1. Which of the following is the first step in pharmacodynamics?

a. Distribution
b. Absorption
c. Biotransformation
d. Excretion
2. When administering a drug, the nurse understands that a drug administered by which route
would be absorbed most rapidly?
a. Oral
b. Intramuscular
c. Intravenous
d. Subcutaneous
3. This is the main organ for biotransformation
a. Brain
b. Kidneys
c. Lungs
d. Liver
4. Which of the following commonly occurs first when an oral drug is being absorbed?
a. Liver enzymes break down the drug into metabolites
b. The drug is delivered to the circulatory system for transport
c. The drug moves from the small intestine directly into the portal venous system
d. A portion of the drug reaches the tissues before getting into the liver
5. Which of the following pregnancy categories of drugs is against pregnancy?
a. Pregnancy category A
b. Pregnancy category B
c. Pregnancy category C
d. Pregnancy category X
6. Which of the following plays the largest role in drug excretion?
a. Skin
b. Kidneys
c. Feces
d. Lungs
7. Insulin is normally administered via which route?
a. Intramuscular
b. Intravenous
c. Oral
d. Subcutaneous
8. A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed drug to a patient who has liver disease. The
nurse expects a reduction in dosage based on the understanding that which of the following
might be altered?
a. Absorption
b. Distribution
c. Metabolism
d. Filtration
9. Creams, ointments, and liniments are usually given
a. Orally
b. Subcutaneously
c. Topically
 d. Optically
10. When assessing a patient for possible factors that may affect the pharmacokinetics of a drug, a
patient with a history of which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that the patient
may experience an alteration in the distribution of the drug?
a. Gastrointestinal disease
b. Liver disease
c. Kidney disease
d. Vascular disease
11. Which of the following systems is responsible for the distribution of drugs in the body?
a. Vascular
b. Gastrointestinal
c. Respiratory
d. Urinary
12. A nurse is reading an article that describes predictable differences in the effects of drugs in
people of a particular culture background due to their genetic makeup. The nurse is reading
about which of the following?
a. Pharmacogenomics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. Pharmacology
13. When instructing a patient who is taking an antibiotic about the possibility of nausea and
vomiting, the nurse understands that these effects are examples of which of the following?
a. Primary actions
b. Side effects
c. Drug allergy
d. Hypersensitivity
14. The nurse would assess a patient receiving which medication for possible superinfection?
a. Antibiotic
b. Antihistamines
c. Antihypertensives
d. Antineoplastics
15. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a patient receiving drug therapy. Which of
the following would the nurse suspect if the results reveal an elevation in the blood urea
nitrogen level and creatinine concentration?
a. Livery injury
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Kidney injury
16. Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient who is to
receive a drug that is associated with anticholinergic side effects?
a. Try to stay as warm as possible to prevent chilling
b. Be sure to drink plenty of fluids to prevent dehydration
c. Try using hard candy or lozenges to prevent dry mouth
d. Eat a low-fiber diet to prevent constipation
17. A patient is receiving a drug to lower his blood glucose level. Which of the following would lead
the nurse to suspect that his blood glucose level was too low?
a. Cold, clammy skin
b. Increased urination
 c. Fruity breath odor
d. Increased hunger
18. A patient exhibits muscular tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms. When reviewing the
patient’s mediation history, which of the following would the nurse most likely to find?
a. Antipsychotic agent
b. Antidiabetic agent
c. General anesthetic
d. Anticholinergic agent
19. Which of the following is an example of a secondary action?
a. Anticoagulant that leads to excessive and spontaneous bleeding
b. Dizziness and weakness with a recommended dose of antihypertensive
c. An antihistamine that causes the patient to experience drowsiness
d. Urinary retention develops in patient taking an anticholinergic
20. Which of the following side effects is an anticholinergic side effect of antipsychotics?
a. Tremors, dizziness, hunger
b. Increased urination, fruity breath odor, clammy skin
c. Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention
d. Resting hand tremors, pill rolling, shuffling gait
21. Which of the following are extrapyramidal signs of antipsychotics?
a. Tremors, dizziness, hunger
b. Increased urination, fruity breath odor, clammy skin
c. Dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention
d. Resting hand tremors, pill rolling, shuffling gait
22. Which of the following units of measure would a nurse expect to find when using the
apothecary system?
