Question : 1

1020 Electrons are removed from the surface of a conducting sphere of radius 10cm. The charge
acquired by the sphere is

A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer : B

Solution :

Question : 2

A charge 1μc is divided into two parts such that, their charges are in the ratio of 2:3 these two
charges are kept at a distance 1m apart in vacuum. The electric force between them is

A) 0.216N

B) 0.00216 N

C) 0.0216N

D) 2.16N

Your Answer : B

Answer : B

Solution : q=1μC,q1=25q=2510−6, q1=25q=3510−6

,d=1mF=14πε0q1q2r2=9×109×2510−6×3510−612

=5425×10−3

F=0.00216N

Question : 3

The point charges Q,8Q,27Q−−−−−−1000Qare placed at X=d,2d,3d−−−−10d. A point charge q is

placed at origin then the resultant force on q is

A) 50F0
B) 51F0

C) 45F0

D) 55F0

Answer : D

Solution : Q,2Q,3Q,4Q−−−−−−1000Q

d,2d,3d,4d−−−−−−100d

F′=14πε0qQr2

F′=q4πε0(Qd2+8Q4d2+27Q9d2+−−−−1000Q100d2)

F′=q4πε0d2(1+2+3+4+−−−−10)

F′=F0(n(n+1)2)=F0(10(10+1)2)=55F0

Question : 4

Two point charges Q and 3Q are placed at some distance apart. If the electric field at the location of
Q isE→, then the field at the location of +3Qis

A) −E→

B) E→3

C) −3E→

D) −E→3

Answer : D

Solution : Electric field at Q due to 3Q is

E→=−14πε03Qr2⇒−E→3=14πε0Qr2−−−(1)

Electric field at 3Q due to Q is

E→′=14πε0Qr2⇒E→′=−E→3
Question : 5

Two point charges –q and q/2are situated at the origin and at the point (a,0,0)respectively .The point
along the X axis where the electric field become zero is

A) x=a2

B) x=2a

C) x=2a2−1

D) x=2a2+1

Answer : C

Solution :

kqx2=kq/2(x−a)2⇒2(x−a)2=x2

2(x−a)=x⇒x=2a2−1

Question : 6

Charges q,2q,3q,4q are placed at the corners A,B,C and D of a square as shown in the figure. The
direction of electric field at the centre of the square is along

A) AB

B) CB

C) BD

D) AC

Answer : B

Solution :

Question : 7

Two small spherical balls each carrying a charge Q=10μc are suspended by two insulating threads of
equal lengths 1m each from a point fixed in the ceiling. It is found that in equilibrium threads are
separated by an angle 60o between them, as shown in the figure. What is the tension in the
threads?

A) 0.18N
B) 1.8N

C) 18N

D) 0.01

Answer : B

Solution :

F=T Sin300⇒14πε0QQr2=T ×12

sinθ=p1⇒12=p1⇒p=0.5

T2 =9×109×10×10×10−1212

T=18×1011×10−12=1.8N

Question : 8

A bob of a simple pendulum of mass 22.5gm with a positive charge 4×10−6C is oscillating with time
period T1. An electric field of intensity 3.6×104N/C is applied vertically upwards now time period is
T2.the value of T1T2 is (g=10m/s2)

A) 0.6

B) 53

C) 1.25

D) 0.8

Answer : A

Solution : m=22.5gm=22.5×10−3Kg,q=4×10−6c

E=3.6×104N/C,  a=Eqm=3.6×104×4×10−622.5×10−3

 a=3.6×107×4×10−622.5=6.4m/s2

 T1=2πlg  T2=2πlg−a
  T1T2=g−ag  =10−6.410  =3.610=0.6

Question : 9

In a region where intensity of Electric field is 5 N/C,80 lines of electric force are crossing per square
meter. The number of lines crossing per square meter where intensity of electric field is 10N/C will
be

A) 20

B) 160

C) 100

D) 200

Answer : B

Solution : nA∝E⇒n1n2=E1E2⇒80n2=510

80n2=12⇒n2=160

Question : 10

A ring of charge with radius 0.5m has 0.002m gap. If the ring carries a charge of +1C,the electric field
at the center is nearly

A) 7.2×107N/C

B) 7.6×107N/C

C) 6.2×107N/C

D) Zero

Answer : A

Solution : dq=QLdl=12πr×0.002π=10−30.5=2×10−3

Electric field E

E=14πε0dqr2⇒E=9×109×2×10−3(12)2

E=9×8×109×10−3=72×106×1010
 =7.2×107N/C

Question : 11

Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. When
calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical surface the electric field will be due to

A) q2

B) Only the positive charges

C) All the charges

D) −q1 and −q2

Answer : C

Solution : Electric field due to all charges

+q1,−q2  and  q2

Question : 12

Three identical dipoles are arranged as shown below. What will be the net electric field at P    
(K=14πε0)

A) KPx3

B) 2KPx3

C) Zero

D) 2KPx3

Answer : C

Solution : ENet=2E−(E+E)=0

Question : 13
A hollow spherical shell of radius ‘r’ has a uniform charge density σ . It is kept in cube of edge 3r such
that the centre of the cube coincides with the centre of the Shell. The electric flux that comes out of
a face of the cube.

A) Zero

B) πr2σ3ε0

C) π2rσ6ε0

D) 2πr2σ3ε0

Answer : D

Solution : Surface charge density

σ=qA   ⇒q=σA=σ4πr2

Electric flux

ϕ=q6ε0=σ4πr26ε0=2σπr23ε0

Question : 14

Two electric dipoles of moment P and 8P are placed in opposite direction on a line at a distance of
18cm.The electric field will be zero at point between the dipoles whose distance from the dipole of
moment P is

A) 6 cm

B) 259 cm

C) 10 cm

D) 413 cm

Answer : A

Solution : x=d(q2q1)13+1=18(8pp)13+1

=18(23)13+1=183=6cm

Question : 15

The displacement r→ of a charge Q in an electric field E=e1i^+e2j^+  e3k⌢ is r→=bi^ +aj^. Then the

work done is
A) Q(ae1+be2)

B) Q(be1+ae2)

C) Q(ae1)2+(be2)2

D) Q(e1+e2)a2+b2

Answer : B

Solution : W=F¯. r¯=EQ. r

=Q(e1i^+e2j^+e3k^)  .  (bi^+aj^)

W=Q(be1+ae2)

Question : 16

An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30o to a non uniform electric field .The dipole will
experience

A) A translation force only in the direction of the field

B) A translation force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field

C) A torque as well as translational force

D) A torque only

Answer : C

Solution : The electric field will be different at the location of the two charges .there force, the two
forces will be unequal. This will be result in a force as well as torque

Question : 17

The electric field in a region of space is given by E→=5i^ +2j^ N/C. The electric flux due to this field
through an area 4m2 lying in the YZ plane, in S.I units is

A) 102

B) 229

C) 10

D) 20

Answer : D

Solution : ϕ=E→ . A→=(5i^+2j^) . (4i^)=20 Wb

Question : 18
If a charge q is placed at the center of the line joining two equal charges Q, such that the system is in
equilibrium then the value of q is

A) Q2

B) −Q2

C) Q4

D) −Q4

Answer : D

Solution :

kQQr2+kQq(r2)2=0⇒Qr2=−4qr2=0

q=−Q4

Question : 19

As shown in figure, two parallel concentric spherical surfaces S1 and S2 enclosing charges 2q and 4q
respectively. What is the ratio of electric flux through S1 and S2

A) 1:1

B) 1:2

C) 2:1

D) 1:3

Answer : D

Solution : ϕ1=2qε0,     ϕ2=2q+4qε0

ϕ1 ϕ2=2qε0× ε06q   =13

Question : 20

A thin conducting spherical shell has a radius R and charge Q.The graph of electric field intensity E
with respect to distance r from the centre of the sphere is
A)

B)

C)

D)

Answer : B

Solution : Spherical Shell inside charge is Zero

So, electric field Einside=0

Outside electric fieldEoutside∝1r2

Question : 21

An electric dipole is along a uniform electric field. If it is deflected by 60o, work done by agent is
4×10−19J.Then the work done by agent, if it is deflected by 30o further is

A) 2.5×10−19J

B) 2×10−19J

C) 4×10−19J

D) 2×10−16J

Answer : C

Solution : work done

W=PE(1−cosθ)=PE(1−cos60)

4×10−19=PE(1−12)⇒PE=8×10−19

New workW=PE(cosθ1−cosθ2)

w=8×10−19(cos600−cos900)

w=8×10−19(12−0)=4×10−19J
Question : 22

A proton and α−particle start from rest in a uniform electric field, then ratio of times of flight to
travel same distance in the field

