23.

It is a device that changes the magnitude, direction or

Test 1 12. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane mode of application of a torque or force while
1. It deals only with the motion of bodies without parallel to the axis of rotation. transmitting it for a particular purpose.
reference to the forces that cause them. a) cam curves a) Frame
a) Kinetics b) cylindrical cam b) Machine
b) Motion c) tangential cam c) Mechanism
c) Kinematics d) Radial cam d) Structure
d) Acceleration
Answer: b
Answer: c Answer: b
13. A cone formed by elements, which are perpendicular
2. Progressive change in position of a body is called: to the elements of the pitch cone at the large end. 24. The process of obtaining the resultant of any number
a) Acceleration a) cone distance of vectors.
b) Motion b) back cone a) Scalar quantity
c) Force c) root cone b) Vector composition
d) Momentum d) cone center c) Vector quantity
d) Vector resolution
Answer: b Answer: b
Answer: b
3. Cam in general maybe divided into two classes; 14. The ability of moving body to perform work is called:
uniform motion and _________motion cam. a) Internal energy 25. It has magnitude, direction and sense.
a) Reverse b) potential energy a) scalar quantity
b) gravity c) kinetic energy b) absolute quantity
c) decelerated d) flow work c) vector quantity
d) accelerated d) relative velocity
Answer: c
Answer: d Answer: c
15. A slider crank chain is made up of
4. Product of mass and linear velocity is known as: a) one turning and one sliding pair 26. A plate, cylinder or other solid with a surface of
a) Impulse b) one turning and two sliding pairs contact so designed as to caused or modify the motion
b) Linear momentum c) two turning and one sliding pair of the piece.
c) Angular momentum d) three turning and one sliding pair a) Cam
d) Impact b) Disc
Answer: d c) Gear
Answer: b d) Pulley
16. A scott-Russell mechanism is made up of
5. It is the motion of an object diminished/decreased a) rotating pair only Answer: a
speed. b) sliding and turning pairs
a) Deceleration c) turning and rotary pairs 27. When acceleration is zero, the
b) Retarded motion d) turning pair only a) velocity is constant
c) Negative impulse b) velocity is negative
d) All of these Answer: b c) velocity is variable
d) velocity is zero
Answer: b 17. Ackerman steering gear is made up of
a) rolling and sliding pairs Answer: a
6. It is a property of matter, which causes it to resist any b) rolling pairs
change in its motion or state of rest. c) sliding and rotary pairs 28. When the velocity is changing, the acceleration is
a) Brake d) turning pairs a) constant
b) Friction b) not constant
c) Inertia Answer: d c) variable
d) Impulse d) zero
18. A cam where the follower reciprocates or oscillates in
Answer: c a plane parallel to the axis of the cam is called: Answer: a
a) circular cam
7. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time during b) cylindrical cam 29. Klein’s construction is used to determine the
which motion takes place is called: c) reciprocating cam a) acceleration of various parts
a) Deceleration d) tangential cam b) angular acceleration of various parts
b) Uniform motion c) displacement of various part
c) Acceleration Answer: b d) velocity of various parts
d) None of these
19. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar Answer: a
Answer: b mechanism lies on
a) a point obtained by intersection of extending 30. Klein’s construction can be used when
8. Statement that a given body is in static equilibrium adjoining links a) crank has a uniform angular
means that the body cannot b) left side pivot of this link acceleration
a) have any type of motion c) right side pivot of this link b) crank has a uniform angular velocity
b) be acted upon by more than one force d) any of the choices above c) crank has a non-uniform angular
c) undergo any displacement velocity
d) have any type of acceleration Answer: a d) b and c above

Answer: b 20. A vector quantity that describes both how fast it is Answer: d
moving and the direction in which it is heated.
9. It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of a) Acceleration 31. The cam angle is
scalar or vector algebra. b) Displacement a) the angle subtended by live portion of
a) Kinematics c) Motion cam at the cam’s center
b) Curvilinear translation d) Velocity b) the angle of rotation of the cam for a
c) Projectile definite displacement of the follower
d) Acceleration Answer: d c) the angle subtended at the cam’s center
by the portion of cam during which the follower
21. Which of the following is the rate at which the velocity moves
Answer: a is changing? d) the angle subtended by the cam at the
a) Acceleration cam center when the follower dwells
10. An object thrown upward will return to earth the b) Linear
magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to c) Motion Answer: b
a) zero d) Vertical
b) one-half the initial velocity 32. The pitch point on a cam refers to
c) twice the initial velocity Answer: a a) any point on pitch curve
d) initial velocity b) a point at a distance equal to pitch
22. The direction of the ________ is toward the center of circle radius from the center
Answer: d the circle in which, the study moves. c) the point of cam pitch circle that has
a) Centripetal acc. the maximum pressure angle
11. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane b) Centrifugal acc. d) none of the above
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the cam. c) Radial cam
a) Radial cam d) Tangential Answer: c
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Cam curves Answer: a 33. For a kinematics chain to be considered as mechanism,
d) Tangential cam a) none of the links should be fixed
b) one link should be fixed
Answer: a c) there is no such criterion
 d) two links should be fixed Answer: d a) Shear elasticity
b) poisson’s ratio
Answer: b 44. A shaft revolving in a bearing forms a c) modulus of elasticity
a) Cylindrical pair d) modulus of rigidity
34. Hart mechanism has how many links? b) higher pair
a) 4 c) lower pair Answer: d
b) 6 d) sliding pair
c) 8 6. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected
d) 12 Answer: c to intermittent or repeated load without causing failure is
called:
Answer: b 45. The total number of instantaneous center for a a) Ultimate stress
mechanism of N links is equal to b) Endurance limit
35. Peaucellier mechanism has how many links? a) 2N c) Ultimate strength
a) 4 b) (N-1)(N+1) d) Elastic limit
b) 5 c) 2N(N-1)
c) 6 d) N(N-1)/2 Answer: b
d) 8
Answer: d 7. Internal stress exerted by the fibers to resist the action of
Answer: d outside force is called:
46. A kinematics chain needs a minimum of a) Shearing stress
36. A cam with a roller follower would constitute which a) 2 links and 2 turning pairs b) tensile stress
type of pair? b) 3 links and 3 turning pairs c) ultimate stress
a) close pair c) 3 links and 2 turning pairs d) compressive stress
b) higher pair d) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
c) lower pair Answer: a
d) open pair Answer: d
8. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will eventually
Answer: b 47. For kinematics chains formed by lower pair the fail if the load/stress is above the endurance for the steel
relation between the number of joint J is given by under consideration. The endurance limit of the steel is
37. Kinematics pairs are those pairs that have a) L = 2/3(J+2) therefore
a) elements of pairs not held together b) L = 3/2(J+2) a) equal to the allowable stress of the module of
mechanically c) L = 2/3(L+2) elasticity
b) point or line contact between the d) L = 3/2(L+2) b) equal to half of the ultimate strength
elements when in motion c) equal to module of elasticity
c) surface contact between the two Answer: a d) equal to 80% of the elastic limit
elements when in motion
d) two elements that allow relative 48. In case of an elliptical trammel, Answer: b
motion a) one pair turns and two pairs slide
b) two pairs turn and two pairs slide 9. Moment of inertia is also called:
Answer: d c) three pairs turn and one pair slides a) Modulus of elasticity
d) all four pairs turn b) Weep strength
38. A Pantograph is a mechanism having c) Radius of gyration
a) higher pairs Answer: b d) None of these
b) lower pairs
c) rolling pairs 49. Coriolis component of acceleration is found in Answer: d
d) spherical pairs a) four bar mechanism
b) mechanism of steam engine 10. Defection of a beam is
Answer: b c) higher pair a) proportional to the modulus of elasticity and
d) whitworth-quick-return mechanism moment of inertia
39. The number of links in a pantograph is equal to b) proportional to the load imposed and inversely
a) 3 Answer: d to the length squared
b) 4 c) inversely proportional to the modulus of
c) 5 50. It is one that is not appreciably deformed by the action elasticity and moment of inertia
d) 6 of any external force or load. d) inversely proportional to the weight imposed
a) rigid body times the length
Answer: b b) structure
c) Frame Answer: c
40. In elliptical trammels, d) Mechanism
a) all four pairs are turning 11. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is less
b) one pair turning and three pairs sliding Answer: a than the yield point is called:
c) three pairs turning and one pair sliding a) Plasticity
d) two pairs and two pairs sliding b) Elasticity

Answer: d
Test 2 c)
d)
Creep
Ductility
1. At a given section of an I beam the maximum bending
stress occurs at the
41. The Klein’s method of construction for reciprocating Answer: c
a) max. shear stress area
engine mechanism
b) neutral axis
a) enables determined of coriolis 12. It is opposite direction of parallel force.
c) web joint near the flange
component a) concurrent
d) outermost
b) is a simplified form of b) coplanar
instantaneous center method c) couple
Answer: d
c) is based on acceleration diagram d) non coplanar
d) utilizes a quadrilateral similar to the
2. The resultant of two or more forces is a
diagram of mechanism for reciprocating engine Answer: c
a) couple of forces
b) concurrent of forces
Answer: d 13. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross - section of
c) momentum
the beam to the section modulus is
d) resolution of forces
42. If a particle of a link has a velocity that changes both in a) equal to the radius of gyration
magnitude and direction at any instant, then b) equal to the area of the cross-section
Answer: d
a) it must have only unidirectional c) measure of a distance
acceleration d) dependent on modulus of elasticity of beam
3. Two or more forces acting together, could be replaced by a
b) it must have two components of measure
single force with same effect in a mass called:
acceleration e.g., centripetal and tangential
a) couple of forces
c) it must have three components of Answer: c
b) resolution of forces
acceleration e.g., centripetal, centrifugal and
c) resultant
tangential 14. The differential of the shear equation is which of the
d) concurrent of forces
d) it must have three components of following:
acceleration e.g., centripetal, centrifugal and a) bending moment of the beam
Answer: c
gravitational b) tensile strength of the beam
c) slope of the elastic curve
4. The frictional forces depends on coefficient of friction and
Answer: b d) load of the beam
a) torque
b) weights of object
43. Select the one that is the highest pair. Answer: d
c) normal of force
a) Crosby indicator mechanism
d) moment
b) Hart’s straight line mechanism 15. Could be defined as simply push and pull is known as
c) Thomson indicator mechanism a) work
Answer: c
d) Both gearing mechanism b) force
c) inertia
5. Shear modulus is also known as:
 d) power d) all of these d) slope of the beam

Answer: b Answer: a Answer: b

16. The changes in shape or geometry of the body due to 27. The three moment equation may be used to analyze a 38. The change in length per unit original length
action of a force on it is called deformation or a) tapered column a) strain
a) shearing stress b) continuous beam b) stress
b) stresses c) endurance limit c) deformation
c) compressive stress d) tensile stress d) elastic modulus
d) strains
Answer: b Answer: a
Answer: d
28. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of 39. The ability of material or metal to resist being crushed is
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress is called: a) shear strain to compressive strain a) fatigue strength
a) plasticity b) elastic limit to compressive strain b) bending strength
b) all of these c) lateral strain to longitudinal strain c) torsional strength
c) stiffness d) elastic limit to proportional limit d) compressive strength
d) toughness
Answer: c Answer: d
Answer: c
29. The product of the resultant of all forces acting on a body 40. The ability of a metal to withstand forces that causes a
and the time that the resultant acts. member to twist.
18. The property of a material that relates the lateral strain to a) angular impulse a) shear strength
longitudinal strain is called: b) angular momentum b) tensile strength
a) stress c) Linear impulse c) bearing strength
b) strain d) linear momentum d) torsional strength
c) poisson’s ratio
d) endurance limit Answer: c Answer: d

Answer: c 30. The system of forces and opposite collinear forces are 41. The ratio of stress to strain within the elastic limit is called
added, which of the following if any is true? a) creep
19. The single force which produces the same effect upon a a) equilibrium is destroyed b) modulus of rigidity
body as two or more forces acting together is called: b) equilibrium is maintained c) modulus of elasticity
a) Resultant force c) none of these is true d) poisson’s ratio
b) co-planar force d) an unbalance of moment exist
c) couple Answer: c
d) non-coplanar force Answer: b
42. The ability of metal to withstand loads without breaking
Answer: a 31. What is the property of a material, which resists forces down is termed as
acting to pull the material apart? a) strain
20. The ability of metal to resist being crushed is called a) shear strength b) stress
a) shearing strength b) tensile strength c) elasticity
b) compressive stress c) torsional strength d) strength
c) torsional strength d) compressive strength
d) tensile strength Answer: d
Answer: b
Answer: b 43. The last point at which a material may be stretched a still
32. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that return to its underformed condition upon release of the stress.
21. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called: causes twisting? a) rupture limit
a) co-planar a) torsional strength b) elastic limit
b) non-coplanar forces b) modulus of elasticity c) proportional limit
c) Acceleration c) twisting moment d) ultimate limit
d) composition of forces d) elasticity
Answer: b
Answer: d Answer: a
44. The deformation that results from a stress and is expressed
22. In general, the design stress and factor of safety are 33. The unit deformation is called in terms of the amount of deformation per inch.
related as follows a) torsion a) elongation
a) design stress = ultimate stress times factor of b) strain b) strain
safety c) stress c) poisson’s ratio
b) design stress = ultimate stress divided by factor d) shear d) elasticity
of safety
c) factor of safety = design stress divided ultimate Answer: b Answer: b
stress
d) ultimate stress = factor of safety divided by 34. The total amount of permanent extension of the gage 45. The internal resistance a material offers to being
design stress length measured after specimen has fractured and is expressed deformed and is measured in terms of applied load.
as percentage increase of the original length. a) strain
Answer: b a) elongation b) elasticity
b) strain c) stress
23. Stresses that are independent to loads are known as: c) stress d) resilience
a) Working stresses d) elastic limit
b) Operating stresses Answer: c
c) residual stresses Answer: a
d) shear stresses 46. The maximum stress induced in a material when subjected
35. Strength of a material is that of a stress intensity to alternating or repeated loading without causing failure.
Answer: c determined by considering the maximum test load to act over a) Ultimate strength
the original area of the test specimens called b) yield strength
24. The ratio of unit lateral deformation to unit longitudinal a) yield point c) endurance strength
deformation is called: b) ultimate strength d) rupture strength
a) poisson’s ratio c) break strength
b) willan’s line d) elastic limit Answer: c
c) modulus of elasticity
d) deformation Answer: b 47. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected
before failure occurs is called:
Answer: a 36. The maximum stress, which is reached during a tension a) Rupture strength
test is called b) ultimate strength
25. Separate forces, which can be so combined are called: a) stress c) Yield strength
a) non-concurrent b) elasticity d) proportional limit
b) couple c) strain
c) combined forces d) tensile strength Answer: b
d) concurrent forces
Answer: d 48. The total deformation measured in the direction of the line
Answer: d of stress.
37. Which of the following is the different of the shear a) strain
26. Endurance strength is nearly proportional to the ultimate equation? b) elasticity
strength but not with a) bending moment c) elongation
a) yield strength b) load on the beam d) contraction
b) design stress c) tensile strength of the beam
c) shear stress
Answer: a b) both the beams are equally strong
c) the circular beam is more economical 20. The intensity of stress that causes unit strain is known as
49. The total resistance that a material offers to an applied d) the square beam is more economical a) bulk modulus
load is called b) modulus of elasticity
a) friction torque Answer: d c) modulus of rigidity
b) stress d) unit stress
c) rigidity 10. Ties are load carrying members that carry
d) compressive force a) axial compressive loads Answer: b
b) axial tension loads
Answer: b c) prestressing thick cylinders 21. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel, as compared to its
e) d)relieving thick cylinders ultimate compressive stress will be
50. The ability of metal to withstand forces thus following a a) less
number of twist. Answer: b b) more
a) shear strength c) more or less depending on the factors
b) bearing strength 11. Auto frottage is the method of d) same
c) endurance limit a) calculating stresses in thick cylinders
d) deformation b) increasing life of thick cylinders Answer: b
c) prestressing thick cylinders
Answer: a d) relieving thick cylinders 22. The relation between modulus of elasticity E and modulus
Answer: c of elasticity in shear G, bulk modulus of elasticity K and
Poisson’s ratio is given by
Test 3 12. Mohr’s circle can be used to determine _________ on a) E = Gu
1. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress. inclined surface. b) E = G (u + 1)
a) proportionality constant a) principal stress c) E = 2g(u+1)
b) strain b) normal stress d) E = 4G (1+2u)
c) Modulus c) tangential stress
d) Factor of safety d) all of the above Answer: c
23. When shear force is zero along a section, the bending
Answer: d Answer: d moment at that section will be
a) maximum
2. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the free 13. Modulus of rigidity can be defined as the ratio of b) minimum
end, the moment is a) linear stress to longitudinal strain c) minimum or maximum
a) constant along the beam b) shear stress to shear strain d) zero
b) maximum at the wall c) shear to strain
c) ¼ maximum half way out on the beam d) shear stress to volumetric strain Answer: c
d) maximum at the free end
Answer: b 24. The stress-strain curve for a glass rod during tensile test is
Answer: b a) an irregular
14. The total strain energy stored in a body is called b) a parabola
3. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously a) resilience c) a sudden break
withstand. b) proof resilience d) a straight line
a) yield point c) modulus of resilience
b) bearing strength d) toughness Answer: c
c) ultimate strength
d) point of rupture Answer: a 25. The ratio of average shear stress to maximum shear stress
for a circular section is equal to
Answer: b 15. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is a) 2
equal to b) 2/3
4. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is a) one fourth that of a prismatic bar of the same c) 3/2
removed the strain disappears. From this information, which length d) ¾
of the following can be deducted about this material? b) one-sixth that of a prismatic bar of the same length
a) It is elastic. c) one third that of a prismatic bar of the same length Answer: d
b) It has a modulus of elasticity. d) that of a prismatic bar of the same length
c) it is plastic 26. The ratio of bulk modulus for Poisson’s ratio of 0.25 will
d) it is ductile. Answer: c be equal to
a) 3/2
Answer: a 16. Which one is the incorrect statement about true stress- b) 5/16
strain method? c) 1
5. A cantilever beam having a uniformly increasing load e) it is more sensitive to changes in mechanical d) 2
toward the fixed end conditions.
a) has uniform shear f) There is no such phenomenon like true stress or Answer: c
b) has a reaction equal to the load true strain.
c) will have maximum bending moment midway g) This method can be used for compression tests as 27. The compression members tend to buckle in the direction
to the beam well. of
d) has a reaction is not equal to the load h) True stress is load per unit area and similarly true a) axis of load
strain is determined under actual conditions. b) perpendicular to the axis of load
Answer: b c) minimum cross-section
Answer: f d) least radius of gyration
6. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces
a) depends on the materials and the finish condition 17. The tensile stress of a material is given by Answer: d
of the surface a) average load during the test / average at the time
b) depends only on the finish condition pf the surface of fracture 28. The stress in an elastic material is
c) does not depend on the materials b) average load during the test / original cross- a) inversely proportional to the material’s yield
d) depends on the composition of the materials only sectional area strength
c) maximum load during test / area at the time of b) inversely proportional to the force acting
Answer: a fracture c) proportional to the displacement of the material
d) maximum load during test / original cross- acted upon by the force
7. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected sectional area d) inversely proportional to the strain
before failure occurs.
a) rupture stress Answer: d Answer: c
b) yield stress
c) ultimate stress 18. When a part is constrained to move and heated, it 29. The slenderness ratio of a column is generally defined as
d) allowable stress develops what kind of stress? the ratio of its
a) compressive stress a) length to its minimum width
Answer: c b) principal stress b) unsupported length to its maximum radius of
c) shear stress gyration
8. The total resistance that a material offers to an applied load. d) tensile stress c) length to its moment of inertia
a) flexure d) unsupported length to its least radius of gyration
b) stress Answer: a
c) elasticity Answer: d
d) rigidity 19. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in
tension is nearly 30. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is
Answer: b a) one-half known as
b) one-third a) modulus of elongation
9. If the areas of cross-sections of square and circular beams c) one-fourth b) plastic range
are the same and both are put to equal bending moment then d) the same c) irreversible range
the correct statement is d) elastic range
a) both the beams are equally economical Answer: a
Answer: d d) the length of the column
Answer: b
31. Principal stresses occur on those planes Answer: d
a) where the shearing stress is zero
b) which are 45 degrees apart 41. The area of the shear diagram of a beam between any two Test 4
c) where the shearing stress is a maximum points on the beam is equal to the 1. In a specification schedule is used when the pipe specified
d) which are subjected only to tension a) change in shear between the two points as “schedule 80”, the pipe corresponds to the
b) total shear beyond the two points a) “ extra standard “ weight
Answer: a c) average moment between the two points b) allowable stress
d) change in moment between the two points c) internal pressure
32. The ratio of the moment of inertia of the cross-section of a d) “ old standard “ weight
beam to the section modulus is Answer: d
a) equal to the radius of gyration Answer: b
b) equal to the area of the cross section 42. Poisson’s ratio is principally used in
c) a measure of distance a) the determination of capability of material for 2. The modulus of elasticity for ordinary steel usually falls
d) multiplied by the bending moment to determine being shaped between ________ million pounds per square inch.
the stress b) the determination of capacity of a material for a) 26 to 28
plastic deformation with fracture b) 28 to 31
Answer: c c) stress-strain relationships where stresses are c) 20 to 45
applied in more than one direction d) 50 to 30
33. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop d) the determination of the endurance limit
what kind of stress? Answer: b
a) bending stress Answer: c
b) compressive stress 3. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of
c) shearing stress 43. Modulus of resilience is a) accuracy
d) tensile stress a) the same as the modulus of elasticity b) quality
b) a measure of a materials ability to store strain c) stiffness
Answer: c energy d) rigidity
c) the reciprocal of the modulus of elasticity
34. The bending moment at a section of a beam is derived d) a measure of the deflection of member Answer: c
from the
a) sum of the moments of all external forces on one Answer: b 4. The modulus of elasticity for most metals in compression is
side of the section usually taken as that in
b) difference between the moments on one side of 44. Which of the following best describes the 0.2% offset a) tension
the section and the opposite side yield stress? b) bearing
c) sum of the moments of all external forces on both a) it is elastic limit after which a measurable c) torsion
sides of the section plastic strain has occurred. d) yield
d) sum of the moments of all external forces between b) it is the stress at which the material plastically
supports strains 0.2%. Answer: a
c) it is the stress at which the material elastically
Answer: a strains 0.2% 5. The ratio of moment and stress is called:
d) it is 0.2% below the fracture point of the a) Contraction
35. The stress concentration factor material. b) Proportional constant
a) is a ratio of the average stress on a section to the c) Section modulus
allowable stress Answer: b d) Strain
b) cannot be evaluated for brittle materials
c) is the ratio of areas involved in a sudden change of 45. Under very low deformation and at high temperature it is Answer: c
cross-section possible to have some plastic flow in a crystal at a shear stress
d) is the ratio of the maximum stress produced in a lower than the critical shear stress. What is this phenomenon 6. For a symmetrical cross-section beam the flexural stress is
cross section to the average stress over the section called? _______ when the vertical shear is maximum.
a) Slip a) infinity
Answer: d b) Twinning b) maximum
c) Creep c) minimum
36. Poisson’s ratio is the ratio of the d) Shearing d) zero
a) unit lateral deformation to the unit longitudinal
deformation Answer: c Answer: d
b) unit stress to unit strain
c) elastic limit to proportional limit 46. In a stress-strain diagram what is the correct term for the 7. When tested in compression, ductile materials usually
d) shear strain to compressive strain stress level at e = 0.20% offset? exhibit ________characteristics up to the yield strength as
a) Elastic limit they do when tested in tension
Answer: a b) Plastic limit a) the same
c) Offset rupture stress b) less than
37. Hooke’s law for an isotropic homogeneous medium d) Offset yield stress c) more than
experiencing one dimensional stress is known as d) approximately the same
a) Stress = E (strain) Answer: d
b) Strain = E (stress) Answer: d
c) (Force)(Area) = E (change in length/length) 47. Under which type of loading does fatigue occur?
d) strain energy = E (internal energy) a) Static load 8. It has been said that 80% of the failures of machine parts
b) Plane have been due to
Answer: a c) High load a) compression
d) Repeated load b) fatigue failures
38. The modulus of rigidity of a steel member is c) negligence
a) a function of the length and depth Answer: d d) torsion
b) defined as the unit shear stress divided by the unit
shear deformation 48. A specimen is subjected to a load. When the load is Answer: b
c) equal to the modulus of elasticity divided by one removed, the strain disappears. From this information, which
plus Poisson’s ratio of the following can be deduced about this material? 9. Cazand quotes values for steel showing Sn/Su ratios, often
d) defined as the length divided by the moment of a) It is elastic. called endurance ratio, from
inertia b) It is plastic. a) 0.23 to 0.65
c) It is has a high modulus of elasticity. b) 0.34 to 0.45
Answer: b d) It is ductile. c) 0.34 to 0.87
d) 0.63 to 0.93
39. The maximum bending moment of a beam simply Answer: a
supported at both ends and subject to a total load  uniformly Answer: a
distributed over its length L is expressed by the formula 49. Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio of a
a)  L/8 material? 10. The discontinuity or change of section, such as scratches,
b)  L2/8 a) 0.45 holes, bends, or grooves is a
c)  L/2 b) 0.5 a) stress raiser
d)  L2/2 c) 0.55 b) stress functioning
d) 0.60 c) stress raiser
Answer: b d) stress relieving
Answer: a
40. In a column (slenderness ratio > 160), which of the Answer: a
following has the greatest influence on its tendency to buckle 50. In pure torsion, the minimum torsional stress occurs at the
under a compressive load? a) center 11. The degree of stress concentration is usually indicated by
a) the modulus of elasticity of the material b) long side the
b) the compressive strength of the material c) medium side a) power factor
c) the radius of gyration of the column d) short side b) stress concentration factor
 c) service factor Answer: d 34. The stress beyond which the material will not return to its
d) stress factor original shape when unloaded, but will retain a permanent
23. A kind of stress that is caused by forces acting along or deformation is termed as
Answer: b parallel to the area is called a) elastic limit
a) Bearing stress b) proportional limit
12. In a part at uniform temperature and not acted upon by an b) Shearing stress c) yield point
external load, any internal stress that exists is called: c) Tangential stress d) yield strength
a) Control stress d) tensile stess
b) Form stress Answer: a
c) Residual stress Answer: b
d) Superposed stress 35. Refers to the actual stress the material has when under
24. Obtained by dividing the differential load dF by the dA load.
Answer: c over which it acts. a) Allowable stress
a) Elasticity b) Factor of safety
13. The stress or load induced by the tightening operation. b) Elongation c) Ultimate strength
a) Initial stress c) Strain d) Working stress
b) Initial tension d) Stress
c) Residual stress Answer: d
d) None of these Answer: d
36. The safe soil bearing pressure of diesel engine is about
Answer: a 25. The highest ordinate in the stress – strain diagram or a) 2000 kg per sq. cm
curve is called b) 4600 kg per sq. cm
14. A type of failure due to instability is known as a) elastic limit c) 4890 kg per sq. cm
a) Slenderness ratio b) rapture strength d) 5633 kg per sq. cm
b) Buckingham c) ultimate strength
c) Buckling d) yield point Answer: c
d) Stability
Answer: c 37. The machine foundation must have a factor of safety of
Answer: c a) 3
26. A pair of forces equal in magnitude opposite in direction, b) 4
15. The ratio of the length of the column and the radius of and not in the same line is called c) 5
gyration of the cross-sectional area about a centroidal axis is a) couple d) 6
called b) momentum
a) contact ratio c) parallel forces Answer: c
b) constant ratio d) torque
c) power factor 38. The load acts over a smaller area, and the ________
d) slenderness ratio Answer: a continues to increase unit failure.
a) actual stress
Answer: d 27. Framework composed of members joined at their ends to b) allowable stress
form a rigid structure is known as : c) compressive stress
16. Formula that applies to a very slender column is called a) Joists d) tensile stress
a) Column formula b) Machine
b) Euler’s formula c) Purlins Answer: a
c) Moment formula d) Truss
d) Slender formula 39. In the stress-strain diagram where there is a large increase
Answer: d in strain with little or no increase in stress is called
Answer: b a) Endurance strength
28. The ratio of the tensile stress to the tensile strain is called b) Ultimate strength
17. If two principal stresses are zero, the state stress is a) Bulk modulus c) Rapture strength
a) biaxial b) Hooke’s law d) Yield strength
b) monoaxial c) Shear modulus
c) triaxial d) Young modulus Answer: d
d) uniaxial
Answer: d 40. A ________ member that carries loads transverse to its
Answer: d axis.
29. The ratio of the volume stress to the volume strain is a) structure
18. If one principal stress is zero, the state stress is called the coefficient of volume elasticity or b) column
a) biaxial a) bulk modulus c) beam
b) monoaxial b) Hooke’s law d) frame
c) triaxial c) shear modulus
d) uniaxial d) Young modulus Answer: c