a. Liters
b. Kilograms
c. Drams
d. Pounds
23. A nurse is using the metric system for dosage calculations, which unit would the nurse use as
the basic unit for measuring liquids?
a. Gram
b. Kilogram
c. Milliliter
d. Minim
24. A drug label reads “1 tablet equals 1 gr.” The nurse understands that this one tablet is
equivalent to how many milligrams?
a. 30
b. 60
c. 240
d. 1000
25. A physician orders 250 mg of an antibiotic suspension, the label on the suspension read “500
mg/5 ml” how much would the nurse administer?
a. 2.5 ml
b. 5 ml
c. 7.5 ml
d. 10 ml
26. A nurse is to administer 500 mg of a drug intramuscularly. The label on the multidose vial reads
250 mg/ml. how much of the medication would the nurse prepare on the syringe?
a. 0.5 ml
b. 1 ml
c. 1.5 ml
d. 2 ml
27. The physician orders a patient to receive 1000 ml of intravenous fluid over the next 8 hours. The
intravenous delivery set is a macrodrip system. The nurse would set the infusion to run at which
rate?
a. 16 gtts/min
b. 32 gtts/min
c. 64 gtts/min
d. 125 gtts/min
28. A nurse needs to calculate a safe dose of medication for a child. Which of the following would
be most appropriate for the nurse to use?
a. Clark’s rule
b. Fried’s rule
c. Young’s rule
d. Body surface area
29. A nurse needs to convert 3 fluid ounces to the metric system equivalent; the nurse performs
calculation to find which result?
a. 90 ml
b. 180 ml
c. 240 ml
d. 360 ml
30. Which of the following medications is usually applied on the skin?
a. Suppositories
b. Creams
c. Elixirs
d. Tablets
31. When administering medication through the buccal route the nurse must know that the drug
must be given in which location?
a. Under the tongue
b. Nasally
c. Inside of the cheek
d. In the ear
32. Which of the following drug preparations contain alcohol?
a. Tablets
b. Capsule
c. Elixir
d. Syrup
33. Which of the following signs is an indicative of an allergic reaction to drugs?
a. Rashes
b. Difficulty of breathing
c. Dizziness
d. Diarrhea
34. What type of shock will the patient experience if the body’s immune system is hypersensitive to
a specific type of medication?
 a. Anaphylactic
b. Neurogenic
c. Cardiogenic
d. Hypovolemic
35. Which of the following is a sign of hyperglycemia?
a. Excessive urination
b. Fruity breath
c. Cold and clammy skin
d. All of the above
36. When a drug is affected by the food taken in by a patient this is known as
a. Drug-drug interaction
b. Synergism
c. Palatability
d. Drug-food interaction
37. One of the important nursing responsibilities when the patient is taking several medications is to
check the
a. Availability of the drugs
b. Drug-drug interactions
c. Allergic reaction to the drugs
d. Mode of administration
38. A nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a patient who is receiving trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following would the nurse need to keep in mind when
describing how this drug works?
a. Interfering with bacterial cell wall
b. Preventing the organism’s cells from using substances
c. Interfering with folic acid synthesis
d. Altering the permeability of the cell membrane
39. A patient is taking an aminoglycoside antibiotic for an infection. The nurse would monitor the
patient closely for which of the following?
a. Tinnitus
b. Lethargy
c. Visual changes
d. Hallucination
40. A group of students are reviewing information about anti-infective agents. The students
demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify which of the following as an anti-
infective agent?
a. Antibiotic
b. Anthelmintic
c. Antiprotozoal
d. Anticoagulant
41. After teaching a group of students about resistance, the instructor determines that the students
need additional teaching when they identify need additional teaching when they identify which
of the following as a way that microorganisms develop resistance?
a. Production of an enzyme that deactivates the drug
b. Change in cellular permeability preventing drug entrance
c. Altered binding sites that no longer accept the drug
d. Production of a chemical to act as an agonist
42. Which of the following would be classified as an aminoglycoside?
 a. Levofloxacin
b. Clarithromycin
c. Gentamicin
d. Cefaclor
43. A patient is to receive gentamicin for treatment of an infection. Which of the following would be
most important for the nurse to assess to establish a baseline?
