mode box on the lower right
corner of the Captain’s and/or FO’s ND. If
TERRAIN is not displayed on ND, push WXR
switch and verify that TERRAIN is displayed in
the box.
¾ Rotate WXR knob to full clockwise.
Momentarily hold the GPWS switch in the
TEST position. The following visual and aural
annunciations will be present:
Visual –
• TERRAIN TEST displayed in the ND mode box.
• Lights are illuminated in the BELOW G/S switch. ¾ EMER PWR ON -AC&DC emergency bus
• “GPWS FAULT” and “TERRAIN FAIL” alerts are
displayed on the STATUS page.

Aural messages –
• “GLIDESLOPE”
• “WHOOP-WHOOP, PULL-UP”
• “TERRAIN AHEAD, PULL-UP”
If a check of all aural and visual annunciations is
desired, hold GPWS switch until “GLIDESLOPE” is
heard on cockpit speakers.
During aural annunciations, a terrain test pattern will
begin to display on each ND on which TERRAIN
DISPLAY has been selected.

23. In the pressurization system, how many motors are

there that move the out flow valve, are they DC or 29. What convert battery DC to AC power?
AC motors? ¾ Inverter
¾ 2 DC step motors power by left and right DC 30. What is the priority for powering the AC Tie bus?
bus (used by auto controller) ¾ APU
¾ 1 DC brush motor power by DC transfer bus ¾ EXT PWR
(used when system is in manual) ¾ Right generator
24. If we lost the normal AC, how many motors are still ¾ Left generator
working? 31. What is the priority for powering the generator bus?
¾ 1 DC brush motor power by DC transfer bus ¾ Engine generator
(used when system is in manual) ¾ APU
25. When can the landing field elevation be set using the ¾ EXT PWR
¾ Opposite Generator
manual landing altitude switch? 32. On ground service electrical panel, what is the
¾ Cabin pressurization system in AUTO
¾ When it doesn’t have field elevation in normal position of the switch “ON” or “OFF”?
database ¾ OFF
¾ To override FMS database 33. In what occasion that you select it “ON”?
26. Prior to establish the aircraft electrical power, what is ¾ When we want to use GND SVC BUS only
the most important thing you should be aware of? • With APU
¾ BATT ON a. GND SVC SW ON
¾ EMER PWR OFF b. L&R BUS TIE SW OPEN
• With EXT PWR
27. What alert message on the EAD which prevent you a. GND SVC SW ON
from doing the emergency power test? b. EXT PWR SW OFF
¾ BATTERY CHARGING
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Oral Questionnair_01_pdf Date November 01, 2006
34. Which fuel tanks supplies fuel to the APU?
¾ Normally from right tank
¾ If we have AC power we can use left and center
tanks
35. What is the maximum altitude to start APU?
¾ 37,000 feet
36. How many ways you can shutdown the APU?
¾ 2 ways
• Overhead panel
• Ground fire control panel
37. What is the limitation of the APU starter motor duty
cycle?
¾ It is limited to 3 consecutive start attempts.
¾ Wait 30 minutes prior to further start attempts.
38. What will occur when the APU FIRE CONT switch is
moved to “OFF&AGENT ARM”?
¾ APU shutdown
¾ Both agents ARM
¾ Trip APU Generator Auxiliary Power Relay
39. Follow an initial start cycle, how long is the delay
until APU air is available?
¾ 2 minutes, the timer starts when the APU
MASTER switch is moved to the start position
40. Describe what occurs when the APU Master Switch
is placed to “OFF”.
¾ Shutdown APU, shutdown may be delayed up
to 18 sec. due to no break power transfer
requirement which is not for APU cool down.
¾ APU AIR OFF
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41. What is the difference between an “APU FAULT”
alert on the ground and “APU FAULT” alert in flight?
¾ On ground,
• APU automatically shut down
• Fuel shutoff valve closes
• Amber APU AUTO SHUTDOWN alert is
displayed.
¾ In flight
• APU will not automatically shut down
• ECU automatically shut down the APU
only for an APU over speed or an APU
compartment fire.
• APU automatically shuts down 10 minutes
after landing, unless shut down sooner by
the pilot.
Note: APU FAULT are High oil temp & Low oil pressure
42. Describe the indications of an APU FIRE in flight
¾ APU auto shutdown
¾ APU FIRE alert displayed on EAD
¾ MASTER WARNING illuminates
¾ Attention tone and Voice warning sounds
43. What will cause the APU auto-shutdown in flight?
¾ N1 over speed (105%)
¾ N1 over heat
¾ APU fire
¾ Loss of DC XFER bus (ECU runs off DC
XFER bus), after landing APU auto shutdown
in 10 minutes
44. Avionic cooling switch has two positions “OVRD” and
“FAN”. Does this switch have any effect on the
ground?