Answer: a Answer: a 41. Which type of load that is applied slowly and is never
removed?
19. If all the principal stresses have finite values, the system is 30. The action of a force is characterized by a) Uniform load
a) biaxial a) its magnitude b) Static load
b) monoaxial b) direction of its action c) Equilibrium load
c) triaxial c) point of application d) Impact load
d) uniaxial d) all of the above
Answer: b
Answer: c Answer: d
42. When varying loads are applied that are not regular in
20. Under theories of failure for static loading of ductile 31. At highest or lowest point on the moment diagram their amplitude, the loading is called
material, the design stress is the a) shear is half, the maximum moment a) Repeated loading
a) endurance strength / factor of safety b) shear is maximum b) Random loading
b) factor of safety / yield stress c) shear is negative c) Reversed loading
c) yield stress / factor of safety d) shear is zero d) Fluctuating loading
d) ultimate stress / factor of safety
Answer: d Answer: b
Answer: c
32. The built-in or fixed support is capable of supporting 43. A measure of the relative safety of a load-carrying
21. Under theories of failure, the value of shear stress is a) an axial load component is termed as
______ that of tensile stress. b) a traverse force a) design factor
a) equal c) a bending moment b) load factor
b) double d) all of these c) ratio factor
c) half d) demand factor
d) three times Answer: d
Answer: a
Answer: c 33. The modulus of elasticity in shear is commonly called
a) Bulk modulus 44. The condition, which causes actual stresses in machine
22. The theory of mechanics of materials shows that the b) deformation members to be higher than nominal values predicted by the
results from the octahedral shear stress theory and those from c) Modulus of rigidity elementary direct and combined stress equations.
the maximum distortion energy theory are ________. d) Young modulus a) Stress concentration factor
a) more than b) Stress factor
b) less than Answer: c c) Design factor
c) relevant d) Load factor
d) the same
Answer: a
 b) Propeller shaft Answer: c
45. The stress value, which is used, in the mathematical c) Turbine shaft
determination of the required size of the machine member. d) Machine shaft 16. It is suggested that the design factor on the yield strength
a) Endurance stress be about 1.5 for the smooth load, about 2 to 2.25 for minor
b) Design stress Answer: a shock loads, and _________ when the loading reverse during
c) Maximum stress operation.
d) Normal stress 6. A line shaft is also known as a) 3.0
a) Counter shaft b) 4.0
Answer: b b) Jack shaft c) 3.5
c) Main shaft d) 4.5
46. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of cast iron is in the d) Head shaft
range of Answer: d
a) 0.30 to 0.33 Answer: c
b) 0.27 to 0.30 17. A column is called short column when
c) 0.25 to 0.27 7. Which of the following shaft intermediate between a line a) the length is more than 30 times the diameter
d) 0.35 to 0.45 shaft and a driven shaft? b) slenderness ratio is more than 120
a) Counter shaft c) the length is less than 8 times the diameter
Answer: c b) Jack shaft d) the slenderness ratio is more than 32
c) Head Shaft
47. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of steel is in the range d) All of the above Answer: c
of
a) 0.30 to 0.33 Answer: d 18. For a circular shaft subjected to torque the value of shear
b) 0.27 to 0.30 stress
c) 0.25 to 0.27 8. Short shafts on machines are called a) is uniform throughout
d) 0.35 to 0.45 a) Core shafts b) has maximum value at the axis
b) Head shafts c) has maximum value at the surface
Answer: b c) Medium shafts d) is zero at the axis and linearly increases to a
d) Spindles maximum value at the surface of the shaft
48. Typical values for Poisson’s ratio of aluminum and
titanium is in the range of Answer: d Answer: d
a) 0.25 to 0.27
b) 0.27 to 0.30 9. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at the 19. The compression members tend to buckle in the direction
c) 0.30 to 0.33 neutral plane where the normal stress is of
d) 0.35 to 0.45 a) constant a) axis of load
b) maximum b) perpendicular to the axis of load
Answer: c c) minimum c) minimum cross-section
d) zero d) least radius of gyration
49. The angle of inclination of the planes on which the
principal stresses act is called Answer: d Answer: d
a) normal plane
b) principal plane 10. Criteria for the limiting torsional deflection vary from 20. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made up
c) tangential plane 0.08 per foot of length for machinery shafts to _______ per of
d) traverse plane foot. a) clad material
a) 1 b) composite material
Answer: b b) 2 c) homogeneous material
c) 3 d) heterogeneous material
50. _________ provides a very accurate prediction of failure d) 4
of ductile materials under static loads or completely reversed Answer: d
normal, shear or combined stresses. Answer: a
a) Shear stress theory 21. The column splice is used for increasing
b) Normal stress theory a) strength of the column
c) Distortion energy theory 11. For transmission shafts the allowable deflection is one b) cross-sectional area of the column
d) Soderberg line theory degree in a length of _________ diameters. c) length of the column
a) 10 d) all of the above
Answer: c b) 15
c) 20 Answer: c
d) 25
Test 5 22. A simply supported beam has a uniformly distributed load
1. Torsional deflection is a significant consideration in the Answer: c on it, the bending moment is
design of shaft and the limit should be in the range of a) triangle
________ degrees/foot of length. 12. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that the b) parabola
a) 0.004 to 0.006 deflection should not exceed ____________ of length c) semi-circle
b) 0.08 to 1 between supports. d) rectangle
c) 0.006 to 0.008 a) 0.01 in. per foot
d) 0.008 to 1 b) 0.02 in. per foot Answer: b
c) 0.03 in. per foot
Answer: b d) 0.04 in. per foot 23. The power obtained by piston reaches flywheel through
the
2. For a universal joint shaft angle should be _________ Answer: a a. countershaft
degrees maximum and much less if in high rotational speed. b. crank shaft
a) 12 13. In general for machinery shafts, the permissible deflection c. transmission shaft
b) 16 may be closer to d. line shaft
c) 15 a) 0.02 in/ft
d) 14 b) 0.01 in/ft Answer: b
c) 0.002 in/ft
Answer: c d) 0.030 in/ft 24. There are two types of crankshafts, namely
a) single piece and built up
3. It is a good design practice for steel line shafting to Answer: c b) forged and turned
consider a limit to the linear deflection of ________ inch/foot c) rotary and stationary
length maximum. 14. The speed at which the center of mass will equal the d) none of these
a) 0.050 deflecting forces on the shaft with its attached bodies will
b) 0.010 then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force changes its Answer: a
c) 0.020 direction as the shaft turns.
d) 0.060 a) Critical speed 25. Engine valves get open by means of
b) Geometrical speed a) cam shaft
Answer: b c) Mean speed b) rocker shaft
d) Unit speed c) crank shaft
4. It is a rotating machine member that transmits power. d) valve guard
a) Cam Answer: a
b) Plate Answer: a
c) Shaft 15. For shaft, the minimum value of numerical combined
d) Flywheel shock and fatigue factor to be applied in every case to the 26. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used
computed bending moment is in practice for main transmitting shafts is
Answer: c a) 1.0 a) 282 kg/cm2
b) 1.3 b) 423 kg/cm2
5. A stationary member carrying pulleys, wheels and etc. that c) 1.5 c) 599 kg/cm2
transmit power is called: d) 1.8 d) 620 kg/cm2
a) Axle Answer: a
 c) primary and main shafts 50. Allowable stresses in shear equal to ________ are
27. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used d) secondary and main shafts common in design of a shaft.
in practice for line shafts carrying pulleys is a) 3000 to 5000 psi
a) 150 kg/cm2 Answer: c b) 4000 to 6000 psi
b) 282 kg/cm2 c) 5000 to 8000 psi
c) 423 kg/cm2 39. The primary and lay shafts rotate in _________ direction. d) 6000 to 10000 psi
d) 550 kg/cm2 a) in the same
Answer: c b) different Answer: c
c) reverse
28. The value of allowable stresses which are generally used d) none of the above
in practice for small, short shafts, countershafts is Test 6
a) 282 kg/cm2 Answer: c 1. A type of coupling that allows slight amount of torsional
b) 599 kg/cm2 angular flexibility due to introduction with some elastic
c) 650 kg/cm2 40. It is an integral part of a machine. material cylindrically wrapped around the bolts in the flange.
d) 750 kg/cm2 a) Spindle a) Simple elastic bonded coupling
b) Axle b) Elastic material bushed coupling
Answer: b c) Counter shaft c) Elastic material bonded coupling
d) Machine shaft d) All of these
29. Torsional deformation in transmission shafts should be
limited to _______ in 20 diameters. Answer: d Answer: b
a) 1
b) 2 41. Stresses in shafts are analyzed through 2. Which of the following keys that is square or flat and
c) 3 a) torsional tapered with head?
d) 4 b) bending a) Pin key
c) axial b) Saddle key
Answer: a d) all of these c) Gib-head keys
d) None of these
30. Lateral deflection caused by bending should not exceed Answer: d
a) in. per foot of length Answer: c
b) 0.005 in. per foot of length 42. What is the standard stock length?
c) in. per foot of length a) 16 ft 3. What are considered as the most common keys?
d) 0.05 in. per foot of length b) 20 ft a) Flat key
c) 24 ft b) Square key
Answer: c d) all of the above c) Saddle key
d) A & B above
31. Front axle should be live and Answer: d
a) weak Answer: d
b) dead 43. Centrifugal separators that operate at speeds ________
c) strong also employ these flexible shafts. 4. A key may either straight or tapered. It is usually a drive
d) none of these a) 1000 to 3000 rpm fit.
b) 5000 to 10000 rpm a) Pin key
Answer: b c) 15000 to 30000 rpm b) Saddle key
d) 20000 to 50000 rpm c) Gib-head key
32. The steering is coupled to the two front wheels by means d) None of these
of a Answer: d
a) connecting rod Answer: a
b) tie rod 44. Which of the following material is used for shafting?
c) push rod a) AISI 3240 5. A key with one of several patented methods of keying is
d) spindle b) AISI 3150 driven or pressed into a hole that is small enough to close the
c) AISI 4063 slit, assembled in radial direction.
Answer: b d) AISI 33000 a) Fit key
b) Saddle key
33. In the overdrive transmission system the rotation speed of Answer: a c) Roll Pin
________ rest higher than that of engine’s speed. d) Pin key
a) main shaft 45. The process of redistributing the mass attached to a
b) crank shaft rotating body in order to reduce vibrations arising from a Answer: c
c) propeller shaft centrifugal force.
d) machine shaft a) Shaft coupling 6. Kennedy keys are also known as
b) Shaft balancing a) Tangential keys
Answer: c c) Shaft hooper b) Normal keys
d) stator balancing c) Saddle keys
34. A slip joint ________ the length of propeller shaft. d) Roll Pin
a) increases Answer: b
b) decreases Answer: a
c) keeps appropriate 46. In many cases the _________ of the shaft is an import
d) none of these design feature. 7. A key that allows the hub to move along the shaft but
a) deflections prevents the rotation of the shaft.
Answer: c b) rigidity a) Woodruff key
c) size b) Feather key
35. The transmission system incorporates clutch, gear box, d) strength c) Gibbs key
and propeller shaft and d) Square key
a) brake Answer: b
b) differential Answer: b
c) steering 47. Commercial shafting is made of
d) main shafting a) low carbon steel 8. Which of the following type of fits used for involute
b) cast iron spline?
Answer: b c) brass a) Close fit
d) bronze b) Press
36. The lay shaft moves ________ the primary shaft. c) Sliding
a) equal to Answer: a d) All of these
b) more than
c) less than 48. What is the most common material for shafting? Answer: d
d) in the gear ratio a) Wrought iron
b) Cast iron 9. Used for permanent fits and are similar to involute splines
Answer: d c) Mild steel except that the pressure angle is 14.5 deg.
d) Aluminum a) Separation load
37. The main shaft is lifted ________ the lay shaft. b) Stub serrations
a) before Answer: c c) Spline shaft
b) after d) Involute serrations
c) parallel to 49. Cold drawing produces a ________ shaft that hot rolling,
d) adjacent to but with higher residual stresses. Answer: d
a) weaker
Answer: c b) stronger 10. In case of a knuckle joint, the pin is most likely to fall in
c) harder a) compression
38. In the top gear, the rotational speeds of _________ remain d) none of the above b) shear
the same c) tension
a) primary and lay shafts Answer: b d) double shear
b) main and lay shafts
Answer: d 33. A coupling that transmits power via the frictional forces
22. A type of square key with bottom two corners beveled is induced by pulling the flanges toward each other over slotted
11. In case of sunk key, called tapered sleeves is known as
a) the key is cut in both shaft and hub a) Flat key a) Flange coupling
b) the key way is cut in hub only b) Feather key b) Flange compression coupling
c) the key way is cut in shaft only c) Barth key c) Ribbed compression coupling
d) the key way is helical along the shaft d) Woodruff key d) Rigid coupling

Answer: a Answer: c Answer: b

12. Splined shafts are generally for 23. The bearing load on feather keys should not exceed 34. What is used for absorbing some shock and vibration that
a) air craft a) 600 psi may appear on one shaft and of preventing the occurrence of
b) automobiles b) 800 psi reversed stresses caused by the shaft deflecting at the
c) bicycles c) 1000 psi coupling?
d) machine tools d) 1200 psi a) Flange coupling
b) Flexible coupling
Answer: b Answer: c c) Rigid coupling
d) None of these
13. Splines are used when 24. The two keys are angularly spaced
a) the power to be transmitted is low a) 45  Answer: b
b) the power to be transmitted is high b) 60 
c) the torque is high c) 75  35. For a single Hooke’s coupling the shaft angle should not
d) axial relative motion between shaft and hub is d) 90  be greater than
necessary a) 10 
Answer: d b) 12 
Answer: d c) 15 
25. The three keys are angularly spaced d) 30 
14. Which key normally used in wristwatches? a) 60 
a) Kennedy key b) 90  Answer: c
b) Sunk key c) 1200
c) Tangent key d) 1800 36. A universal coupling is
d) None of the above Answer: c a) A rigid coupling
b) A type of flange coupling
Answer: d 26. The permissible crushing stress is about _________ times c) Used for collinear coupling
the permissible shear stress. d) Used for non-collinear shafts
15. If a square key and shaft are to be of the same material a) 1.5
and of equal strength the length of key would be equal to b) 1.7 Answer: d
a) d c) 1.9
b) 0.75 d d) 1.10 37. A flange coupling is
c) 1.2 d a) flexible
d) 1.5 d Answer: b b) used for collinear shafts
c) used for non-collinear shafts
Answer: c 27. Practical considerations required that the hub length d) used only on small shafts rotating at low speed
should be at least _________ to obtain a good grip.
16. A type of key that is used in self-aligning machine key a) 1.2D Answer: b
made by a side milling cutter in the form of a segment of a b) 1.5D
disk. c) 1.7D 38. In flange coupling the weakest element should be the
a) Kennedy key d) 1.9D a) bolts
b) Saddle key b) flange
c) Tangent key Answer: b c) key
d) Woodruff key d) shaft
28. For three keys, a _________ percent overload often is
Answer: d used. Answer: c
a) 10
17. A female mating member that forms a groove in the shaft b) 15 39. In flange coupling the flange bolts are designed for
to which the key fits. c) 20 a) fatigue
a) Key path d) 25 b) shear forces
b) Key way c) compression
c) Key holder Answer: b d) tensile forces
d) Key hole
29. A pin that is cylindrical in shape with a head on one end Answer: b
Answer: b and a radial through hole in the other end.
a) Clevis pins 40. Which of the following mechanical devices is used for
18. A square taper key fitted into a keyway of square section b) Taper pins uniting or connecting parts of a mechanical system?
and driven from opposite ends of the hub is known as c) Dower pins a) Coupling
a) Barth key d) Taper pins b) Keys
b) Feather key c) Splines
c) Kennedy key Answer: a d) Flexible coupling
d) Saddle key
30. Used for the attachment of levers, wheels and similar Answer: a
Answer: c devices onto shafts for light-duty service.
a) Clevis pins 41. A coupling that employs a fluid to provide angular
19. A machine member employed at the interface of a pair of b) Cotter pins flexibility between the input and output shafts.
mating male and female circular cross-sectioned members to c) Dowel pins a) Rigid coupling
prevent relative angular motion between these mating. d) Taper pins b) Flexible coupling
a) Key way c) Hydraulic coupling
b) Key Answer: d d) Oldham coupling
c) Constant key
d) Variable key 31. The key fits into mating grooves in the shaft and mating Answer: c
member is called
Answer: b a) Key way 42. Which of the following type of coupling is used with
b) Key path collinear shafts?
20. A feather key is one of the following types of c) Key hole a) Collar coupling
a) sunk d) None of these b) Rigid coupling
b) tapered c) Flexible coupling
c) parallel Answer: a d) Hydraulic coupling
d) tangent
32. Used as couplings, or in addition to overload, where there Answer: b
Answer: a is danger of injury to machines or to material in process.
a) Flange couplings 43. A type of coupling used to connect shafts that have lateral
21. Permanent keys made integral with the shaft and fitting b) Involute serrations misalignment.
into key ways broached into the mating hub. c) King pins a) Compression coupling
a) Square keys d) Shear pins b) Collar coupling
b) Splines c) Chain coupling
c) Woodruff keys Answer: d d) Oldham coupling
d) Kennedy keys
Answer: d
Answer: b
44. A coupling that is composed of two slotted members, b) Length of engagement b) Tachometer
which are connected by a continuous steel spring, and lies in c) Top land c) Tensor
the slots. d) Flank d) Torque wrench
a) Ajax coupling
b) Falk coupling Answer: d Answer: d
c) Lord coupling
d) Slip coupling 5. The theoretical profile of the thread for a length of one 16. One of the following is not a tap used for cutting threads
pitch in the axial plane on which design forms of both the in holes.
Answer: b external threads are based. a) Tapping tap
a) Basic form of thread b) Plug tap
45. Shaft couplings are used in machinery for several b) Effective thread c) Taper tap
purposes. The most common purpose of shaft coupling is c) Basic profile of thread d) Bottoming tap
a) to provide for the connection of shafts of units d) Design form of external thread
that are manufactured separately Answer: a
b) to provide for misalignment of the shafts Answer: c
c) to reduce the transmission of shock loads from 17. Type of bolt intended for use in bolting wooden parts
one shaft to another 6. The top and bottom-land for gears is similar formed as to together or wood to metal. It has a short portion of shank just
d) all of the above crest and ________ for screw thread. underneath a round head, which is designed to keep the bolt
a) flank from turning in the wood when the nut is tightened.
Answer: a b) root a) U-bolt
c) flank tooth b) Carriage bolt
46. Typical hub length falls between _________ where D is d) top land c) Eye bolt
the shaft diameter d) Stud bolt
a) 1.2D and 1.8D Answer: b
b) 1.25D and 2.4D Answer: b
c) 1.30 and 2.5D 7. Some experiments made at Cornell University showed that
d) 1.35D and 3.0D experience mechanic could bread a ________ bolt due to nut 18. A cylindrical bar or steel with threads formed around it
tightening. and grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it, intersecting
Answer: b a) 3/8 with the threads to form cutting edges. It is used to cut
b) 5/8 inch internal threads.
47. The diameter of the large end of the pin should be c) ½ inch a) Groove
________ the shaft diameter. d) 7/16 inch b) Lap
a) ¼ c) Tap
b) 1/3 Answer: b d) Flute
c) ½
d) 3/2 8. The angle included between the sides of the thread Answer: c
measured in an axial plane in a screw thread.
Answer: a a) Angle of thread 19. A kind of bolt, which has no head but instead has threads
b) Angle between thread or 40 deg on bolts ends.
48. The most common type of sliding action fastener and is c) Helix angle thread a) Stud bolt
widely used on doors is the d) Half angle thread b) Acme threaded bolt
a) Pawl fastener c) Square bolt
b) Magnetic fastener Answer: a d) Hex bolt
c) Sliding fastener
d) Screw fastener 9. Length of contact between two mating parts in screw and Answer: a
nut threads measured axially is called
Answer: c a) Arc of contact 20. Refers to the diameter of the imaginary cylinder that
b) Depth of engagement bounds the crest of an external thread.
49. When the key is not fitted on all four sides experience has c) Length of engagement a) Mean diameter
shown that, the permissible crushing stress is about d) Axis of contact b) Stress diameter
____________ times the permissible shear stress. c) Minor diameter
a) 1.3 Answer: b d) Major diameter
b) 1.5
c) 1.7 10. Major and minor diameters are commonly used in Answer: d
d) 1.9 a) screw thread
b) bolt 21. The distance in inches a screw thread advances axially in
Answer: c c) gear one turn.
d) all of these a) Lead
50. The mechanical fastening that connects shafts together for b) Circular pitch
power transmission. Answer: a c) Pitch
a) Coupling d) Mean pitch
b) Key 11. Nominal diameter of bolts is the
c) Splines a) major diameter Answer: c
d) None of the above b) minor diameter
c) stress area 22. Which of the following type of threads recommended for
Answer: a d) mean diameter general use?
a) UNC
Answer: a b) UNEF
Test 7 c) UNF
1. Top surface joining two sides of thread in screw is known 12. A _________ is a kind of thread in which the width of the d) NC
as thread and the space between threads are approximately
a) Pitch equal. Answer: a
b) Top flank a) square thread
c) Top land b) acme thread 23. It is frequently used in automobile and aircraft work.
d) Crest c) buttress thread a) UNC
d) whit worth thread b) UNEF
Answer: d c) UNF
Answer: a d) NC
2. Screw thread projecting from a cylindrical surface is a
a) thread series 13. A kind of thread that is generally used. Answer: c
b) thread shear a) UNEC
c) straight thread b) UNC 24. Which of the following type of threads are useful in
d) taper thread c) UNF aeronautical equipment?
d) UNEF a) UNC
Answer: d b) UNEF
Answer: b c) UNF
3. The conical surface at the starting end of the thread is d) NC
called 14. A type of bolt commonly used in the construction that is
a) Pitch cone threaded in both ends. Answer: b
b) Chamfer a) Stud bolt
c) Crest b) Acme threaded bolt 25. It is used on bolts for high-pressure pipe flanges, cylinder
d) Flute c) Square threaded bolt head studs etc.
d) Hex bolt a) UNC
Answer: b b) UNEF
Answer: a c) UNF
4. The surface connecting the cast and roots of the screw d) 8UN
thread. 15. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts.
a) Lead angle a) Shaver Answer: d
 a) major diameter c) acme threads
26. Refers to a screw fastening with a nut on it. b) pitch diameter d) v-threads
a) Bolt c) minor diameter
b) Fastener d) none of the above Answer: c
c) Rivet
d) None of these Answer: a 48. Any device to connect or joint more components.
a) Bolt
Answer: a 38. Turn buckle has b) Screw
a) left hand threads on both ends c) Fastener
27. Which one that has no nut and turns into a threaded hole? b) left hand threads on one end and right hand d) None of the above
a) Rivet threads on other end
b) Screw c) right hand threads on both ends Answer: c
c) Stud bolt d) no threads
d) U-bolt 49. When the threads are of opposite hand, the driven screw
Answer: b moves rapidly is known as
Answer: b a) Bearing screw
39. The diameter of a washer is generally b) Compound screw
28. Refers to an old name for an unfinished through bolt, a) equal to the diameter of bolt c) Differential screw
comes with a square. b) slightly more than the diameter of the bolt d) Set screw
a) Coupling bolt c) slightly less than the diameter of the bolt
b) Machine bolt d) of any size that suits the application Answer: b
c) Stud bolt
d) Automobile bolt Answer: a 50. The threaded length is about _________ times the
diameters.
Answer: b 40. The stress concentration is maximum at _________ in a a) 1.25
standard coarse thread. b) 1.5
29. Which type of bolt that finished all over, usually having a) all over the surface c) 1.8
coarse threads? b) flank d) 2.0
a) Coupling bolt c) root
b) Machine bolt d) top surface Answer: b
c) Stud bolt
d) Automobile bolt Answer: c
Test 8
Answer: a 41. Elastic nut is a locking device that has 1. Extra flexible hoisting rope applications is
a) one small nut is tightened over main nut and a) 6 x 27
30. A type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the main nut tightened against smaller one b) 6 x 37
shank underneath the head being square or finned or ribbed. loosening, creating friction jamming. c) 6x9
a) Carriage bolt b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut partly in d) 6 x 21
b) Coupling bolt middle of tightening of screw
c) Machine bolt c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut Answer: b
d) Stud bolt and becomes threaded as the nut is screwed on
the bolt causing a tight grip. 2. All terms and abbreviations deal with wire rope
Answer: d d) Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is arrangement except this ________ which deals with rope
passed through these and a hole in the bolt and materials strength.
31. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends that can be used cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse direction a) performed
where a through bolt is impossible. at other end b) IWRC
a) Carriage bolt c) Mps
b) Coupling bolt Answer: c d) Lang lay
c) Machine bolt
d) Stud bolt 42. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and Answer: c
surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an inside diameter of a least
Answer: a ________ times the diameter of the anchor bolt. 3. One of the following materials is not mentioned for wire
a) 1 rope pulley / sheave applications.
32. A cheap variety of bolt was made in small sizes. b) 2 a) Plastic
a) Stud bolt c) 3 b) Iron
b) Carriage bolt d) 4 c) Paper
c) Stove bolt d) Copper alloy
d) Mini bolt Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: c 43. Foundation bolts should be at least ____________ times
the diameter of the anchor bolt. 4. The factor of safety generally applied in wire rope design
33. A large wood screw is used to fasten machinery and a) 12 starts at 3-4 for standing rope application, 5-12 for operating
equipment to a wooden base. b) 14 rope and __________ for hazard to life and properly
a) Lag screw c) 16 application like foundry operation.
b) Log screw d) 18 a) higher value
c) Wood screw b) 7 – 10
d) None of these Answer: d c) 8 – 10
d) 10 – 18
Answer: a 44. No foundation bolts shall be less than _________ mm
diameter. Answer: a
34. The length of contact in a tapped hole should be a a) 10
minimum of about ___________ for cast iron. b) 12 5. In the selection of wire rope, regular lay means wires and
a) D c) 14 standards are arranged in the following manner _________
b) 1.5D d) 16 a) twisted in same direction
c) 1.2D b) twisted in any direction
d) 2D Answer: b c) twisted in opposite direction
d) twisted in along direction
Answer: b 45. Anchor bolts should be embedded in concrete at least
___________ times the bolt diameter. Answer: c
35. When the location of bolt is such that it would normally a) 10
be shear, it is better practice to use a b) 20 6. A process of prestressing or over stressing a hollow
a) dummy bolts c) 30 cylindrical member beyond the elastic range by hydraulic
b) mid-pins d) 40 pressure.
c) crank pins a) Presstage
d) dowel pins Answer: c b) Stress relieving
c) Auto frettage
Answer: d 46. The screw thread commonly used for transmission of d) Countersinking
motion is one of the following types of ___________ threads.
36. A locking device used to maintain pressure between the a) acme Answer: c
threads of the bolt and nut. b) vee
a) Gasket c) knuckle 7. When two touching surface have a high contact pressure
b) Lock nuts d) British Association and when these surfaces have minute relative motion a
c) Lock washer phenomenon called
d) Lock out Answer: a a) Carving
b) Friction
Answer: c 47. The spindle of bench vises are usually provided with c) Fretting
a) buttress threads d) Prestressing
37. The crest diameter of a screw thread is the same as b) square threads
Answer: c c) Solid-walled cylinders d) 400 and 500 ksi
d) Hard-walled cylinders
8. Pipes subject to high pressure are generally made by Answer: b
a) slush casting Answer: b
b) pressure casting 30. The minimum suggested design factor of ________ for
c) extrusion 19. To obtain safe working pressure the critical pressure, ropes miscellaneous hoisting equipment.
d) centrifugal casting should be at least ______ times the working pressure. a) 2
a) 3 b) 3
Answer: d b) 4 c) 4
c) 5 d) 5
9. Hoop stress refers to d) 6
a) circumferential tensile stress Answer: d
b) compressive stress Answer: c
c) longitudinal stress 31. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting
d) radial stress 20. The radial pressure between the cylinders at the surface of pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for cast iron.
contact depends on the ___________ of the materials. a) 200 psi
Answer: a a) strength b) 300 psi
b) hardness c) 400 psi
10. Autfrettage is the method of c) modulus of elasticity d) 500 psi
a) calculating stress in thick cylinders d) modulus of rigidity
b) increasing life of thick cylinders Answer: d
c) prestressing thick cylinders Answer: c
d) relieving thick cylinders 32. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting
21. In cross or regular lay ropes the pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ________ for cast steel.
Answer: c a) direction of twist in strands is opposite to the a) 700 psi
direction of twist of strands b) 900 psi
11. The radial pressure and hoop tension for a thick cylinder b) direction of twist of wires and strands are the c) 1000 psi
is same d) 1200 psi
a) maximum at inner surface and decreases toward c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in
outer surface opposite direction Answer: b
b) minimum at inner surface and increases towards d) wires are not twisted
outer surface 33. To avoid excessive wear rate the recommended limiting
c) minimum at inner and outer surfaces and Answer: a pressure for 6 x 19 rope is ___________ for manganese steel.
maximum in middle a) 2000 psi
d) maximum at inner and outer surfaces and 22. Which of the ropes will be most flexible? b) 2300 psi
minimum in middle a) 6 by 7 c) 2500 psi
b) 6 by 19 d) 3000 psi
Answer: a c) 6 by 37
d) 8 by 19 Answer: c
12. Assuming longitudinal strain to be constant at any point in
the thickness of the cylinder, the radial stress Sr and hoop Answer: c 34. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are first
stress Sh are related as wrapped into
a) Sr – Sh = constant 23. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in a) layer
b) Sr + Sh = constant opposite direction. b) segment
c) Sr/Sh = constant a) Long lay c) strands
d) Sr – Sh/Sr = constant b) Lang lay d) none of these
c) Regular lay
Answer: a d) Performed Answer: c

13. Thin cylindrical shell of diameter d and thickness t when Answer: c 35. The designation 6 by 7 indicates the rope is made of six
subjected to internal pressure P, if Poisson’s ratio of material strands each containing
is  , the circumferential or hoop strain is 24. A wire rope that the wires and strands are twisted in the a) 7 pieces
a) Pd(1-2)/2tE same direction. b) 7 diameters
b) Pd(1-2)/ a) Long lay c) 7 wires
c) Pd(1/2 - )/2tE b) Lang lay d) 7 strands
d) Pd(1/2-)/4tE c) Performed
d) Non-performed Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: b 36. Ropes are made of
14. A cylinder in which the ratio of the wall thickness to the a) aluminum alloys
inside diameter is ___________ may be called a thin cylinder 25. A type of rope used for haulages, rigging, and guardrails. b) copper
a) less than 0.05 a) 6 x 35 IWRC c) bronze
b) less than 0. b) 6 x 25 IWRC d) all of the above
c) more than 0.05 c) 7 x 7 IWRC
d) more than 0.07 d) 6 x 8 IWRC Answer: d

Answer: b Answer: c 37. The ratio of the strength of all the inside wires to the
strength of all the wires in the rope
15. External pressure tubes in boilers are designed with an 26. A rope used for general-purpose. a) excess strength
apparent factor of safety of a) 6 x 15 IWRC b) reserve strength
a) 1 to 3 b) 6 x 21 IWRC c) factor of safety
b) 4 to 6 c) 6 x 19 IWRC d) ratio of factor
c) 5 to 7 d) 7 x 26 IWRC
d) 8 to 10 Answer: b
Answer: c
Answer: d 38. The chief usage of wire ropes at the present time is
27. A type of rope used for lines, hawsers, overheated cranes, a) elevators
16. Refers to a hollow product of round or any other cross hoists. b) cranes
section having a continuous periphery. a) 6 x 34 IWRC c) tramways
a) Gear b) 6 x 35 IWRC d) all of the above
b) Flywheel c) 6 x 37 IWRC
c) Sphere d) 6 x 45 IWRC Answer: d
d) Tube
Answer: c 39. Tests and theoretical investigations by J.F. Howe indicate
Answer: d that for steel ropes of the ordinary constructions the value of
28. The regular materials for wire rope are made of modulus of elasticity is
17. The thickness should be multiplied by _________ to a) cast steel a) 10,000,000 psi
obtain the nominal wall thickness. b) chromium b) 10,500,000 psi
a) 5/8 c) wrought iron c) 11,000,000 psi
b) 8/5 d) high-carbon steel d) 12,000,000 psi
c) 7/8
d) 8/7 Answer: d Answer: d