A) 5:2

B) 3:1

C) 2:1

D) 1:2

Answer : D

Solution : Proton1H1, α−2He4

qp=q,mp=m,  qα=2α  mα=4m

s=12at2⇒t=2sa=2smEq⇒t∝mq

tptα=mpmα×qαqp=m4m×2qq=12

Question : 23

Two identically charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal length. The strings make an angle
of 30o with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8gm/cc the angle remains same,
then dielectric constant of liquid. Density of sphere =1.6gm/cc

A) 2

B) 12

C) 4

D) 14

Answer : A

Solution : K=dbdb−dl=1..61.6−0.8=168=2

Question : 24

Mean kinetic energy per degree of freedom of gas molecule is

A) 32KT

B) KT

C) 12KT

D) 32RT

Answer : C

Solution : According to kinetic theory of gases, the Mean kinetic energy of molecule is 32KTSince
Molecule move at random, the Average kinetic energy corresponding to Each degree of freedom is
the same. thus mean Kinetic energy per molecule

Per degree of freedom is12KT

Question : 25

The r.m.s speed of the molecules of a gas in a vessel is 400 m/sec. If half of the gas leaks out, at
constant temperature. The r.m.sspeed of the remaining molecules will be

A) 800 m/sec

B) 4002 m/sec

C) 400 m/sec

D) 200 m/sec

Answer : C

Solution : Vrms=3RTM Half of gas leaks out since

no of molecule play no role in r.m.s speed

Question : 26

The root mean square speed of molecules of a diatomic gas ‘V’. When the temperature is doubled,
the molecules dissociated into two atoms. The new root mean square speed of the atom is

A) 2V

B) V

C) 2V

D) 4V

Answer : C

Solution : Vrms=3RTM   Given  T=2T,   M=M2
Vrms=3R(2T)M/2=3R(4T)M=23RTM=2V

Question : 27

A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass = 4u),and 1mole of argon gas (atomic=40u)is kept
at 300K in a container. The ratio of their rms speeds Vrms(He)Vrms(Ag)is close to

A) 2.24

B) 3.16

C) 0.45

D) 0.32

Answer : B

Solution : Vrms=3RTM   

Vr.m.s(He)Vr.m.s(Ar)=MArMHe=404=10=3.16

Question : 28

When we heat a gas sample from 27oC to 327oC, then the initial average kinetic energy of the
molecules was ‘E’. What will be the average kinetic energy after heating?

A) 2E

B) 327E

C) 2E

D) 300E

Answer : A

Solution : T1=27+273=300k,T2=327+273=600k

KE∝T⇒KE1KE2∝T1T2⇒EE2=300600

E2=2E

Question : 29

An ideal gas occupies a volume of 2m3 at a pressure of 4×106 Pascal. The energy of the gas is

A) 12×106J
B) 8×106J

C) 9×106J

D) 6×104J

Answer : A

Solution : E=32PV=32×4×106×2=12×106J

Question : 30

Calculate the internal energy of 1g of oxygen at STP.

A) 5674.3J

B) 177.2J

C) 88.6

D) 354.6J

Answer : B

Solution : No of moles of

O2=132mol

At STP = 273K

∴ Energy E=52nRT=52×132×8.31×273

E =11343.1564=177.2J

Question : 31

Four molecules have speeds 2,4,6and 8km/sec respectively then the root mean square speed is

A) 5.746 km/sec

B) 4.47 km/sec

C) 3.764 km/sec

D) 8.532 km/sec

Answer : A

Solution : Root mean square speed

Vrms=V12+V22+V32+V42n=22+42+62+824Vrms=4+16+366+644

=1204=40=5.73Km/s

Question : 32

The temperature of a gas consisting of rigid diatomic molecules is TK. Calculate the angular root
mean square velocity of the rotating molecule if moment of initial is I

A) 2KBTI

B) KBT2I

C) KBTI

D) I2KBT

Answer : A

Solution : E=f2KT=22KT−−(1)  U=12Iω2−−(2)

KT=12Iω2⇒ω2=2KTI⇒ω=2KTI

Question : 33

A gas state A changes to state B through paths I and II as shown in fig. The change in internal energy
is ΔU1 and ΔU2respectively, then

A) ΔU1>ΔU2

B) ΔU1<ΔU2

C) ΔU1=ΔU2

D) Relation between ΔU1 and ΔU2 cannot be determined.

Answer : C

Solution : Change in internal energy do not depend upon The path followed by the process. It only
depends on initial and final states i.e Δu1=Δu2

Question : 34

A certain mass of gas is taken from an initial thermodynamic state ‘A’ to another state ‘B’ by process
I and II. In process I for the gas does 5J of work and absorbs 3J of heat energy. In process II, the gas
absorbs 5J of heat. The work done by the gas in process II is
A) +3J

B) -6J

C) -7J

D) +7J

Answer : D

Solution : dQ1=dU1+dw1⇒dU1=3−5=−2J=dU2

dQ2=dU2+dw2

⇒dw2=dQ2−dU2=5−(−2)=+7J

Question : 35

Three moles of an ideal gas ‘A’ with r=43 is mixed with two moles of another ideal gas ‘B’ with r=53
at constant temperature. The Ratio of r of the mixture is

A) 1.5

B) 1.42

C) 1.7

D) 1.3

Answer : B

Solution : n1+n2γ−1=n1γ1−1+n2γ2−1

⇒3+2γ−1=343−1+253−1

5γ−1=91+62⇒5γ−1=12

γ−1=512⇒γ=5+1212=1712=1.42

Question : 36

A rigid diatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic process at room temperature. The relation
between temperature and volume of this process is TVx=constant, then X is
A) 53

B) 25

C) 23

D) 35

Answer : B

Solution : PVγ=K,   TVγ−1=K⇒γ−1=x

γ−1=x⇒75−1=x⇒x=25

Question : 37

Certain quantity of heat is supplied to a mono atomic ideal gas which expands at constant pressure.
The percentage of heat that is used to do work by the gas is

A) 80%

B) 20%

C) 40%

D) 60%

Answer : C

Solution : for monatomic gas

γ=53

dWdQ=1−1γ=1−35=25

⇒dWdQ×100=25×100=40%

Question : 38

A mono atomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1, is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless
piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature T2 by releasing the piston
suddenly. If L1 and L2are the lengths of the gas column before and after expansion respectively.
Then T1T2 is given by

A) (L1L2)2/3
B) L1L2

C) L2L1

D) (L2L1)2/3

Answer : D

Solution : T1V1γ−1=T2V2γ−1

⇒T1T2=(V2V1)γ−1=(L2AL1A)53−1=(L2L1)23

Question : 39

If Cv for ideal gas is given by CV=(3+2T), where ‘T’ is the absolute temperature of the gas, then the
equation of adiabatic process for the gas is

A) VT2=Const

B) VT2e2T=Const

C) VT3e−2T=const

D) VT3e2T=const

Answer : D

Solution : Cv=3+2T,   dQ=dU+dW,      dQ=0

dU=−dW⇒nCVdT=−PdV

n(3+2T)dT=−nRTVdV

⇒(3+2T)dT=−RTVdV

∫0T1R(3T+2)dT=∫0V−dVV

1R(3lnT+2T)=−lnV+C

3RlnT+2RT+lnV=C

logeT3/R+logee2T/R+logeV=c
logeT3/Re2T/RV=c

(T3/Re2T/RV)R=CR

VT3e2T=C

Question : 40

A gas is expanded from volume Vo to 2Vo under three different processes. Process 1 is isobaric
process, Process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let ΔU1, ΔU2 and ΔU3 be the change in
internal energy of the gas in these three processes; then

A) ΔU1>ΔU2>ΔU3

B) ΔU1<ΔU2<ΔU3

C) ΔU2<ΔU1<ΔU3

D) ΔU2<ΔU3<ΔU1

Answer : A

Solution : Process 2 is an isothermal process .HenceΔU2=0

Process 1 is an isobathic (p =constant) expansion

Hence, temperature of the gas will increases ΔU1=+ve

Process 3 is an adiabatic expansion. Hence temperature

Will decrease ΔU3=−Ve

Hence ΔU1>ΔU2>ΔU3

Question : 41

One mole of an ideal gas at temperature T1 expands according to the law PV=const. Find work done
if the final temperature becomes T2.
A) R(T1−T2)

B) R2(T2−T1)