a. Nutritional status
b. Auditory function
c. Gastrointestinal function
d. Muscle strength
44. When teaching the side-effects of rifampicin the nurse must know to tell the patient that this
drug causes
a. Optic neuritis
b. Red-orange urine
c. Peripheral neuritis
d. Hepatotoxicity
45. Which of the following is an example of a monobactam antibiotic?
a. Azithromycin
b. Ethambutol
c. Aztreonam
d. Co-trimoxazole
46. A patient is prescribed streptomycin. The nurse understands that this drug can be given only by
which route?
a. Oral
b. Intravenous
c. Ophthalmic
d. Intramuscular
47. The nurse must know to tell the client taking cephalosporins to avoid which of the following
beverages?
a. Coffee
b. Tea
c. Soda
d. Beer
48. Cephalosporins can have cross-sensitivity with which of the following classifications of
antibiotic?
a. Monobactams
b. Penicillins
c. Tetracyclines
d. Sulfonamides
49. Which of the following classification of antibiotics is contraindicated to children below 12 years
old?
a. Aminoglycosides
b. Sulfonamides
c. Tetracyclines
d. Cephalosporins
50. Which of the following drugs would be classified as a third-generation cephalosporin?
a. Cefazolin
b. Cefaclor
 c. Ceftriaxone
d. Cephalexin
51. Which of the following vitamins should be taken in together with isoniazid?
a. Niacin
b. Pyridoxine
c. Riboflavin
d. Thiamin
52. The drug’s effect on which of the following best reflects the major reason for avoiding the use of
tetracyclines in children under 12 years of age?
a. Teeth
b. Hearing
c. Vision
d. Kidneys
53. Which of the following antibiotics was the first to be introduced?
a. Penicillins
b. Lincosamides
c. Monobactams
d. Aminoglycosides
54. Which drug would a nurse least likely expect to be prescribed for a patient which chronic
hepatitis-B?
a. Entecavir
b. Telbivudine
c. Adefovir
d. Fosamprenavir
55. A nurse is explaining the rationale for the use of combination therapy in the treatment of HIV
infections. Which of the following would the nurse include as the primary reason?
a. More than one drug is needed to ensure sensitivity to the different forms of the virus
b. The use of multiple drugs allows attack on the virus at different points of its life cycle
c. One drug helps to control the virus, while the other drugs help to alleviate the adverse
effects
d. Using several drugs at once helps to improve the patient’s immune system
56. Which of the following antivirals is also used for people who have Parkinson’s disease?
a. Symmetrel
b. Enfuvirtide
c. Maraviroc
d. Didanosine
57. A patient states, “My doctor said that I had mycosis, but I thought I had a fungal infection.”
Which response would be most appropriate?
a. “You’re both correct because mycosis means a disease cause by a fungus.”
b. “Mycosis means that you have an underlying immune disease.”
c. “Let’s talk to the doctor so that we can find out what really is going on here.”
d. “Don’t worry, because mycosis is only a minor infection that is easily treatable.”
58. Which of the following statements best reflects topical antifungal agents?
a. They are most effective when applied in a thick manner
b. They rarely cause local irritation and burning
c. They are too toxic to be used systematically
d. They are associated with many drug-drug interactions.
59. Which agent would be given to patients who have schistosomiasis?
 a. Chloroquine
b. Primaquine
c. Pyrantel
d. Praziquantel
60. Which of the following drugs is given to patients with amebiasis?
a. Pyrimethamine
b. Metronidazole
c. Chloroquine
d. Hydroxychloroquine
61. Which drug is a first-line antibiotic for malaria?
a. Chloroquine
b. Hydroxychloroquine
c. Quinine
d. Artemeter-lumefantrine
62. A patient who is receiving metronidazole therapy for trichomoniasis asks the nurse how this
infection occurred. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?
a. “You probably got bitten by a mosquito.”
b. “It is passed to humans by the common housefly.”
c. “The infection is spread during sexual intercourse.”
d. “You probably drank some contaminated water.”