Answer: d 29. The ultimate strength of improved Plow Steel is in the 40. Average mine-hoist practice is to use drums
range of ______________ times the rope diameter.
18. It is used in high-pressure cylinders. a) 200 and 400 ksi a) 60 to 70
a) Thin-walled cylinders b) 240 and 280 ksi b) 60 to 80
b) Thick-walled cylinders c) 230 and 260 ksi c) 60 to 90
 d) 60 to 100 d) Drawing c) Brazing
d) Arc welding
Answer: d Answer: b
Answer: c
41. What is the recommended sheave diameter for haulage 2. A of welding whereby a wire or powder from
rope? the nozzle of a spray gun is fused by a gas flame, arc or 12. Uniting two pieces of metal by means of a
a) 70d plasma jet and then molten particles are projected in a different metal which is applied between the two in
b) 71d form of a spray by means of compressed air or gas is molten state
c) 72d known a a) Casting
d) 73d a) Elector-slug building b) Welding
b) Electro-beam welding c) Soldering
Answer: c c) Plasma-arc welding d) Brazing
d) Metal spray welding
42. What is the recommended sheave diameter for standard Answer: c
hoisting rope? Answer: d
a) 40d 13. Joining metal by means of high current at low
b) 45d 3. Weld metal impact specimen shall be taken voltage. During the passage of current, pressure by the
c) 50d across the weld with one face substantially parallel to electrodes produces a forge weld:
d) 55d and within a) Spot welding
a) 3/4in b) Resistance welding
Answer: b b) 1/32 in. c) Steam welding
c) ¼ in. d) Gas welding
43. What is the recommended sheave diameter for extra- d) 1/16 in.
flexible hoisting rope? Answer: b
a) 30d Answer: c
b) 31d 14. A fusion process in which the metal is heated
c) 32d 4. A joint between to overlapping members in together into a solid joint.
d) 33d whom the overlapped edge of one member is welded a) Electric arc welding
with a fillet weld is called b) Gas welding
Answer: b a) A single welded lap joint c) Spot welding
b) Double welded lap joint d) Projection welding
44. Wire ropes are made from cold-drawn wires that are first c) A single welded lap joint with backing
wrapped into d) Track weld Answer: a
a) pulp
b) strands Answer: a 15. As one example, the ASME code for riveted
c) helices joints permits the design surface compressive stress to
d) hemp 5. A weld place in groove between two butting be about ________ higher than the design tensile
members is called stress.
Answer: b a) Full-fillet weld a) 40%
b) Tack weld b) 50%
45. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design factor c) Butt weld c) 60%
of guy’s is d) fillet weld d) 70%
a) 3.0
b) 3.5 Answer: c Answer: c
c) 4.0
d) 5.0 6. A weld of approximately triangular cross- 16. In a pressure vessel, the ratio of minimum
section that join two surfaces at approximately right strength of joint to the strength of solid joint is known
Answer: b angles as in lap joint, tee joint, corner joint. as
a) Single welded lap joint a) Efficiency
46. The Roebling Handbook suggests minimum design factor b) Fillet weld b) Joint efficiency
of miscellaneous hoisting equipment is c) Tack weld c) Performance factor
a) 3.0 d) Butt weld d) Relative strength
b) 5.0
c) 7.0 Answer: b Answer: d
d) 9.0
7. A fillet weld whose size is equal to the 17. In a pressure vessel, the usual factor of safety
Answer: b thickness of the inner joint member is called may be taken as
a) Butt joint a) 2
47. An extra flexible rope is b) Butt weld b) 3
a) 6x7 c) Tack weld c) 4
b) 6 x 19 d) Full-fillet weld d) 5
c) 6 x 37
d) 7x7 Answer: d Answer: d

Answer: c 8. A weld made to hold the parts of a weldment in 18. Are resistance welds, usually round in the same
proper alignment until the final welds are made of form as the electrodes that press the sheets together
48. The strength of the rope is always ____________ the sum a) Butt weld a) Edge joint
of the strength of wires b) Tack weld b) MIG joint
a) less than c) Fillet weld c) Spot joint
b) more than d) Full fillet weld d) TIG joint
c) equal
d) the same Answer: b Answer: c

Answer: a 9. Test is designed primarily for application to 19. Consists of short lengths (2 to 3 inches long) of
electric-welded tubing for detection of lack of welds with space between as 6 inches on centers.
49. One of the most popular rope style is penetration or overlaps resulting from flash removal in a) Intermittent weld
a) 6x7 the weld b) MIG weld
b) 6 x 19 a) Butt weld c) Spot welds
c) 6 x 37 b) Paste d) TIG welds
d) 7x7 c) Lap weld
d) Double butt weld Answer: a
Answer: b
Answer: c 20. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the
50. The minimum factor of safety of small hoist is members in position for assembly purposes or for
a) 3 10. The internal stresses existing in a welded principal welding
b) 5 connection are a) Edge weld
c) 7 a) Relieved by x-ray analysis b) Tack weld
d) 9 b) Maybe relieved when weld is penned c) Back welds
c) Not relieved when the weld is penned d) Half welds
Answer: c d) Not relieved by heat treatment
Answer: b
Answer: d
Test 9 21. A welding operation that uses hot flame and
1. To avoid brittleness of weld or the residual 11. A welding operation in which a non-ferrous metal rod is known as
stress in the welding it is normally stress relieved of fillet metal at a temperature below that of the metal a) Gas welding
a) Quenching joined but is heated above 450C b) Arc welding
b) Normalizing a) Spot welding c) Resistance welding
c) Tempering b) Gas welding d) Automatic welding
 Answer: a 43. Reducing flame is obtained in oxy- acetylene
Answer: a welding with
32. Weld spatter refers to a) Excess oxygen
22. The arc is covered with a welding composition a) Flux b) Excess of acetylene
and bare electrode wire is fed automatically b) Filler material c) Equal parts of both gases
a) Resistance welding c) Welding defect d) Reduced acetylene
b) Submerged arc welding d) Welding electrode
c) Induction welding Answer: b
d) Spot welding Answer: c
44. Brasses and bronzes are welded using
Answer: b 33. Which of the following metals can be suitably a) Carburizing flame
welded by TIG welding? b) Neutral flame
23. Treating the weld as a line, the amount or inertia a) Aluminum c) Oxidizing flame
about center of gravity of a circular weld or diameter d b) Magnesium d) Reducing flame
would b c) A and B above
a) π d /36
2 d) Stainless steel Answer: b

b) π d /6
2 Answer: c 45. One of the following function is not performed
by coating on the welding electrodes is to
c) π d /36
3
34. Arc blow takes place in a) Increase the cooling rate
a) Arc welding when straight polarity is b) Provide protective atmosphere
d) π d /4
3
used c) Refuse oxidation
b) Arc welding when reverse polarity is d) Stabilize the arc
Answer: d used
c) Gas welding Answer: a
24. For butt welding of two plates each of which is d) Welding stainless steel
25 mm thick, the best process would be 46. Welding defect called arc blow occurs in
a) TIG welding Answer: d a) Arc welding using ac current
b) MIG welding b) Arc welding using dc current
c) Gas welding 35. Unlike materials or materials of different c) Gas welding
d) Electro slag welding thickness can be butt welded by d) MIG welding
a) Adjusting initial gap
Answer: d b) Adjusting time duration of current Answer: d
c) Control of pressure and current
25. What should be the maximum size of the fillet d) All of the above 47. The purpose of using flux in soldering is to
weld? a) Increase fluidity of solder material
a) 2 mm Answer: c b) Full up gaps in bad joint
b) 3 mm c) Prevent oxide formation
c) 5 mm 36. The phenomenon of weld decay takes place in d) Lower the melting temperature of the
d) 7 mm a) Brass solder
b) Bronze
Answer: b c) Cast iron Answer: a
d) Stainless steel
26. The maximum size of the fillet weld that can be 48. The parts are lapped and held in place under
made in single pass is Answer: d pressure
a) 3 mm a) Butt welding
b) 6 mm 37. Laser welding is widely used in b) Spot welding
c) 8 mm a) electronic industry c) Steam welding
d) 12 mm b) Heavy industry d) Projection welding
c) Process industry
Answer: b d) Structural work Answer: b

27. Which diamond riveted joint can be adopted? Answer: a 49. The parts are brought together lightly with
a) Butt joint current flowing and then separated slightly
b) Lap joint 38. Up to what thickness of plate, edger preparation a) Mash weld
c) Double riveted lap joint for welding is not needed? b) Steam welding
d) All types of joints a) 2 mm c) Flush welding
b) 4 mm d) Percussion welding
Answer: a c) 8 mm
d) 12 mm Answer: c
28. Wiping is the process of
a) Applying flux during welding process Answer: b 50. Which of the following produced a series of
b) Clearing the welded surface after the spot welds made by circular or wheel type electrodes?
welding operation is over 39. Grey cast iron is best welded by a) Steam welding
c) Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy a) Arc b) Mash welding
d) Low temperature welding b) MIG c) Spot welding
c) Oxy- acetylene d) Steam welding
Answer: c d) TIG
Answer: a or d
29. A collimated light beam is used for producing Answer: a
heat in
a) Laser welding 40. In resistance welding, the pressure is release Test 10
b) MIG welding a) Just at the time of passing the current 1. The soldering material commonly applied for
c) Plasma welding b) After completion of currents automobile radiator cores and roofing seams.
d) TIG welding c) After the weld cools a) 15/85 % tin and lead
d) During heating b) 50/50% tin and lead
Answer: a c) 45/55% tin and lead
Answer: c d) 20/80% tin and lead
30. During MIG welding the metal is transferred in
the form of 41. Half corner weld is used Answer: c
a) A fine spray of metal a) Where severe loading is encountered and
b) Continuous flow of molten metal the upper surfaces of both pieces must be 2. The flux that should be provided in soldering
c) Electron beam in the same plane electrical connection or commutator wires as its tends
d) Solution b) Where efficiency of joint should be 50% to corrode the connectors called
c) Where longitudinal shear is present a) Sal ammoniac
Answer: a d) None of the above b) Zinc chloride
c) Stearin
31. If “t” is the thickness of sheet to be spot welded Answer: d d) Acid fluxes
then electrode tip diameter is equal to
42. Projection welding is Answer: d
a) √t a)
b)
Continuous spot welding process
Multi spot welding process 3. A brazed joint is ___ soldered joint.
1.5 t
b)
√ c)
d)
Used to form frameworks
All of the above
a) Stronger than
2.5 t b) The same strength as
c)
√ Answer: b
c) Three times as strong as
2 t d) Weaker than
d)
√
Answer: a
 b) Separating two pieces of metal that have 25. A mixture of aluminum powder and a metal
4. Brazing requires been soldered together oxide powder is ignited by a special powder in a
a) Hard solder c) Tinning two surfaces, applying flux crucible.
b) Soft solder them, holding the two together and a) Thermit welding
c) More heat heating b) Stud welding
d) Choices A and C d) None of the above c) Resistance welding
d) Gas welding
Answer: d Answer: c
Answer: a
5. What is the reason why lead is used in solders? 16. A surface to be soldered should be prepared by
a) It has a high melting point. a) Acid cleaning the surfaces 26. A welding where an arc is struck between two
b) It has a low melting point. b) Filing the surfaces tungsten electrodes into which a jet of hydrogen is
c) It is cheap c) Scraping the surfaces directed
d) Choices B and C d) Any of the above a) Atomic hydrogen welding
b) Electron beam welding
Answer: d Answer: d c) Electro slug welding
d) Flash welding
6. The higher the melting pint of the solder, the 17. One of the most important factors that is often
a) Harder the solder joint overlooked when soldering is the fact that Answer: a
b) Softer the solder joint
c) Stronger the solder joint a) The surfaces to be soldered must be 27. A common rule is to make the rivet hole
d) Weaker the solder joint clean diameter from ________ for rivets in single or double
b) The two metals to be soldered must not shear.
Answer: c be the same a) 1.2 t to 1.4 t
c) The two metals to be soldered must be
7. Special solders used for aluminum usually the same
b) 1.2 √ t to 1.4 √ t
require d) All surfaces should be dipped in acid
a) less heat first
c) 1.3 √ t to 1.6 √ t
b)
c)
More heat
The same heat as copper wire Answer: a
d) 1.4 √ t to 1.8 √ t
d) The same heat as sheet metal
18. When soldering, flux is used for Answer: b
Answer: b
a) Keeping the metal from getting too hot
8. The flux usually used for hard solder is b) Keeping the solder from running off the 28. Fusion welding is the name frequently given to
a) Alum metal processes not requiring pressure. It is sometimes called
b) Barium c) Keeping the tip of the soldering iron and a) Flash welding
c) Borax clean b) Seam welding
d) Rosin d) Remove and prevent oxidation of the c) Spot welding
metals d) Thermit welding
Answer: c
Answer: d Answer: d
9. Soft solder melts at approximately
a) 250 °F 19. Soldering is the process of 29. The ratio of the load that will produce the
b) 350 °F a) Holding two metals together by heating allowable stress in any part of the joint to the load that
c) 450 °F b) Joining two metals by a third soft metal will produce the allowable tension stress in the
d) 550 °F that is applied in a molten state unpunched plate.
c) Holding two different kinds of metals a) Efficiency of the welded
Answer: b together by heating b) Efficiency of the joint
d) All of the above c) Performance factor
10. Soft solder is made of d) Load factor
a) Copper and zinc Answer: b
b) Tin and copper Answer: b
c) Tin and lead 20. Brazing is used for joining
d) Tin and zinc a) Tow ferrous material 30. Thicker plates usually require excessive rivet
b) One ferrous and non-ferrous material sizes and for practical reasons the rivet diameter is
Answer: c c) Two non-ferrous metal made approximately
d) Two non-metals a) 1.2t
11. Prepared soldered paste flux is most popular but
if you did not have any, you could use _____ as Answer: c
b)
√t
1.2

substitute c) 2t
2 t
a)
b)
Hydrochloric acid
Nitric acid
21. What
brazing?
is the most commonly used flux for d)
√
c) Sulfuric acid a) Zinc chloride
Answer: b
d) Any of the above b) Zinc and tin
c) Zinc and copper
31. The process of joining metals by means by
Answer: a d) Zinc and lead
heating to a temperature above the recrystallization
temperature or to fusion with or without the application
12. Hard solder is made of Answer: a
or pressure
a) Copper and zinc
a) Brazing
b) Tin and copper 22. Multi spot welding process is also referred as
b) Soldering
c) Tin and lead _____welding
c) Welding
d) Tin and zinc a) Tack
d) Seaming
b) Fillet
Answer: a c) TIG
Answer: c
d) Projection
13. Soldered will not unite with a metal surface that
32. The process of bonding two or more pieces of
has Answer: d
metal together by means of another metal whose
a) Dirt on it
melting point is below 800⁰F
b) Grease on it 23. The maximum temperature developed for oxy-
a) Brazing
c) Oxidation on it hydrogen welding is
b) Seaming
d) Any of the above a) 1755 C
c) Soldering
b) 1965 C
d) Welding
Answer: d c) 2565 C
d) 3440 C
Answer: c
14. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the soldered
area must be cleaned thoroughly afterwards to prevent Answer: b
33. The process of joining metal parts by means of
a) Anyone touching it from getting burned
a non-ferrous fitter or alloy that melts at a temperature
b) Remaining acid form eating the metal 24. The maximum temperature developed for oxy-
above 800⁰F.
c) The acid form evaporating and the solder acetylene welding is
a) Brazing
disintegrating a) 1965 C
b) Seaming
d) None of the above b) 2565 C
c) Soldering
c) 3440 C
d) Welding
Answer: b d) 4565 C
Answer: a
15. Sweating is the process of Answer: c
a) Soldering two different kinds of metal
34. The process of joining metals in which the two 45. The ASME Boiler Code requires that the edge
parts are joined by heating them electrically to a distance must be not less than Answer: C
temperature above the recrystallization temperature. a) 1.5d
a) Flash welding b) 2.0d 6. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in
b) Projection welding c) 2.5d itself
c) Thermit welding d) 3.0d A. Zinc
d) Resistance welding B. Antimony
Answer: a C. Babbit
Answer: d D. Lead
46. A method of resistance welding in which the
35. A fusion welding process in which the welding heating and the pressure are localized at specified Answer: C
heat is obtained from an electric arc set up either points by providing embossed or coined projections on
between the base metal and one electrode or between the pieces to be joined. 7. Which of the following materials is unsuitable
to electrodes. a) Projection welding as a bearing?
a) Arc welding b) Flash welding A. Teflon
b) Gas welding c) Seam welding B. Low carbon steel
c) Fusion welding d) Resistance welding C. Cast iron
d) Spot welding D. Nylon
Answer: a
Answer: a Answer: B
47. An intermittent weld, lightly done to hold the
36. Refers to the capacity of a metal to be joined by members in position for assembly purposes or for the 8. Aerostatic bearing is one in which
welding in a satisfactory manner. principal welding. A. The lube oil is supplied under
a) Flame plating a) Spot weld pressure
b) Metal spraying b) Tack weld B. Lube oil is not pressurized
c) Metalizing c) Butt weld C. There is no lube oil
d) Weldability d) Fillet weld D. Bearing is lightly loaded

Answer: d Answer: b Answer: A

37. A surfacing method of blasting particles of 48. What type of welding that the hot flame and a 9. At the same thermal and minimum film,
tungsten carbide onto the surface of a piece of metal. metal rod are used? thickness limitation as sleeve
a) Flame plating a) Seam welding A. Ball bearing
b) Metal spraying b) Gas welding B. Roller bearing
c) Metalizing c) Spot welding C. Thrust bearing
d) Powder pouring d) Resistance welding D. Full bearing

Answer: a Answer: b Answer: D

38. For fusion welding, efficiency shall be taken as 49. It used for joining members of approximately 10. The desired between two surfaces having
equal to equal in cross-section relatively sliding motion is known
a) 80% a) Mash welding A. Lube oil
b) 60% b) Butt welding B. Graphite
c) 90% c) Upset welding C. Packing
d) 95% d) Choices B and C D. Lubrication

Answer: c Answer: d Answer: D

39. When the tensile strength of steel shell plates is 50. The melting point of the filler material in 11. What bearing composed of two principal parts,
not known it shall be taken as brazing is approximately or above. namely the
a) 379. 31 N/mm2 a) 420⁰F A. Bearing and journal
b) 565.71 N/mm2 b) 600⁰F B. Clearance and fitted
c) 556.17 N/mm2 c) 800⁰F C. Bolt and Babbitt
d) 671.55 N/mm2 d) 1000⁰F D. Bolt and cylinder
Answer: d
Answer: a Answer: A
40. Minimum thickness for boiler plate shall be
a) 3.56 mm 12. When the line of action of the load bisects the
b) 5.36 mm Test 11 arc of partial bearing it is said to be:
c) 6. 36 mm 1. The rule of thumb in journal bearing design, the A. Eccentrically loaded
d) 6. 56 mm clearance ratio/clearance should be B. Fit loaded
A. 0.01001 C. Centrally loaded
Answer: c B. 0.0101 D. Surface loaded
C. 0.0110
41. The strength of iron rivets in single shear D. 0.0010 Answer: C
a) 262 N/mm2
b) 303 N/mm2 Answer: D 13. It is the difference in the radii of the bearing and
c) 524 N/mm2 the journal
d) 607 N/mm2 2. Also called eccentrically loaded bearing A. Even clearance
Answer: a A. Full bearing B. Clearance ratio
B. Offset bearing C. Fit clearance
42. The strength of steel rivets in single shear C. Partial bearing D. Radial clearance
a) 262 N/mm2 D. Fitted bearing
b) 303 N/mm2 Answer: D
c) 524 N/mm2 Answer: B
d) 607 N/mm2 14. It is one in which the radii of the journal and the
Answer: b 3. Wahta type of bearing which totally encloses bearing are the same
the shaft? A. Clearance bearing
43. When the longitudinal seams are of lap riveted A. Offset bearing B. Fitted bearing
construction the minimum factor of safety is B. Central bearing C. Full bearing
a) 5 C. Babbitt bearing D. Partial bearing
b) 6 D. Full bearing
c) 7 Answer: B
d) 8 Answer: D
15. The line that passes through centers of the
Answer: a 4. All are functions of lubricating oil except bearing and the journal is called the
A. Adhesion A. Line of action
44. The maximum allowable working pressure of a B. Corrosion prevention B. Line of centers
non-code steel or wrought iron heating boiler of C. Act as coolant C. Line of tangent
welded construction shall not exceed. D. To tighten the load D. Under cut
a) 0.5 bar
b) 1.0 bar Answer: A Answer: B
c) 1.5 bar
d) 2.0 bar 5. It is considered semi-solid lubricant 16. Length-diameter ration was a good compromise
A. Lube oil for the general case of hydrodynamic bearings. It is
Answer: b B. Graphite approximately equal to
C. Grease A. 1
D. All of these B. 2
 C. 3 B. The oil film is maintained by supplying
D. 4 oil under pressure Answer: B
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant
Answer: A D. Grease is used for lubrication 38. The combined effect of many of the variables
involved in the operation of a bearing under
17. Operating temperature of oil film ranges Answer: A hydrodynamic lubrication can be characterized by the
_____________ or less dimensionless number called:
A. 120 F to 190 F 28. If P = bearing pressure on projected bearing A. Reynolds Number
B. 130 F to 160 F area, Z= absolute viscosity of lubricant, and N = speed B. Prandtl Number
C. 140 F to 150 F of journal, then the bearing characteristic number is C. Grashof Number
D. 140 F to 160 F given by D. Sommerfeld Number
A. ZN/P
Answer: D B. Z/ PN Answer: D
C. ZP/ N
18. At higher temperature, the oil oxidizes more D. P/ZN 39. It exits primarily to guide the motion of a
rapidly above machine member without specific regard to the
A. 120F Answer: A direction of load application.
B. 140F A. radial bearing
C. 160F 29. The rated life of a bearing changes B. Journal bearing
D. 200F A. Directly as load C. Thrust bearing
B. Inversely as fourth power of load D. Guide bearing
Answer: D C. Inversely as cube of load
D. Inversely as square of load Answer: D
19. A conclusion repeatedly verified by
experiments is _____ that the smoother the surface. Answer: C 40. It carries a load collinear to the axis of possible
A. Constant rotation of the supported member.
B. The greater the load capacity of A. Guide bearing
the bearing 30. In oiless bearing B. Journal bearing
C. None of these A. The oil film pressure is produced only by the C. Thrust bearing
D. Variable rotation of the journal D. Radial bearing
B. The oil film I maintained by supplying oil under
Answer: B pressure Answer: C
C. Do not need external supply of lubricant
20. Which of the following is considered an D. Grease is needed to be applied after some 41. The 400 series bearing is called:
advantage for bearing materials? intervals A. Light
A. Conformability B. Medium
B. Embeddability Answer: C C. Heavy
C. Compatibility D. Extra heavy
D. All of these 31. A shaft rotating in anticlockwise direction at
slow speed inside a bearing will be Answer: C
Answer: D A. At bottom most of bearing
B. Towards left side of bearing and making metal 42. The product of length and diameter of the
21. For thrust bearing the speed at moderate to metal contact bearing is called:
operating conditions is C. Towards left side of bearing and making no A. Shearing area
A. 50<Vm>200 fpm metal to metal contact B. Compressive area
B. 50<Vm>220 fpm D. Towards right side of bearing and making no C. Projected area
C. 50<Vm>250 fpm metal to metal contact D. Cross-sectional area
D. 50<Vm> 290 fpm
Answer: B Answer: C
Answer: A
32. A machine part that supports another part, 43. If the length over diameter of the bearing is
22. The 200 series bearing is called which rotates, slides or oscillates in or on it unity, it is also known as
A. Heavy A. Journal
B. Light B. Bearing A. Long bearing
C. Medium C. Roller B. Short bearing
D. None of these D. Casing C. Medium bearing
D. Square bearing
Answer: B Answer: B
Answer: D
23. The 300 series bearing is called 33. The part of a shaft or crank which is supported
A. Heavy by and turns in bearing. 44. A bearing in which the length ratio
B. Light A. Casing Length/diameter is greater than 1.
C. Medium B. Bushing A. Short bearings
D. None of these C. Roller B. Long bearings
D. Journal C. Square bearings
Answer: C D. Medium bearings
Answer: D
24. A type of roller bearing in which the balls are Answer: B
assembled by the eccentric displacement of the inner 34. It is also called anti-friction bearing.
ring. A. Rolling bearing 45. The product of absolute viscosity and rotational
A. Shallow-groove ball bearing B. Thrust bearing speed divided by the unit loading.
B. Self-aligning ball bearing C. Tapered bearing A. Section modulus
C. Filling-slot ball bearing D. Single row bearing B. Bearing modulus
D. Deep-groove ball bearing C. Shear modulus
Answer: A D. All of the above
Answer: D
35. Which of the following is a bearing material? Answer: B
25. Which of the following is not a type of ball A. Babbitt
bearing? B. Bronze
A. Shallow-groove ball bearing C. Plastics 46. From the line of radial loading on the bearing
B. Self-aligning ball bearing D. All of the above to the position of the minimum oil-film thickness.
C. Fillet-slot ball bearing A. Attitude angle
D. Deep-groove ball bearing Answer: D B. Latitude angle
C. Longitude angle
Answer: A 36. It acts toward the center of the bearing along a D. Altitude angle
radius.
26. Steel ball for ball bearing are manufactured by A. Thrust load Answer:
A. Casting B. Tangential load
B. Cold headling C. Radial load
C. Rolling D. Peripheral load 47. The radial distance between the center of the
D. Turning bearing and the displaced center of the journal is
Answer: C called.
Answer: B A. Concentricity
37. Conrad bearing is also known as B. Eccentricity
27. In hydrodynamic bearings A. Needle bearing C. Embeddability
A. The oil film pressure is generated only B. Ball bearing D. None of the above
by the rotation of the journal C. Roller bearing
D. Tapered bearing Answer: B
 D. Helical tension spring wire 19. Experimental results indicate that the actual
48. Which of the following is an example of solid frequency of the spring is from
lubricant? Answer: A A. 5 to 10%
A. Molybdenum disulfide B. 10 to 15%
B. Graphite 9. A hard drawn also 80% reduction but it is made C. 15 to 20%
C. Tungsten disulfide of high-grade steel D. 20 to 25%
D. All of the above A. Music wire
B. Oil tempered wire Answer: B
Answer: D C. Song wire
D. Chromium- silicon 20. According to W.M. Griffirth, the critical
49. The length ratio L/D typically varies between frequency of the spring should behold at least
A. 0.1 to 0.5 Answer: A ________ times the frequency of application of a
B. 0.2 to 0.6 periodic load.
C. 0.2 to 0.8 10. A spring wire with good quality for impact A. 5
D. 0.25 to 1.0 loads at moderately high temperature B. 10
A. Hard drawn wire spring C. 15
Answer: D B. Helical spring wire D. 20
C. Chromium-silicon
50. The operating temperature of the Babbitt is D. Helical tension spring wire Answer: D
limited to
A. 200°F Answer: C 21. The actual number of coil is _________ in a
B. 300°F squared and ground ends.
C. 400°F 11. A type of coil where the helical coil is wrapped A. n
D. 500°F into a circle forming an annular ring B. n+2
A. Volute spring C. nd
Answer: B B. Motor spring D. ( n + 1) d
C. Hair spring
D. Garter spring Answer: B
Test 12
1. A heavy rotating body which serves as a Answer: D 22. The solid length of squared ends is
reservoir for absorbing and redistributing kinetic A. (n+3)d
energy. 12. A type of spring where thin flat strip wound up B. (n+1)d
A. Gear on itself as a plane spiral, usually anchored at the C. np
B. Brakes inside D. n+2
C. Flywheel A. Volute spring
D. Fan B. Motor spring Answer: A
C. Hair spring
Answer: C D. Garter spring 23. The free length of ground ends is
A. np + 3d
2. Which of the following is not a use of spring? Answer: B B. np + 2d
A. Absorbs energy C. np + d
B. Measure weight 13. A type of spring made in the form of dished D. np
C. Source of energy in clocks washer
D. Measure the thickness A. Volute spring Answer: D
B. Motor spring
Answer: D C. Hair spring 24. the shortest length for the spring during normal
D. Beleville spring operation
3. The ratio of mean diameter of coil to the coil A. compressed length
diameter Answer: D B. operating length
A. Wahl factor C. solid length
B. Diameter ratio 14. In laminated spring the strips are provided in D. free length
C. Spring index different lengths for
D. Lead angle A. Economy Answer: B
B. Reduction in weight
Answer: C C. Improved appearance 25. the relationship between the force exerted by a
D. Space consideration of the utility spring and its deflection is called
4. The overall length of the spring when it is stage A. spring index
compressed until all adjacent coils touched. B. spring rate
A. Compressed length Answer: A C. wahl’s factor
B. Free length D. Spring angle
C. Solid length 15. An elastic stored energy machine element that
D. None of these when released, will recover its basic form Answer: B
A. Flywheel
Answer: C B. Clutch 26. The ration of the mean diameter of the spring to
C. Brakes the wire diameter is called
5. The length of coil sprig under no load. D. Spring A. Spring index
A. Compressed length B. Spring ratio
B. Free length Answer: D C. Spring rate
C. Solid height D. Spring constant
D. None of these 16. When a spring is made of ductile material, the
curvature factor would be Answer: A
Answer: B A. Zero
B. Constant 27. Refers to the axial distance from a point on one
6. In general, steel spring are made of relatively C. Unity coil to the corresponding point on the next adjacent
high carbon steel usually D. Positive coil.
A. More than 0.5% A. Lead
B. 5% Answer: C B. Spring distance
C. Less than 0.5% C. Pitch
D. 10% 17. The solid length plus the clearance plus the D. Spring deflection
maximum deflection.
Answer: B A. Free length Answer: C
B. Height
7. When heat treated wire is coiled cold, it should C. Distance 28. The spring index for general industrial uses
be stress relieved for bending stresses after cooling by D. Original length should be
being heated at some at what temperature A. 5 to 7
A. 400F Answer: A B. 6 to 8
B. 500F C. 7 to 9
C. 600F 18. The majority of coils springs are made of coil D. 8 to 10
D. 700F tempered carbon steel wire containing
______________ carbon. Answer: D
Answer: B A. 0.30 to 0.40%
B. 0.40 to 0.50% 29. What is the spring index of valve and clutch?
8. A low cost spring material, suitable where C. 0.50 to 0.60% A. 3
service is not severe and dimensional precision is not D. 0.60 to 0.70% B. 5
needed. C. 7
A. Hard drawn wire spring Answer: D D. 9
B. Helical spring
C. Stainless steel Answer: B
 B. Bearing
30. Refers to the space between adjacent coils when 41. Typical hub length falls between C. Brake Shaft
the spring is compressed to its operating length A. 1.25D to 2.4D D. Lock Shaft
A. Coil allowance B. 1.25D to 5D
B. Coil tolerance C. 1.3 D to 3.4D Answer: A
C. Coil clearance D. D to 7D
D. None of these 2. The frictional forces depend on coefficient of
Answer: A friction and:
Answer: C A. Torque
42. The recommended coefficient of fluctuation of B. Weights of object
31. The most practical spring designs produce a flywheels for punching, shearing, and pressing C. Normal Force
pitch angle is less than machine is D. Moment
A. 12° A. 0.05 to 0.10
B. 15° B. 0.03 to 0.05 Answer: C
C. 20° C. 0.002 to 0.005
D. 25° D. 0.01 to 0.02 3. Friction devices used to regulate the motion of
bodies and with clutches
Answer: A Answer: A A. Rollers
B. Brakes
32. Engine valves get shut by means of 43. Attached to the rear end of the crankshaft is the C. Babbitt
A. Valve lock A. Vibration damper D. Holders
B. Tappet B. Flywheel
C. Valve spring C. Drive pulley Answer: B
D. Adjusting screw D. Timing gear
4. The part of the total frictional energy that is
Answer: C Answer: B stored in the brake parts, principally in the drum or
disk has been estimated at __________.
33. Which of the following materials is used for leaf 44. Flywheel is also known as A. 56% up
and coil spring? A. Steering wheel B. 86% up
A. AISI 3140 B. Front wheel C. 90% up
B. AISI 3150 C. Balance wheel D. 75% up
C. AISI 3240 D. Rear wheel
D. AISI 4063 Answer: D
Answer: C
Answer: D 5. The part of an automobile disc clutch that
45. What energy is stored in flywheels? presses against the flywheel is referred to as:
34. The circumference of a coil spring times the A. Kinetic energy
effective number of coils is called B. Internal energy A. Contact plate
A. Active length C. Potential energy B. Friction plate
B. Solid length D. Rest energy C. Pressure plate
C. Compressed length D. Sliding plate
D. Operating length Answer: A
Answer: C
Answer: A 46. What is the function of the flywheel?
A. To keep the speed fluctuation within the desired 6. The brake capacity to absorb energy is known
35. For spring subjected to light service, the factor limits as:
of safety __________ is suggested B. To limit the momentary rise or fall in speed A. Energy
A. 1.5 during sudden changes of load B. Resistance brake
B. 2.0 C. To keep the angular advance or retardation C.
C. 2.5 within prescribed limit as compared with a D. Braking torque
D. 3.0 perfectly uniform angular speed
D. All of the above Answer: D
Answer: A
Answer: D 7. If the band warps partly around the brake wheel
36. Refers to a flat or curved made of thin or drum and brake action is obtained by pulling the
superimposed plates and formin a cantilever or beam 47. In many flywheel designs, about how many band tight onto the wheel. This type of brake is known
of uniform strength. percent of the weight is concentrated in the hub and as:
A. Laminated spring arms A. Block brake
B. Graduated spring A. 20 B. Band brake
C. Full spring B. 30 C. Clutch
D. Conical spring C. 35 D. Centrifugal brake
D. 45
Answer: A Answer: B
Answer: B
37. Cross wire grooves are types which 8. The brake lining operating at temperature
A. Decrease the danger of skidding 48. A large rotary machine part whose function is to _____, sintered mixtures containing ceramics are used:
B. Absorb shocks because of road store energy and to produce uniform angular velocity A. 750 F to 1000 F
unevenness of the shaft or reciprocating engine. B. 560 F to 900 F
C. Provide good faction A. Cam C. 800 F to 1200 F
D. Provide better load carrying capacity B. Idler D. 400 F to 789 F
C. Flywheel
Answer: B D. Chuck Answer: A