C) R4(T2−T1)

D) PV(T2−T1)

Answer : B

Solution : pv=k⇒w=∫pdv=∫v1v2kvdv

⇒w=k(v22−v122)

=i.e p2=kv2,   p1=kv1 ,w=k(p2v2−p1v12)=R2(T2−T1)

Question : 42

A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure ‘P’ and volume ‘V’ are related as VPn=const. The
bulk modulus of the gas in this process is

A) ηP

B) P1n

C) Pn

D) Pn

Answer : C

Solution : VPn=K⇒ddV(VPn)=0

VddV(Pn)+PnddV(V)=0

VddP(Pn)dPdV+Pn=0

Vn(Pn−1)dPdV+Pn=0

Pn−1(VndPdV+P)=0

VndPdV=−P⇒−V(dPdV)=Pn
Question : 43

In the cyclic process shown on the P−V diagram, the magnitude of the work done equal to

A) π(P1-P22)2

B) π(V2-V12)2

C) π4(P2−P1)(V2−V1)

D) π(P2V2−P1V1)

Answer : C

Solution : W=PV=Area=πr2=πr1r2

W=πd12d22=π4(P2−P1)(V2−V1)

Question : 44

An engine has an efficiency of 16. When temperature of sink is reduced by 62oC, its efficiency is
doubled. Temperature of the source is

A) 37oC

B) 62oC

C) 99oC

D) 124oC

Answer : C

Solution : η=1−T2T1=16     ⇒2η=1−(T2−62T1)

2η=1−T2T1+62T1⇒2η=η+62T1

2η−η=62T1⇒η=62T1

16=62T1⇒T1=372K

T1=372−273=990C
Question : 45

A diatomic ideal gas is used in a car engine as the working substance. If during the adiabatic
expansion part of the cycle, volume of the gas increases from V to 32V, efficiency of the engine is

A) 0.5

B) 0.75

C) 0.99

D) 0.25

Answer : B

Solution : T1V1γ−1=T2V2γ−1⇒T1V75−1=T2(32V)75−1

T1=4T2,   η=1−T2T1=1−T24T2

  η=1−14=34=0.75

Question : 46

A system absorbs 100 kJof heat and does 40 kJof work. The internal energy of the system

A) decreases by 60 kJ

B) increases by 140 kJ

C) increases by 60 kJ

D) increases by 60 kJ

Your Answer : A

Answer : C

Solution : ΔE =  q+W

q = heat absorbed

q = +100

W =−40 KJ

ΔE = 100–40=60 KJ
ΔE =  +ve ∴ increases by 60 kJ

Question : 47

Among heat capacity (A), PH(B), EMF of the cell (C),volume (D),density (E),the intensive properties
are

A) B, C, E

B) A, B, D

C) B, C, D

D) Only A

Your Answer : A

Answer : A

Solution : Intensive properties does not depend on amount of matter

Question : 48

Which of the following reactions take place at constant pressure represent surroundings that do
work on the system environment

A) NH4Cl(s)→NH3(g) + HCl(g) 

B) 2NH3(g)→  N2(g)+ 3H2(g)

C) 4NH3(g)+7O2(g)→  4NO2(g)+ 6H2O(g)

D) Both (A) and (B)

Answer : C

Solution : Surrounding to system,

Δ n(g)=  -ve

opt(1) Δn= 2 = +ve

opt(2) Δn = 4−2 = +ve

opt(3) = 10 – 11=−ve
Question : 49

Under which of the following condition ΔH = ΔE

A) When a process is carried out in a closed vessel

B) When reaction involves only solids and liquids

C) When Δn(g)=0

D) all of these

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : closed vessel P.ΔV= 0

For solids, liquids as products and reactantsΔn = 0

Question : 50

1215 J amount of heat is required to raise in temperature of 13.5 gr Al from T1(K)to T2(K).The
specific heat of Al is 0.9 J. K−1. gr−1 then the raise in temperature is

A) 10  K

B) 1000 K

C) 1 K

D) 100 K

Answer : D

Solution : specific heat = qmdT

dT = qm(S.H)=12150.9 × 13.5=100

Question : 51

A. H2O(s)→H2O(l)  ΔH=6.0KJ/mole is known as heat of _______ of ice

B.H2O(l)→H2O(g)  ΔH=  40.7KJ/mole  is known as heat of _____ Water. The correct option regarding

statements A and B respectively is

A) Fusion, vapourisation

B) Vapourisation, Fusion
C) Fusion, freezing

D) Vapourisation, condensation

Your Answer : A

Answer : A

Solution : A is melting of ice ∴ Fusion

B is Vapourisation of water

Question : 52

From the standard enthalpies of formation values some compounds given in brackets, predict the
stable compound (ΔHf0  is  in  kJ/mole)

A) Propane (ΔHf0 = −103.8)

B) n – Butane (ΔHf0 = −124.7)

C) n - Hexane(ΔHf0 = −167.2)

D) n – Octane (ΔHf0 = −208.4)

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : more – ve ΔHf0more is stability

Question : 53

The lattice enthalpy of NaCl given by the equation NaCl(s)→Na(g)+ + Cl(g)-is 788 KJ / mole. The
energy released during the hydration of one mole NaCl(s)is 784 KJ / mol and ΔS at 27∘C = 40
J.K−1mol−1From the above data calculate Gibbs energy change on dissolving one mole of sodium
Chloride at 27∘C

A) 4040 J/mol

B) –8000 J/mol

C) 800 J/mol

D) – 4040 J/mol

Answer : B

Solution : ΔHsoln= LE+HE

= 788 – 784 = +4 KJ/mol

= 4000 J

ΔS = 40J.k-1 mol-1

ΔG = ΔH-T  ΔS=  4000  - (300 ×  40)

= 4000 – 12000

=−8000 J / mol

Question : 54

Which one of the following statement does not correspond to the second law of thermodynamics?

A) The entropy of any pure crystalline substance approaches zero as the temperature approaches
absolute zero

B) All spontaneous process are thermodynamically irreversible and entropy of the system increases
in all spontaneous process

C) It is not possible to construct perceptual motion machine of second kind which transfers heat
from lower temperature to higher temperature on its own

D) Heat cannot how from a colder body to a hotter body on its own

Answer : A

Solution : this statement is based on 3rd law of thermodynamics

Question : 55

Heat of formation of water =−68 Kcal

Heat of combustion of acetylene =−310.6 Kcal

Heat of combustion of ethylene =−337.2 K cal

Then calculate heat of reaction at constant volume at 27∘C for hydrogenation of acetylene

A) + 41 K.cal
B) – 41 K.cal

C) – 82 K.cal

D) + 82 K.cal

Answer : B

Solution : H2+12O2 → 1 . H2O,  ΔH1 = −68 k cal

C2 H2+ 52O2 → 2CO2 + H2O ΔH2= - 310 . 6 k cal

C2 H4+ 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O    ΔH2= - 337 . 2 k cal

Required equation is

C2H2+H2(g)→ C2H4(g) ΔH = ?

ΔH =  ΔH1+ΔH2-ΔH3

=−68 – 310.6 + 337.2 =−41.6

Δn = 1-2=-1

ΔH = ΔE + Δn  RT

−41.6 =ΔE − 2×10−3×300

− 41.6=ΔE−0.6

ΔE =−41

Question : 56

If the heat of dissolution of anhydrous CuSO4 and CuSO4. 5H2Orespectively are −15.9 K.cal and 2.8 K
. cal, then the heat of hydration of CuSO4 to form CuSO4.5H2Ois
A) +18.8 K.cal

B) – 18.7 K.cal

C) +13.1 K.cal

D) – 13.1 K.cal

Answer : B

Solution : ΔH required =−15.9 – 2.8

=−18.7 k.cal

Question : 57

Ten moles of ideal gas expand isothermally and reversibly at 1000 K to 10 times its original volume.
Then q, w,ΔU respectively are

(R = 8.3J.mol-1k-1)

A) +191.15  kJ, −191.15 kJ, zero

B) −191.15  kJ, + 191.15  kJ, zero

C) + 191.15  kJ, −191.15  kJ, 382.3 kJ

D) +191.15  kJ, zero, zero

Answer : A

Solution : For isothermal reversible, ΔU = 0

ΔU  = q + w ∴  W = −q

W =−2.303 nRT logV2V1

=−2.303×10×8.3×10−3×103×log10

= −191.15 KJ

Q = + 191.15 KJ

Question : 58
A gas cylinder is assumed to contain 11.6 kgof butane. If a normal family needs 20 ×103KJ of energy
per day for cooking, calculate number days the cylinder can be used. Given that the heat of
combustion of butane is 2700  KJ / mol

A) 30

B) 27

C) 100

D) 20

Answer : B

Solution : GMW of C4H10= 58Gr – 2700 KJ

= 11.6 ×10 gr _______ ?