63. Which of the following would be associated with an infection caused by a flatworm?
a. Pinworm
b. Whipworm
c. Ascaris
d. Tapeworm
64. Anthelmintics are required by children under 5 years old to take it every
a. 4 months
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 8 months
65. Which drug would the nurse identify as the drug of choice for treating a threadworm infection?
a. Pyrantel
b. Praziquantel
c. Ketoconazole
d. Ivermectine
66. Which of the following would be most important to obtain for a patient who is suspected to
have helminthes?
a. Complete blood count
b. Urinalysis
c. Liver functions tests
d. Stool examination
67. Which of the following would the nurse identify as causing more damage to humans than most
other helminthes?
a. Ascaris
b. Threadworms
c. Schistosomiasis
d. Pinworm
68. A nurse administers metoclopramide to a patient receiving chemotherapy or which reason?
 a. Reduce vomiting
b. Prevent hypersensitivity
c. Relieve inflammation
d. Decrease secretions
69. A patient develops leukopenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which nursing diagnosis would be
most appropriate?
a. Disturbed body image
b. Imbalanced nutrition
c. Risk for infection
d. Deficient fluid volume
70. Which of the following would be the drug of choice for breast cancer?
a. Mitomycin
b. Tamoxifen
c. Vinblastine
d. Docetaxel

71. Which agent would be least appropriate to administer to a patient with joint inflammation and
pain?
a. Ibuprofen
b. Naproxen
c. Acetaminophen
d. Diclofenac
72. Which of the following beverages would increase the absorption of NSAIDs?
a. Tea
b. Coffee
c. Soda
d. Orange juice
73. A nurse suspects that a patient is experiencing aspirin toxicity. Which of the following would the
nurse assess?
a. Excitement
b. Ringing in the ears
c. Tachypnea
d. Convulsions
74. When the patient is experiencing salicylate toxicity, the nurse must know which of the following
antidotes to give to the patient?
a. Vitamin K
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Naloxone hydrochloride
d. Acetylcysteine
75. Which of the following best describes the action of NSAIDs?
a. Blocks prostaglandin activity
b. Acts directly on thermoregulatory cells
c. Inhibits phagocytosis
d. Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
76. Which of the following is the action of acetylsalicylic acid?
a. Antipyretic
b. Analgesic
c. Anticoagulant
 d. All of the above
77. Which benzodiazepine would a nurse expect to administer as a hypnotic?
a. Lorazepam
b. Flurazepam
c. Diazepam
d. Alprazolam

78. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that a patient is experiencing withdrawal
symptoms associated with benzodiazepine use?
a. Dry mouth
b. Nightmares
c. Hypotension
d. Urinary retention
79. A patient is preparing to administer an anxiolytic to a patient. Which of the following would be
most appropriate for the nurse to do before administering the drug?
a. Raise the side rails
b. Institute a bowel program
c. Dim the lights
d. Have the patient void
80. Which of the following groups of antidepressant is the first in line?
a. Mono-amine oxidase inhibitors
b. Tricyclic antidepressant
c. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
d. Acyclic antidepressants
81. Which of the following SSRIs is also indicated for clients who are experiencing premature
ejaculation?
a. Zoloft
b. Prozac
c. Paxil
d. Celexa
82. Which of the following is contraindicated to patients who are taking Parnate?
a. Pizza
b. Beer
c. Tofu
d. All of the above
83. The nurse must instruct the patient to take which of the following drugs when the patient will
experience hypertension brought about by drug-food interaction in MAOIs?
a. Regitine
b. Atenolol
c. Furosemide
d. Captopril
84. Which of the following is not a tricyclic antidepressant?
a. Norpramine
b. Marplan
c. Vivactyl
d. Surmontil
85. A patient tells the nurse, “My antidepressant is not working. I have been taking it for 5 days now
but nothing happens.” What would be the best response by the nurse?
a. “The doctor must increase the dosage of your antidepressant.”
b. “The doctor must change it to another type of antidepressant.”
c. “Please wait for your antidepressant to take effect after 2 to 4 weeks.”
d. “We will have the check the levels of the antidepressant in your blood.”