38. The _____ of parallel connection of spring is Answer: C 9. Hydrodynamic brake is the major type of:
always constant A. Air brake
A. Elongation 49. A massive wheel, which by its inertia assists in B. Fluid brake
B. Load securing uniform motion of machinery by resisting C. Electric brake
C. Thermal conductivity sudden changes of speed. D. Spot brake
D. Resistance A. Linkage
B. Crank Answer: B
Answer: A C. Planetary gears
D. Flywheel 10. Type of brakes that are capable of stopping the
39. Speedometer drive is generally taken from motion of a machine member as well as retarding its
A. Dynamo Answer: D motion
B. Flywheel A. Electrical brake
C. Gear 50. The function of a flywheel is to B. Fluid brake
D. Front wheel A. Complete the unusual stroke C. Air brake
B. Operated the engines D. Mechanical brake
Answer: D C. Keep the engines weight light
D. None of theses Answer: D
40. The device for smoothing out the power
impulses from the engine is known as Answer: A 11. It is considered as the simplest type of
A. Clutch mechanical brake.
B. Flywheel A. Differential brake
C. Gearbox Test 13 B. Block brake
D. Differential 1. A shaft that is used to connect or disconnect at C. Band brake
will is called: D. Brake shoe
Answer: B A. Clutch
Answer: C A. 7.5 o D. Affordable
B. 9.5 o
12. The friction devices used to connect shafts: C. 12.5o Answer: A
A. Brakes D. 14.5o
B. Clutches Answer: C 35. Which of the following is mounted inside the
C. Spring clutch?
D. Holder 24. Why does a clutch create noise? A. An engine
A. Clutch release bearings is either dry or B. Gear box propeller shaft
Answer: B defective C. Both the rear axle
B. Clutch spring is broken D. All of these
13. A clutch that has a disadvantage of heavier C. Clutch is faulty
rotary masses. D. All of these Answer: B
A. Multiple disc clutch
B. Disc clutch Answer: D 36. Which clutch is suitable for mine hoists and
C. Cone clutch other services where heavy loads are accompanied by
D. None of these 25. What faults develop in the brakes? severe shock?
A. Brakes do not work properly A. Band clutch
Answer: A B. Brakes do not disengage B. Block clutch
C. Brake make noise C. Centrifugal clutch
14. The overrunning clutch D. All of these D. Expanding ring clutch
A. Should be oiled
B. Should be repacked with grease Answer: D Answer: A
C. Cannot be lubricated
D. Contains no lubricant 26. Which of the following types of brakes are also 37. It is used to protect a machine in case of
changed while replacing brake lining? jamming and for overload protection of motors and
Answer: C A. Brake shoes engine
B. Shoe rivets A. Dry fluid clutch
15. The overrunning clutch: C. Shoe spring B. Magnetic clutch
A. Transmits cranking force to the D. Block brake C. Eddy clutch
engine flywheel D. Slip clutch
B. Is one way clutch Answer: B
C. Prevents the engine flywheel from Answer: D
driving the starting motor 27. Power brakes require ______ power:
D. All of these A. Equal 38. Refers to the simplest type of brakes.
B. Less A. Differential brakes
Answer: D C. More B. Block brakes
D. Pulsating C. Band brakes
16. Clutch gear box, differential etc. are the parts D. Brake shoe
of: Answer: B
A. Charging system Answer: C
B. Transmission system 28. That type of oil is used in the hydraulic brake
C. Cooling system system? 39. The practical length of shoe is limited to about:
D. None of these A. Engine oil A. 75 o
B. Gear oil B. 90 o
Answer: B C. Brake oil C. 120 o
D. Clutch oil D. 180 o
17. In motor vehicles, it is very common practice to Answer: C
use a: Answer: C
A. Multiple clutch 40. If the angle of contact is ______, the pressure
B. Hydraulic clutch 29. The principal parts of a hydraulic brake system between the brakes shoe and the drum cannot be
C. Cone clutch are the master cylinder and the: considered uniform:
D. Single plate clutch A. Multi-cylinder A. Less than 45 deg
B. Wheel cylinder B. Less than 60 deg
Answer: D C. Brake wire C. Greater than 60 deg
D. Brake shoe D. Greater than 120 deg
18. The clutch finger is pushed by
A. Clutch fork Answer: B Answer: C
B. Clutch
C. Clutch bearing 30. In the mechanical brake system, the main 41. It is used to stop the motion of a moving object.
D. None of these function is of: A. Clutch
A. Spring B. Brakes
Answer: C B. Cam C. Band clutch
C. Shoe adjuster D. Band brake
19. A hydraulic clutch doesn’t incorporate a: D. Shoe rivets
A. Clutch plate Answer: B
B. Oil plate Answer: B
C. Vacuum plate 42. The effectiveness of the brake may greatly
D. None of these 31. In motor vehicles, there is a __________ in decrease shortly after it begins to act continuously, a
addition of foot brake. phenomenon called:
Answer: A A. Hand brake A. Creep
B. Hydraulic brake B. Pressurized
20. The lining of a brake shoe: C. Mechanical brake C. Fade
A. Can be changed D. Band brake D. Worn-out
B. Cannot be fitted
C. Can be fitted with spring Answer: A Answer: C
D. None of these
32. Which of the following is also used in the 43. Type of brake under the category of power
Answer: A suspension system? brake is known as:
A. Shock absorbers A. Servo brake
21. Due to air effect, the hydraulic brakes become: B. Brake shoes B. Band brake
A. More effective C. Cams C. Differential brake
B. Ineffective D. Block brakes D. Brake shoe
C. Possible
D. None of these Answer: A Answer: A

Answer: B 33. There are ______ plates in a multi-plate clutch 44. Clutches which are designed to transmit torque
A. More than one for one direction of rotation of the driver and then free-
22. The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is: B. Less than four wheel or transmit essentially no torque when the
A. About 90 percent C. More than ten direction of the driver rotation is reversed.
B. 60-80 percent D. Less than one A. Magnetic clutches
C. 50-60 percent B. Trip clutches
D. 40-50 percent Answer: A C. Overrunning clutches
D. Slip clutches
Answer: A 34. Hydraulic clutches are used in _______
vehicles. Answer: C
23. The SAE recommends an angle of ________ for A. Costly
cone clutches faced with leather or asbestos or having B. Foreign made 45. The reason for noise at the time of engaging
cork inserts: C. Cheap brake:
 A. Back plate being loose or bent D. All of these D. 0..0726 lb/in3
B. Brake shoe being loose or bent Answer: B
C. Brake drum could be defective Answer: B
D. All of these 17. The breaking strength of oak tanned belting
6. What type of leather belting should be used at varies from 3 to more than
Answer: D an ambient temperature above 149 deg F and possible A. 5 ksi
acid liquid coming in contact with the belt? B. 6 ksi
46. When the vehicle runs brake drum becomes hot A. Mineral Tanned C. 7 ksi
because of friction of the shoe. This fault is known as B. Combination of Oak D. 8 ksi
_______ C. Oak Tanned
A. Brake lining D. None of these Answer: B
B. Brake winding
C. Back plate Answer: D 18. If the ends are joined by wire lacing with
D. None of these machine, the usual efficiency of joint is:
7. It is recommended not to have a direct drive and A. 75%
Answer: B drive sprockets if the ratio of their teeth exceeds B. 85%
_______ use two or more combination C. 88%
47. The maintenance of mechanical brake is: A. 10 times D. 100%
A. Expensive B. 8 times
B. Economical C. 5 times Answer: C
C. Costly D. 6 times
D. None of these 19. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal force
Answer: B increases rapidly above
Answer: B A. 2500 fpm
8. Flat leather belting not recommended for use in B. 3000 fpm
48. What is the most common defect of clutch? a speed in excess of ________ fpm C. 3500 fpm
A. Slip of the clutch A. 3600 D. 4000 fpm
B. Clutch does not disengage B. 4800
properly C. 6000 Answer: A
C. Clutch creates noise D. All of these
D. All of these 20. Experience suggests that the most economical
Answer: C designs are obtained for a belt speed of:
Answer: D A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
9. V-belts operate efficiently at speed of about: B. 3000 to 4000 fpm
49. The act keeping some pressure on the clutch A. 4500 fpm C. 4000 to 4500 fpm
pedal at the time of driving is known as: B. 4400 fpm D. 4000 to 4000 fpm
A. Hydraulic clutch C. 4200 fpm
B. Slip of the clutch D. 3600 fpm Answer: C
C. Riding on clutch
D. Clutch adjustment Answer: A 21. For leather belts, recommended speed is:
A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
Answer: C 10. It is advised that in rubber belts application B. 4000 to 5000 fpm
mounting, it should have an initial tension of _______ C. 6000 to 7500 fpm
50. Which of the following shortcoming in the cone A. 18 to 24 D. 7000 to 8000 fpm
clutch because of which the clutch is not used? B. 15 to 20
A. Clutch slips quickly C. 12 to 15 Answer: D
B. It occupies more space D. 10
C. Adjustment has to be done early 22. For fabric belts, recommended speed is:
D. All of these Answer: B A. 2000 to 3000 fpm
B. 2000 and more fpm
Answer: D 11. In shear pin or breaking pin design, we may use C. 3000 to 4000 fpm
the date experience by Link-Belt for 1/8 inch pins and D. 4000 to 4500 fpm
the breaking stress is __________ ksi.
Test 14 A. 40 Answer: B
1. It is ideal for maximum quietness in sprocket B. 55
drive operation to choose _____ or more teeth. C. 50 23. In high speed, centrifugal blowers, it has been
A. 25 D. 48 observed that the arc of contact reduced from 180 deg
B. 26 at rest to _______ in motion
C. 27 Answer: C A. 90 deg
D. 28 B. 95 deg
12. A type of V-belts to use in a driving pulley with C. 100 deg
Answer: C a speed of 260 rpm and transmitting 5 hp D. 110 deg
A. Type C belts
2. It is recommended for high speed application B. Type B belts Answer: D
that the minimum number of teeth in small sprocket C. Type A belts
should be: D. Type D belts 24. The recommended initial tension of belt is:
A. 12 to 20 A. 75 lb/in of width
B. 18 to 24 Answer: B B. 71 lb/in of width
C. 16 to 32 C. 73 lb/in of width
D. 14 to 28 13. Belt slip may take place because of: D. 80 lb/in of width
A. Loose load
Answer: B B. Heavy Belt Answer: B
C. Driving pulley too small
3. Consider a maximum safe center distance of D. All of these 25. The recommended net belt pill for rubber belt
should be _____ pitches. Very long center distance is:
caused catenaries tension in the chain Answer: D A. 11.34 lb/ply per inch of width
A. 70 B. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width
B. 80 14. A single ply leather belt running at a belt C. 16.35 lb/ply per inch of width
C. 90 velocity of 300ft/min is likely to transmit ____ per D. 20.34 lb/ply per inch of width
D. 100 inch of width
A. 2.5 hp Answer: B
Answer: B B. 3.0 hp
C. 4.0 hp 26. If two intersecting shafts are to be belt
4. The recommended lubricant for the chain drive D. 5.0 hp connected, how many guide pulley/s is used?
operation is: A. 1
A. SAE 4140 Answer: C B. 2
B. Petroleum Oil C. 3
C. Moly slip 15. What is the density of a leather belt? D. 4
D. Heavy grease A. 0.035 lb/in3
B. 0.0253 lb/in3 Answer: B
Answer: B C. 0.046 lb/in3
D. 0.074 lb/in3 27. Two shafts at right angles to each other may be
5. Type of leather belt being applied with Answer: A connected by the _____ arrangement
waterproof cement is called: A. Half turn
A. Combination of Oak/Mineral 16. What is the density of flat belt rubber material? B. Three-fourths turn
Tanned A. 0.055 lb/in3 C. One turn
B. Oak Tanned B. 0.045 lb/in3 D. Quarter turn
C. Mineral Tanned C. 0.0725 lb/in3
Answer: D Answer: D
Answer: A
28. It offers long life, high efficiency and low cost 50. In practice, it is found that arcs less than ______
and low maintenance 39. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller required high belt tensions.
A. Flat belt sprocket for low speeds is: A. 155o
B. V-belt A. 12 B. 165o
C. Tooth belt B. 14 C. 175o
D. All of these C. 16 D. 180o
D. 18 Answer: B
Answer: A
Answer: A
29. It is used to connect pulleys to convey materials
by transmitting motion and power 40. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller Test 15
A. Rope sprocket for moderate speeds is: 1. The minimum recommended worm pitch
B. Wires A. 15 diameter is ¼ in and the maximum is:
C. Belt B. 17 A. 1 ¾ in
D. Flat C. 19 B. 2 ¾ in
D. 21 C. 3 in
Answer: C D. 2 in
Answer: B
30. A crossed belt wider than ______ inches should Answer: D
be avoided 41. The minimum number of teeth on the smaller
A. 7 sprocket for high speeds is: 2. Vertex distance is a term used in ____ gearing
B. 8 A. 19 A. Spiral
C. 9 B. 21 B. Worm
D. 10 C. 23 C. Bevel
D. 25 D. Zerol
Answer: B
Answer: B Answer: C
31. If the pulley ratio is 3:1 or more, the reduction
should be: 42. For maximum quietness, use sprockets with 3. The arc of action to circular pitch or length of
A. 25% _____ or more teeth action to base pitch
B. 50% A. 21 A. Approach
C. 75% B. 23 B. Contact ratio
D. 95% C. 25 C. Arc of action
D. 27 D. Arc of approach
Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: B
32. The advantage of flat belt is that:
A. It can be used with high-speed drives 43. For the average application a center distance 4. Recommended hardness of pinion for
B. It can be used in dusty and abrasive equivalent to ____ pitches of chain represents good helical/herringbone gear tooth should be _____ BHN
environments practice. point to sustain life:
C. It allows long distances between shafts A. 10 to 20 A. 50-58
D. All of these B. 20 to 30 B. 48-65
C. 30 to 50 C. 40-50
Answer: D D. 40 to 60 D. 30-60

33. The best leather has an ultimate strength of Answer: C Answer: C

about
A. 3000 psi 44. The tension ratio of flat belt is: 5. In designing gears of power transmission,
B. 4000 psi A. 2 consider and efficiency of _____ as recommended.
C. 5000 psi B. 3 A. 96% or more
D. 6000 psi C. 4 B. 89% or more
D. 5 C. 85% or more
Answer: B D. 98% or more
Answer: B
34. Initial tensions should range from ___ for Answer: D
leather belts and 10 to 12 lb/ply per inch of width for 45. The tension ratio of V-belt is:
rubber belts A. 2 6. The surface of the gear between the fillets of
A. 200 to 240 psi B. 3 adjacent teeth is called:
B. 220 to 260 psi C. 4 A. Bottom land
C. 240 to 280 psi D. 5 B. Flank
D. 260 to 300 psi C. Top land
Answer: D D. Flank of tooth
Answer: A
46. Balata belt is about _____ stronger than rubber Answer: A
35. The density of a balata belt is: A. 10%
A. 0.031 lb/in3 B. 15% 7. Bevel gears subjected to corrosion and lightly
B. 0.42 lb/in3 C. 20% loaded are usually made of:
C. 0.51 lb/in3 D. 25% A. Bronze
D. 0.61 lb/in3 B. Brass
Answer: B Answer: D C. Duralumin
D. All of these
36. In the selection of the proper belt, it is not 47. The coefficient of friction between the belt and
considered good practice to use single-ply leather belts the pulley for leather belt running on steel pulley is: Answer: D
more than ____ wide A. 0.1
A. 6 in. B. 0.2 8. If a set of spur gears are made installed and
B. 7 in. C. 0.3 lubricated properly, they normally may be subjected to
C. 8 in. D. 0.5 failures like:
D. 9 in. A. Tooth spalling
Answer: C B. Tooth penning
Answer: C C. Pitting
48. The capacity of a crossed belt should be reduced D. Shearing
37. According to the Goodrich company, the to _____ that of an open belt
permissible net belt pull is ____ that it gives a simple A. 25% Answer: C
means for quick estimation B. 50%
A. 13.75 lb/ply per inch of width C. 60% 9. Which of the following is an example of
B. 15.75 lb/ply per inch of width D. 75% rectilinear translation?
C. 16.75 lb/ply per inch of width A. Locomotive wheels
D. 17.75 lb/ply per inch of width Answer: D B. Rack gear
C. Piston of an engine
Answer: A 49. What is the usual factor of safety used with D. Jack
leather belts?
38. Which type of chain is used in motorcycle? A. 3 Answer: C
A. Bush roller B. 5
B. Pintle C. 7 10. For economical cost in the manufacturing large
C. Silent D. 10 worm gears, the following materials are usually
D. None of these applied:
 A. Bronze rim with cast steel spider C. Worm gear 31. In a pair of gears, _____ is the plane
B. Cast iron rim with bronze spider D. Spiral gear perpendicular to the axial plane and tangent to the
C. Cast steel rim with brass spider pitch surface.
D. Alloyed aluminum rim with cast iron spider Answer: C A. Pitch
B. Pitch Plane
Answer: A 21. In gear design, the ratio of pitch diameter, in C. Pitch Circle
inches to the number of teeth is called: D. Pitch point
11. Intermediate gear is also called ____ gear in a A. Module
gear train engagement. B. Diametral Pitch Answer: B
A. Idler C. English Module
B. Pinion D. Circular Pitch 32. What type of gear, which can transmit power at
C. Third gear a certain angle?
D. Mounted gear Answer: C A. Helical Gear
B. Worm Gear
Answer: A 22. The concave portion of tooth profile where it C. Bevel Gear
joints the bottom of the tooth filler curve is called: D. Herringbone Gear
12. The distance of a helical gear or worm would A. Fillet curve
thread along its axis in one revolution if it were to B. Fillet radius Answer: C
move axially is called: C. Bottom depth
A. Lead D. Fillet 33. _______ commonly used in a parallel shaft
B. Thread transmission especially when a smooth continuous
C. Pitch Answer: A action is essential as in high speed drives up to 12,000
D. Land fpm.
A. Bevel Gear
Answer: A 23. The distance of the tooth, which is equal to the B. Herringbone Gear
sum of the addendum and dedendum is known as: C. Spur Gear
13. Range of helix angle on helical gear is A. Full depth D. Helical Gear
_________. B. Whole depth
A. Less than 18 C. Working depth Answer: B
B. 15 - 25 D. Dedendum
C. 20 - 35 34. The hardness of helical and herringbone gear
D. 35 – 40 Answer: B teeth after heat treatment is 210 to 300 Brinell
Hardness, for gear and pinion is at:
Answer: B 24. It is used to change rotary motion to A. 360 Brinell minimum
reciprocating motion. B. 400 Brinell maximum
14. What will be the effect in bushing gears without A. Helical Gear C. 340 – 350 normal
backlash? B. Rack Gear D. All of these
A. Jamming C. Worm Gear
B. Overheating D. Spur Gear Answer: C
C. Overload
D. All of these Answer: B 35. The path of contact involute gears where the
force/power is actually transmitted, it is a straight
Answer: D 25. Tooth width measure along the chord at the imaginary line passing through the pitch point and
pitch circle is known as: tangent to the base circle is known as _____.
15. The amount by which the width of a tooth space A. Flank A. Principal Reference Plane
exceeds the thickness of the engaging tooth on the B. Face Width B. Pitch point
pitch circles C. Width of face C. Front Angle
A. Backlash D. Chordal Thickness D. Line of Action
B. Clearance
C. Undercut Answer: D Answer: D
D. Chordal thickness
26. _______ is the difference of addendum and 36. _______ is the angle at the base cylinder of an
Answer: A dedendum, which is equivalent to the whole depth less involute gear that the tooth maxes with the gear axis
working depth. A. Base Helix Angle
16. Height of tooth above pitch circle or radial A. Fillet Space B. Pressure Angle
distance between pitch circles and top land of the tooth B. Fillet Radius C. Arc of Recess
is called: C. Clearance D. Arc of Approach
A. Top tooth D. Backlash
B. Addendum Answer: A
C. Land Answer: C
D. Hunting 37. Fillet radius in machine parts is usually
27. For moderate speed of mating gears, the ideal introduced to:
Answer: B ratio contact is: A. Improve the look of the patch
A. 1.25 – 4.00 B. Reduce concentration of stress and
17. In involutes teeth, the pressure angle is often B. 1.20 – 1.45 extend life of the parts
defined as the angle between the line of action and the C. 1.00 – 1.30 C. Avoid obstruction
line of tangent to pitch circle. It is termed as: D. 1.35 – 1.45 D. Necessary to lessen casting weight
A. Helix angle
B. Angle of recess Answer: A Answer: B
C. Angle of obliquity
D. Arc of action 28. The distance a helical gear or worm would 38. A type of gear tooth cut inside a cylinder or ring
thread along its axis in one revolution if it free to move is termed as:
Answer: C axially is called: A. Rack Gear
A. Length of action B. Ring Gear
18. The reciprocal of a diametrical pitch or the ratio B. Length of contact C. Miter Gear
of pitch diameter to number of teeth is called: C. Land D. Internal Gear
A. Lead D. Lead
B. Module Answer: D
C. Involute Answer: D
D. Clearance 39. The length of arc between the two sides of a
29. Hyphoid gear is a special type of gear like: gear tooth on the pitch circle.
Answer: B A. Worm Gear A. Circle Thickness
B. Spur Gear B. Axial Plane
19. For evenly distributed and uniform wear on C. Herring Gear C. Helix Angle
each meshing gear tooth, the ideal design practice is to D. Bevel Gear D. Chordal Curves
consider a:
A. Wear resistance alloy addition to tooth gear Answer: D Answer: D
B. Heat treatment of the gears
C. Hardening of each 30. What type of gear is used for high-speed 40. Which of the following materials to be utilized
D. Hunting tooth addition operation? to reduce cost in the manufacture of large worm gears?
A. Helical A. Alloyed Aluminum
Answer: D B. Spur B. Bronze Rim with Cast Iron Spider
C. Bevel C. Cast Iron Rim with Bronze Spider
20. It is used to transmit power at high velocity D. Worm D. All of these
ratios between non-intersecting shafts that are usually
but not necessarily at right angle. Answer: A Answer: B
A. Helical gear
B. Bevel gear 41. A circle bounding the bottom of the teeth
 A. Addendum Circle Answer: A
B. Addendum Cylinder Answer: C
C. Pitch Circle 13. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top
D. Dedendum Circle 2. Herringbone gears are gears which: of the teeth of an internal gear
A. Do not operate parallel shafts A. Pitch diameter
Answer: D B. Have a line contact between the teeth B. Root diameter
C. Tend to produce and thrust on the shafts C. Internal diameter
42. ______ is one in which angle is 90 degrees that D. Consists of two left handed helical gears D. Central diameter
is the pitch cone has become a plane
A. Crown Gear Answer: B Answer: C
B. Angular Gear
C. Miter Gear 3. In usual spur gearing, the: 14. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical
D. Spiral Gear A. Pitch circle and base circle are the same surface.
B. Working depth induces clearance A. Outer gear
Answer: A C. Tooth outline are always cycloidal curves B. External gear
D. Tooth outlines are usually involute curves C. Spiral gear
43. A ______ formed by elements, which are D. Helical gear
perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at the Answer: D
large end. Answer: B
A. Cone Distance 4. _____ is a kind of gear used to transmit motion
B. Back Cone from one shaft to another shaft at angle to the first 15. Addendum of a cycloidal gear tooth
C. Root Cone A. Worm Gear A. Cycloid
D. Cone Center B. Bevel Gear B. Epicycloid
C. Helical Gear C. Straight Rack
Answer: B D. Spur Gear D. Involute

44. A bevel gear of the same size mounted on a Answer: B Answer: B

shaft at 90 degrees is called:
A. Crown Gear 5. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the bottom 16. When meshed with a gear, it is used to change
B. Spur Gear of the tooth spaces rotary motion to reciprocating motion is:
C. Angular Gear A. Pitch Circle A. Gear Shaft
D. Miter Gear B. Root Circle B. Gear Tooth
C. Base Circle C. Gear Rack
Answer: D D. Outside Circle D. Gear Motor