= 2700  ×  11.6  ×  100058=54 ×104

20 ×103KJ ________ 1 day

54×104___________ ? =54 × 10420 × 103

=54 2=27

Question : 59

HCl+ KOH→KCl+ H2O,ΔH=−57.3 KJ . Then calculate amount of heat released when 100 cc of 0.2M Hcl
is neutralized with 200 cc of 0.2 M KOH

A) 1.14 J

B) 0.57 KJ

C) 1.14 KJ

D) 0.57 J

Answer : C

Solution : HCl, no. of equivalents

= 100 × 0.21000= 2 × 10-2
KOH, no. of equivalents

= 200 × 0.21000

= 4 x 10-21 gr.Equivalent _______ 57.3 KJ

2 x 10-2______________ ?

= 57. 3  × 21000=1.146

Question : 60

For which of the following process is ΔS negative

A) H2(g)→2H(g)

B) N2(g)(1atm)→N2(g)(5atm)

C) C(diamond)→  C(graphite)

D) 2SO3(g)→ 2SO2(g) +   O2(g)

Answer : B

Solution : In option 2, pressure increases hence Entropy decreases

Question : 61

C(s)+ O2(g)→ CO2(g) ΔH=−94 K. cal/mol,

H2(g)+12O2(g)→ H2(g)O  ΔH =−68 K.cal/mol

C2H5OH(l)+3O2(g)→2CO2(g)+3H2O(l),

ΔH =− 327K.cal.

Then the heat of formation of ethylalcohol is

A) 65 k.cal / mol
B) −65 k.cal/mol

C) 130 k.cal / mol

D) −145k.cal/mol

Answer : B

Solution : C + O2→ CO2 ΔH1= -94

H2+12O2→ H2O  ΔH2=-68

C2H5OH+52 O2 → 2CO2+3H2O  ΔH3=-372

Required equation is

2C + 3H2+12O2 → C2H5OH,   ΔH= ?

ΔH =2ΔH1 + 3ΔH2-ΔH3

= 2(−94) + 3(68) + 327

=−188 – 204 + 327

=−65

Question : 62

Calculate entropy change when 10 moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermalby from
an initial volume of 10 litre to 100 litre at 300 k

A) 191.47 KJ.K-1

B) 191.47 J.K-1

C) 2.303 KJ.K-1

D) 2.303 J.K-1

Answer : B

Solution : ΔS= 2.303  nR   log V2V1
= 2.303×10 × 8.3 × log10010

= 191.47 J

Question : 63

For the reaction X2O(s)→2X(s)+ 12O2(g)ΔH  = 30 KJ/mol and ΔS  = 60 J.K-1  mol-1,Then select the

correct option

A) at T = 500K, ΔG=0

B) above 500 K,ΔG will be negative and process is spontaneous

C) below 500 K, ΔG will be positive and reverse process takes place

D) all the above are correct

Answer : D

Solution : ΔS=ΔHT

T= ΔHΔS=30 × 100060=500K

If  T is > 500 K,  ΔG = −ve

If T is < 500K, T is < 500 K, ΔG = +ve

Question : 64

Bond dissociation enthalpies of H2(g) and N2(g)are 436 KJ/ mole and 942 KJ / mole respectively. The
enthalpy of formation of NH3(g)is – 46 KJ/mol.Then the average Bond enthalpy of N−H Bond and
enthalpy of atomization of NH3 respectively are

A) 390.33 KJ/mol, 1170.99  KJ/mol

B) 390.33 KJ / mol, 390. 33  KJ/mol

C) 1170.99 KJ/mol,1170.99  KJ/mol

D) 1170.99 KJ/mol, 390.33 KJ/mol

Answer : A

Solution : 12N2+32H2→ NH3  ΔH=-46

= 46 = B.E(R) – B.E(P)
- 46 = [BE(N2)2+3 × BE(H2)2] - 3 × BEN-H

-46=9422+3 × 4362-3BEN-H

BEN-H=11713=390.33

Atomization is = 390.33 x 3

= 1170.99.

Question : 65

Consider the following

A : For the reaction of one mole zn dust with one mole H2SO4 in a bomb calorimeter ΔU  < 0 and w =
0.

B : For the reaction 2H(g)→ H2(g)the sign of ΔH  = −ve and ΔS  = −ve

C : The standard molar enthalpies of formation (ΔfH0)at 298 K for Br2(l)  Cl2(g), graphite are taken as
zero.

D : The relation between ionization enthalpy (ΔrH0) and ionization energy (E0) is given asΔrH0 = E0  
+ 52 RT

Correct statement are

A) All A, B, C, D are correct

B) Only A and B

C) Only C

D) Only D

Answer : A
Solution : A: In a bomb calorimeter heat is released at constant volume

∴   ΔV=0,    ∴  W=  0    and   ΔU<0

B : 2H → H2 is bond formation

∴ ExothermicΔH = -ve. The no. of moles of products is less than reactants thence ΔS= -ve

C : Br2(l), Cl2(q) are in their standard states

D : ΔH0and E0 differ by 52RT

Question : 66

For a process to be spontaneous

A) (ΔGsystem)T,  P=  0

B) (ΔGsystem)T,  P<  0

C) ΔSsystem + ΔSsurr >  0

D) Both (A) and (B)

Answer : D

Solution : For spontaneous ΔG <  0,   ΔSTotal >0

Question : 67

C(s)+O2(g) → CO2(g)+  x  KJ

CO(g)+12O2(g) →CO2(g)+  y  KJ

From these reactions, the heat of formation of CO(g)is

A) −(x + y)

B) (x – y)

C) y – x

D) x + y
Answer : C

Solution : C + O2 → CO2   ΔH1= -x

CO+  12O2  → CO2    ΔH2=-y

Required is C+  12O2  → CO    ΔH=  ?

ΔH=ΔH1-ΔH2= -x-(-y)= y-x

Question : 68

1 gram of graphite is burnt in a bomb calorimeter in excess of oxygen at 298 K and l atm pressure.
During the reaction, temperature rises from 298 K to 299 K. If the heat capacity of bomb calorimeter
is 20.7 KJ/K what is the enthalpy change for the above reaction at 298 K and l atm

A) – 2.48×102 KJ mol−1

B) – 4.5 ×102KH mol−1

C) + 2.48×102KJ mol−1

D) + 5.64 ×102KJ mol−1

Answer : A

Solution : ΔU= - z × θ  × at .wtwt . given= -20.7 × 1 × 121

= −248.4 KJmol−1

Question : 69

Chemical ‘A’is used to remove temporary hardness of water. ‘A’ reacts with sodium carbonate to
generate caustic soda. On bubbling CO2 through solution of ‘A’milkiness is observed. The chemical
formula of ‘A’is

A) CaCO3

B) CaO

C) Ca(OH)2

D) Ca (HCO3)2

Answer : C

Solution : Ca(OH)2+Na2CO3→ NaOH+Ca  CO3
Ca(OH)2+ CO2→ CaCO3+H2O

Question : 70

When zeolite (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate) is treated with hard water, the sodium ions are
exchange with

A) H+ions

B) Ca+2ions

C)  SO4-2 ions

D) OH-ions

Answer : B

Solution : Na2Al2Si2O8. x H2O + Ca+2(H2O) Ca A2Si2O8. x H2O + 2Na+(H2O)

Question : 71

When hydrolith is treated with water, it yields________

A) H2

B) H2O2

C) N2

D) NaOH

Answer : A

Solution : CaH2+ H2O→Ca (OH)2+ H2

(Hydrolith)

Question : 72

Which of the following is not used as stabilizer for the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide?

A) Glycerol

B) Acetanilide

C) Sodium stannate

D) Finely divided metals

Answer : D
Solution : Finely divided method

Question : 73

Volume of oxygen liberated at STP on complete decomposition of 400 ml of 4M H2O2 is ___

A) 17.92 lit

B) 179.2 lit

C) 1.792 lit

D) 22.4 lit

Answer : A

Solution : Volume strength of H2O2= 4×11.2 = 44.8

Vol. of O2 liberated = Vol of H2O2x Vol strength

= 400 x 44.8

= 17.92 lit.