86. Which of the following would be an intervention to a patient experiencing dry mouth brought
about by antidepressant?
a. Offer hard candy
b. Restrict fluid intake
c. Lower the dosage of the drug
d. Eat a low-fiber diet

87. Which component of food reacts with mono-amine oxidase inhibitors?

a. Thiamine
b. Gluten
c. Phenylalanine
d. Tyramine
88. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s serum lithium level and determines that the level is therapeutic
by which result?
a. 0.2 mEq/L
b. 0.8 mEq/L
c. 1.4 mEq/L
d. 2.0 mEq/L
89. Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic?
a. Haloperidol
b. Lexapine
c. Clozapine
d. Stelazine
90. Which of the following antipsychotics would the nurse identify as a highly potent agent?
a. Thorazine
b. Clozapine
c. Stelazine
d. Risperidone
91. Which of the following neurotransmitters is affected when the patient is taking in
antipsychotics?
a. Dopamine
b. Epinephrine
c. Acetylcholine
d. Serotonin
92. Which of the following adverse effects of antipsychotics is considered to be irreversible?
a. Akathisia
b. Tardive dyskinesia
c. Pseudoparkinsonism
d. Dystonia
93. A patient is receiving haloperidol. The nurse would be most especially alert for the development
of which of the following adverse effects?
 a. Sedation
b. Anticholinergic
c. Extrapyramidal
d. Hypotension
94. When the patient is experiencing constipation brought about by antipsychotics the nurse must
do which of the following?
a. Increase fiber in the diet of the patient
b. Restrict fluids
c. Limit the exercise of the patient
d. All of the above
95. Antipsychotics are given to patient in order to
a. Eliminate hallucinations and delusions
b. Relieve the patient’s depression
c. Inhibit the patient’s hyperactivity
d. None of the above
96. Which of the following is an example of an extrapyramidal side-effect of antipsychotics?
a. Urinary retention
b. Dry mouth
c. Resting hand tremors
d. Blurred vision
97. Which of the following medications are given to patients who have attention-deficit
hyperactivity disorder?
a. Methylphenidate
b. Clozapine
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Psyllium
98. When describing the action of levodopa, which of the following would the nurse include?
a. Acts like replacement therapy
b. Increases the release of dopamine
c. Binds directly with postsynaptic dopamine receptors
d. Stimulates dopamine receptors
99. When reviewing a patient’s history, which of the following would the nurse identify as a
contraindication to the use of levodopa
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Peptic ulcer disease
d. Suspicious skin lesions
100. Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess as a potential adverse effect of
dopaminergic therapy?
a. Sedation
b. Muscle flaccidity
c. Nervousness
d. Hypertension
101. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drug is also an antiviral?
a. Diphenhydramine
b. Symmetrel
c. Parlodel
d. Eldepryl
102. Which of the following antiparkinsonian drug is also an antihistamine?
a. Entacapone
b. Cogentin
c. Artane
d. Benadryl
103. Which of the following would be considered a peripheral anticholinergic effect of
anticholinergic drug therapy?
a. Delirium
b. Blurred vision
c. Agitation
d. Memory loss
104. A patient is to receive a narcotic cough syrup. The nurse would expect this preparation
to contain which of the following?
a. Codeine
b. Fentanyl
c. Hydromorphone
d. Meperidine
105. Which of the following drugs would the nurse prepare as an antidote to narcotics?
a. Naloxone hydrochloride
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Calcium gluconate
d. Acetylcysteine
106. Which of the following vital signs should be monitored by the nurse when the nurse is
giving meperidine hydrochloride to a post-operative patient?
a. Blood pressure
b. Temperature
c. Respiratory rate
d. Heart rate
107. A patient is receiving drug therapy for prevention of an acute migraine attack. Which
agent would be the most helpful?
a. Sumatriptan
b. Ergotamine
c. Naloxone
d. Eletriptan
108. Which of the following beverages should be taken with ergotamine?
a. Coffee
b. Soda
c. Orange juice
d. Tea
109. When describing the stages of anesthesia, during which stage does pupillary dilation
occur?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
110. When giving lithium to patients with mania the nurse must give salt in
a. Increased amounts
b. Decreased amounts
 c. Moderate amounts
d. No amount
111. Which of the following nurse teaching should be a priority when the patient is going to
take an anxiolytic?