45. Gearing in which motion or power that is Answer: B Answer: C

transmitted depends upon the friction between the
surfaces in contact 6. A circle the radius of which is equal to the 17. The portion of a gear tooth space that is cut
A. Bevel Gears distance from the gear axis to the pitch point below the pitch circle and is equal to the addendum
B. Spur Friction wheels A. Pitch Circle plus the clearance
C. Evans Friction Cones B. Root Circle A. Root
D. Friction Gearing C. Base Circle B. Dedendum
D. Outside Circle C. Addendum
Answer: D D. Tooth Space
Answer: A
46. Wheels are sometimes used for the transmission Answer: B
of high power when an approximately constant 7. Ratio of pitch diameter to the number of teeth
velocity ratio is desired is called: A. Diametral Pitch 18. The portion of a gear tooth that projects above
A. Bevel Cones B. Module or outside the pitch circle
B. Friction Gearing C. Contact Ratio A. Top Relief
C. Spur Friction Wheels D. Helical Overlap B. Dedendum
D. Evans Friction Wheels C. Addendum
Answer: B D. Tooth Space
Answer: C
8. A kind of gear used for duty works where a Answer: C
47. The frustums of two cones used in a manner to large ratio of speed is required and are extensively
permit a variation of velocity ratio between two used in speed reducer is known as: 19. The distance from the center of one tooth of a
parallel shafts are called: A. Worm Gear gear to the center next consecutive tooth measured on
A. Evans Friction Cones B. Spiral Gear the pitch.
B. Bevel Cones C. Helical Gear A. Circular Pitch
C. Spherical Cones D. Bevel Gear B. Module
D. Friction C. Diametral Pitch
Answer: A D. Circular Pitch
Answer: A
9. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number Answer: A
48. If gears cannot, parallel shafts, they are called: of mm of pitch diameter equals number of gear teeth to
A. Cycloidal Gears each mm pitch diameter 20. The number of teeth per inch of pitch diameter
B. Helical Gears A. Diametral Pitch and which gives some indications of the size of the
C. Spur Gears B. Module gear teeth
D. Toothed Gears C. Circular Pitch A. Module
D. English Module B. Pitch Circle
Answer: A C. Diametral Pitch
Answer: A D. Circular Pitch
49. ______ is used to transmit power between
shafts axis of which it intersect 10. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle Answer: C
A. Spur Gears A. Dedendum
B. Bevel Gears B. Working Depth 21. An imaginary circle passing through the points
C. Helical Gears C. Full Depth at which the teeth of the meshing gears contact each
D. Straight Bevel Gears D. Tooth Depth other.
A. Pitch Circle
Answer: B Answer: A B. Addendum Circle
C. Dedendum Circle
50. The space between the adjacent teeth is called: 11. The total depth of a tooth space, equal to D. Base Circle
A. Tooth addendum plus Dedendum
B. Flank A. Full Depth Answer: A
C. Backlash B. Working Depth
D. Width C. Whole Depth 22. If the lead angle of a worm is 22.5 degrees then
D. Dedendum the helix angle will be ______
Answer: D A. 45 degrees
Answer: C B. 67.5 degrees
C. 22.5 degrees
Test 16 12. A circle coinciding with a tangent to the bottom D. 90 degrees
1. Tooth width measurement along the chord at the of the tooth space
pitch circle A. Root circle Answer: B
A. Chord Space B. Pitch circle
B. Chord Clearance C. Addendum circle 23. Refers to the smallest wheel of a gear train
C. Chordal Thickness D. Dedendum A. Pinion
D. Chordal Length B. Idler
 C. Spur B. 24o
D. Driver C. 20o Answer: D
D. 30o
Answer: A Answer: C 45. To estimate fouling, let the minimum
differences in tooth numbers between the internal gear
24. Spiral Gears are suitable for transmitting: 35. _______ is the average tangential force on the and pinion be _____ for 14.5 deg involute depth
A. Small power teeth is then obtained from the horsepower A. 10 teeth
B. Any power A. Total load B. 12 teeth
C. Huge power B. Separation load C. 14 teeth
D. Pulsating power C. Pressure load D. 16 teeth
D. Tangential load
Answer: A Answer: B
Answer: D
25. Zero axial thrust is experienced in: 46. The loss pair of spur, helical or bevel gears in
A. Helical gears 36. The service factor of a gear may be taken as an ordinary train should not exceed:
B. Herringbone gears ____ is an electric motor drives a centrifugal blower A. 4%
C. Spiral gears A. 1 B. 6%
D. Bevel gears B. 2 C. 2%
C. 3 D. 5%
Answer: B D. 4
Answer: C
26. Bevel gears are used to transmit rotary motion Answer: A
between two shafts whose axes are: 47. The typical helix angle ranges from _____ to
A. Parallel 37. The kind of a wear occurs because of a fatigue _____
B. Non-coplanar failure of the surfaces material as a result of high A. 10 deg to 12 deg
C. Non-intersecting contact stresses is known as: B. 12 deg to 15 deg
D. None of these A. Slotting C. 14 deg to 20 deg
B. Pitting D. 15 deg to 25 deg
Answer: D C. Involuting
D. Curving Answer: D
27. According to the law of gearing:
A. Teeth should be involute type Answer: B 48. _____ is the advance of the tooth in the face
B. Clearance between mating teeth should be width divided by circular pitch.
provided 38. ______ is caused by foreign matter such as grit A. Face contact ratio
C. Dedendum should be equal to 1.57 M or metal particles or by a failure of the oil film at low B. Speed ratio
D. None of these speed C. Profile ratio
A. Suction D. Advance ratio
Answer: D B. Scoring
C. Abrasion Answer: A
28. Gears for watches are generally manufactured D. Corrosion
by: 49. The distance between the teeth measured on the
A. Die casting Answer: C pitch surface along a normal to the helix
B. Machining on hobber A. Lead
C. Machining on a gear shaper 39. _______ occurs when the oil film fails but in B. Lead angle
D. Stamping this case, the load and speed are so high that the C. Normal circular pitch
surface metal is melted and the metal is melted and the D. Pitch
Answer: D metal is smeared down the profile.
A. Abrasion Answer: C
29. In case of gears, the addendum is given by B. Corrosion
A. One module C. Spalling 50. The hardness of a helical and herringbone teeth
B. 2.157 x module D. Scoring cut after heat treatment will generally fall between the
C. 1.57 x module limits of ______.
D. 1.25 x module Answer: D A. 210 and 300 Brinell
B. 147 and 300 Brinell
Answer: A 40. _______ is a surface fatigue of greater extent C. 230 and 320 Brinell
than pitting that is the flakes are much larger. This type D. 220 and 320 Brinell
30. In case of cross helical worm, the axes of two of failure occurs in surface-hardened teeth.
shafts are: A. Abrasion Answer: A
A. Parallel B. Corrosion
B. Intersecting C. Spalling
C. Non-parallel D. Scoring
D. Non-parallel/non-intersecting Test 17
Answer: C 1. Helical gears mounted on non-parallel shafts are
Answer: D called _____
41. Buckingham says that mating phenolic gears A. Open gear
31. In case of spur gears, the flank of the tooth is: with steel of BHN less than ____ leads to excessive B. Crossed helical gear
A. The part of the tooth surface lying below the abrasive wear C. Closed helical gear
pitch surface A. 200 D. Herringbone gear
B. The curve forming face and flank B. 300
C. The width of the gear tooth measured axially C. 400 Answer: B
along the pitch surface D. 500
D. The surface of the top of the tooth 2. _____ is used to connect intersecting shafts,
Answer: C usually but not necessarily at 90 degrees
Answer: A A. Bevel gear
42. ____ is the extra tooth in gear, which is used to B. Helical gear
32. A reverted gear train is one in which: distribute the wear more evenly. C. Spur gear
A. The direction of rotation of first and last gear A. Hunting tooth D. Worm gear
is opposite B. Tooth profile
B. The direction of rotation of first and last gear C. Dummy tooth Answer: A
is the same D. Add tooth
C. The first and last gear are essentially on 3. Bevel gear teeth are built with respect to a ____
separate but parallel shafts Answer: A rather than to a pitch cylinder as ion spur gears.
D. None of these A. Pitch pedal
43. The length of the hub should not be made ____ B. Pitch profile
Answer: C the face width of the gear. C. Pitch cone
A. Less than D. Cylinder
33. For best running conditions of a gear, the B. Equal
contact ratio should be about: C. Greater Answer: C
A. 1.25 to 1.40 D. None of these
B. 1.20 to 1.45 4. It refers to the length of pitch cone in a bevel
C. 1.34 to 1.56 Answer: A gear
D. 1.62 to 1.45 A. Cone center
44. _____ is a gear that has teeth cut on the inside B. Lead
Answer: A of the rim instead of on the outside C. Center distance
A. External gear D. Pitch
34. The _____ full depth teeth have the advantages B. Involute gear
of the greater capacity and less interference trouble. C. Stub gear Answer: A
A. 14.5o D. Annular gear
5. Refers to the cone that is performed by the D. Tangent gear A. 1:1
elements of top lands B. 1:2
A. Face cone Answer: C C. 1:3
B. Root face D. 1:4
C. Dial face 16. The use of gearbox provides:
D. Pitch face A. Gear leverage Answer: D
B. More torque
Answer: A C. More speed 27. Surface roughness on active profile surfaces on
D. None of these gear is about ____ pitch
6. The cone formed by the elements of bottom A. 30
lands Answer: B B. 32
A. Face cone C. 34
B. Root cone 17. For equalizing the rotation of two gears, a D. 36
C. Back cone gearbox employs”
D. Rake cone A. Dog and clutch Answer: B
B. Crown gear
Answer: B C. Star pinion 28. Tooth breakage on gear is usually:
D. None of these A. A tensile fatigue
7. An imaginary cone whose elements are B. A contact stress
perpendicular to the pitch cone elements at the large Answer: D C. A crack
end of the tooth. D. None of these
A. Front cone 18. In a constant mesh gearbox, all the speed gears
B. Side cone remain: Answer: A
C. Rear cone A. Separate
D. Back cone B. Joined to their couple 29. AGMA means:
C. Of the same measurements A. American German Manufacturer Association
Answer: D D. None of these B. Athletic Gear Main Association
C. American Gear Metal Association
8. _____ is one whose tooth profiles consists of Answer: B D. American Gear Manufacturer Association
straight elements that converge to a point at the cone
center. 19. If a big gear is moved by a small gear then the Answer: D
A. Circular bevel gear big gear
B. Straight bevel gear A. Will not rotate 30. Which of the following does not belong to the
C. Path bevel gear B. Will rotate reverse direction group?
D. Herringbone gear C. Will not rotate fastly A. Tooth scoring
D. None of these B. Tooth breakage
Answer: B C. Pitting
Answer: B D. Toughing
9. The desired quality in gear is
A. Quietness 20. ______ are bevel gears mounted on intersecting Answer: D
B. Durability shafts at angle other than 90 degrees.
C. Strength A. Right angle gears 31. Well proportion commercial gears with a pitch
D. All of these B. Half gears line velocity of less than _____ will normally not score
C. Inclined gears if they have a reasonably good surface finish and are
Answer: D D. Angular gears properly lubricated.
A. 6000 fpm
10. Straight and zerol bevel gears should not be Answer: D B. 6500 fpm
sued when the pitch line velocity is greater than: C. 7000 fpm
A. 800 rpm 21. The pitch angle is 90 degrees that is, the pitch D. 8000 fpm
B. 850 rpm has become a plane
C. 875 rpm A. Atten gear Answer: C
D. 900 rpm B. Crown gear
C. Cool gear 32. Experimental data from actual gear unit
Answer: D D. Hiphap gear measurements are seldom repeatable within a plus or
minus ______ band
11. The spiral bevel gears are recommended when Answer: B A. 5%
the pitch line speed exceeds: B. 10%
A. 1000 fpm 22. ____ is used to transmit power between non- C. 15%
B. 1100 fpm intersecting shafts, nearly always at right angle to each D. 20%
C. 1500 fpm other
D. 2000 fpm A. Spur gear Answer: B
B. Ordinary gear
Answer: A C. Bevel gear 33. Pitting is a function of the Hertzian contact
D. Worm gear stresses between two cylinders and is proportioned to
12. When the pitch line speed is above 800 fpm the the square root of the ______.
teeth should be: Answer: D A. Applied load
A. Ground after hardening B. The contact stresses
B. Should be cooled in air 23. What are the two types of construction for the C. The stress
C. Should be quenched after worm? D. Impact
D. None of these A. Shell and cylindrical
B. Shell and zigzag Answer: A
Answer: A C. Shell and integral
D. Tube and integral 34. When an excitation frequency coincides with a
13. ______ have curved teeth as in spiral bevels, natural frequency, this is known to be:
but with zero angle. Answer: C A. Unity
A. Spiral gears B. Resonance
B. Zerol bevel gears 24. The standard pressure angle for fine pitch gears C. Obliquity
C. Zero bevel gears is ______ gears and is recommended for most D. Sinusoidal
D. Straight bevel gears applications
A. 14.5 degrees Answer: B
Answer: B B. 16 degrees
C. 20 degrees 35. The average tooth stiffness constant of face is
14. ______ is a gear that has an advantage of D. 21 degrees usually:
smoother tooth engagement quietness of operation A. 1.5 to 2 psi
greater and higher permissible speeds. Answer: C B. 3 to 6 psi
A. Zerol bevel gear C. 3 to 4 psi
B. Straight bevel gear 25. The contact ratio of a pair of mating spur gears D. 7.5 to 10 psi
C. Hypoid bevel gear must be well over ____ to insure a smooth transfer of
D. Spiral bevel gear load from one pair of teeth to the next pair. Answer: A
A. 1.0
Answer: D B. 2.0 36. When the number of teeth in a pair of meshing
C. 3.0 gears are such that they do not have a common divisor.
15. When the pair of bevel gears of the same size is D. 4.0 A. Dummy
on shafts intersecting at right angle, they are called B. LCD
_____ Answer: A C. Add it
A. Mold gear D. Hunting
B. Helix angle 26. As general rule contact ratio should not be less
C. Miter gear than: Answer: D
 b. Face width
37. For internal gears having a 20 degree pressure 47. The ratio of the arc of approach to the arc of c. Chordal thickness
angle and full depth teeth, the difference between the action d. Curve thickness
number of teeth in a gear and pinion should not be less A. Approach ratio
than ______. B. Action ratio Answer: c
A. 10 C. Recess ratio
B. 12 D. Contact ratio 8. The height from the top of the tooth to the chord
C. 14 subtending the circular thickness arc.
D. 16 Answer: A a. Curve thickness
b. Chordal thickness
Answer: B 48. In a pair of gear, it is the plane that contains two c. Chordal addendum
axes in a simple gear; it may be any plane containing d. Chordal dedendum
38. Zerol bevel gears angle should have a pinion the axes and the given point.
either not less than: A. Axial plane Answer: c
A. 15 teeth B. Central plane
B. 16 teeth C. Normal plane 9. The length of the arc of the pitch circle between the centers
C. 17 teeth D. Transverse plane or other corresponding points of the adjacent teeth.
D. 18 teeth a. Circular pitch
Answer: A b. Diametral Pitch
Answer: C c. Base pitch
49. Arc of the pitch circle which a tooth travels d. Normal pitch
39. _______ are machine elements that transmit from its contact with the mating tooth at the pitch point
motion by means of successively engaging teeth. to the point where the contact ceases is called: Answer: a
A. Sprockets A. Arc of contact
B. Gears B. Arc of approach 10. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the
C. Tooth belt C. Arc of recess mating gear makes contact.
D. Annular D. Arc of action a. Contact ratio
b. Contact diameter
Answer: B Answer: C c. Contact stress
d. None of these
40. Arc of the pitch circle through which a tooth 50. A single ply leather belt running at a belt
travels from the first point and contact with the mating velocity of 300 ft/min is likely to transmit _____ per Answer: b
tooth to the pitch point is called: inch of width
A. Arc of contact A. 2.5 hp 11. The maximum compressive stress within the contact area
B. Arc of approach B. 3.0 hp between mating gear tooth profiles is called:
C. Arc of recess C. 4.0 hp a. Bearing stress
D. Arc of action D. 5.0 hp b. Contact stress
c. Ultimate stress
Answer: D Answer: C d. Internal stress

41. Height of tooth above pitch circle or the Answer: b

distance between the pitch circle and the top of the Test 18
tooth is called: 1. The _____ from which an involute tooth is generated or 12. The curve formed by the path of a point on a circle as it
A. Dedendum developed. rolls a straight line.
B. Addendum a. Root circle a. Trochoid
C. Working depth b. Base circle b. Epicycloid
D. Total depth c. Pitch circle c. Hypocycloid
d. Dedendum circle d. Cycloid
Answer: B
Answer: b Answer: d
42. The circle that bounds the outer ends of the
teeth. 2. The angle at the base cylinder if an involute gear, that the 13. The circular pitch in the normal plane.
A. Addendum circle tooth makes with the gear axis. a. Circular plane
B. Dedendum circle a. Helix angle b. Normal circular pitch
C. Pitch circle b. Pressure angle c. Central plane
D. Root circle c. Lead angle d. Circular base pitch
d. Base Helix angle
Answer: A Answer: b
Answer: d
43. The angle through which the gear turns from the 14. The strength of the arc between the two sides of a gear
time a given pair of teeth are in contact at the pitch 3. In an involute gear, _____ is the pitch on the base circle or tooth on the pitch circles unless otherwise specified.
point until they pass out the mesh along the line of action. a. Face of tooth
A. Pressure angle a. Base circle b. Circular thickness
B. Angle of action b. Normal base pitch c. Tooth profile
C. Angle of approach c. Base pitch d. Face width
D. Angle of recess d. Pitch gear
Answer: b
Answer: B Answer: c
15. The amount by which the dedendum exceeds the
44. The angle through which the gear turns from the 4. The base pitch in the normal plane. addendum of the mating tooth.
time a particular pair of teeth comes into in contact a. Normal pitch a. Tolerance
until they go out the contact. b. Normal base pitch b. Allowance
A. Pressure angle c. Axial plane c. Clearance
B. Angle of action d. Central plane d. Backlash
C. Angle of approach
D. Angle of recess Answer: b Answer: c

Answer: B 5. The base pitch in the axial plane. 16. The smallest diameter on a gear tooth with which the
a. Axial base pitch mating gear makes:
45. The angle through which the gear tirns from the b. Axial pitch a. Idler
time a particular pair of teeth come into in contact until c. Normal pitch b. Pinion
they are in contact at the pitch point d. Base pitch c. Gear
A. Pressure angle d. Central diameter
B. Angle of action Answer: a
C. Angle of approach Answer: d
D. Angle of recess 6. In a worm gear, _____ is a plane perpendicular to the gear
axis and contains the common perpendicular of the gear and 17. The ratio of the arc of action to the circular pitch is known
Answer: C the worm axis. as:
a. Central plane a. Contact ratio
46. Arc of the circle through which a tooth travels b. Normal plane b. Action ratio
from the point of contact with the mating tooth to the c. Axial plane c. Recess ratio
pitch point is called: d. Traverse plane d. Approach ratio
A. Arc of contact
B. Arc of approach Answer: a Answer: c
C. Arc of recess
D. Arc of action 7. The length of the chord subtended by the circular arc is 18. The curve that satisfy the law of gearing.
called: a. Tooth profile
Answer: B a. Backlash b. Stub curve
 c. Conjugate curve d. Bottom land Answer: c
d. Involute curve
Answer: a 41. The surface of the gear between the fillets of adjacent
Answer: c teeth.
30. The concave portion of the tooth profile where it joins the a. Space width
19. The depth of tooth space below the pitch circle or the bottom of the toot space. b. Backlash
radial dimension between the pitch circle and the bottom of a. Toot curve c. Bottom land
the tooth space. b. Involute d. Tooth space
a. Addendum c. Fillet radius
b. Dedendum d. Fillet curve Answer: c
c. Working depth
d. Whole depth Answer: d 42. The distance of a helical gear or worm would thread along
its axis one revolution of it was free to move axially.
Answer: b 31. The maximum tensile stress in the gear tooth fillet. a. Lead
a. Gear stress b. Helix
20. The circle that bounds the bottom of the teeth. b. Contact stress c. Length of action
a. Addendum circle c. Fillet stress d. Line of action
b. Pitch circle d. Fillet curve
c. Base circle Answer: a
d. Dedendum circle Answer: c
43. The path of contact in involute gears, it is straight line
Answer: d 32. That surface which is between the pitch circle and the passing through the pitch point and the tangent to the base
bottom land is called: circles.
21. The ratio of the number of teeth to the number of a. Flank of tooth a. Length of action
millimeters of pitch diameter. b. Face of tooth b. Line of action
a. Diametral pitch c. Face of width c. Line of contact
b. Module d. Fillet of tooth d. None of these
c. Circular pitch
d. Base pitch Answer: a Answer: b

Answer: a 33. The surface of the tooth between the pitch and root 44. The distance on involute line of action through which the
cylinders. point of contact moves during the action of the tooth profile.
22. The diametral pitch circulated in the normal plane and is a. Fillet a. Length of action
equal to the pitch dived by the cosine of the helix angle b. Face b. Line of action
a. Normal diametral plane c. Flank c. Line of contact
b. Normal diametral pitch d. Bottom land d. None of these
c. Normal plane
d. Normal axial pitch Answer: c Answer: a

Answer: b 34. The number of teeth in the gear divided by the number of 45. The ratio of pitch diameter in millimeters to the number of
teeth in the opinion. teeth.
23. That portion of the face width that actually comes into a. Ratio factor a. Addendum
contact with mating teeth, as occasionally one member of a b. Gear ratio b. Diametral pitch
pair of gears may have a greater face width than the other is c. Transmission ratio c. Module
called: d. None of these d. None of these
a. Effective face width
b. Effective tooth face Answer: b Answer: c
c. Effective tooth thickness
d. Effective tooth flank 35. The helical angle that a helical gear tooth makes the gear 46. A plane normal to the tooth surfaces acts a point of
axis. contact and perpendicular to the pitch plane.
Answer: a a. Helix angle a. Axial plane
b. Lead angle b. Central plane
24. The actual torque of a gear set divided by its gear ratio. c. Pressure angle c. Normal plane
a. Coefficient of performance d. Tooth angle d. Diametral
b. Transmission ratio
c. Ratio factor Answer: a Answer: c
d. Efficiency
36. When it rolls along the inner side of another circle, it is 47. The distance between similar equally spaced tooth
Answer: d called: surfaces in a given direction and along a given curve or line.
a. Cycloid a. Module
25. When it rolls along the outer side another circle, is called: b. Epicycloid b. Pitch
a. Cycloid c. Hypocycloid c. Addendum
b. Hypocycloid d. Trochoid d. Involute
c. Epicycloid
d. Trochoid Answer: c Answer: b

Answer: c 37. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top of the 48. The angle subtended by the arc on the pitch equal in the
teeth on an internal gear. length to the circular pitch.
26. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical surface. a. Pitch diameter a. Pitch angle
a. Annular gear b. Internal diameter b. Pressure angle
b. External gear c. Root diameter c. Helix angle
c. Idler d. Dedendum diameter d. Lead angle
d. Spur gear
Answer: b Answer: a
Answer: b
38. A gear with teeth on the inner cylindrical surface. 49. Of meshing gears, _____ is the point of tangency to the
27. That surface of the tooth, which is between the pitch a. Pitch gear pitch circle.
circles to the top of the tooth is known as _____. b. Internal gear a. Pitch point
a. Face width c. Idler b. Pitch of contact
b. Tooth flank d. Spur gear c. Pitch
c. Face of tooth d. Reference point
d. Top land Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: c 39. The curve formed by the path of a point on a straight line
called their generatrix, as it rolls along a convex base curve. 50. In a pair of gears, it is the plane perpendicular to the axial
28. The length of the teeth in axial plane. a. Involute plane and tangent to the axial plane and tangent to the pitch
a. Face of tooth b. Cycloidal surfaces.
b. Face width c. Cycloid a. Normal plane
c. Circular pitch d. Trochoid b. Central plane
d. Chordal thickness c. Pitch plane
Answer: a d. Tangent plane
Answer: b
40. The top surface of the tooth. Answer: c
29. The surface of the tooth between the pitch cylinder and a. Tooth face
the addendum cylinder. b. Tooth surfaces
a. Face c. Top land Test 19
b. Flank d. Tooth flank 1. One of the causes of spur gear tooth breakage is the
c. Top land unbalanced load on one end of breakage is the unbalanced
load on one end of the tooth that results in the higher stress d. Tooth face b. 3
than when the load is evenly distributed. To minimize this c. 4
problem, the face width “b” should not be greater that the Answer: b d. 5
thickness of the tooth. In the absence of test values, the
following can be guide. 12. An arbitrary modification of a tooth profile whereby a Answer: b
a. 2.5 Pc < b < 4 Pc small amount of material is removed near the tip of the gear
b. 2.0 < b < 4 Pd tooth. 23. Safe working stresses for common gear materials
c. 2.5 Pd < b < 4 Pd a. Chamber operating at very low velocities are usually assumed to be
d. 2.0 Pc < b < 4 Pc b. Tip relief _____ the ultimate strength.
c. Under cut a. One-fourth
d. None of these b. One-third
Answer: a c. One-half
Answer: b d. Two-third
2. Any perpendicular to a gear axis is called:
a. Plane of action 13. A plane tangent to the surfaces at a point or line of Answer: b
b. Plane of rotation contact.
c. Normal plane a. Normal plane 24. To avoid charring by the heat of friction, rawhide gears
d. Transverse plane b. Pitch plane should not be operated of pitch line velocities greater than
c. Tangent plane _____
Answer: b d. Axial plane a. 2500 fpm
b. 3000 fpm
3. The angle between the tooth profile and radial line at its Answer: c c. 35000 fpm
pitch point. Involute teeth the angle between the line of action d. 4000 fpm
and line tangent to the pitch circle. 14. A circle coinciding with or tangent to the bottoms of the
a. Roll angle tooth spaces. Answer: a
b. Pitch angle a. Addendum circle
c. Helix angle b. Pitch circle 25. The outside diameter of the hubs of larger gears should be
d. Pressure angle c. Base circle _____ the bore for steel.
d. Root circle a. 1.5 times
Answer: d b. 1.6 times
Answer: d c. 1.7 times
4. The radial distance from the addendum circle to the d. 1.8 times
working depth circle. 15. The angle subtended at the center of the base circle from
a. Total depth teeth origin of an involute to the point of tangency of the Answer: d
b. Full depth generation from any point of the same involute.
c. Whole depth a. Root angle 26. The couple diameter of the hubs of larger gears should be
d. Working depth b. Roll angle _____ the bore for cast iron.
c. Pitch circle a. 1.5 times
Answer: d d. Base circle b. 1.8 times
c. 2.0 times
5. The total depth of a tooth space equal to addendum plus Answer: b d. 2.5 times
dedendum also equal to working depth plus clearance.
a. Full depth 16. _____ gear with teeth spaced along a straight and suitable Answer: c
b. Working for straight line motion.
c. Whole depth a. Helical 27. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for single
d. None of these b. Bevel helical gears.
c. Rack a. 10 and 18
Answer: c d. Worm b. 12 and 20
c. 15 and 23
6. It is a condition in generated gear teeth when any part of Answer: c d. 18 and 28
the fillet curve lies inside of a line drawn to the working
profile as the lowest point. 17. The pitch plane, axial plane and transverse plane, all Answer: c
a. Medium cut intersect at a point and mutually perpendicular to the:
b. Under cut a. Principal reference plane 28. Helix angles of _____ degrees are preferred for double
c. Over cut b. Principal reference axis helical gears.
d. Hidden cut c. Principal reference point a. 15 and 25
d. Principal reference line b. 20 and 30
Answer: b c. 25 and 40
Answer: a d. 30 and 45
7. The curve formed by the path of a point on the extension of
the radius of a circle as it rolls along the curve or line. 18. A device for engaging and disengaging gears. Answer: d
a. Cycloids a. Gear shift
b. Epicycloids b. Gear train 29. A _____ is a spur gear of infinite diameter.
c. Hypocycloid c. Gear wheel a. Hypoid
d. Trochoid d. Gear motor b. Herringbone
c. Annular
Answer: d Answer: a d. Rack

8. A plane perpendicular to the axis plane and to the pitch 19. For spur gear, the speed ratio is customary to limit the Answer: d
plane. reduction of:
a. Norma plane a. 3:1 30. It is standard practice to assume that the thickness of the
b. Pitch plane b. 4:1 tooth measured around the pitch circle is exactly _____ of a
c. Tangent plane c. 5:1 circular pitch.
d. Transverse plane d. 6:1 a. One-fourth
b. One-half
Answer: d Answer: d c. One-third
d. Two-third
9. The total width dimensions of a gear blank to the pitch 20. For helical and herringbone gears, the speed ratio is
plane. limited to: Answer: b
a. Total face width a. 3:1
b. Effective face width b. 5:1 31. It occurs under heavy loads and in adequate lubrication.
c. Addendum c. 6:1 a. Pitting
d. Transverse plane d. 10:1 b. Honing
c. Scoring
Answer: a Answer: d d. Tooth breakage

10. The space between the teeth measured along the pitch 21. They are cylindrical in form operate on parallel axes and Answer: c
circle. have straight teeth parallel to the axis.
a. Tooth space a. Helical gears 32. In order to get benefit helical-gear action the face width
b. Tooth thickness b. Bevel gears should be at least _____ the axial pitch.
c. Backlash c. Spur gears a. Once
d. Tooth face d. Worm gears b. Twice
c. Thrice
Answer: a Answer: c d. Minimum

11. The width of tooth measured along the pitch circle. 22. The design stress based upon the ultimate strength of the Answer: b
a. Tooth space material with a factor of safety of about _____.
b. Tooth thickness a. 2
c. Backlash
33. The outside diameter of the worm gear measured on the c. Pitch angle b. Tooth thickness
central plane. d. Front angle c. Whole depth
a. Addendum diameter d. Working depth
b. Throat diameter Answer: b
c. Pitch diameter Answer: d
d. Root diameter 45. The apex of the pitch cone
a. Cone center
Answer: b b. Vertex 6. The meaning of module in a gearing system is:
c. Pitch point a. Distance
34. For worms mating with gears having 24 teeth or more the d. Apothem
b. Addendum
_____ pressure angle is recommended.
c. Measure
a. 14.5 degrees Answer: a
b. 20 degrees d.
c. 22.5 degrees 46. The portion of the tooth surface adjacent to the involute
d. 25 degrees lying inside a radial line passing through an imaginary Answer: c
intersection of an involute and the base circle/
Answer: b a. Excessive cut 7. Refers to the portion of the tooth surface
b. Over cut adjacent to the involute lying inside a radial line passing
35. The axes intersect and the teeth are curved and oblique is c. Under cut through an imaginary intersection of the involute and the base
called: d. None of these circle.
a. Skew bevel gears a. Over cut
b. Straight bevel gears Answer: c b. Under cut
c. Spiral bevel gears c. Tip relief
d. Zerol bevel gears 47. In spur gearing system, the preferred pressure angle is:
d. None of these
a. 14- ½ deg
Answer: c b. 20 deg
c. 22- ½ deg Answer: b
36. A type of gear of non-parallel and non-intersecting and d. 25 deg
the teeth are straight. 8. In a pair of gears, spur or bevel, the smaller is
a. Hypoid gears Answer: b often called:
b. Skew bevel gears a. Rack
c. Spiral bevel gears 48. Hub length usually vary from: b. Pinion
d. Zerol bevel gears a. 1.05 Ds to 1.7 Ds c. Worn
b. 1.25 Ds to 2 Ds d. Idler
Answer: b c. 1.35 Ds to 2.5 Ds
d. 1.35 Ds to 3.0 Ds Answer: b
37. For worm gears, Buckingham recommends face width.
a. 0.2 Dwo Answer: b
9. Which of the following gears that are of the
b. 0.3 Dwo
c. 0.4 Dwo 49 The service factor for heavy shock is: same and transmit motion at right angles?
d. 0.5 Dwo a. 1 to 1.25 a. Herringbone gears
b. 1.25 to 1.50 b. Spur gears
Answer: d c. 1.50 to 1.75 c. Miter gears
d. 1.75 to 2.0 d. Rack gears
38. For worm gears, circular pitch is equal to:
a. Axial pitch Answer: d Answer: c
b. Diametral pitch
c. Normal pitch 50. A gear wheel with cured teeth that mesh with a worm. 10. The cone, which represents in bevel gears the
d. Traverse pitch a. Worm wheel original friction surfaces are called
b. Rack gear a. Back cone
Answer: a c. Spiral gear
b. Length of cone
d. Herringbone gear
c. Pitch cones
39. The service factor of heavy shock, rolling mill and rock
crushes. Answer: a d. Cone distance
a. 1.25 - 1.35
b. 1.35 - 1.50 Answer: c
c. 1.50 - 1.80
d. 1.75 -2.00 11. Which of the following angles equal the pitch
Test 20 angle?
Answer: d 1. Which type of gear is a cylinder, wheel or disk on the a. Back angle
surface of which is cut parallel teeth? b. Front angle
40. Any plane perpendicular to a gear axis is called: a. Bevel gear c. Face angle
a. Transverse axis b. Helical gear d. Root angle
b. Conjugate axis c. Spur gear
c. Plane rotation d. Worm gear Answer: b
d. Axis of rotation

Answer: c Answer: c 12. The surface between the flanks of adjacent

teeth.
41. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth spaces is 2. Which type of gear has a ratio of 1:1? a. Top land
called: a. Herringbone gears b. Tooth flank
a. Addendum circle b. Miter gear c. Tooth face
b. Base circle c. Internal gear d. Bottom land
c. Pitch circle d. Spur gear
d. Root circle Answer: d
Answer: b
Answer: d 13. The portion of the common tangent to the base
3. The distance between similar sides of adjacent circles along which contact between mating involutes occurs.
42. The surface between the flanks of adjacent teeth.
teeth measured on the pitch line is called: a. Line of action
a. Bottom land
a. Diametral pitch b. Pitch line
b. Top land
c. Pitch surface b. Linear pitch c. Arc of action
d. Space width c. Circular pitch d. Angle of action
d. Axial pitch
Answer: a Answer: a
Answer: c
43. The usual ratio of miter gear is: 14. The intersection between the axes of the line of
a. 1:1 4. In rack gear, circular pitch is called: centers and the common tangent to the base circles,
b. 1:2 a. Linear pitch a. Pitch line
c. 1:3 b. Base pitch b. Pitch circle
d. 1:4 c. Diametral pitch c. Pitch point
d. Axial pitch d. Pitch surface
Answer: a

44. The angle between the element of the face cone and its Answer: a Answer: b
axis equals pitch angle plus addendum angle.
a. Cutting angle 5. __________ is equal to twice the addendum. 15. The angle between the element of the face cone
b. Face angle a. Tooth flank and its axis.
 a. Face angle b. Bevel gear a. Arc of recess
b. Back angle c. Spur gear b. Arc of approach
c. Front angle d. Miter gear c. Arc of contact
d. Increment angle d. Arc of action
Answer: a
Answer: a Answer: b
26. A _________ is a cylinder with teeth
16. Refers to a portion of the small end of the tooth. resembling those of acme thread. 36. The _________ traced by the outermost corner
a. Heel a. Pinion of one tooth on the plane of the other gear.
b. Toe b. Spur a. Cycloid
c. Sole c. Worm b. Hypocycloid
d. Corner d. Bolt c. Epitrochoid
d. Trochoid
Answer: b Answer: c
Answer: c
17. The apex of the pitch cone. 27. The _________ is the angle at which the teeth
a. Cone vertex of a helical gear are slanted across the face of the gear. 37. An imaginary circle passing through the points
b. Cone distance a. Lead angle at which the tooth of the meshing gears contact each other.
c. Cone radius b. Helix angle a. Pitch circle
d. Cone center c. Pressure angle b. Base circle
d. Pitch angle c. Addendum circle
Answer: d d. Dedendum circle
Answer: b
18. Gear pump used in hydraulic system are used Answer: a
for: 28. A __________ is one thicker in proportion to its
a. Low and medium pressure length than the involute tooth. 38. A gear with teeth on the outer cylindrical
b. Medium and high pressure a. Hypoid surface.
c. Low and high pressure b. Cycloidal tooth a. Rack gear
d. Medium and not high pressure c. Stub tooth b. Zerol gear
d. Spiral c. Miter gear
Answer: a d. External gear
Answer: c
19. In machine tool drive, the modulus for gears is Answer: d
usually selected between: 29. Which gears are used to connect parallel shafts
a. 10 ≥ μ ≥ 1 lying in the same plane? 39. The diameter of a circle coinciding with the top
b. 2≥μ1 a. Worm gears of the teeth of an internal gear.
c. 20 ≥ μ ≥ 1 b. Bevel gears a. Dedendum diameter
d. 5≥μ≥1 c. Herringbone gears b. Pitch diameter
d. Spiral gears c. Base diameter
Answer: a d. Internal diameter
Answer: c
20. The shape of the curve on the side of gear is Answer: d
termed as: 30. Which of the following is used to connect the
a. Stub shafts at an angle but lying in the same plane? 40. It is standard practice to assume that the
b. Involute a. Helical gears thickness of the tooth measured sound the pitch circle is
c. Trochoid b. Worm and worm wheel exactly ________ the circle path.
d. Cycloid c. Spur gears a. One half
d. Herringbone gears b. One third
Answer: a c. One fourth
Answer: b d. One fifth
21. The distance in a straight line from one side of a
tooth to the side at points where the pitch circle passes 31. The product of circular pitch and diametral Answer: a
through the tooth. pitch is:
a. Circular pitch a. 2π 41. The helix angles for the herringbone gears are
b. Pitch b. π used from ______for industrial gears.
c. Chordal thickness c. 3π a. 10 to 15
d. Tooth length d. 4π b. 15 to 20
c. 20 to 30
Answer: c Answer: b d. 25 to 45