Question : 74

Perhydrol is ______

A) 30 % H2O2  solution

B) 30 volume H2O2

C) 100 volume H2O2

D) Both A & C

Answer : D

Solution : 30% (or) 100volumes of H2O2 solution.

Question : 75

Statement I : Pure hydrogen peroxide is a weak acid.

Statement II : Aqueous solution of H2O2 turns blue litmus to red

A) Statements I is correct, but II is incorrect

B) Statements I is in correct but II is correct

C) Both I & II statements are correct

D) Both I & II statements are in correct

Answer : A

Solution : H2O2 is a weak dibasic acid

Question : 76

Which of the following is not an oxidizing property of H2O2?

A) Pbs + 4H2O2→PbSO4+ 4H2O

B) H2S + H2O2 →H2O + S

C) 2KMnO4+ 3H2O2→2MnO2+2 KOH + 2H2O + 3O2

D) 2KI + H2SO4+ H2O2→K2SO4+ I2+ H2O

Answer : C

Solution : 2KMnO4+ 3H2O2→2MnO2+ 2KOH +

2H2O + 3O2. It is an example for reducing property

Question : 77

The correct statement is

A) Viscosity of H2O is greater than D2O

B) Boiling point of H2O is less than D2O

C) Dielectric const of H2O is less than D2O

D) Ionic product of H2O is less than D2O

Answer : B

Solution : B.P of  H2O is 1000CB.P of  D2O is 101.40C

Question : 78

Which of the following is an example of Interstitial water

A) CuSO4. 5H2O

B) CrCl3. CH2O

C) BaCl2. 2H2O
D) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3

Answer : C

Solution : BaCl2. 2H2Ointerstitial water

Question : 79

The incorrect match among the following is

A) C2H6–electron precise compound

B) VH0.56–non – stoichiometric hydride

C) CaH2– Saline hydride

D) B2H6– electron rich hydride

Answer : D

Solution : Because of short of 2e−,B2H6 is an electron

Deficient compound

Question : 80

At room temperature a sample of ordinary hydrogen contains

A) 50% para and 50% ortho hydrogen

B) 75% ortho and 25% para hydrogen

C) 75% para and 25% ortho hydrogen

D) Only ortho hydrogen (100%)

Answer : B

Solution : At room T, 75%ortho and 25% Para

Question : 81

Which kind of isomerism is exhibited by octahedral complex [Pt(NH3)4Br2]Cl2?

A) Geometrical and ionization

B) Geometrical and optical

C) Optical and ionization

D) Geometrical only

Answer : A
Solution : Ma4b2 type of complexes exhibit geometrical isomerism, and this complex can also exhibit
ionization isomerism because of exchanging of Br−and Cl−ions

Question : 82

The type of isomerism present in nitropenta ammine chromium (III) Chloride is

A) Optical

B) Linkage

C) Co – ordination position

D) Polymerisation

Answer : B

Solution : [Cr (NH3)5NO2]Cl2

NO2  and ONO are ambidenateligands.

Question : 83

SO4

are.

A) Coordination isomers

B) Linkage isomers

C) Polymerisation isomers

D) Coordination positional isomerism

Answer : D

Solution : Complex I is unsymmetrical and complex II is symmetrical Complex II is obtained by

Changing the position of ligands between two metals

Question : 84

The complex [Co (NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6]and

[Cr (NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]are the examples of which type of isomerism ?

A) Linkage isomerism

B) Ionisation isomerism
C) Coordination isomerism

D) Geometrical isomerism

Answer : C

Solution : Co-ordination isomers are obtained by the Exchange of metals are ligands between
complex cation and anion

Question : 85

Which of the following complex exhibits fac and mer isomerism

A) [Cr(en)2Cl2]Cl

B) [Ni(CO)4]

C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

D) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]

Answer : D

Solution : Ma3b3 type of complexes exhibit fac and mer isomerism

Question : 86

Which of the following complex will exhibit ionization, hydration and Geometrical isomerism?

A) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3

B) [Pt(H2O)4Br2] Cl2

C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Br

D) [Ni (NH3)4Cl2]SO4

Answer : B

Solution : [Pt (H2O)4Cl2]Br2 ionization

[Pt(H2O)3Br2Cl]Cl.H2O Hydrate

Geometrical

Question : 87

The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+is due to
A) Ionisation isomerism

B) Linkage isomerism

C) Geometrical isomerism

D) Coordination isomerism

Answer : C

Solution : [Co (NH3)4Cl2]+exhibits only geometrical

Question : 88

In which reaction, hydrogen peroxide neither acts as oxidizing agent nor reducing agent?

A) Na2CO3+ H2O2

B) Pbs + H2O2

C) Cr2O7-2+ H++H2O2

D) SO3-2+ H2O2

Answer : A

Solution : Since H2O2 is an acid it reacts with Na2CO3 and liberates CO2.

Question : 89

Which of the following alkaline earth metal compound causes temporary hardness to the water

A) CaCO3

B) Mg(H CO3)2

C) CaSO4

D) MgCl2

Answer : B

Solution : Mg (HCO3)2Bicarbonates of Mg+2and Ca+2possess temporary hardness of water

Question : 90

Which of the following is a true peroxide

A) SO2

B) NO2

C) MnO2
D) BaO2

Answer : D

Solution : BaO2 In peroxides oxygen exhibits ‘-1’oxidation state

Question : 91

Meristems are called

A) Ground tissue

B) Fundamental tissue

C) Formative/totipotent tissue

D) Dead tissue

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Meristems - They are ultimate source of all the cells in a plant. They are found in apex of
root, stems. Branches, buds bases of leaves lateral sides of stems and roots. They continously
undergo cell division to produce new cells. Thus are the ultimate source of all cells in a plant body

Question : 92

“This tissue is never seen in roots and dicots”. What is it ?

A) Collenchyma

B) Lateral meristems

C) Intercalary meristems

D) Axillary bud

Your Answer : A

Answer : C

Solution : Intercalary meristem - They re found between permanent tissues and intermodes actually
the parts of apical meristem. They are respective for primary growth of the stem tip or leaf is turn
off, intercalary meristem reform the structure of the plant. (Grasess are removed by grazing
herbivorous)

Question : 93

Vascular bundles in dicot stem are

A) Alternate, radial and closed

B) Collateral, conjoint and open

C) Alternate, radial and open

D) Bicollateral, conjoint and open

Answer : B

Solution : Conjoint, collateral, open V.B. are seen in dicot stem conjoint - xylem & phloem combine
in same bundle & on same radii

Collateral - xylem is innerside, phloem is towards outside

Open - vascular bundle with cambium between xylem & phloem

Question : 94

Lateral meristems are seen in all except

A) Trees

B) Shrubs

C) Gymnosperms

D) Grasses

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : Grasses (Monocot) - does not have lateral or radial meristem. Hence they do

not show secondary growth.

Vascular bundle are conjoint, collateral & closed (without cambium)

Question : 95

Apical meristem produces the following tissue during the formation of a primary plant body

A) Ground tissues

B) Dermal tissues

C) Vascular tissues

D) All the above

Answer : D
Solution : Apical or terminal meristem - found at the apex of shoot, branches & roots of vascular
plants. they divide to cause linear / primary growth (increase in length). It produces 3 types of
primary meristems i.e., Dermal, Vascular & ground tissues.

Question : 96

Pick the incorrect match

A) Collenchyma – Elasticity

B) Sclerenchyma – Rigidity

C) Parenchyma – Turgor

D) Xylem – Conduction of organic solutes

Answer : D

Solution : Xylem - conducts water & mineral salts.

Whereas phloem conducts organic solutes

Question : 97

Storage parenchyma is present in all except

A) Potato tuber

B) Succulent plant parts

C) Cereal grains

D) Cotton fibre

Answer : D

Solution : Potato tuber, succulent plant parts, cereals, grains are all examples of storage
parenchyma, where as cotton fibre is sclerenchymatous fibres rich in cellulose

Question : 98

Katherine Esau contribution in plant anatomy is

A) Bacteria (curly top resistance) in sugar beet

B) Virus resistant (curly top) in sugar beet

C) Blight in potato

D) Rust in wheat

Your Answer : A
Answer : B

Solution : Dr. K. Esau, reported that only top virus spreads through food conducting tissue or phloem
tissue

Question : 99

Which one of the following exhibit secondary growth ?