¾ No, it does not
45. How many avionic cooling fans are working while the
aircraft is on the ground and in the air?
¾ On ground- Primary and secondary
¾ In flight- Primary only
46. What does it mean when you get the alert message
“AVINCS AIR FLO OFF” on the EAD in the air and
on the ground?
¾ On ground- Primary fan failed
¾ In flight- Both fans failed
47. Does the electric heaters for the front cargo
compartment work on the ground?
¾ No, it does not
48. What is the purpose of the ram air switch?
¾ On ground – opening the ram air valve and
turning on the gasper fan ventilates the aircraft
if air conditioning is not available
¾ In flight – allow uncondition outside air to
enter right air-condition system for aircraft
ventilation, pack must be off and aircraft
depressurized
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Oral Questionnair_01_pdf Date November 01, 2006 Revision No.03

49. Will the ram air switch do anything in flight when 58. If we lost the left bleed source, does it mean that
pressurized, why? there will be no wing anti-ice protection?
¾ No, it won’t because there is one way check ¾ No, it does not. The system will supply bleed
valve. air from the right engine for wing 15 minutes
50. What does the PACK SHUTDOWN do when it is in and tail 2.5 minutes.
the AUTO position?
¾ PSC shuts down air conditioning packs below
3,000 feet with loss of an engine.
51. What does the PACK SHUTDOWN do when it is in
the OVRD position?
¾ Inhibits auto pack shutdown. If pack was shut
down due engine failure, moving the switch to
OVRD will restore the operable pack.
52. On the ground when the APU is supplying air to the
packs, what position is the FLOW control valve –
HIGH or NORMAL regardless of the flow switch
position?
¾ HIGH
53. When will the ISOL switch open in the AUTO
position?
¾ It will auto open when one bleed source
operation with ice protection system selected 59. What components are heated with the AIR DATA
on. HEAT switch ON?
54. What system controls the ISOL valve? ¾ Pitots – CAPT, F/O, AUX, Rudder limiter
¾ Pneumatic System Controller (PSC) ¾ AOA sensors (2)
¾ Static ports (4)
¾ RAT probe
60. What windows are anti-fogged and what windows are
anti-ice?
¾ Anti-fogged
• 3 windshields
• 2 eyebrows
• 2 clear views
¾ Anti-ice
• 3 windshields
61. When should engine anti-ice be turned on both in the
air and on the ground?
¾ On ground when icing conditions exit or are
anticipated
• OAT is below 6°C(42°F)
• Visible moisture is present, or
• Dew point and OAT(TAT) are within 3°C
(5°F) of each other
55. What is the lowest temperature you can set manually ¾ In-flight when
• TAT is below 6°C(42°F)
for the passenger cabin?
• Visible moisture is present in any form, or
¾ 18°C (max 30°C or 65°F-85°F) • Dew point and OAT are within 3°C(5°F)
56. What is the normal bleed air source for wing anti-ice? of each other
¾ Left engine
57. What is the normal bleed air source for tail anti-ice?
¾ Right engine
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Oral Questionnair_01_pdf Date November 01, 2006
62. Why you have to switch the windshield anti-ice on
even in a very hot day?
¾ Bird strike protection
63. What is the speed limitation below 10,000 feet if the
pilot’s outer layer window cracked or inner layer
window cracked?
¾ Outer 315 kts, Inner 235 kts
64. When is the WING ICE DET system working?
¾ On ground only
65. Can you reset the WING ICE DET if ice is still on the
wing?
¾ No, I can not.
66. When you test the annunciator lights, what lights are
not tested?
¾ Starters (2)
¾ Stick pushers (2)
¾ Fire handles (2)
67. What should be done with the engines during a
prolonged taxi on icing condition with engine anti-ice
ON?
¾ Periodic engine runups with engine anti-ice
system on, to a minimum of 40% N1 for 10
seconds to minimize the possibility of ice
buildup and should be performed at leased
every 60 minutes
68. How many systems are there to give fuel quantity
readings? Are they totally independent?
¾ 2 systems, backup each other
69. What is the maximum fuel load of the aircraft?
¾ 11,162 kg. ( 4,203 / 2,756 / 4,203 )
70. What tank does the start pump fuel come from?
¾ Right tank
71. What is the maximum fuel imbalance between the
main tanks in flight?
¾ 675 kg (1,500 lb)
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72. On your preflight fuel panel check, you find out that
one of the center fuel pumps is unserviceable; can
you dispatch the aircraft with this faulty fuel pump?