22. The _______ of a bevel gear is equal to the 32. A line drawn through all the points at which the Answer: c
altitude of the pitch cone. teeth touch each other.
a. Length of cone a. Angle of contact 42. The distance parallel to the axis from the pitch
b. Vertex distance b. Arc of contact circle to the face of the shoulder or hub.
c. Length of hub c. Path of contact a. Back one
d. Thickness d. Arc of approach b. Backing
c. Crown height
Answer: b Answer: c d. Apex distance

23. The _______ of a worm is the distance between 33. The length of the gear tooth measured along an Answer: b
the center of one tooth and the center of an adjacent tooth, element of the pitch surface is called:
measured perpendicular to the teeth. a. Acting flank 43. A machine that makes gear teeth by means of a
a. Diametral pitch b. Face width reciprocating cutter that rotates slowly with the work.
b. Circular pitch c. Flank of the tooth a. Gear forming
c. Axial pitch d. Tooth space b. Gear hobber
d. Normal pitch c. Gear shaper
Answer: b d. Gear cutter
Answer: d
34. The ________ is equal to the tooth thickness Answer: c
24. The _______ of a worm gear is the concave plus the space width.
surface of the gear tooth. a. Normal pitch 44. A type of gear wheels connecting non-parallel,
a. Radius b. Axial pitch non-intersecting shafts usually at right angles.
b. Throat c. Diametral pitch a. Helical gear
c. Pitch d. Circular pitch b. Herringbone gear
d. Addendum c. Hypoid gear
Answer: d d. Bevel gear
Answer: b
35. The _________ is the arc of the pitch circle Answer: c
25. A type of gear, which is used for heavy duty where the tooth profile cuts the pitch circle when a pair of
work where a large ratio of speed is required. teeth first comes in contact until they are in contact as the 45. The angle between the plane of the pitch circle
a. Worm gear pitch point. and a plane tangent to the end of the tooth.
 a. Foot angle 5. The tool bit made of tool blank consists of face, nose, 15. A research agency handling assistance to all foundry,
b. Back angle shank, and ________. machine shop and metallurgical plant operation.
c. Dedendum angle A. Cutting edge A. MIRDCC
d. Face angle B. None of these B. NOI
C. Round nose C. DOST
Answer: b D. Nose D. All of these

46. The circle containing the bottoms of the tooth Answer: D Answer: A
spaces.
a. Root circle 6. The cutting tool used the shaper are similar to turning 16. Web is a part of drill and is usually thicker
b. Working depth circle tools _______ machine. __________.
c. Base circle A. Planer A. Beside the land
d. Pitch circle B. Broaching B. Nearing the shank
C. Boring C. Close to the future
Answer: a D. Lathe D. At the tip portion

47. The depth of the tooth inside of the pitch line is Answer: A Answer: B
called:
a. Working depth 7. The blades for hacksaw have number of teeth range of: 17. It is a symbol ___________ that the work surfaces
b. Dedendum A. 15 – 38 teeth should be machine-finished and placed on the line that
c. Total depth B. 14 – 32 teeth represents the surface to be machined.
d. Whole depth C. 12 -30 teeth A. f
D. 12 – 32 teeth B. 5
Answer: b C. 20
Answer: B D. F.A.O
48. The amount by which the dedendum in a given
gear exceeds the addendum of its mating gear. 8. __________ no part of the headstock. Answer: A
a. Whole depth A. Back gear
b. Clearance B. Spindle 18. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at
c. Backish C. Anvil machine, black welding and foundry shops called:
d. Working depth D. Motor A. Walkway shops
B. Safety goggles
Answer: b Answer: C C. Safety notices
D. Safety notices in Markers / Boards
9. __________ is a lathe carriage part the bridge across
49. The outside diameter of the worm measured on the bed to carry the cross slide and tool rest. Answer: D
the central plane. A. Automatic feed
a. Dedendum diameter B. Apron 19. It is axially located rectangular groove in a hub and
b. Addendum diameter C. Compound rest shaft.
c. Throat diameter D. Saddle A. Key Seat
d. Pitch diameter B. Cotter Pin Seat
Answer: C C. Flute
Answer: c D. Set Screw Point
10. What is the recommended cutting speed range for
50. The circle from which the involute is generated. bronze in fpm? Answer: A
a. Base circle A. 60/70
b. Pitch circle B. 200/250 20. In a cutting tool, the cutting end can also be generally
c. Working depth circle C. 80/60 called:
d. Addendum circle D. 100/110 A. End cutting edge
B. Nose
Answer: a Answer: B C. Back rake
D. Side rake
11. For ordinary turning drilling and milling on low
strength steel the cutting fluid applied have soluble oil Answer: B
Test 21 with consistency of part oil to _______ parts water.
1. Fast process of analyzing all elements and a chemical A. 10 to 30 21. What factors can modify the recommended cutting
components of steel casting is: B. 10 speed of known work piece?
A. Pyrometer C. 5 to 10 A. Rough cutting of work piece
B. Carbon analyser D. 10 to 20 B. Modify the shape of the cutting tools
C. Wet analyser C. Use correctly shape of the cutting tools
D. Spectrometer Answer: A D. Depth of cut

Answer: D 12. The five principal parts of the shaper are the table, tool Answer: D
slide, base, ram and _______.
2. Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel? A. Column 22. Machine shop equipment that can flatter horizontally,
A. Expanded B. Vise vertically or angular plane called:
B. Extended C. Drive motor A. Shaper Machine
C. Contraction D. Apron B. Welding Machine
D. Taper C. Drill Machine
Answer: B D. Power Saw
Answer: C
13. In drilling soft materials use cutting angle as low as 40 Answer: A
3. A cutting tool angle between the side cutting edge and degrees but for extremely hard material up to
the plane perpendicular to direction of feed travel is _____________ degree is recommended. 23. It is a petroleum by-product used as electrodes in an
_______ angel. A. 80 electric arc furnace melting operation.
A. Side relief B. 65 A. Anthracite coke
B. Side cutting edge C. 75 B. Foundry coke
C. Lead D. 70 C. Graphite Electrode
D. Side rake D. Bituminous coke
Answer: A
Answer: D Answer: C
14. An act of cutting out a piece of metal at a desired shape
4. A section in a machine shop operation is called: and size. 24. Which of the following is an unsafe condition in
A. Core making A. Broaching operating a lathe machine?
B. Machining B. Blanking A. Wearing denim pants/safety shoes
C. Fitting C. Slitting B. Wearing a canvass apron
D. Pattern D. Dinking C. Operating with safety gloves
D. Wearing safety goggles/hearing aid
Answer: B Answer: B
Answer: B
25. Relief angle of a single-point cutting mild steel cast D. Pyrometer 45. Name the type of chuck commonly used for holding
iron and another average work as recommended should work piece in a lathe operation. Example 3-jaw
be in the range of _________ degrees for high speed Answer: A universal chuck, 4-jaw independent chuck.
tools. A. Magnetic jaw chuck
A. 8 to 12 35. What tool will be used in making wood pattern in the B. 2-jaw independent
B. 10 to 5 foundry shop? C. 8-jaw-universal
C. 5 to 7 A. Band Saw D. Combination
D. 12 to 16 B. Drill Machine
C. Saw and Chisel Answer: D
Answer: A D. Hammer
46. A machinery operation whereby done with the work
26. Tap not used for cutting thread ___________. Answer: C accurately fastened has a reciprocating motion and the
A. Tapping tap tool head is stationary is called:
B. Bottoming tap 36. The usual ration of water to soluble oil used as cutting A. Shaping
C. Plugging tap fluid is _________. B. Planning
D. Taper tap A. 50% water to 50% oil C. Turning
B. 2 water to 1 oil D. Reaming
Answer: A C. 3 water to 1 oil
D. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil Answer: B
27. Which of the following tools does not belong to the
group? Answer: D 47. What happens to a drill if the operating speed is too
A. Hermaphrodite caliper fast?
B. Divider 37. Machine tool used for laying straight lines on metal A. Drill will crack
C. Double VEE block surfaces made of sharp tool steel is called: B. Drill will become overheated and will blend
D. Trammel A. Plain Scriber C. Drill will become overheated and will drawn
B. A Trammel from steel
Answer: C C. Hermaphrodite caliper D. Drill will become very dull and wear dust
D. Divider
28. In Machine Shop had forging operation of lengthening Answer: C
a piece of stock while reducing the cross-sectional area Answer: A
of work is called: 48. Which do not belong to foundry or metal casting shop?
A. Bloating 38. A lathe machine threading mechanism is called: A. Shake – Out Machine
B. Upsetting A. Reverse Gear and lever B. Molding Machine
C. Spreading B. Spindle Gear C. Core making
D. Draining C. Changed Stud Gear D. Forging
D. All of these
Answer: B Answer: D
Answer: B
29. Which of the following services is not considered to be 49. It is an arbitrary modification by moving a small
a work of a machinist? 39. Which of the following is not used to resemble the portion of a tooth material at the tip of the gear tooth.
A. Reboring shape of tool bit? A. Tip removal
B. Grinding A. Round nose B. Tip under cut
C. Over Hauling B. Center cut C. Tip relief
D. Honing C. Thread cutting D. Pressure angle cut
D. Square nose
Answer: C Answer: C
Answer: B
30. Type of chuck wherein the work piece with standard 50. What is the difference between the shaper and the
diameter or size could be attached fast and quick 40. A lathe with multiple cutting stations is called: planer?
specially small size work of mass production called: A. Turret lathe A. The tool of the shaper moves while the plane
A. Lathe Drive Plate B. Engine lathe is stationary
B. Clamp Toe Dog C. Manual lathe B. The shaper can perform slotting operation
C. Collet Attachment D. None of these while planer cannot
D. Steady Center Rest C. The shaper handles large pieces while the
Answer: A planer handles only small pieces
Answer: C D. The tool of the shaper moves in reciprocating
41. Device used to measure accurately speed called: motion while the tool in the planer move in
31. This particular cutting tool material could with stand A. Speedometer rotary motion.
cutting temperature of 1800 F and higher at cutting B. Dial Indicator
speed beyond possible with other cutting tool materials C. Tachometer
called: D. Dial gage Answer: A
A. Titanium carbide
B. Ceramic Answer: C
C. Carbide grade
D. Cubic boron nitride 42. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a Test 22
machine tool is called: 1. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at
Answer: D A. Universal chuck machine, blacksmith, welding and foundry shop is called:
B. Slooter A. Safety Goggle
32. Common defects encountered in a foundry shop steel C. Dividing head B. Walkway Guide
C. Safety Notices in Markings
casting operation and also in welding practices. D. Indexing
D. All of these
A. Cracks
B. Cold shot Answer: C Answer: C
C. Parting line
D. Blow / pin holes 43. Recommended best cutting angle of drill for work on 2. Test sometimes referred to as upsetting test called:
steel or cast iron is ___________ degrees. A. Bend
Answer: D A. 48 B. Flaring
B. 63 C. Flange
33. Lathe operator to remove the taper shank from the C. 59 D. Crush
taper hole uses drift. It is also called: D. 50
A. Tong Answer: A
B. Morse Taper Answer: C
3. The machine used for testing of very thin steel or surface
C. Chuck Taper
layers
D. Tapered Key 44. What is the common shop practice to prevent solder
A. Charpy Test
from running away from surface to be joined? B. Izod Test
Answer: B A. All of these C. Description Test
B. Surround the work with clay D. Rockwell Test
34. It is the best instrument for measuring a thousand of an C. Introduce around the work rolled wet cloth
inch. D. Put asbestos sheeting around the work Answer: D
A. Micrometer
B. Tachometer Answer: A 4. _____ is a test for pipe used for coiling in sizes 2 inches.
C. Caliper A. Flaring
 B. Crush c. Planer
C. Flange Answer: B d. Shaper
D. Bend
16. Which of the following is not part of the headstock? Answer: b
Answer: D A. Anvil
B. Spindel 27. The method of cold working by compression.
5. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a single point cutting C. Motor A. Broaching
tool called D. Back Pressure B. Lapping
a. Dividing Head C. Piercing
b. Slotting Attachment Answer: A D. Reaming
c. Circular Pitch
d. Circular Milling Attachment 17. A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates Answer: C
while the feed is stationary.
Answer: b A. Planing 28. A group of thin steel strips used for measuring
B. Shaping clearances.
6. Milling machine accessories are used to hold milling C. Turning A. Feeler Gage
cutter in the milling machine called: D. Reaming B. Tachometer
a. Spindel – Nose Tooling C. Micrometer
b. Milling Machine Size Answer: B D. Caliper
c. Vertical Milling Attachment
d. Milling Machine Arbors 18. ____ is a kind of center, which is being attached and Answer: A
meshed to the tailstock spindle, which is also static while
Answer: d the rack is rotating. 29. The process of working metals by the application of
A. Dead Center sudden blows or by a steady pressured called:
7. An important accessory of milling machine. B. Live Center A. Rolling
A. Milling Machine Vise C. Focal Center B. Forging
B. Cutter D. Work Center C. Casting
C. Ram D. Turning
D. Vertical Milling Attachment Answer: A
Answer: B
Answer: B 19. A machine used in shaping metal by means of abrasive
wheel of the removal of metals with an abrasive is called: 30. A kind of chuck, which should not be used where
8. A machine used in testing steel generally strikes the A. Planer Machine accuracy is required called:
specimen with an energy from 22- t0 265 ft-lb/ B. Power Saw A. Collet Chuck
A. Izod Test C. Shaper Machine B. Magnetic Chuck
B. Charpy Test D. Grinding Machine C. Four Jaw Chuck
C. Rockwell Test D. Universal Chuck
D. Test Blocks Answer: D
Answer: D
Answer: B 20. A machine tool in which an abrasive wheel is used as
cutting tool to obtain a very smooth finish. 31. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, which could
9. The area of the machine shop whose metal is being A. Broaching Machine be adjustable separately called:
melted to form a new shape is the: B. Planer A. Collet Chuck
A. Foundry Area C. Tool Grinder B. Independent Chuck
B. Tool and Die Area D. Milling Machine C. Four Jaw Chuck
C. Welding Area D. Magnetic Chuck
D. Mass Production Area Answer: C
Answer: B
Answer: A 21. A machine tool used principally to machine flat or plane
surfaces with a single pointed tool 32. A tool which when pressed into a finished hole in a
10. Which of the following is not the work of a machinist? A. Shaper piece of work, provides centers on which the piece may be
A. Reboring B. Planer turned or otherwise machines called:
B. Overhauling C. Drill A. Mash
C. Grinding D. Power Saw B. Butt
D. Boring C. Mandrel
Answer: A D. Wobble
Answer: B
22. A tool with hardened steel points used for scribing or Answer: C
11. The machine, which can flatter surface on horizontal, laying of distances.
vertical or angular plane. A. Plain Scriber 33. A machine tool, which is very similar to a shaper except
A. Drilling Machine B. Divider that the ram reciprocates vertically rather than horizontally.
B. Shaper Machine C. Trammel A. Lathe
C. Power Saw D. Hermaphrodite B. Grinder
D. Lathe Machine C. Planer
Answer: B D. Slotter
Answer: B
23. _____ used to machine flat or curved surfaces with a Answer: D
12. Which of the following is not part of a lathe machine? tool, which moves in a reciprocating motion.
a. Fan A. Planer 34. A cylindrical bar of steel with threads formed around it
b. Carriage B. Shaper and grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it, intersecting
c. Headstock C. Grinder with the threads to form cutting edges. It is used to cut
d. Tail Stock D. Lathe internal threads.
A. Grooves
Answer: a Answer: B B. Lap
C. Tap
13. One important skill that operates of machine tools must 24. _____ used in the production of flat surfaces on pieces D. Flute
have an understanding of measurements, which demands: too large or too heavy to hold in a shaper.
A. Speed a. Planer Answer: C
B. Precision b. Shaper
C. Sociability c. Grinder 35. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a
D. Neatness d. Shaver machine tool called:
A. Slotter
Answer: D Answer: a B. Chuck
C. Dividing Head
14. Which tool does not belong to the group? 25. A machine tool used to produce a variety of surfaces by D. Indexer
A. Vice Grip using a circular type cutter with multiple teeth called:
B. Feeler Gage A. Lathe Machine Answer: C
C. Torque Wrench B. Milling Machine
D. Adjustable Wrench C. Broaching Machine 36. The operation of machining the end of a work piece to
D. Grinding make the end square with the axis.
Answer: A A. Squaring
Answer: B B. Buffing
15. A machinery operation whereby the tool rotates while C. Lapping
the feed is stationary. 26. A cutting tool used to finish internal and external D. Honing
A. Shaping surfaces by the use of a cutter called broach, which has a
B. Milling series of cutting edges of teeth Answer: A
C. Turning a. Lathe Machine
D. Reaming b. Broaching Machine
37. The operation of enlarging a hole by means of an A. Continuous Casting
adjustable cutting tool with only one cutting edge. 48. Formed milling operation of cutting gears can be used B. Die Casting
A. Drilling for cutting which type of gears? C. Gravity Casting
B. Broaching A. Spur D. Presses Casting
C. Milling B. Worm
D. Boring C. All of the above Answer: C
D. Bevel
Answer: D 10. In such casting process:
Answer: C A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in
38. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of metallic mould by gravity
the end of a hole, as for a recess for a flat head screw. 49. Select the one that is gear finishing process. B. Metal is poured into die cavity and after a
A. Counter Sinking A. Gear Shaving predetermined time the mould is inverted to
B. Knurling B. Gear Shaping permit a part of metal still in the molten
C. Squaring C. Gear Hobbing state to flow out of cavity
D. Performing D. Gear Milling C. Cavity is filled with a pre- calculated
quantity of metal and core or plunger
Answer: A Answer: A inserted to force the metal into cavity
D. Metal is forced into mould under high
39. It is an operation of sizing and finishing a hole by means 50. Broaching operation is generally used in automobile pressure
of cutting tool having several cutting edges. industry as:
A. Notching A. It is a mass production machine Answer: B
B. Piercing B. It is an automatic machine
C. Turning C. Operation is completed in one stroke 11. In Carthias process
D. Reaming D. Semi-skilled operators can be employed A. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in
metallic mould by gravity
Answer: D Answer: D B. Metal is poured into die cavity and after a
predetermined time the mould is inverted to
40. The hop term used to include the marking of inscribing permit a part of metal still in the molten
of center points circles area of straight lines upon metal Test 23 state to flow out of cavity
surfaces, either curve or flat, for the guidance of the worker 1. Point angle of 135° on drills is used for: C. Cavity is filled with a pre- calculated
called: A. Bakelite hard rubbers and fibrous plastics quantity of metal and core or plunger
A. Shaping B. Hard steels and nickel alloys inserted to force the metal into cavity
B. Hobbing C. Thin sheets metal D. Metal is forced into mould under high
C. Laying Out D. B and C pressure
D. Shaping
Answer: D Answer: C
Answer: C
2. A twist drill is specified by: 12. What is the purpose of riser?
41. It is used to true and align machine tools fixtures and A. Its diameter and lip angle A. Feed the casting at a rate consistent with the
works to test and inspect size trueness of finished work, and B. Its shank and diameter rate of solidification
to compare measurements either heights or depths or many C. Shank, material and diameter B. Act as a reservoir for molten metal
other measurements. D. Shank, material and flute size C. Help feed the casting until all solidification
A. Dial Gage takes place
B. Dial Indicator Answer: C D. Feed molten metal from pouring basin to
C. Tachometer gas.
D. Speedometer 3. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is:
A. 30° Answer: C
Answer: B B. 60°
C. 110° 13. The mould for casting ferrous materials
42. A toll used for measuring diameters. D. 120° A. Copper
A. Caliper B. High carbon steel
B. Manometer Answer: A C. Low carbon steel
C. Tachometer D. Medium carbon steel
D. Pyrometer 4. The helix angle on a high speed steel twist drill for
drilling cast iron is the order of: Answer: A
Answer: A A. 12-22°
B. 24-32° 14. Dilatometer is use to find out which property of
43. The process of forming metals by the use of dies after C. 35-40° molding sand?
the metal is heated to its plastic range. D. 40-45° A. Fineness
A. Rolling B. Hot Strength
B. Forging Answer: B C. Moisture Content
C. Turning D. Permeability
D. Casting 5. Dressing is
A. An inspection method for castings Answer: A
Answer: A B. A method of cleaning the castings
C. A method of deoxidizing of molten metal 15. Select the one that is not an angle measuring device
44. A machine tool used to out metal parts a lift, medium D. The formation of oxides on them molten metal A. Angle Iron
and large section using a reciprocating hacksaw blade. surface B. Bevel protector
A. Tool Grinder C. Combination
B. Shaper Answer: D D. Sine bar
C. Planer
D. Power Saw 6. Sweep pattern is used for molding parts having: Answer: A
A. Complicated shape having intricate details
Answer: D B. Rectangular shape 16. The darft allowance on metallic pattern as
C. Uniform symmetrical shape compared to wooden ones is:
45. A cold chisel is made of: D. None of the above A. More
A. Cast Iron B. Same
B. German Silver Answer: C C. less
C. High Carbon Steel D. More/less depending on size
D. High Speed Steel 7. Which of the following processes that hydraulic
fluid acts as transfer media. Answer: C
Answer: C A. Electron Beam Machining
B. Electro – discharge Machining 17. The pressure of inoculation is used:
46. Trimming is a process associated with: C. Iron Beam Machining A. To clean the casting
A. Electroplating D. Water Jet Machining B. To decrease the melting temperature of a
B. Forging cast metal
C. Machining of Metals Answer: D C. To change the chemical composition of a
D. Press Work cast metal
8. Wiping is the process of D. To modify the structure and properties of a
Answer: B A. Applying flux during welding process cast metal
B. Cleaning the welded surface after the
47. Foundry crucible is made of welding operation is over Answer: D
A. Graphite C. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy
B. German Silver D. Low temperature welding 18. Tumbling is done so as to:
C. Lead A. Clean the surface of small parts
D. Mild Steel Answer: C B. Get surface finish
C. Stress relieve the components
Answer: A 9. Ornaments are cast by: D. Plate the surface
 C. Face plate B. Hot forging
Answer: A D. Hollow work pieces C. Cold forging
D. Fitting
19. What is referred to as gate? Answer: D
A. A passage through which metal is poured Answer: B
into mould 30. The operation of enlarging a hole is called:
B. A passage through which metal rises the A. Boring 42. The purpose of chaplets is to:
mould is filled B. Counter Sinking A. Ensure directional solidification
C. A passage that finally leads molten metal C. Drilling B. Function a lower and upper parts of the
from the runner into the mould cavity D. Reaming molding box
D. A vent hole to allow for the hot gases to C. Provide efficient venting
escape Answer: A D. Support the cores

Answer: D 31. In up cut milling the work piece is fed Answer: A

A. Against the rotating cutter
20. A sprue is: B. At an angle 60° to the center 43. Angle plate is used for
a. A tool used in mould repairing C. At right angle to the cutter A. Cutting tapers in a lathe
b. A process of cleaning casting D. In the direction of the cutter B. Cutting gears in a shaper
c. A chemical that is added to molten C. Cutting gears in a milling
materials for sound castings Answer: A D. Fixing job outs angle in a grinder
d. A vertical passage through the cope and
joining the pouring basin to the runner 32. Sprue is the passage provided for the Answer: B
A. Out flow
Answer: a B. In flow 44. Cores are used in mould to make it
C. Smooth flow A. Hollow
21. Hacksaw blade that has the same number of teeth D. Solidification of the molten material B. Smooth
as given below are available. Which one would you C. Strong
chose for cutting brass? Answer: B D. Symmetrical
A. 18 teeth
B. 24 teeth 33. Feed in a lathe is expressed in Answer: A
C. 28 teeth A. mm
D. 31 teeth B. mm per degree 45. Pipes subjected to high pressures are generally
C. mm per revolution made by
Answer: B D. rpm A. Centrifugal casting
B. Extrusion
22. A plug gauge is used to measure Answer: C C. Pressure casting
A. Cylindrical bores D. Slush casting
B. Screw thread 34. Raping allowance is provided on a pattern to take
C. Spherical holes care of Answer: A
D. Taper bores A. Shrinkage
B. Machining 46. In a typical lathe machining, discontinuous chips of
Answer: A C. Distortion _____ are formed when machining
D. Easy withdrawal A. Carbon steel
23. When large number of components are turned and B. Copper steel
parted off a bar the chuck generally used is the _____. Answer: D C. Copper
A. Collet chuck D. Steel at high speeds
B. Four Jaw chuck 35. Upsetting is the term used in one of the following
C. Magnetic chuck operations Answer: C
D. Two jaw chuck A. Casting
B. Drilling 47. Permeability, in relation to molding sands, is high
Answer: C C. Forging for
D. Turning A. Coarse grains
24. Which of the following is the cutting speed of B. Fine grains
brass? Answer: C C. Medium grains
A. 30 m/min D. Round grains
B. 40 m/min 36. One of the material used for making surface plate
C. 50 m/min is: Answer: A
D. 60 m/min A. Brass
B. Granite 48. The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe is to:
Answer: B C. Stainless steel A. Cut gears
D. Wood B. Cut threads
25. Under cutting is: C. Give desired direction of movement to the
A. An operating of cutting extra deep groove Answer: B lathe carriage
B. An operation of cutting a groove next to a D. Reduce spindle speeds
shoulder on a piece of work 37. Feeler gages are used for measuring the:
C. Cutting from the of work piece A. Clearance between mating parts Answer: C
D. An operation of cutting extra wide threads B. Pitch of screw threads
C. Radius of curvature 49. For machining the flange elbow on a lathe which of
Answer: C D. Thickness of plates the following holding devices is used?
A. Angle plate
26. Permeability of foundry sand is: Answer: A B. Catch plate
A. The capacity to hold moisture C. Face plate
B. Distortion of binder in sand 38. Chuck used on turret lathe is D. lathe plate
C. Fineness of sand A. Collet chuck
D. Porosity to allow the escape of gases B. Four jaw self-centering chuck Answer: C
C. Magnetic chuck
Answer: A D. Three jaws independent chuck 50. Which of the following is not part of combination
set?
27. Quick return mechanism is used in a Answer: D A. Bevel protractor
A. Drilling machine B. Dial gage
B. Grinder 39. Routing prescribes C. Scale
C. Lathe A. Inspection of final product D. Try square
D. Shaper B. Proper utilization of machine
C. Proper utilization of man power Answer: C
Answer: D D. The flow of materials in the joint

28. Draft on a pattern is provided for. Answer: D Test 24

A. Facilitating pattern making 1. A sine bar cannot be used without a/an
B. Easy lifting of the casting 40. Cope foundry practice refers to A. Angle gage
C. Facilitating withdrawal of the pattern from A. Bottom half of molding box
B. Micrometer
the mould B. Coating on the mold face
D. Providing for shrinkage of the coating C. Middle portion of the molding box C. Slip gage
D. Top half of molding D. Vernier Caliper
Answer: D
Answer: D Answer: A
29. Mandrel are used to hold
A. Cutting tools 41. A vent wire is used in 2. The tooth life is affected to the maximum extent by
B. Drill bits A. Foundry
A. Gear grinding
 B. Gear Shaping
C. Gear shaving 12. A piece of cast iron hold against an emery wheel will Answer: B
D. Milling give of
A. Bright shiny sparks 22. To remove metal stock rapidly the file to use is a
Answer: A B. Dull yellow sparks A. Double-cut bastard
C. Red sparks B. Double - cut coarse
3. The operation of finishing a drilled hole to the correct D. No sparks C. Rasp
size is known as D. A and C
A. Counter boring Answer: B
B. Counter sinking Answer: D
C. Reaming 13. The alignment of coupling faces can be checked by
D. Spot facing A. Inserting a feeler gage between the coupling 23. The best file to use when finishing sharp corners or
faces at various points around the slots and grooves is the
Answer: C circumference A. Jeweler’s file
B. Inserting a thermometer B. Knife file
4. When the extreme outer corners of the cutting edges C. Rotating and measuring to nearest permanent C. Mill file
of a drill wear away too rapidly, it is an indication of fitting D. Square file
A. Not enough speed D. Using an inside micrometer
B. Too much rake angle Answer: B
C. Too high a speed Answer: A
D. B or C 24. Never use a file
14. A drill bit has A. That is dirty
Answer: D A. No flutes B. With a tang
B. 2 flutes C. Without a handle
5. Carbon steel drill should be operated at C. 3 flutes D. Without oiling
A. Speed greater than that when using a high D. 4 flutes
speed drill Answer: C
B. Speeds less than that when using a high speed Answer: B
drill 25. Which of the following information is necessary
C. The same speed as that using a high speed 15. Before applying layout for blue on a piece of metal, it when ordering a file
drill must be A. Size
D. None of the above A. Cleaned B. Shape
B. Cold C. Type of teeth
Answer: B C. Heated D. All of the above
D. Roughened
6. Removing the sharp edges from a piece of stock is Answer: D
referred to as Answer: A
A. Polish material 26. When filling a piece of metal in a lathe if short quick
B. Roughen Material 16. A scriber is made from strokes are used the finished piece will probably
C. Sharpen Material A. Carbon steel A. Be out of round
D. Smooth Material B. Cold-rolled steel B. Be perfect
C. Hot-rolled steel C. Have small flat areas on the surfaces
Answer: B D. Top steel D. A and C

7. Knurling is done to __________. Answer: D Answer: D

A. Boring
B. Chamfering 17. Copper is annealed by hunting to a cherry red color 27. the best procedure when filling a piece of metal in a
C. Planning and lathe is to take _________
D. Turning A. Cooling slowly in air A. A long fast stroke
B. Dousing in cold water B. Long slow stroke
Answer: B C. Dousing in hot water C. Short even stroke
D. Dousing in oil D. Short fast stroke
8. When cutting material in a lathe, the harder the
material being cut, the tool bit should have Answer: A Answer: B
A. Less side rake
B. More side rake 18. When drilling a hole in a piece of work held in a 28. The safe edge of a file is
C. More top rake lathe chuck one would use the A. The end opposite the handle
D. No side rake A. Head stock B. The one with a handle
B. Compound rest C. The edge with the handle
Answer: A C. Cross-feed D. None of these
D. Tailstock and drill chuck
9. When turning a piece of round metal in a lathe, the Answer: C
front clearance should be smaller for Answer: D
A. Cutting angles 29. Small pieces of metal clogged between the teeth on a
B. Large-diameter cutting 19. When using a drill press, the work should be held file are called
C. Small-diameter cutting with A. Bumps
D. None of these A. A pair of pliers B. Clogs
B. A vise clamp C. Flats
Answer: C C. Gloves on D. Pins
D. The hand
10. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting edge should be Answer: D
A. Case hardened Answer: B
B. Rubbed with emery cloth 30. Finishing off a piece of metal with a real smooth
C. Rubbed with crocus cloth 20. When a lathe is put into back gear, it will go finish can be done by
D. Stoned with an oilstone A. At a slower speed backwards A. Draw – filing
B. At the same speed backward B. Fat – filing
Answer: D C. Faster C. Milling – filing
D. Slower D. Side – filing
11. When cutting material in a lathe, the softer the
material being cut, the tool bit should have Answer: D Answer: A
A. Any of these
B. Double top rake 21. On a lathe, the dead center is used after 31. For finishing a piece of work to size the file to use is
C. Less top rake A. Boring the
D. More top rake B. Center-drilling A. Crossing file
C. Drilling B. Double – cut fine – tooth file
Answer: C D. Reaming C. Mill file
 D. Single – cut fine – tooth file B. Hot rolled steel C. Semi-soft
C. Structural steel D. Soft
Answer: D D. Any of these
Answer: A
32. For filing lead or babbit, use a Answer: D
A. Lead float life 3. When facing off a piece of material in the lathe
B. Mile file 42. Files are divided into two general classes, namely chuck the bit must be set
C. Vixen file A. Flat shapes and round shapes A. Above center
D. A or C B. Large and small B. At the center
C. Rough and smooth C. Below the center
D. Single – cut and double - cut
Answer: A D. Off center