A) Dicot stem

B) Monocot stem

C) Dicot leaf

D) Monocot leaf

Your Answer : A

Answer : A

Solution : Dicot stem - as vascular bundle, collateral, open (with cambium between xylem & phloem)

Question : 100

Tissue is made up of

A) Living cells

B) Dead cells

C) Dividing cells

D) All

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : Tissue is a group of cells, having common origin, development & functions. The cells may
be similar type. (ex. Simple tissue) or dissimilar type or complex tissue)

Question : 101

Tracheids are seen in all except

A) Grasses

B) Ferns

C) Cycads

D) Mosses

Your Answer : D
Answer : D

Solution : Mosses - are Bryophytes without vascular tissues

Question : 102

Character unrelated to bulliform cells is

A) Minimise water loss

B) Perform photosynthesis

C) Present in adaxial surface

D) Empty, colourless cells

Your Answer : B

Answer : B

Solution : Bulliform cells are, large empty colorless (nongreen) cells present on adaxial epidermal
cells of monocot leaf. As they are non green (colorless) does not perform photosynthesis

Question : 103

Which simple tissue cannot dedifferentiate ?

A) Parenchyma

B) Collenchyma

C) Sclerenchyma

D) Xylem

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Sclerenchyma are dead tissue, they cannot dedifferentiate

Question : 104

Protoxylem and metaxylem differentiation is absent in

A) Primary root

B) Primary stem

C) Primary leaf

D) Woody stem

Your Answer : D
Answer : D

Solution : Protoxylem & Metaxylem differentiation is seen in primary growth of a plant body woody
stem shows secondary growth

Question : 105

Protective layer, uniseriate and parenchymatous tissue are the characters of __________ in the
anatomy of stem and leaf

A) Pith

B) Cortex

C) Epidermis

D) Pericycle

Answer : C

Solution : Epidermis is the outermost layer of plant body made up of elongated, compactly among
cells usually single layer and protecture is function

Question : 106

Thickened corners, vacuolated protoplast and hypodermal location are the characteristic features of

A) Meristems

B) Parenchyma

C) Collenchyma

D) Sclerenchyma

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Collenchyma occurs in layers below epidermis in dictor plants where the cell come are
thickened due to deposition of cellulose, hemicelluloses and pectin

Question : 107

Large number of scattered vascular bundles are present in

A) Stele of dicot stem

B) Cortex of monocot stem

C) Cortex of dicot stem

D) Ground tissue of monocot stem

Answer : D

Solution : Large number of scattered vascular bundles are seen in monocot stem, closed conjoint
collateral and scattered in ground tissue

Question : 108

Thick walled, elongated dead cells of simple tissue with pointed ends that provide mechanical
support are

A) Tracheids

B) Parenchyma

C) Fibres

D) Sclereids

Your Answer : A

Answer : C

Solution : Fibres are long, narrows unbranched with tapering ends with small oblique pits without
intercellular spaces, provide strength and hardness fibres and sclereids are 2 types of cells of
sclerenchma

Question : 109

Which cells of xylem possess thin cellulosic walls with living protoplasts?

A) Tracheids

B) Vessels

C) Xylem parenchyma

D) Xylem fibres

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Xylem parenchyma are the only lining cells of xylem, that posses, thin cellulosic walls with
lining protoplast

Question : 110

Arrange the following structures from periphery to centre in dicot stem

I) Endodermis

II) Hypodermis
III) Pericycle

IV) Epidermis

A) IV, II, I, III

B) III, I, IV, II

C) III, I, II, IV

D) IV, II, III, I

Your Answer : D

Answer : A

Solution : Reticulative venation is seen in dicot leaves the size of vascular bundles dependent on the
size of veins. They may in thickness in reticulate venation main vein in monocots are more thick,
hence the size differ

Question : 111

Statement – I : Veins vary in thickness in reticulate venation and are

irregularly distributed on leaf lamina

Statement – II : The vascular bundles in monocot leaf are arranged parallely

and they are of similar size except in main vein

A) Statement-I and Statement-II are true

B) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

C) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

D) Statement-I and Statement-II are false

Answer : A

Solution : Conceptual

Question : 112

Girdling experiments are performed only in dicots (but not monocots) due to
A) Scattered vascular bundles

B) Presence of cambium

C) Ring like arrangement of vascular bundles

D) Absence of cambium

Your Answer : B

Answer : C

Solution : In dicot stem V.B are arranged in a ring.

The stele is eustele, In monocot stem V.B. are scattered in ground tissue

Question : 113

All four types of xylem elements are present in

A) Ferns

B) Cycads

C) Flowering plants

D) Mosses

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Flowering plants are angiosperms which have well develop xylem and phloem tissues ferns
cycads have xylem trachuds, vessels, companion cells, parenchyma are absent. Bryophytes without
vascular tissues

Question : 114

Most distinct feature of all monocot leaves is the presence of

A) Bulliform cells

B) Differentiated mesophyll cells

C) Undifferentiated mesophyll cells

D) Parenchymatous epidermis

Answer : C

Solution : Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma. In grasses, certain
adaxial epidermal cells along the veins shows bulliform all

Question : 115
Untrue regarding companion cells ?

A) Large parenchyma cells

B) Maintain pressure gradient in sieve tubes

C) They are present lateral to sieve tube with pit fields

D) They are present in all tracheophytes

Answer : D

Solution : Comapnion cells are present only in Angiosperm, but absent in ptendophytes and
gymnosperms

Question : 116

The ground tissue system of leaves

A) Xylem

B) Epidermis

C) Mesophyll

D) Cortex

Answer : C

Solution : Mesophyll is ground tissue consists of this walled cells with chloroplant made up of
parenchyma cells

Question : 117

Secondary growth is observed in all except

A) Herbs

B) Shrubs

C) Trees

D) Lianes

Answer : A

Solution : Herbs are mostly monocots that have very short life span they grow as long as water is
available. Hence they do not show secondary growth

Question : 118

What is a distinct character of collenchyma ?

A) Green colour

B) Homogenous / patches

C) Hypodermal

D) Uneven cell wall thickenings

Answer : D

Solution : Collenchyma is only simple tissue which have un even cell wall thickening intercellular
spaces are absent, meant to give flexibility and elasticity

Question : 119

S1 : Cambial ring produce annual ring

S2 : Annual ring produce cambial ring

A) Statement-I and Statement-II are true

B) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

C) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

D) Statement-I and Statement-II are false

Answer : B

Solution : Combial ring is formed by intrafasicular cambium & interfasicular combium which forms a
con tinuous ring of vascular cambium. They become active & begin to cut off new cells forming
secondary xylem & secondary phloem. In temperate regions cambium is more active in spring
season rather than autumn. They together form annual rings. Hence annual rings are produced from
cambial ring

Question : 120

Root hairs are

A) Uniseriate and exogenous

B) Unicellular and exogenous

C) Uniseriate and endogenous

D) Unicellular and endogenous

Answer : B

Solution : Root hairs are epidermal appendages which are unicellular exogenous help in absorption
of water from soil pores

Question : 121
is wood ?

A) Dead tissue derived from vascular cambium

B) Living tissue derived from vascular cambium

C) Dead tissue derived from cork cambium

D) All tissues derived from both vascular cambium and cork cambium

Answer : A

Solution : Wood is another name from secondary xylem which is dead tissue derived from vascular
cambium

Question : 122

Annual ring represents

A) Secondary xylem and secondary phloem produced in one year

B) Secondary xylem produced in one year

C) Secondary phloem produced in one year

D) Bark produced in one year

Answer : B

Solution : Annual rings include spring wood (early wood) and autumn wood (late wood), i.e.,
Secondary xylem produced during favourable season (spring) & unfavourable season (Autumn) of
one year

Question : 123

Heartwood differs from sapwood in

A) Presence of rays and fibres

B) Absence of vessels and parenchyma

C) Having dead and non-conducting elements

D) Being susceptible to pests and pathogens

Answer : C

Solution : Heart wood (Duramen) is central or inner most layer of secondary xylem of a woody stem
i.e., is Dark Brown & dead, lignified cells which does not conduct (Alburnum) is peripheral region of
sec xy light in color, active in conduction

Question : 124

Which cells are suberised ?

A) Wood

B) Cork

C) Bast

D) Bark

Answer : B

Solution : Cork (phellom) produced by cork cambium towards periphery are suberised cells,
impermeable to water & gases, dead cells.

Question : 125

Epidermis of stem does not possess

A) Cuticle

B) Stomata

C) Trichomes

D) Root hairs

Answer : D

Solution : Epidermis of stem does not posses root hairs. Root hairs are formed in root epidermis out
growth of root epidermis

Question : 126

Which among the following is not a phloem fiber ?