a. Increase the fluid intake
b. Not to drive and operate heavy machinery
c. Not to take caffeinated beverages
d. Increase fiber intake
112. Which of the following neurotransmitters is regulated by the antidepressants?
a. Dopamine
b. Serotonin
c. Gamma-amino butyric acid
d. Endorphin
113. Which of the following is an anticholinergic side-effect of antidepressants?
a. Dry mouth
b. Akathisia
c. Pill rolling
d. Dystonia

114. Chemotherapeutic agents are drugs that

a. Are used only to treat cancers
b. Replace normal body chemicals that are missing due to disease
c. Interfere with the functioning of foreign cells, such as invading microorganisms or
neoplasms
d. Stimulate a cell’s normal functioning
115. Pharmacokinetics involves the study of
a. Absorption, distribution, biotransformation, and elimination of drugs
b. The way that drugs affect the body
c. Receptor site activation and suppression
d. Drug-drug interaction
116. The absorption of a drug taken orally can be affected by
a. The blood flow to muscle beds
b. The acidity of the gastric juices, often influenced by the presence of food
c. The weight and age of the patient
d. The temperature of the peripheral environment
117. Much of the biotransformation that occurs when a drug is taken occurs as part
of
a. The protein binding effect of the drug
b. The functioning of the renal system
c. The first-pass effect through the liver
d. The distribution of the drug to the reactive tissues
118. The half-life of a drug
a. Is determined by a balance of all of the factors working on that drug – absorption,
distribution, biotransformation, and excretion
b. Is a constant factor for all drugs taken by a patient
c. Is influenced by the fat distribution of the patient
d. Can be calculated with the use of a body surface nomogram
119. Drug-drug interactions are important considerations in clinical practice that
could result in
a. Bizarre drug effects on the body
b. The need to adjust drug dosage or timing of administration to ensure effective drug
therapy
c. A need for more drugs in the drug regimen
d. A new therapeutic effect not encountered with either drug alone
120. A patient reports to you that she has a drug allergy in exploring the allergic
reaction with the patient, the following might indicate an allergic response
a. Increase urination
b. Dry mouth
c. Rash
d. Drowsiness
121. It is important to obtain medical history from a patient before beginning drug
therapy because
a. Many medical conditions alter the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of a drug
b. It is part of the nursing protocol
c. A baseline is needed for evaluating drug effects
d. It is the first step in the nursing process
122. When giving thiazides to patients it is the responsibility of the nurse to
a. Check for the pulse rate
b. Monitor the intake and output of the patient
c. Assess the blood pressure
d. All of the above
123. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus has been given NPH insulin. When would
you tell the patient to have a snack?
a. Brunch
b. At around 10 pm
c. 3 pm to 4 pm
d. At midnight
124. A patient receiving antihistamine complains of dry mouth and nose. An
appropriate comfort measure for this patient would be
a. Use of humidifier and an increase in fluid consumption
b. Voiding before taking the drug
c. Avoiding exposure to the sun
d. A back rub
125. When the patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting brought about by
doxorubicin you would anticipate the doctor to prescribe which of the following?
a. Celecoxib
b. Mefenamic acid
c. Bismuth subsalicylate
d. Metoclopramide
126. A patient has been through a teaching format for digoxin, a drug used to
increase the effectiveness of the heart’s contractions. Which of the following
statements would indicate that the teaching was effective?
a. “I need to take my pulse every morning before I take my pill.”
b. “Sometimes I forget my pills, but I usually make up for the missed ones once I
remember.”
c. “This pill might help my hay fever.”
d. “I don’t remember the name of it, but it is the white one.”