Answer: D
33. A hacksaw blade with 32 TPI is best suited for Answer: B
cutting 43. A hacksaw blade can be placed in a frame in
A. Small tubing A. One position 4. Before applying layout blue on a piece of metal, it
B. Conduit B. Two positions must be
C. Sheet metal under 18 gage C. Three positions A. Cleaned
D. Any of these D. Four positions B. Cold
C. Hot
Answer: D Answer: D D. Roughened

34. A coolant is usually used when cutting material in a 44. All hard hacksaw blade is one that Answer: A
power hacksaw to A. Has a hard back and flexible teeth
B. Has a flexible back and hard teeth
A. Absorb heat of friction 5. Tool steel can be hardened by
C. Has the entire blade hardened
B. Prevent the blade from overheating A. Heating red hot and plunging into a water
D. Will only fit a solid frame hacksaw
C. Prevent the blade from losing B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry air
D. All of the above Answer: C C. Heating red hot and plunging into line seed or
cotton seed oil
Answer: D 45. Hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best suited for cutting D. Any of the above, depending on the type and use
A. Brass and copper
35. A hacksaw blades with 18 teeth per inch is best B. Sheet metal over 18 gages Answer: D
suited for cutting C. Tubing
A. Aluminum D. Any of these 6. A piece of mild steel held against an emery wheel
B. Cast iron give off
C. Solid iron Answer: D A. Bright shiny sparks
D. Any of these B. Green sparks
46. Hacksaw blades are made of C. Light straw – colored sparks
A. High speed
Answer: D D. No sparks
B. Tool steel
C. Tungsten alloy steel
36. When cutting a long thing piece of metal D. Any of these Answer: C
A. Set the blade in the frame with the teeth facing
toward you Answer: D 7. Another name for hydrochloric acid is
B. Turn the blade at right angles to the frame A. Acetic acid
C. Turn the blade upside down in the frame 47. A flexible back hacksaw blade is one that has B. Muriatic acid
D. Use a blade with fewer teeth per inch A. A movable back C. Nitric acid
B. Flexible ends D. Sulfuric acid
Answer: B C. Only the back hardened
D. Only the teeth hardened Answer: B
37. The hacksaw blade should be placed in the frame
with Answer: D 8. A flexible hacksaw blade has a tendency to
A. One end looser than the other end A. Snap easy
48. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best suited to work on
B. The teeth facing in any direction B. Buckle or run out of line when too much
A. Aluminum
C. The teeth pointing backward B. Channel
pressure is supplied
D. The teeth pointing forward C. Tubing C. Cut too fast
D. Any of these D. Cut on a slant
Answer: D
Answer: A Answer: B
38. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch should be
used for cutting 49. When lathe tool bit burns, it means that the 9. A pillar file is used for
A. Brass A. Speed is too low A. Filing against a shoulder
B. Cast iron B. Speed is too fast B. Filing keyways
C. Heavy C. Material is too hard C. Filing slots
D. Material cannot be cut
D. Thin wall tubing D. Any of these

Answer: B
Answer: D Answer: D
50. The lathe compound is used for
39. The best instrument for measuring thousandths of an A. Angle cutting 10. The length of a file is measured from
inch is the: B. Grooving A. End to end
A. Caliper C. Facing B. Heel to end
B. Micrometer D. Any of these C. Point to end
C. Pyrometer D. Point to heel
D. Tachometer Answer: D
Answer: D
Answer: B
Test 25 11. In general, files are divided into two classes, namely:
40. All hard hacksaw blade is best suited for work on 1. A universal chuck cannot be used to cut A. Fine and coarse
A. Brass A. An eccentric B. Rough and smooth
B. Cast iron B. A round stock C. Single – cut and double – cut
C. Tool steel C. A cam D. Shapes and sizes
D. Any of these D. A and C
Answer: C
Answer: D Answer: D
12. A pillar file has
41. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best suited for 2. The jaw of a standard vise is A. One safe edge
cutting A. Hard B. Three safe edges
A. Cold rolled steel B. Semi – hard C. Two safe edges
 D. A and C A. 39° 32. Soda added to water is used for cooling instead of
B. 49° plain water because
Answer: D C. 59° A. It reduces the amount of heat generated
D. 69° B. It improves the finish
13. The tang of a file is the part that C. It overcomes rusting
A. Does the cutting Answer: C D. All of these
B. Fits into the handle
C. Has no teeth 23. Which of the following is not a common drill shank Answer: D
D. Is opposite the handle A. Bit
B. Fluted 33. If the angle on a drill is less than 59°
Answer: B C. Straight A. The drill will make a larger hole
D. Taper B. The drill will make a smaller hole
14. One of the factors involved in the choice of a C. The hole will take longer to drill and more power
grinding wheel is Answer: B is required to drive the drill
A. The kind of material to be ground D. The drill will not center properly
B. The amount of stock to be removed 24. Tapered shanks are used on a large drill presses so
C. The kind of finish required that Answer: C
D. All of these A. The drill can be centered more easily
B. The drill can be easily forced out of the sleeve 34. The name of a taper shank used to drill is
Answer: D with a drift A. Miller
C. The shank can be reground when worn B. Morse
D. The shank will not turn when cutting C. Starrett
15. The main difference between a planer and a shaper
A. The planer has offset table and the shaper has a D. Stanley
horizontal table Answer: B
B. The shaper has a rotating table and the planer has Answer: B
a horizontal table 25. When using a drill press the work should be held
C. The table of a planer has a reciprocating motion with 35. The tool used to cut threads on pipe is called a
past the total head while the table of the shaper is A. The hand A. Pipe tool
stationary and the tool head has a reciprocating B. A gloved hand B. Pipe stock
motion C. A vise or clamp C. Pipe vise
D. One is larger than the other D. Pliers D. Pipe cutter
Answer: C Answer: C Answer: B
16. A piece of tool steel held against an emery wheel will 26. A tool bit for cutting an American National Thread
give off 36. The instrument used for reshaping a grinding wheel
should be ground with a that is grounded or cut of round is called
A. White sparks with stars on the end A. 30° angle
B. Yellow sparks A. Wheel aligner
B. 45° angle B. Wheel dresser
C. No sparks C. 60° angle
D. Green sparks C. Wheel emery
D. 90° angle D. Wheel cutter
Answer: A Answer: C Answer: B
17. If you use a dry grinding wheel for sharpening tool 27. Center drilling is the operation of
bits, dip the end of the bit in water frequently to 37. The instrument used to remove old packing from
A. Drilling a center in an odd-shaped of metal packing glands and stuffing boxes are called
prevent B. Drilling and countersinking with a tool
A. Annealing the cutting edge of the bit A. Packing tools
C. Centering with one tool and drilling with another B. Packing bits
B. Burning your fingers D. Drilling a center in a piece of stock in a drill press
C. Hardening of the tip C. Gland box clearance
D. The tip from crystallizing D. Packing screw
Answer: B

Answer: A Answer: A
28. When cutting a drill , it will squeal due to
A. Drill being ground improperly 38. Before drilling a hole in a pipe of metal it should be
18. The tool used to check internal pipe threads is called B. Drill being too hot
A. Gear center A. Center punched
C. Insufficient lubrication B. Marked with chalk
B. Gear cutter D. Any of these
C. Gear hob C. Protracted
D. Gear threader D. Scribed
Answer: D

Answer: C Answer: A
29. The correct cutting angle on a drill for ordinary work
is 39. When measuring a drill for size, measure across the
19. The tool used to check internal pipe threads is called A. 45°
A. Pitch gage A. Flutes
B. 50° B. Margins
B. Plug gage C. 59°
C. Ring gage C. Points
D. 65° D. Shanks
D. Thread gage
Answer: C Answer: B
Answer: B
30. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut at different 40. The tool used in precision work to smooth on enlarge
20. The tool used to check external pipe threads is called angles
a holes is called a
A. The drill will not cut A. Drift pin
A. Pitch gage B. The hole will be larger than the drill
B. Plug gage B. Reamer
C. The hole will be smaller than the drill C. Round out
C. Ring gage D. None of these
D. Thread gage D. Protractor

Answer: B Answer: B
Answer: C
31. If a drill speed is too great, it will 41. The size of a drill is stamped on the
21. The operation of truing a grinding wheel is known as A. Cut faster
A. Centering A. Flute
B. Close its temper B. Margin
B. Dressing C. Out slower
C. Rounding C. Point
D. Not cut D. Shank
D. Sizing
Answer: B Answer: D
Answer: B

22. The cutting angle on a drill for mild steel should be 42. The tool used for cleaning files is called
 A. File cleaner C. Bilateral Tolerance A. Positive back rake angle
B. File card D. None of these B. Neutral back rake angle
C. File oilstone C. Negative back rake angle
D. Scraper Answer: C D. Depth of cutter

Answer: B 3. Is the permissible variation of the size of a Answer: C

dimension?
A. Tolerance 13. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by
43. The metal cutting wedge is fundamental to the
B. Allowance A. Increased sliding viscosity
geometry of
C. Clearance B. Increased shear angle
A. Head of tools only
D. Interference C. Use of low tool finish
B. Power driven tools only D. None of these
C. Sheet metal cutting tools only Answer: A
D. All cutting tools Answer: A
4. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take
Answer: A pressure to put the parts together. The allowance is 14. The studs used as a coolant in general machine stop
said to be negative and is termed consist of
44. Continuous chips are formed when cutting A. Negative tolerance A. A solution of detergent and water
A. Brittle materials B. Negative allowance B. A straight mineral oil
B. Ductile materials C. Negative fits C. An emulsion of oil and water
C. Amorphous plastic materials D. Interference of metal D. A chemical solution
D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
Answer: B Answer: C
Answer: B
5. It is used in conjunction with circular cross sectional 15. Milling cutter is sharpened on
members to retain oil and prevent dirt, foreign A. Tool and cutter grinder
45. What is the function of rake angle of a cutting tool?
particles and moisture and to permit pressure B. Center less grinder
A. To control the chip formation
differential between exterior and interior of the C. Cylindrical grinder
B. To prevent rubbing applied part. D. Surface grinder
C. To determine the profile of too A. Seal
D. To determine whether the cutting action is B. Gasket Answer: A
oblique or orthogonal C. Safety shield
D. Packing 16. Two major factors, which determine the rpm of
Answer: A milling cutter, are the material being cut and
Answer: A _________.
46. Back rake angle for a high speed steel point cutting A. Number of teeth in cutter
tool to machine free cutting brass is 6. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids, B. Diameter less grinder
A. 0° normally under dynamic condition. C. Time allowed to complete the job
B. 5° A. Nylon D. Depth of cutter
C. 10° B. Seal
D. 15° C. Teflon Answer: C
D. Packing
17. Gear pumps used in hydraulic system are used for
Answer: A
Answer: D _________.
A. Low and medium pressure
47. The chip removal process is called
7. Which of the following is not a common term B. Medium and high pressure
A. Extruding relating to the classification of fits? C. Low and high pressure
B. Forging A. Tunking D. None of the above
C. Rolling B. Snug
D. Broaching C. Medium Force Fit Answer: A
D. Bound
Answer: D 18. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for
Answer: D a material having
48. The non chip removal process is called A. High melting point and high thermal
A. Grinding 8. The total permissible variation in the size of a conductivity
B. Spinning on lathe dimension the difference between the limits of the B. High melting point and low thermal
C. Thread cutting size. conductivity
D. Drilling A. Tolerance C. Low melting point and low thermal
B. Fits conductivity
C. Allowance D. Low melting point and high thermal
Answer: B
D. Clearance conductivity
49. A twist drill has its point thinned in order to
Answer: A Answer: B
A. Reduce the hole diameter
B. Increase the rake angle 9. A device used to prevent leakage of media. 19. Energy is a/an
C. Locate in the center punch mark A. Seal A. Artificial abrasive
D. Reduce the axial feed pressure B. Packing B. Natural abrasive
C. Teflon C. Type of cloth
Answer: D D. Graphite D. None of these

50. A reamer is used to correct the Answer: A Answer: B

A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
B. Size and position of a drilled hole 10. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if 20. Grinding is what type of operation?
C. Finish and position of a drilled hole A. Lips of drill are of unequal length A. Metal fusing operation
D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole B. Fed is too high B. Metal powdering operation
C. Insufficient coolant is used C. None of these
Answer: A D. Cutting speed is too high D. Metal finish operation

Answer: A Answer: D
Test 26
1. _____________ to prevent leakage in dynamic seal. 11. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine metal 21. Grinding is done wherever
A. Gaskets even when their cutting elements get healed up to the A. Other machining operations cannot be carried
B. Seals temperature of ___________. out
C. Packing A. 1650 C B. A large amount of materials is to be removed
D. Felts B. 1400 C C. High accuracy is required
C. 1000 C D. None of these
Answer: C D. 1800 C
Answer: C
2. Plus or minus of the tolerance is also called: Answer: C
A. Total Tolerance 22. Laser beam machining process is used to machine
B. Unilateral Tolerance 12. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with __________.
 A. Thicker materials D. -+0.05
B. Thinner materials 43. The outbreak of fire can be avoided by preventing
C. Heavier materials Answer: B A. Fuel
D. None of these B. Heat
33. A tolerance where the size of a part is permitted to be C. Oxygen
D. Any of these
Answer: B either large or smaller than the given dimension.
A. Bilateral
Answer: D
23. The size of abrasive grains in an abrasive jet B. Unilateral
machining varies from C. Lateral 44. The square head of a combination set is used for marking
A. 60 to 100 microns D. None of these or checking the engine.
B. 10 to 50 microns A. 90° only
C. 1 to 5 microns Answer: B B. 90° and 45°
D. 110 to 150 microns C. 45° only
34. A tolerance where the size of a part may be larger D. Any angle between 0-180°
Answer: B only or smaller only, than the given dimension
A. Bilateral Answer:
24. The Young’s modulus of carbide tools is about B. Unilateral
________. C. Lateral 45. Angle plate is made of
A. Three times than for steel D. None of these A. Cast steel
B. Closed grain cast iron
B. Six times than for steel
C. High speed steel
C. Nine times than for steel Answer: A
D. Tool steel
D. None of these
35. _________ are generally used on those dimensions Answer: B
Answer: A involved in a fit
A. Bilateral 46. The eye hole of a hammer head is made in an oval shape
25. Twist drills are usually considered suitable for B. Unilateral and taper towards center because
machining holes having a length less than C. Lateral A. It is easy for production
A. Two times their diameter D. None of these B. It is specifically design by experts
B. Five times their diameter C. It accommodates the handle and a wedge for
C. Ten times their diameter Answer: B preventing it
D. Fifteen times their diameter D. None of the above
36. The ASA fits are based on the
Answer: C
Answer: B A. Basic Number System
B. Basic Hole System
47. The jaws of a long vice are opened
26. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for grinding C. Basic Size System A. Parallel to each other
A. Hard materials D. Unit System B. In V form
B. Soft materials C. In both “A” and “B”
C. Both hard and soft materials Answer: B D. Neither “A” nor “B”
D. None of these
37. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take a Answer: B
Answer: B force or pressure to put the cold part together. The
allowance is said to be negative and is termed as: 48. For general work the cutting angle of a cold fist chisel is
27. The relative motion of work piece in planning is A. Negative fits of metal ground at an angle of
A. Rotary B. Positive fits A. 35°
B. Translator C. Interchangeable B. 60°
C. 70°
C. Rotary and translator D. Interference of metal
D. 80°
D. None of these
Answer: D Answer: B
Answer: B
38. Is the relatively finely spaced irregularities on the 49. A new hacksaw blade should not be used to old cut
28. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine the surface because
ram stroke length is proportional to A. Smoothness A. The blade is very costly
A. Slotter arm length B. Lay B. The blade has very sharp teeth
B. Crank length C. Waviness C. The space is not sufficient to play the new blade
C. Ram length D. Roughness in the old cut
D. None of these D. None of these
Answer: D
Answer: B Answer: C
39. It is the irregularities or departures from the nominal
50. Which part of the file is not hardened
29. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in quick surface of greater spacing than roughness
A. Body
return mechanism of shaping machine is A. Roughness B. Heel
A. 3:2 B. Lay C. Point
B. 6:8 C. Smoothness D. Tang
C. 3:1 D. Waviness
D. 5:2 Answer: D
Answer: D
Answer: A
40. It is the direction of the predominant surface pattern
30. The amount of metal removed by honing process is A. Lay Test 27
less than __________. B. Roughness 1. In case of a flat scraper, the depth of cut s verified
A. 0.125 mm C. Smoothness A. Changing its inclination
B. 0.255 mm D. Waviness B. Changing the convexity of the cutting edge
C. 0.015 mm C. Changing its weight
D. 0.315 mm Answer: A D. None of these

Answer: A 41. The surface finish of micrometer anvils in ______

Answer: A
rms.
31. The type and number of bearing to be used for A. 1
2. Generally spiral fluted reamer has spirals of
spindles of machine tool depend on B. 8
A. Left hand
A. Type of spindle C. 16
B. Type of machine tool D. 32 B. Right hand
C. Load on the bearing C. Straight
D. None of these Answer: A D. None of these

Answer: C 42. The surface finish of heavy cuts and coarse feed Answer: A
A. 80 rms
32. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of the order B. 200 rms 3. In which screw thread the side = width of flat =
_______ in machining work could be permitted. C. 400 rms width of space = 0.5p is termed as
A. -+0.020 D. 500 or greater rms A. Acme
B. -+0.010 B. Buttress
C. -+0.09 Answer: D C. Knuckle
 D. Square 14. In which method a bore is finished to a very close Answer: B
tolerance
Answer: D A. Lapping 24. For grinding materials having low tensile strength
B. Honing which abrasive is used
4. A stud is one which: C. Grinding A. Corrundum
A. Has threads on one end D. Turning B. Aluminum oxide
B. Inserted in a plane hole C. Emery
C. Requires a nut Answer: B D. Silicon carbide
D. None of these
15. Jig bushing are generally made of Answer: D
Answer: D A. Mild steel
B. Cast iron 25. The size of a grinding wheel is taken from
5. 18-8” stainless steel means: C. Brass A. Diameter of wheel
A. 18% Tungsten and 8% Chromium D. Tool steel B. Bore size
B. 18% Chromium and 8% Nickel C. Width of face
C. 18% Nickel and 8% Chromium Answer: D D. All of these
D. 18% Chromium and 8% Cobalt
16. Fixture clamps are generally made of Answer: D
Answer: B A. High carbon steel
B. Case hardened mild steel 26. Which center is used for supporting open end of
6. Which is the lightest metal C. High speed steel pipes, shells etc. while turning or thread cutting in a
A. Aluminum D. Alloy steel lathe
B. Cast iron A. Ball center
C. G. I. sheet Answer: B B. Half center
D. Lead C. Female center
17. Successfully designing of jigs and fixtures depend D. Pipe center
Answer: A upon
A. Clamping arrangement Answer: D
7. Hardened steel parts have B. Tool guiding elements
A. Coarse grain C. Manufacturing conditions 27. When outside diameter of a job is turned in relation
B. Fine grains D. All of these to the internal hole, the job should be held
C. Medium grains A. In three jaw chuck
D. None of these Answer: D B. Between center
C. On face plate
Answer: B 18. When an external gear is meshed with an internal D. On lathe mandrel
gear the gears will rotate in
8. Concentricity of an outside diameter can be checked A. Opposite direction Answer: D
by B. Same direction
A. Dial test indicator C. Will not rotate 28. The included angle of a dead center is
B. Outside micrometer D. None of these A. 30°
C. Vernier caliper B. 45°
D. Tube micrometer Answer: D C. 60°
D. 90°
Answer: A 19. While soldering the flux is used because
A. It assists for quick melting and increasing the Answer: C
9. Which micrometer has no anvil fluidity of solder
A. Depth micrometer B. It saves the part from oxidation 29. Main alloying element to H.S.S is
B. Outside micrometer C. It takes the molten metal on all surfaces A. Chromium
C. Screw thread micrometer D. All of these B. Tungsten
D. Digit micrometer C. Vanadium
Answer: D D. Nickel
Answer: A
20. A usual ration of soluble oil and water used in Answer:
10. Which micrometer is available with extension rods coolant is
A. Outside micrometer A. 1:10 30. The value of one micron is
B. Inside micrometer B. 1:20 A. 1.00 mm
C. Screw thread micrometer C. 10:1 B. 0.10 mm
D. Combi micrometer D. 20:1 C. 0.001 mm
D. 0.001 mm
Answer: B Answer: B
Answer: D
11. Which gauge is used to check the internal threads 21. For a given rpm, if the diameter of a twist drill
A. Plug gauge increases, then cutting speed will 31. For the accurate measurement of bores , the best
B. Ring gauge A. Decrease instrument is
C. Thread plug gauge B. Increase A. Vernier caliper
D. Thread ring gauge C. Same B. Inside micrometer
D. None of these C. Plug gauge
Answer: C D. Dial test indicator
Answer: B
12. Limit gauge is made to the _________ sizes of the Answer: B
work to be measured 22. An advance motion along the longitudinal axis of a
A. Actual and nominal twist drill is called 32. Under sine principle the length of sine bar takes the
B. Minimum and maximum A. Speed place of
C. Nominal and lower limit B. Feed A. Opposite side
D. Nominal and upper limit C. Cutting speed B. Adjacent side
D. None of these C. Hypotenuse
Answer: B D. Height
Answer: B
13. Lapping is done Answer: C
A. To finish the job to a fine degree of accuracy 23. In internal cylindrical grinding, the grinding wheel
B. To get high quality of surface finish and the work rotate in 33. In a hydraulic driven shaper the metals is removed at
C. To control the size A. Sam direction A. Lower speed
D. All of these B. Opposite direction B. Higher speed
C. Neither A or B C. Average speed
Answer: D D. Both A and B D. None of these
Answer: B 4. In a standard dividing head 3 inches in 27 holes
44. Convex shaped slotter tools are used for machining circle will index:
34. In a shaper the cutting speed (metric) is expressed in A. Concave surface A. 1°
A. Meter per minute B. Conical surface B. 4°
B. Meter per second C. Flat surface C. 2°
C. Meter per hour D. Convex surface D. 6°
D. None of these
Answer: A Answer: A
Answer: A
45. The clamping block to be used in a slotter to support 5. There are two different movements of the crank in:
35. Amount of automatic feed in shaper is increased by the end of the strap is made of A. Simple indexing
taking the crank pin A. H. S. S. B. Compound indexing
A. At the center of crack disc B. High carbon steel C. Differential indexing
B. Towards the center of crack disc C. Lead D. Angular indexing
C. Away from the center of crack disc D. Wood
D. none of these Answer: B
Answer: D
Answer: C 6. In a vertical milling machine the spindle is attached
46. The table of the slotter has feeding movements ________ to the work table
36. In a shaper the feed (metric) is usually expressed in A. Longitudinal A. Horizontal
A. mm/ stroke B. Cross B. Angular
B. mm/revolution C. Rotary C. Vertical
C. meter/minute D. All of these D. None of the above
D. none of these
Answer: D Answer: C
Answer: A
47. Divided table planer has 7. Planer type milling machine is built up for
37. for cutting gear teeth in a shaper, the _________ tool A. One table __________ work of:
is use B. One housing A. Heavy duty
A. form C. Two tables B. Light duty
B. “V” shape D. Two housing C. Medium duty
C. Round nose D. None of these
D. Gooseneck Answer: C
Answer: A
Answer: A 48. In a planer the feed is provided
A. At forward stroke 8. In a straddle milling operation how many cutters are
38. Shaper tool bit should not exceed in tool holder B. At return stroke used to mill the work
beyond C. In between forward stroke A. One
A. 5mm D. In between return stroke B. Two
B. 15mm C. Three or more
C. 25mm Answer: B D. Any one of these
D. 50mm
49. In a planer the cutting speed depends upon Answer: B
Answer: B A. Material of job, material of tool and feed rate
B. RPM of ball gear 9. For gear cutting which cutter is used
39. The standard ratio of cutting in return stroke in C. Depth of cut A. End mill cutter
shaper is D. None of these B. Form relief cutter
A. 3:1 C. Plain milling cutter
B. 1:3 Answer: A D. All of these
C. 2:3
D. 3:2 50. The planer tool differs from lathe tool because it has Answer: B
A. Less front and side clearance
Answer: D B. More front and side clearance 10. In a slotter, the table gets ______ different feeds
C. Less rake angle A. One
40. A tipped tool is more useful than H.S.S. tool because D. More rake angle B. Two
A. It can resist more heat C. Three
B. It can keep the cutting point sharp Answer: A D. None of these
C. Cutting speed can be increased
D. All of these Answer: C
Test 28
Answer: D 1. A planer which has a cutting action in both strokes 11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is 5°, the lip
in (wedge) angle in 75°, the rake angle will be
41. The feed in shaper takes place at A. Open side planer A. 10°
A. At the beginning of return stroke B. Double housing planer B. 70°
B. The beginning of cutting stroke C. Pit planer C. 80°
C. The middle of return stroke D. universal planer D. None of these
D. The end of return stroke
Answer: D Answer: A
Answer: D
2. the straddle milling is done by means of two: 12. The approximate hardness of HSS end mill cutter is:
42. Which of the following quick return mechanisms is A. side milling cutters A. 45 HRC
most widely used in most of the slotters B. plain milling cutters B. 52 HRC
A. Slotter linl and gear mechanism C. face milling cutters C. 62 HRC
B. Slotter disc mechanism D. form cutters D. 72 HRC
C. Hydraulic mechanism
D. Whitworth mechanism Answer: A Answer: C