A) Jute (Corchorus)

B) Flax (Linum)

C) Hemp (Cannabis)

D) Coir (Cocos)

Answer : D

Solution : Coir is mesocarp of coconut

Question : 127

Sclereids are found in all except

A) Fruit pulp of guava, pear and sapota

B) Seed coat of legumes

C) Leaves of tea

D) Pericycle of dicot stem

Answer : D

Solution : Pericycle of dicot stem is made up of sclerencyma cells

Question : 128

Which cambium is completely secondary in origin ?

A) Vascular cambium of stem

B) Vascular cambium of root

C) Cork cambium of root and stem

D) Both (B) and (C)

Answer : D

Solution : Both vascular cambium and cork cambium of root and stem are formed during secondary
growth

Question : 129

Vascular bundles surrounded by sclerenchymatous sheath are present in

A) Dicot stem

B) Monocot stem

C) Monocot leaf

D) Dicot leaf

Answer : B

Solution : V.B. of monocot stem are surrounded by schelerencymatous bundle sheath to give
protectionto inner xylem and phloem as there is no pericycle, endodermis in monocot stem

Question : 130

Anatomy of dicot stem possess mechanical tissues in all regions except

A) Hypodermis

B) Pericycle

C) Vascular tissues

D) Epidermis

Answer : D
Solution : Epidermis of dicot stem is parenchymatous to give protection, Hypodermis is
collenchymatous pericycle is sclerenchymatous, vascular tissue have fibre to give mechanical
support

Question : 131

All are dead except

A) Heart wood

B) Sap wood

C) Cork

D) Secondary cortex

Answer : D

Solution : Secondary cortex is parenchymatous cells which are living cells

Question : 132

Which one is obligatory to the cells in a tissue?

A) Common origin

B) Common function

C) Common shape

D) Common size

Answer : A

Solution : Group of cells together form tissues both have common origin

Question : 133

Monocot root resemble dicot root in the presence of

A) Many vascular bundles

B) Well developed medulla

C) Absence of secondary growth

D) Radial vascular bundles

Answer : D

Solution : Radial V.B. – V.B are arranged in alternate manner on different radii in all roots

Question : 134

The autotrophic cells generally present in stomatal apparatus are

A) Subsidiary cells

B) Guard cells

C) Accessory cell

D) Transfer cells

Answer : B

Solution : Guard cells are autotrophic as they have chloroplast

Question : 135

Protoxylem lacuna storing water (lysigenous cavity) is present in vascular bundle of

A) Dicot root

B) Monocot root

C) Monocot stem

D) Dicot stem

Answer : C

Solution : Protoxylem lacuna are formed by fusion of protoxylem elements that become large water
containing cavities seen in monocot stem

Question : 136

Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called

A) Stratification

B) Eutrophication

C) Fragmentation

D) Mineralization

Your Answer : A

Answer : A

Solution : Veritcal distribution of different speices present at different levels of ecosystem called
straitification:- Ex : Trees occupy top vertical layer of forest, shrubs in second layer and grasses
occupy bottom layer of forest

Question : 137

Which of the following is not an example of terrestrial ecosystem?

A) Forest

B) Grassland

C) Wetland

D) Desert

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Pond, lake, river, estuary and wetland are examples of aquatic ecosystem

Question : 138

In any given ecosystem, the flow of energy is

A) Sometimes unidirectional and sometimes bidirectional

B) Always bidirectional

C) Always unidirectional

D) Cannot be assessed

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Solar energy flow always unidirectional from Sun to producers

Question : 139

Which of the following is referred to as ‘’chemosynthesis powered ‘’ ecosystem?

A) Grass land ecosystem

B) Deep sea ecosystem

C) Intertidal ecosystem

D) Forest ecosystem

Your Answer : B

Answer : B

Solution : Sun is not the source of energy in deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem. Chaemoautotrophs
servive in deepsea

Question : 140

According to the thermodynamics, the amount of heat energy lost or not available for work in a
system is called
A) Standing crop

B) Standing state

C) Catabolism

D) Entropy

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : Energy dispersed in the form of unavailable heat energy constitutes the entropy

Question : 141

The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbits in a grassland is called

A) Net primary productivity

B) Gross primary productivity

C) Secondary productivity

D) None of the above

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers

Question : 142

If amount of energy utilized by plants for their respiration is 150 kJ. Then find out the energy in a
primary carnivore (note: plants use 25% of GPP for their respiration)

A) 4.5 KJ

B) 0.04 KJ

C) 45KJ

D) 0.45KJ

Answer : A

Solution : Energy used by plants

for respiration is = 150 kJ(25% of GPP)

GPP = 150 x 4 = 600 kJ

NPP = GPP – energy for respiration

= 600 – 150 = 450 kJ

According to 10% law :

NPP in plants is 450 kJ

NSP in herbivores is 45 kJ

NSP in primary carnivores 4.5 kJ

Question : 143

Loss of energy from one trophic level to next trophic level is

A) 90%

B) 60%

C) 10%

D) 30%

Your Answer : A

Answer : A

Solution : 90%: only 10% energy is transfered from lower trophic level to next upper trophic level. It
means 90% energy is lost from one trophic level to next trophic level

Question : 144

The rate at which light energy is converted into the chemical energy of organic molecules in the
ecosystem

A) Net primary productivity

B) Gross primary productivity

C) Net secondary productivity

D) Gross secondary productivity

Your Answer : D

Answer : B

Solution : Gross primary productivity is the rate of production of organic matter during
photosynthesis

Question : 145

If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, the ecosystem functioning will be
adversely affected because

A) Energy flow will be blocked

B) Rate of decomposition of other compounds will be very high

C) Herbivores will not receive solar energy

D) Mineral movement will be blocked

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : Decomposers convert organic matter in dead organisms into inorganic substances

Question : 146

Plants capture-------- percent of the PAR

A) More than 50

B) 100

C) Only 2-10

D) Zero

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Plants capture only 2 – 10 percent of the PAR

Question : 147

GFC is the major conduit for energy flow in

A) Grassland ecosystem
B) Forest ecosystem

C) Aquatic ecosystem

D) Any terrestrial ecosystem

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : In aquatic ecosystem GFC is the major conduit for energy flow

Question : 148

S-I: In the ecosystem the feeding relationships are never that simple and interrelationships become
more complex

S-2: Omnivores present in the ecosystem

A) S-1 is correct, S-2 is wrong

B) S-I is wrong, S-2 is correct

C) Both statements are correct

D) Both statements are wrong

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Conceptual

Question : 149

Which of the following is incorrect?

A) Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process

B) Warm and moist environment favour decomposition

C) Anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition

D) Decomposition in humus is at an extremely faster rate

Answer : D

Solution : Decomposition of humus is extremely slow rate because it is highly resistant to microbial
actio

Question : 150

Which one of the following process during decomposition is correctly

A) Fragmentation – carried out by organisms such as earthworm

B) Humification – leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus, on which

microbial action occurs at a very fast rate.

C) Catabolism – last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condititon

D) Leaching – water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil, get precipitated as available
salts

Your Answer : A

Answer : A

Solution : Fragmentation is carried out by earth worms remaining options are incorrect

Question : 151

Inter dependency of different food chains in an ecosystem is

A) Homeostasis

B) Food web

C) Ecological pyramid

D) Trophic levels

Your Answer : B

Answer : B

Solution : Solution: Interconnections of food chains make a food web

Question : 152

Each trophic level has a certain mass living material at a particular time is called

A) Standing state

B) Standing crop

C) Net primary producitivity

D) Nutrient immobilization

Your Answer : A

Answer : B
Solution : Solution: Each trophic level has a certain mass of living matter at a preticular time is called
standing crop

Question : 153

Despite of the huge surface area of oceans, the primary productivity of oceans is low, the reason
could be

A) Ocean has limited light and carbon

B) Ocean has limited light and nitrogen

C) Phytoplankton are few in number

D) Biogeochemical cycles do not occur in ocean

Your Answer : A

Answer : B

Solution : Solution: Primary productivity of oceans is low because of limited light penetration and
less amount of nitrogen

Question : 154

Consider the following statements concerning food chain and select correct statements

a) Removal of 80% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of Vegetation.

b) Removal of most of the carnivores resulted in an increased population of deers.

c) The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss.

d) The length of food chains may very from 2 to 8 trophic levels.

A) (a), (c)

B) (a) ,(b)

C) (b) , (c)

D) (c), (d).