¾ MEL28-22-02
73. What does the acronym FADEC stand for?
¾ Full Authority Digital Engine Control
74. What are the three main components of FADEC?
¾ Throttle
¾ Throttle module
¾ Electronic Engine Control (EEC)
75. What component is the main part of FADEC?
¾ EEC
76. Give three reasons that the FADEC goes to N1
mode.
¾ EEC detects a fault in the EPR control mode
¾ Advance throttle through N1 mode gate
¾ Push SELECT ALTN button
77. When an engine fire handle is illuminated, what will
occur when it is pulled aft?
¾ Hydraulic shut off valve close
¾ Fuel valve closed
¾ ISOL valve closed
¾ Engine generator trip
¾ Arm both extinguishers
78. Do you still have the EPR limit and actual EPR value
displayed on the EAD when N1 mode has been
manually selected?
¾ Yes, I do
79. What does the ignition system do, when does the
AUTO system come on?
¾ During auto starts the EEC automatically
alternates use of ignitors in the following
sequence and then repeats: (Note that the EEC
also alternates control channels each start.)
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Oral Questionnair_01_pdf Date November 01, 2006
• Start 1) EEC Channel-A/Ign-A
• Start 2) EEC Channel-B/Ign-A
• Start 3) EEC Channel-A/Ign-B
• Start 4) EEC Channel-B/Ign-B
¾ When water is detected in the high pressure
compressor
¾ When engine flameout is detected
80. How many light systems are there in associate with
illumination when the normal AC power fails?
¾ Cabin standby light
¾ Emergency light
81. Explain briefly the differences of these light systems?
¾ Cabin standby light – powered by aircraft
battery through DC EMER BUS, ~ 1 hour
¾ Emergency light – powered by rechargeable
battery packs, ~ 10 minutes.
82. When will the fasten seat belt sign comes on when
the switch is placed in AUTO?
¾ Cabin altitude exceed 10,000 feet
¾ Slats are extended
83. How long is the limit of the landing lights extended in
still air?
¾ 10 minutes
84. What is the maximum takeoff and landing weight of
the aircraft and its maximum zero fuel weight?
¾ MTOW 51,710 kg.
¾ MLDW 46,266 kg.
¾ MZFW 43,545 kg
¾ MRW 52,163 kg.
85. What are the two main functions of the anti-skid?
¾ Allow maximum wheel braking without
skidding the tires
¾ Provides touchdown protection in flight which
prevents brake application until after wheel
spin up
86. What could be the possible cause when you lost the
airspeed tape and the altimeter tape in your PFD?
¾ Loss of air data
87. What system which provide you with heading and
attitude information in your PFD?
¾ IRS
88. Which flight instruments are not available if you lost
DC transfer bus?
¾ DU2, ISIS
89. What is the limitation for the engine starter duty
cycle?
¾ 3 start attempts, then cooling 15 minutes
¾ Maximum duration of each start attempts is 3
minutes
¾ Pause between start attempts is 15 seconds
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90. On the walk around inspection, why must we check
the green disc located below the F/O window?
¾ To ensure the flight crew’s oxygen was not
discharged overboard due to thermal
expansion
91. What is the maximum speed of the aircraft
(Vmo&Mmo)?
¾ Vmo = 340 kts (SL to 26,000 feet)
¾ Mmo = 0.82M (Above 26,000 feet)
92. What is the speed limitation if the mach trim is
inoperative?
¾ 0.78M
93. At what cabin altitude will the oxygen compartment
door automatically open?
¾ 14,150 feet
94. What alert is displayed on the EAD if the automatic
mask deployment fails and in what cabin altitude this
alert will come on?
¾ NO MASKS, displayed when cabin altitude
above 14,750 feet
95. Predictive wind shear is part of which system?
¾ Weather radar system
96. WAGS enable for detection and guidance from what
speed on takeoff roll to what height AGL?
¾ 80 kts to 1,500 feet
97. When will the ATS disconnect during the landing roll
out?
¾ When apply reverse
98. On your takeoff run at speed 80 Kts, the PNF
announces “NO CLAMP”, what would be your action?
¾ Disconnect auto throttle and continue takeoff.
99. During climb, the FMA speed and altitude windows
display “PITCH” and “CLB THRUST” respectively. On
level off what changes will be displayed on these two
windows?
¾ THRUST, HOLD respectively
100. Describe your immediate actions when you heard the
GPWS aural warning “TERRAIN AHEAD PULL UP”.
¾ Throttle Max N1
¾ Disconnect autopilot, pitch up 20°
¾ If you have time select flight director bar OFF