127. An example of drug allergy is
a. Dry mouth occurring with an antihistamine
b. Increased urination occurring with a thiazide diuretic
c. Hives and difficulty breathing after an injection of penicillin
d. Skin rash associated with procainamide use
128. A patient taking glyburide has his morning dose and then does not have a
chance to eat for several hours. An adverse effect that might be expected from this
would be
a. Teratogenic effects
b. A skin rash
c. Anticholinergic effects
d. hypoglycemia
129. A patient with a severe infection is given gentamicin, the only antibiotic shown
to be effective in culture and sensitivity tests. A few hours after the drug is started IV,
the patient becomes very restless and develops edema. Blood tests reveal abnormal
electrolytes and elevated BUN. This reaction was most likely caused by
a. An anaphylactic reaction
b. Renal toxicity associated with gentamicin
c. Superinfection related to the antibiotic
d. Hypoglycemia
130. A patient is taking a drug that is known to be toxic to the liver. The patient is
being discharged to home. Points related to liver toxicity of the drug that the patient
should be advised to report immediately include
a. Fever, changes in the color of the urine or stool, and malaise
b. Rapid, deep respirations and increased sweating
c. Dizziness, drowsiness, and dry mouth
d. Rash, black or hairy tongue, and white spots in the mouth or throat
131. Patient receiving antineoplastic agents that disrupt cell function often have
adverse effects involving cells that turn over rapidly in the body. These cells include
a. Ovarian cells
b. Liver cells
c. Cardiac cells
d. Bone marrow cells
132. Pregnant women should be advised of the potential risk to the fetus any time
they take a drug during pregnancy. Fetal problems related to drug therapy can include
a. Fetal death
b. Nervous system disruption
c. Skeletal and limb abnormalities
d. All of the above
133. Digoxin 0.125 is ordered for a patient who is having trouble swallowing. The
bottle of digoxin elixir reads 0.5 mg/2 ml. How much would you give?
a. 5 ml
b. 0.5 ml
c. 1.5 ml
d. 1 ml
134. The usual adult dose of Benadryl is 50 mg. what would be the safe dose for a
child weighing 27 lbs?
a. 0.9 mg
b. 1.8 mg
c. 9.0 mg
d. 18 mg
135. An order is written for 700 mg ampicillin PO. The drug is supplied in liquid form
as 1 g/3.5 ml. how much of the liquid should be given?
a. 5 ml
b. 2.5 ml
c. 6.2 ml
d. 2.45 ml
136. The average adult dose of meperidine is 75 mg. What dose would be
appropriate for a 10-month-old infant?
a. 50 mg
b. 5 mg
c. 25 mg
d. 0.5 mg
137. A bacteriostatic substance is one that
a. Directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact with
b. Directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
c. Prevents the growth of any bacteria
d. Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
138. Gram-negative bacteria
a. Are mostly found in the respiratory tract
b. Are mostly associated with soft tissue infections
c. Accept a negative stain when tested
d. Accept a positive stain when tested
139. Antibiotics that are used together to increase their effectiveness and limit the
associated adverse effects are said to be
a. Broad spectrum
b. Synergistic
c. Bacteriocidal
d. Anaerobic
140. An aminoglycoside antibiotic might be the drug of choice in treating
a. Serious infections caused by susceptible strains of gram-negative bacteria
b. Otitis media in an infant
c. Cystitis in a woman who is 4 months’ pregnant
d. Suspected pneumonia, before the culture results are available
141. Which of the following is not a caution for the use of cephalosporins?
a. Allergy to penicillin
b. Renal failure
c. Allergy to aspirin
d. Concurrent treatment to aminoglycoside
142. The fluoroquinolones
a. Are found freely in nature
b. Are associated with severe adverse reactions
c. Are widely used to treat gram-positive infections
d. Are broad-spectrum antibiotics with few associated adverse effects
143. Ciprofloxacin, a widely used antibiotic, is an example of
a. A penicillin
b. A fluoroquinolone
c. An aminoglycoside
d. A macrolide antibiotic
144. One commonly associated adverse effect related to fluoroquinolone use is
a. Increased salivation
b. Constipation
c. Photosensitivity
d. Cough
145. The goal of antibiotic therapy is
a. To eradicate all bacteria from the system
b. To suppress the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with
the infection
c. To stop the drug as soon as the patient feels better
146. The penicillins
a. Are bacteriostatic
b. Are bactericidal, interfering with bacterial cell walls
c. Are effective only if given intravenously
d. Do not produce cross-sensitivity within their class
147. Tetracycline use during pregnancy has been associated with
a. Gray baby syndrome
b. Tooth and bone defects in the neonate
c. Acne
d. Excessive bleeding
148. Patient receiving antibiotics do not usually need to receive teaching regarding
a. Completing the full course of drug therapy
b. The possibility of oral contraceptive failure
c. Timing of the drug doses
d. The need for screening blood tests
149. Viruses are known to cause
a. Tuberculosis
b. Leprosy
c. The common cold
d. Gonorrhea
150. Herpes viruses cause a broad range of conditions, but have not been identified
as the causative agent in
a. Cold sores
b. Shingles
c. Genital infections
d. Leprosy