Answer : C
Solution : A) Removal of 80% tigers can increase herbivores and reduce vegetation

D) A food chain contains 3 – 4 trophic levels but not 2 – 8

Question : 155

Select the incorrect statement about the detritus food chain

A) it begins with dead organic matter

B) it is never connected with the grazing food chain

C) it includes saprotrophic organisms

D) it is the major conduit for energy flow in terrestrial ecosystems

Your Answer : B

Answer : B

Solution : Solution: DFC may be connected with GFC

Question : 156

Observe the following components and identify what is ‘C’

A) Primary carnivore

B) Secondary consumer

C) Third trophic level

D) All the above

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : Sparrow is in third trophic level, which is secondary consumer and primary carnivore

Question : 157

Organisms which are associated with first as well as third trophic level are
A) Macrophytes

B) Phytoplanktons

C) Chemoautotrophs

D) Insectivirius plants

Your Answer : A

Answer : D

Solution : Insectivorous plants as producers they occupy 1st trophic level and as they feed on insects
they belong to 3rd trophic level

Question : 158

Which of the following represents an inverted pyramid?

A) Pyramid of numbers in a predatory food chain.

B) Pyramid of numbers in a parasitic food chain.

C) Pyramid of biomass in a sea.

D) Pyramid of biomass on land.

E) Pyramid of energy in a lake.

A) B and E only

B) B and C only

C) A, D and E only

D) B, C and D only

Your Answer : B

Answer : B

Solution : Pyramid of numbers in parasitic food chain and pyramid of biomass in sea give inverted
pyramids and remaining give upright pyramids
Question : 159

Which of the following organisms were not given any place in ecological pyramids?

A) Predators

B) Saprophytes

C) Herbivoires

D) Producers

Your Answer : B

Answer : B

Solution : There is no place for saprophytes in ecological pyramids

Question : 160

What type of pyramid would be obtained with the following data?

Secondary consumers 1.5 g/m2

Primary consumers 37 g/m2

Primary producers : 809 g/m2

A) Triangular age pyramid

B) Upright pyramid of energy

C) Inverted pyramid of biomass

D) Upright pyramid of biomass

Your Answer : D

Answer : D
Solution : This data is related to biomass of organisms, which gives upright pyramid

Question : 161

Match column–I with column–ii and select the correct option using the codes given below

Column –I

Column ii

Paul Ehrlich

Popularised the term biodiversity

Von Humboldt

Ii

Experiments with outdoor plots

Tilman

iii

Rivet popper hypothesis

D

Edward Wilson

Iv

Species – Area relationships

A) 1)III 2) IV 3)III 4)I

B) 1)IV 2)II 3)IV 4)III

C) 1)I 2)I 3)II 4)IV

D) 1)II 2)III 3)I 4)II

Your Answer : A

Answer : C

Solution : Matching

Question : 162

Select incorrect match:

A) Aravalli Hills – Gujarat

B) Khasi and Jaintia hills – Meghalaya

C) Sarguja – Madhya Pradesh

D) Western Ghats –Karnataka, Maharashtra

Answer : A

Solution : Aravalli Hills – Rajasthan

Question : 163
Estimate the number of species of bats in an area of 6400 square miles if the regression coefficient
of the species – area relationship curve is 0.5 and

Y- intercept is 0.2

A) 18

B) 12

C) 10

D) 16

Answer : D

Solution : S=caz

C = y intercept -0.2

A= Area -- 6400 8m

Z=regression coefficient –0.5

S= no: of bat speaks

S=0.2× 64000.5

Power of 0.5 is

S=0.2× 6400=0.2×80=16

Question : 164

Match the following and select the correct option:

A) A-iii , B-iii, C-iv, D-iv

B) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

C) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

D) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

Answer : C

Solution : Matching

Question : 165

Study the following diagram and identify A, B, C & D respectively

A) Fishes ,mammals , birds , reptiles

B) Fishes, bird, mammals amphibians

C) Fishes, amphibians, brids, mammals

D) Fishes, amphibians , reptiles birds

Answer : A

Solution : A=Fishes, B=Mammals, C=Birds, D=Reptiles

Question : 166

The main cause of extinction of passenger pigeon is

A) Overexploitation

B) Co-extinction

C) Environmental pollution

D) Alien species invasion

Answer : A

Solution : Passenger pigeion become extinet due to overexploitation

Question : 167

Which of the following is a correct representation of the species diversity of birds in the regions
mentioned?

A) India>Clumbia>New york>Greenland

B) Columbia>India>Greenland>New york

C) Greenland>lndia>New york>Columbia

D) Columbia>India>New york>Greenland

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : Columbia – 1400 bird species,

India=1200, Newyork–105, Greenland= 56

Question : 168

The sixth mass extinction currently in progress differs from earlier mass extinctions because

A) the rate of extinction are lesser

B) maga fauna would be unaffected

C) it is driven by human activities

D) only terrestrial species will be lost

Answer : C

Solution : Five major mass extinctions are in the pre human times, sixth mass extinction is faster due
to human activities

Question : 169

Presently how many biodiversity hot spots are present in India

A) 25

B) 34
C) 3

D) 8

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Biodiversity hot spot in the world are 34, in India are – 3, Wstern-Ghats – Sri lanka, Indo –
Burma and Himalaya

Question : 170

Which of the following is a correct combination methods?

In situ

conservation

Ex situ

conservation

Botanical garden

Aquarium

Cryopreservation

Tissue culture

Sacred grooves
Sanctuaries

National park

Zoological

park

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

Answer : D

Solution : Insitu conservation = National park,

Exsitu conservation = Zoological park

Question : 171

The three levels of biodiverlity are

A) Family, genus, class diversity

B) Numbers , biomass ,energy diversity

C) Geneus, community, biosphere diversity

D) Genetic, species and ecosystem diversity

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : 3 levels of biodiversity are – Genetic, species and ecological diversities

Question : 172

Which one of the following graph represents more biodiversity with respect to species richness –
Area relationship?

lik

A)

B)

C)

D)

Your Answer : D

Answer : D

Solution : Larger area has more biodiversity. The slope of the line is much steeper then remaining
graphs which represents larger areas like entire continent

Question : 173

Introduction of Nile perch in Lake Victoria resulted in

A) Excess growth of water weed

B) Elimination of water weed

C) Elimination of many species of cichlid species

D) Excess growth of cichlid fish

Your Answer : C

Answer : C

Solution : Nile perch cause the extinetion of many Cichlid species

Question : 174
The first National Park in India

A) Jim Corbett National Park

B) Kanha National Park

C) Gir National Park

D) Keo;adeo National Park

Your Answer : D

Answer : A

Solution : Jim Corbet national park is the first national park in India

Question : 175

Which of the following is considered as the most important cause for driving animals and plants to
extinction?

A) Invasion of exotic species

B) Habitat loss and fragmentation

C) Species interdependence

D) Coextinction

Your Answer : B

Answer : B

Solution : Habitat loss and fragmentation is most important cause of animal and plants extinction

Question : 176

The Earth Summit was held in Rio de Janeiro in the year

A) 2002

B) 1994

C) 1992

D) 1990

Your Answer : A

Answer : C
Solution : Earth summit was held in the year 1992

Question : 177

Which of the following statements regarding biodiversity hot sports are correct?

i. high degree of endemism

ii. cover less than 12 percent of earth suface

iii. high alien species invasion

iv. high levels of species richness

A) I, II and iii only

B) I and iv only

C) I, ii, iii and iv

D) I, iii and iv only

Answer : B

Solution : and IV are correct

II. Hot spots cover less than 2% earth surface

III. High alien species invasion not occure in hot spots

Question : 178

Choose the correct match

A) Parthenium—Water hyacinth

B) Eichhornia – Carrot grass

C) Lantana—Nile perch

D) Clarias gariepinus—African catfish

Your Answer : D

Answer : D
Solution : African cat fish – Clarias gariepinus

Question : 179

Haast’s eagle that once lived in Newzealand became extinct after its prey moa became
extinct.Extinction of Haast’s eagle is an example of

A) Coextinction

B) Overexploitation

C) Habitat fragmentation

D) Alien species invasion

Answer : A

Solution : It is coextinction, when prey moa became extinct. Its predator Haast’s eagle also became
extinct

Question : 180

Choose the incorrect one among the following

A) Amazon Rain forests are called the lungs of Earth

B) Dynamic environment promotes Niche specializations

C) Removal of a critical species may affect the entire ecosystem in accordance with the Rivet
poppers hypoyhesis

D) Biosphere reserve is ear marked for in-situ conservation

Your Answer : D

Answer : B

Solution : Constant environment promotes niche specialization.