Answer: D 3. in a standard dividing head the ration between the 13. The over arm of a milling machine is used to support
worm wheel and the worm is A. Arbor
43. In a slotter the cutting speed depends upon A. 10:1 B. Spindle
A. Material to be cut B. 20:1 C. Column
B. Material of the slotter tool C. 30:1 D. Table
C. Finish required D. 40:1
D. All of these Answer: A
Answer: D
Answer: D
14. Where does the feed motion takes place in a slotting
machine 25. Which of the following is used in cleaning the gage 35. Reasons why cast iron is selected for the manufacture
A. During the cutting motion blocks before and after use of surface plate
B. After each forward stroke A. Brush A. It is easy for machinery
B. Chamois leather or linen cloth
C. At the end of the return motion B. It is cheaper
C. Cotton waste
D. After each double stroke C. It has less wear and tear
D. None of these
D. All of these
Answer: D Answer: B
Answer: D
15. Which of the following conditions may cause error during 26. Internal and external taper on cylindrical jobs are ground
knurling in 36. The common measuring tools are
A. Surface speed too low A. Plain cylindrical grinding machine A. Steel rule
B. Clamped length and toll too short B. Universal cylindrical grinding machine B. Vernier caliper
C. Too much longitudinal feed C. Internal grinding machine C. Micrometer
D. Unnecessary support with tool stock center D. Centerless grinding machine D. All of these
Answer: C Answer: B Answer: D
16. Mark the milling method during which the formation of 27. Mark the cutter which works simultaneously with the up
chatter marks is very likely: 37. It is an operation of stretching or spreading over the
cut and down cut process
A. During down cut milling with a straight tooth cutter metal by means of the plane of the hammer
A. Side milling cutter
B. During face milling with a straight tooth cutter B. Shell and milling cutter A. Peening
C. During up cut milling with a straight tooth cutter C. Semi – circular milling cutter B. Swaging
D. When using spiral tooth cutter D. Plain milling cutter C. Bending
D. Upsetting
Answer: C Answer: B
Answer: A
17. Taps are re-sharpened by grinding 28. What happens if the job is loosely fitted between centers
A. Threads in cylindrical grindings? 38. The good quality of a measuring tool
B. Flutes A. The job will be out of round A. Should be easy to handle
C. Diameter B. The job will be oversize
D. Relief B. Should be easy to read
C. The job will be thrown out
C. Should be wear resistance
D. The job will not rotate
Answer: B D. All of these
Answer: A
18. Grinding fluids are used to Answer: D
A. Reduce the friction between the wheel face and 29. Where does the relieved cutters are reground
the job 39. The flatness of surface can be checked
A. On the circumstances
B. Lubricate A. By using a straight edge
B. Relieved cutters are not reground
C. Prevent loading of wheel B. By using a surface plate
D. All of these C. On the flank
D. On the side faces C. By using a dial test indicator
D. All of these
Answer: D
Answer: C
Answer: D
19. Balancing of grinding wheel is done to:
A. Make the outside diameter concentric with the bore 30. Used for scribing large radius of circles and arcs
B. Make the sides of the wheel parallel A. Compass 40. It is an operation in which round rod is placed
C. Equalize the weight in very portion of the wheel B. Protractor between the top and bottom swages and hammered to
D. None of these C. Ruler remove the bends and marks
D. Trammel A. Bending
Answer: C B. Peening
Answer: D C. Swaging
20. A grinding wheel which has got the marking °C, is made D. Upsetting
with the abrasive
A. Aluminum oxide
31. Which of the following has its angle 30° and is used
for giving impression on soft metals? Answer: C
B. Silicon carbide
C. Combination of A and B A. Center punch
B. Dot punch 41. A notching/ holding device which is used to hold, or
D. Corrundum
C. Prick punch grip work place while filing, chipping or any other
Answer: B D. Hollow punch bench work or when machining or drilling them
A. Vise
21. Which bond is suitable for wet grinding Answer: C B. Clamp
A. Rubber C. Grip
B. Shellac 32. Which of the following has its angle 60° and is used D. Pressed
C. Silicate
for dotting after marking the lines on general works?
D. None of these Answer: A
A. Center punch
B. Dot punch
Answer: C 42. A multi pointed hand anything tool used to remove
C. Hollow punch
D. Prick punch material from metallic non- metallic work places to
22. Which kind of bond is commonly used
match withdrawing shape and size
A. Vitrified
Answer: B A. Cold chisel
B. Rubber
B. File
C. Shellac
D. Silicon 33. Which of the following has its angle 90° and is used C. Hacksaw
to give deep marks to the location of drill D. none of these
Answer: A A. Center punch
B. Dot punch Answer: B
23. The grade is of grinding wheel depends upon: C. Hollow punch
A. Grain size D. Prick punch 43. a side cutting tool used for accurately finishing the
B. Hardness of bond straight or tapered holes already drilled or bored
C. Kind of abrasive A. Reamer
Answer: A
D. Structure B. Swaging
34. It is used on soft metals and non-metals for making C. Peening
Answer: B D. Tapping
holes
24. One of the causes of grinding wheel glazing is A. Center punch
B. Dot punch Answer: A
A. Grain size is too fine
B. Wheel is hard C. Hollow punch
C. Wheel speed is too fast D. Prick punch 44. A device used to fix two or more parts
D. “A” and “B” both A. Jigs
Answer: C B. Fixtures
Answer: D C. Fastener
 D. Clamp 4. Which of the following gives greater hardness, D. Carburizing
cutting toughness and resistance to wear and tear?
Answer: C A. Chromium Answer: C
B. Tungsten
45. A machine element inserted parallel to the axis of a C. Nickel 14. It is a case hardening process by which the carbon
shaft D. Vanadium content of the steel near the surface of a part is
A. Fastener increased
B. Cotter Answer: D A. Nitriding
C. Key B. Tempering
D. None of these 5. Which of the following raises the tensile strength, C. Carburizing
protects from corrosion and improves wearing D. Flame Hardening
Answer: C property?
A. Cobalt Answer: C
46. A machine element inserted at right angle to the axis B. Nickel
shaft is known as C. Molybdenum 15. It is a case hardening process in which work piece is
A. Fastener D. Tungsten heated in a stream of ammonia at 500 to 550°C
B. Cotter A. Carburizing
C. Key Answer: B B. Nitriding
D. Clamp C. Tempering
6. ___________ gives greater hardness and resistance D. Normalizing
Answer: B to forging and drawing
A. Molybdenum Answer: B
47. The process of extracting iron in a blast is called B. Vanadium
A. Sintering C. Tungsten 16. The size by which it is referred to as a matter of
B. Smelting D. Cobalt convenience called
C. Casting A. Basic size
D. Manufacturing Answer: A B. Actual size
C. Nominal size
Answer: B 7. __________ improves the cutting quality and gives D. Effective size
excellent magnetic property in the steel
48. Which of the following is a product of blast furnace A. Cobalt Answer: C
A. Wrought iron B. Molybdenum
B. Cast iron C. Nickel 17. The size in relation to which all limits of variation is
C. Pig iron D. Chromium made.
D. Gray iron A. Actual size
Answer: A B. Basic size
Answer: C C. Effective size
8. It is an operation involving heating and cooling of D. Nominal size
49. A type of iron, which contains 3 to 3.5 % carbon metals to change the properties
either in combined form or in free state A. Annealing Answer: B
A. Wrought iron B. Nitriding
B. Cast iron C. Tempering 18. The relation between two mating parts with reference
C. Pig iron D. Heat Treatment to ease the assembly is called
D. Gray iron A. Allowance
Answer: D B. Clearance
Answer: B C. Tolerance
9. It is a process to impact maximum hardness to the D. Fits
50. Which of the following furnace is used for steel part.
manufacture of cast iron A. Hardening Answer: D
A. Cupola furnace B. Tempering
B. Crucible furnace C. Annealing 19. Two extreme permissible sizes of a dimension
C. Electric furnace D. Normalizing A. Boundary
D. all of these B. Limits
Answer: A C. Tolerance
Answer: D D. Allowance
10. It is a process to reduce some brittleness and to
induce some toughness in the steel part Answer: B
Test 29 A. Case Hardening
1. A product of padding furnace, which contains less B. Normalizing 20. __________ is the difference between the high and
than 0.10% carbon, is called C. Annealing low limit of size
A. Wrought Iron D. Tempering A. Clearance
B. Cast Iron B. Allowance
C. Pig Iron Answer: D C. Tolerance
D. Gray cast Iron D. Fits
11. It is a process to soft the steel part by removing the
Answer: A internal stress Answer: C
A. Normalizing
2. Which of the following is a property of wrought B. Annealing 21. It is the intentional difference in the sizes of mating
iron? C. Tempering parts
A. Ductile D. Hardening A. Allowance
B. Brittle B. Clearance
C. Cannot be forged Answer: B C. Limits
D. Can be easily cast into different shapes D. Tolerance
12. It is process to make the steel part to its normal range
Answer: A A. Annealing Answer: A
B. Normalizing
3. Which of the following gives greater hardness, C. Case Hardening 22. It is an operation of finishing the flat and cylindrical
cutting toughness and fine grain structure? D. Tempering surfaces to a fine degree of accuracy
A. Chromium A. Lapping
B. Nickel Answer: B B. Shaping
C. Tungsten C. Planing
D. Vanadium 13. It is the process for making the outer surface harder D. Honing
of the steel part
Answer: A A. Flame Hardening Answer: A
B. Hardening
C. Case Hardening
23. It is an operation of finishing the flat and cylindrical 32. It is used to connect and disconnect the driving and C. Shaper
surfaces to a fine degree of accuracy by means of driven units D. Planer
abrasive sticks A. Brake
A. Lapping B. Spring Answer: B
B. Planing C. Clutch
C. Shaping D. Coupling 42. It is a set of gears fitted in different positions on a
D. Honing plate, which are controlled by a lever
Answer: C A. Gear train
Answer: D B. Stud Gear
33. It connects the shafts with soft materials such as C. Tumbler Gear
24. It is a device, which hold the job in position and rubber, leather and canvas D. Differential Gear
guide the cutting tool. A. Universal coupling
A. Clamp B. Flexible coupling Answer: C
B. Jig C. Rigid coupling
C. Vise D. Oldham coupling 43. It moves on the lathe bed with cutting tool according
D. Grip to the rotation of lead screw or by hand traversing
Answer: B wheel
Answer: B A. Apron
34. What is used to connect the shafts whose axes are B. Compound rest
25. It is a device, which hold the job firmly intersecting C. Saddle
A. Clamp A. Rigid coupling D. Mandrel
B. Grip B. Oldham coupling
C. Fixture C. Flexible coupling Answer: C
D. Jig D. Universal coupling
44. It acts the carriage or compound rest through the
Answer: C Answer: D mechanism lifted inside the __________
A. Saddle
26. The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer 35. It is generally used on high speed with light load B. Apron
of the driver and driven pulleys within the area of arc because it has point contact C. Compound
of contact is called A. Ball bearing D. Mandrel
A. Slip B. Roller bearing
B. Creep C. Metal bearing Answer: B
C. Crowning D. Wood bearing
D. Dressing 45. It gives the cutting tool longitudinal feed, cross feed
Answer: A or angular feed
Answer: B A. Compound rest
36. It is generally used on high speed with heavy load B. Apron
27. If the belt is loosely fitted on pulleys, _________ because it has line contact C. Saddle
slips down. A. Plastic bearing D. Carriers
A. Creep B. Metal bearing
B. Crowning C. Roller bearing Answer: A
C. Dressing D. Ball bearing
D. Slip 46. A holding device used to hold the job properly when
Answer: C turning the outer surface truly with the finished hole
Answer: D called
37. It is a process by which the length of a work place is A. Clamp
28. It is the outer surface of face or rim of the pulley and increased by reducing its cross section area. B. Fixture
made in convex form to keep the belt in center when A. Drawing out C. Jig
it is in motion B. Drifting D. Mandrel
A. Crowning C. Jumping
B. Dressing D. Upsetting Answer: D
C. Creep
D. Slip Answer: A 47. The center that is fitted in headstock spindle called
A. Dead Center
Answer: A 38. It is a process by which the length of a work piece is B. Live Center
reduced C. Above Center
29. To avoid slip or creep, the resin powder or paste is A. Upsetting D. Below Center
poured in between the outer surface of pulley and B. Drawing out
belt for increasing at tension. This process is known C. Drifting Answer: B
as D. Jumping
A. Crowning 48. A center, which is fitted in tailstock spindle called
B. Dressing Answer: D A. Dead Center
C. Creep B. Live Center
D. Slip 39. Refers to the process of bulging on one end of a work C. Above Center
piece to bring a required shape D. Below Center
Answer: B A. Bending
B. Upsetting Answer: A
30. It is used to transmit motion at high speed without C. Drifting
producing noise D. Jumping 49. It is a machine tool used to produce flat surfaces,
A. Bevel gears which may be horizontal, vertical or inclined
B. Hypoid Gears Answer: B A. Planer
C. Helical Gears B. Slotter
D. Worm Gears 40. It is a process of enlarging and smoothening the C. Shaper
punched hole by means of tapered drifts of various D. Milling
Answer: C sizes and shapes
A. Drifting Answer: C
31. It is used to transmit motion at high speed with heavy B. Jumping
load without producing noise C. Drawing out 50. Which of the following gives shearing action
A. Worm gear D. Upsetting A. Slide rake
B. Herring bone gear B. Top rake
C. Bevel gear Answer: A C. Side clearance
D. Spur gear D. Front clearance
41. It is a machine tool used to remove metal from a
Answer: B work piece to give it the required shape and size Answer: D
A. Drill press
B. Lathe
 A. Gang milling C. Clearance angle
B. Straddle milling D. Cutting angle
Test 30 C. Climb milling
1. What supports the top rake? D. Down milling Answer: A
A. Front Clearance
B. Side Clearance Answer: A 20. The angle formed between the clearance surface and
C. Slide Rake the work surface or the tangent to the work piece at
D. None of these 11. It is an operation of milling two opposite sides of the point of contact with the tool
work piece at a time by using two side milling cutters A. Clearance angle
Answer: A on the same arbor B. Wedge angle
A. Gang milling C. Rake angle
2. What supports for free feeding B. Straddle milling D. Cutting angle
A. Side rake C. Side milling
B. Side clearance D. Face milling Answer: A
C. Front clearance
D. Top rake Answer: B 21. The best method of avoiding accident is by observing
__________ related to job, machine and work piece.
Answer: B 12. It is an attachment to the milling machine, which A. Emery
helps to divide the job periphery into a number of B. Opponent
3. Which of the following reduces the rubbing action? equal divisions C. Safety precautions
A. Front clearance A. Index D. Cleanliness
B. Side clearance B. Dividing head
C. Slide rake C. Slotting Answer: C
D. Top rake D. Universal spiral
22. The size of try square is measured from the inner
Answer: A Answer: B edge of stock to the end of its _______.
A. Base
4. It is a type of reciprocating type machine tool used 13. It is an operation to produce narrow slots or grooves B. Blade
for machining flat, cylindrical, and irregular surfaces. using a slitting saw milling cutter C. Edge
A. Planer A. Saw milling D. Body
B. Shaper B. Form milling
C. Slotter C. End milling Answer: B
D. Lathe D. Side milling
23. Angle of center punch is
Answer: C Answer: A A. 30°
B. 45°
5. Which of the following is used for all general 14. It is an operation to produce irregular contours using C. 60°
purposes? a form cutter D. 90°
A. Production process A. Face milling
B. Puncher slotter B. Form milling Answer: D
C. Tool room slotter C. Side milling
D. None of these D. End milling 24. Mallets are made of ________.
A. Hardwood
Answer: B Answer: B B. Soft wood
C. Steel
6. A machine tool used for large construction 15. It is an operation to divide the periphery of the job D. Cast iron
A. Planer into number of equal parts accurately
B. Shaper A. Dividing head Answer: A
C. Slotter B. Indexing
D. Lathe C. Slotting 25. The size of the bench vise is measured from the
D. None of these ______ of its jaws
Answer: A A. Width
Answer: B B. Length
7. It is a machine tool used to machine plane curved C. Thickness
surfaced, slots, grooves, teeth, with fast rotating 16. The angle formed between the face of a tool and the D. Curvature
multipoint cutter work surface or tangent to the work at a point of
A. Milling contact with the tool called Answer: A
B. Planer A. Clearance angle
C. Shaper B. Cutting angle 26. For cutting oil grooves in bearing _____ chisel is
D. Grinder C. Rake angle used
D. Wedge angle A. Full round nose
Answer: A B. Half round nose
Answer: B C. Square nose
8. It is also known as conventional milling in which the D. Rectangular
rotation of the cutter is in the direction opposite to 17. It is a device, which is used to change the shape of a
the direction of the table movement piece by removing material in the form of chips Answer: B
A. Down-milling A. Cutting tool
B. Up-milling B. Machine tool 27. Staggering of hacksaw blade teeth on both sides
C. Standard milling C. Chisel alternatively is called
D. Gang milling D. Hacksaw A. Positioning to teeth
B. Arrangement of teeth
Answer: B Answer: A C. Setting of teeth
D. None of these
9. It is also known as climb milling in which the 18. The angle formed the face and the normal to the
rotation of the cutter and the movement to the table is work piece at the point of contact with the tool Answer: C
in the same direction A. Clearance angle
A. Gang milling B. Cutting angle 28. The size of a flat file is measured from ________ to
B. Down milling C. Wedge angle heel of the file
C. Up milling D. Rake angle A. Edge
D. Straddle milling B. Base
Answer: D C. Tip
Answer: B D. Body
19. The angle formed between the face and the clearance
10. It is an operation of milling the complex surfaces surface Answer: C
with the help of a group of cutters mounted on the A. Wedge angle
same arbor B. Rake angle
29. The triangular scraper has _______ sharp cutting D. Dial 48. When hard material is to be drilled, the cutting angle
edges of the drill should be _____ 118°
A. One Answer: B A. Less than
B. Two B. Equal to
C. Three 39. The difference between the high limit and the low C. More than
D. Four limit of a size is called D. Either more than or less than
A. Allowance
Answer: C B. Clearance Answer: C
C. Boundary
30. Reamer should also be turned in _________ direction D. Tolerance 49. If the taper shank of the drill is too large as compared
when taking it out to the spindle hole, the __________ is used.
A. Same direction Answer: D A. Drill socket
B. Opposite direction B. Planer
C. Clockwise direction 40. An intentional difference between the hole and the C. Electric drill
D. Counterclockwise shaft dimension for any type of fit is called D. Copping saw
A. Allowance
Answer: C B. Clearance Answer: A
C. Tolerance
31. It is the distance measured to the axis from a point on D. Range 50. What is the lip clearance angle of twist drill for
a screw thread to the corresponding point on the next generated work?
thread Answer: A A. 3 – 6°
A. Lead B. 8 – 10°
B. Pitch 41. The material for taps should always be _________ C. 12 – 15°
C. Linear than the material of part to be tapped D. 18 – 22°
D. Chord A. Harder
B. Shorter Answer: C
Answer: B C. Softer
D. Longer
32. Cupola furnace is used to produce _______.
A. Cast iron Answer: C Test 31
B. Cast steel 1. A machine for shaping a work piece by gripping it in a
C. Aluminum 42. Jigs are generally used for holding the job and holding device and rotating it under power against a suitable
D. Stainless steel __________ the tool tool for turning, boring facing or threading.
A. Support A. Shaper
Answer: A B. Guide B. Lathe
C. Control C. Planer
33. Percentage of carbon in high carbon steel is D. Regulate D. Engine Lathe
A. 0.10% to 0.50%
B. 0.70% to 1.5% Answer: B Answer: B
C. 3% to 7%
D. 5% to 10% 43. Measuring and other selling methods can be 2. A machine for the removal of metal by feeding a work
eliminated by using _________ and fixtures piece through the periphery of a rotating circular cutter.
Answer: B A. Guide A. Milling Machine
B. Support B. Milling Planer
34. It is done to decrease the brittleness and to increase C. Jigs C. Milling Cutter
the toughness D. Structure D. Milling Shaper
A. Annealing
B. Normalizing Answer: C Answer: A
C. Tempering
D. Nitriding 44. When two or more tools are to be used through the 3. It is a machine tool used for cutting flat-on-flat an-toured
same hole then __________ bushes are used in jigs surfaces by reciprocating a single-point tool across the work
Answer: C A. Positive slip piece.
B. Negative slip A. Planer
35. Ratchet stop is attached with micrometer to measure C. Friction B. Shearing machine
the accurate reading by applying _______ pressure D. Slip C. Shaper
irrespective of users skill and strength D. Slab cutter
A. Atmospheric Answer: D
B. Gage Answer: C
C. Uniform 45. The __________ gears are used for changing the
D. Variable plane direction 4. It is the machine used for shaping of long, flat or flat
A. Spur contoured surfaces by reciprocating the work piece under a
Answer: C B. Helical stationary single-point tool or tools.
C. Worm A. Planer
36. A hole, which is drilled for a particular size of a tap, D. Bevel B. Shaper
is called C. Lathe
A. Drilling hole Answer: D D. Turret Lathe
B. Reaming hole
C. Tapping hole 46. Solder is an alloy of _________ Answer: A
D. Plugging hole A. Lead and zinc
B. Lead and tin 5. It is the machine used for shaping of metal or plastic by
Answer: C C. Lead and tungsten pushing or pulling a broaching across a surface or through
D. Lead and antimony an existing hole in a work piece.
37. A ___________ gage is used to check the clearance A. Planning
between the mating parts Answer: B B. Shaping
A. Feeler C. Broaching
B. Plug 47. Flash point is the __________ at which the sufficient D. Milling
C. Tap vapor is given off from the oil without actual setting
D. Dial fire to the oil Answer: C
A. Gage temperature
Answer: A B. Lower temperature 6. It is a device, usually motor-driven, fitted with an end
C. Higher temperature cutting tool that is rotated with sufficient power either to
38. A __________ gage is used to check the size of D. Absolute Temperature create a hole to enlarge an existing hole in a solid material.
hole/bore A. Drill jigs
A. Feeler Answer: B B. Drill press
B. Plug C. Drill chuck
C. Tap D. Drilling machine
 25. Slightly rounding a cutting edge to reduce the
Answer: D Answer: D probability of edge chipping is referred to as
A. Broaching
7. It is a machine tool designed to machine internal work 16. A solids grinder and the product is a fine powder B. Butting
such as cylinders, holes in castings, and dies, types are A. Atomizer mill C. Blunting
horizontal, vertical jig, and single. B. Autogenous mill D. Bleaching
A. Boring machine C. Attrition mill
B. Broaching machine D. Ball mill Answer: B
C. Drilling machine
D. Boring mill Answer: A 26. A rigid tool holder to machine internal surfaces is
called:
Answer: B 17. A machine in which material are pulverized between A. Boring bar
two toothed metal disks rotating in opposite directions. B. Boring mill
8. It is a milling method in which parts placed in a row A. Attrition mill C. Broaching machine
parallel to the axis of the cutting tool end are milled B. Tumbling mill D. Corrugated bar
simultaneously. C. Ball mill
A. Abreast milling D. Beater mill Answer: A
B. Angular milling
C. Helical milling Answer: A 27. Which of the following is a boring machine tool used
D. None of these particularly for large work piece, types are horizontal and
18. A straight brace for bits whose shank comprises a vertical?
Answer: A coarse-pitch screws sliding in a threaded tube with a handle A. Boring mill
at the end of the device is operated by pushing the handle B. Burrstone mill
9. A core drill with hardened steel shot pellets that revolve called C. Cage mill
under the rim of the rotating tube, employed in rotary A. Automatic capacity D. Chile mill
drilling in every hard ground. B. Automatic drill
A. Automatic drill C. Automatic regulator Answer: A
B. Double core barrel drill D. Automatic stocker
C. Flat drill 28. A flat-ended twist drill designed to convert a cone at the
D. Adamantine Drill Answer: B bottom of a drilled hole into a cylinder is called
A. Churn drill
Answer: D 19. A press in which mechanical feeding of the work is B. Core drill
synchronized with the press action. C. Bottoming drill
10. The part of a machine for wood planning that carries the A. Dial press D. Spiral drill
cutters. B. Punch press
A. Adz stock C. Automatic press Answer: C
B. Adz block D. Manual press
C. Head stock 29. A tap with a chamfer 1-1½ threads in length
D. Heel block Answer: C A. Center tap
B. Bottom tap
Answer: B 20. A supporting member that carries a wheel and either C. Taper tap
rotates with the wheel to transmit mechanical power to or D. Plug tap
11. A grinding mill of large diameter with either lumps of from it, or blows the wheel to rotate freely on it is called
ore, pebbles, or steel balls as crushing bodies the dry lead is A. Shaft Answer: B
swept to remove mesh material. B. Axle
A. Aero fall mill C. Bushing 30. A small portable hand drill customarily used by hand
B. Aero motor D. Coupling setters to drill holes in breast called
C. Aerial speed A. Diamond drill
D. Ball mill Answer: B B. Spiral drill
C. Churn drill
Answer: A 21. A portable sanding tool having a power-driven abrasive D. Breast drill
coated continuous belt is called
12. A tool-steel cutter used for finishing surfaces of angles A. Bench sander Answer: D
greater or less than 90° with its axis of rotation is called B. Belt heightener
________. C. Gear sander 31. In _________ type shaper, the reciprocating movement
A. Circular cutter D. Belt sander of the arm is affected by means of a rack and pinion.
B. Helical cutter A. Gear
C. Angle cutter Answer: D B. Thread
D. Asphalt cutter C. Screw
22. A machine for bending a metal or wood part by pressure D. Bolt
Answer: C is known as
A. Pressing machine Answer: A
13. Milling surfaces that are flat and at an angle to the axis B. Bending machine
of the spindle of the milling machine called C. Forming machine 32. In hydraulic shaper the reciprocating movement of the
A. Hammer milling D. Shaping machine arm is obtained through ______ pressure.
B. Helical milling A. Mercury
C. Angular milling Answer: B B. Oil
D. Circular milling C. Water
23. A machine, which simultaneously molds and cures a D. Alcohol
Answer: C pneumatic tire is called
A. Bladder press Answer: B
14. It is a hole in revolving cutter or grinder wheel for B. Crank press
mounting it on an arbor. C. Automatic press 33. A job, which is fixed away from the table, can be
A. Hole saw D. Manual press machined by
B. Arbor hole A. Running head
C. Star drill Answer: A B. Moving head
D. Peep hole C. Traveling head
24. A file whose edges are parallel is known as D. Static head
Answer: B A. Crochet file
B. Cross cut file Answer: C
15. A machine used for forcing an arbor or a mandrel into C. Equaling file
drilled or bored parts preparatory to turning or grinding D. Blunt file 34. The stroke positioning lever is located on the _________
A. Automatic press of shaper.
B. Bladder press Answer: D A. Lever
C. Arc press B. Table
D. Arbor press C. Ram
 D. Chunk Answer: D B. Arc of contact
C. Angle of contact
Answer: C 45. An arbor is used to _______ an drive the milling cutter. D. Contact ratio
A. Guide
35. The length of a shaper stroke is the length of the job plus B. Hold Answer: B
_________. C. Control
A. Displacement D. Support 5. The spindle of the grinding machine on which the wheel is
B. Tolerance mounted
C. Allowance Answer: B A. Bushing
D. Clearance B. Arbor
46. A puncher slotter is used for ______ stock removal. C. Bearing
Answer: D A. Light D. Fluting
B. Heavy
36. Rocker arm is a _______ part of shaper C. Small Answer: B
A. Oscillating D. Large
B. Reciprocating 6. A device for holding grinding wheels of special shape or
C. Moving Answer: B the working piece being grounded.
D. Running A. Head stock
47. Snagging is the form of ________ grinding. B. Fixtures
Answer: A A. Hard C. Jigs
B. Rough D. Chuck
37. In a shaper, the _______ strokes takes place. C. Soft
A. Backward D. Smooth Answer: D
B. Forward
C. Return Answer: B 7. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or tap.
D. Cutting A. Fluting
48. Carbide and ceramic tools are ground on ______ B. Flaring
Answer: D grinding wheel. C. Lapping
A. Fine grain D. Honing
38. In shaper, the tool is fed at the end of _______ stroke. B. Hard
A. Cutting C. Soft Answer: A
B. Return D. Diamond
C. Backward 8. The dulling of the cutting particles of a grinding wheel
D. Forward Answer: D resulting in a decreased rate of cutting is called.
A. Grinding
Answer: B 49. The term ________ means that particle of metal are B. Glazing
adhering to the cutting faces of the grinding wheel. C. Fluting
39. Generally, shaper tool cuts metal on the ______ stroke. A. Loading D. Lapping
A. Backward B. Feeding
B. Cutting C. Rating Answer: B
C. Forward D. Grinding
D. Return 9. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues from casting is termed
Answer: A as
Answer: C A. Honing
50. In ________ jaw chuck each jaw can be adjusted B. Tumbling
40. Generally, shaper is used for machining ________ independently. C. Snagging
surfaces. A. Five D. Truing
A. Curve B. Two
B. Flat C. Three Answer: C
C. Rough D. Four
D. Smooth 10. The process of increasing the cross-sectional area of a
Answer: D given portion or possibly of the whole piece.
Answer: B A. Forging
B. Upsetting
41. Shaper tools are made of Test 32 C. Spreading
A. Mild steel 1. Refers to the unit that can be moved longitudinally along D. Drawing
B. Cast iron the swivel table and is clamped in position by two bolts one
C. High speed steel on either side of the base. Answer: B
D. Wrought iron A. Foot stock
B. Head stock 11. The process of lengthening a piece of stock while the
Answer: C C. Tail stock cross-sectional area is being reduced.
D. Cross stock A. Tapping
42. For machining cast iron in shaper, the tool ground with B. Honing
______ rake angle. Answer: B C. Drawing
A. Negative D. Upsetting
B. Positive 2. An instrument used for determining the relative hardness of
C. 30° materials by a drop and rebound method. Answer: C
D. 45° A. Scleroscope
B. Rockwell Hardness Tester 12. An alloy of copper, tin and antimony.
Answer: C C. Universal Testing Machine A. Bearing
D. Brinell Hardness Tester B. Babbit
43. Which of the following best describe a milling machine? C. Iconel
A. It is a machine equipment Answer: A D. Tantanium
B. It is a machine tool
C. It is a machine device 3. An instrument used for measuring the degree of surface Answer: B
D. It is a machine apparatus roughness in micro inches.
A. Caliper 13. Sometimes used for soldering bright tin.
Answer: B B. Micrometer A. Tallow
C. Profilometer B. Sal ammonia
44. The quick return mechanism is slotter is provided in D. Scleroscope C. Tinning
order to save the time in ________ stroke. D. Rosin
A. Backward Answer: C
B. Forward Answer: D
C. Cutting 4. Refers to the portion of the circumference of a grinding
D. Return wheel touching the work being ground. 14. A very effective flux for soldering galvanized iron and
A. Area of contact zinc.
 A. Soldering pastes 24. A type of bonding material, which is made of clay and
B. Muriatic acid water. Answer: B
C. Zinc chloride A. Resinoid bond
D. Cut acid B. Vitrified bond 34. A reamer is used to correct the
C. Shellac bond A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
Answer: B D. Rubber bond B. Size and position of a drilled hole
C. Finish and position of a drilled hole
15. The process of checking the surface of a piece by rolling Answer: B D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole
depressions into the surface.
A. Honing 25. The process of producing an extremely accurate highly Answer: A
B. Knurling finished surface.
C. Snagging A. Lapping 35. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if
D. Reaming B. Buffing A. Lips of drill are of unequal length
C. Polishing B. Feed is too high
Answer: B D. Honing C. Insufficient coolant is used
D. Cutting speed is too high
16. The groove providing for the cutting faces of the threads Answer: A
or teeth, chip passage and lubrication. Answer: A
A. Heel 26. It is surface finishing process by which scratches and toll
B. Land marks are removed with a polishing wheel. 36. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine metal even
C. Flute A. Honing when their cutting elements get heated up to a temperature of
D. Thread relief B. Lapping A. 1650°C
C. Polishing B. 1000°C
Answer: C D. Buffing C. 1400°C
D. 1800°C
17. The process of cutting internal threads by means of a Answer: C
cutting tool. Answer: B
A. Tapping 27. It is used for holding straight shank drills in the spindle of
B. Reaming the machine when drilling. 37. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with:
C. Chamfering A. Drill chuck A. Positive back rake angle
D. Honing B. Chuck key B. Neutral back rake angle
C. Floating holder C. Negative back rake angle
Answer: A D. Magic chuck D. None of these

18. The operation of producing a circular hole by removing Answer: A Answer: C

solid metal.
A. Knurling 28. Continuous chips are formed when cutting 38. The point angle of twist drill to machine is
B. Reaming A. Brittle materials A. 112°
C. Boring B. Ductile materials B. 116°
D. Drilling C. Amorphous plastic materials C. 118°
D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only D. 120°
Answer: D
Answer: B Answer: C
19. The surface below the cutting edge
A. Face 29. The rake angle of a cutting tool. 39. The cutting speed of HSS twist drill to machine gray cast
B. Flank A. Controls the chip formation iron is
C. Nose B. Prevents rubbing A. 10-20 m/min
D. Side relief C. Determine the profile of load B. 15-25 m/min
D. Determine the whether the cutting action is C. 20-30 m/min
Answer: B oblique or orthogonal D. 25-40 m/min

20. The surface below over which the chip flows. Answer: A Answer: D
A. Face
B. Flank 40. The recommended value of rake angle for machining
C. Nose 30. Back rake angle for HSS single point cutting tool to aluminum with cutting tools made up of diamond tool.
D. None of these machine free cutting brass is A. 0°
A. 0° B. 15°
Answer: C B. 5° C. 35°
C. 10° D. 45°
21. It measures the downward slope of the top surface of the D. 15°
tool from the nose to the rear along the longitudinal. Answer: A
A. Side cutting edge angle Answer: A
B. End relief angle 41. The cutting speeds of HSS milling cutter to machine
C. Side rake angle 31. In the list of process given below, the chip removal aluminum is
D. Back rake angle process is the A. 140-200 m/min
A. Die casting B. 160-220 m/min
Answer: D B. Extruding C. 180-240 m/min
C. Forging D. 200-260 m/min
22. Which one is the hardness material? D. Broaching
A. Steel Answer: C
B. Diamond Answer: D
C. Bronze 42. The major factors, which determine the rpm of milling
D. Brass 32. The twist drill has its point thinned in order to cutter, are the material being cut and the ________.
A. Reduce the hole diameter A. Number of teeth in cutter
Answer: B B. Increase the rake angle B. Diameter of cutter
C. Locate in the center punch mark C. Time allowed to complete the job
23. It measures the slope of top surface of the tool to the side D. Reduce the axial pressure D. Depth of cutter
in a direction perpendicular to the longitudinal axis.
A. Side rake angle Answer: D Answer: C
B. Side cutting edge angle
C. Side relief edge angle 33. In the list of process given below, the non-chip removal 43. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by
D. End relief angle process is A. Increasing sliding
A. Grinding B. Increased shear angle
Answer: A B. Spinning on lathe C. Use of low tool finish
C. Thread cutting D. None of these
D. Milling
Answer: A C. 1 to 5 microns D. 800 amps/cycle of work piece area
D. 20 to 40 microns
44. The studs used as a coolant machine shop consists of Answer: D
A. Solution of detergent and water Answer: B
B. A straight mineral oil 14. The voltage applied between tool (cathode) and work
C. An emulsion of oil and water 4. In collet, the included angle of taper is usually piece (anode) in ECM process is
D. A chemical solution A. 10° A. 30-50 V
B. 20° B. 60-90 V
Answer: C C. 30° C. 3-20 V
D. 40° D. None of these
45. The recommended value of rake angle for machine
aluminum with cutting tools made up of high speed steel tool. Answer: C Answer: C
A. 5°
B. 10° 5. Straight fluted drill are used to drill _________ materials 15. The diameter (D) of a plain milling cutter is
C. 15° A. Soft approximately related to arbor diameter (d) as
D. 35° B. Hard A. D=1.5d to 2d
C. Thin B. D=2.5d to 3d
Answer: D D. Thick C. D=4.5d to 6d
D. D=5.5d to 8d
46. Milling cutter is sharpened on Answer: A
A. Tool and cutter grinder Answer: B
B. Cylindrical grinder 6. Twist drills are made usually considered suitable
C. Centerless grinder machining holes having a length less than 16. The type and number of bearings to be used for spindles
D. Surface grinder A. Two times their diameter of machine tool depend on the
B. Five times their diameter A. Type of spindle
Answer: A C. Ten times their diameter B. Type of machine tool
D. Twenty times their diameter C. Load on the bearing
47. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for a D. None of these
material having Answer: B
A. High melting point and high thermal conductivity Answer: C
B. High melting point and low thermal conductivity 7. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for grinding
C. Low melting point and low thermal conductivity A. Hard materials 17. HSS cutting tools are generally provided with
D. Low melting point and high thermal conductivity B. Soft materials A. Positive rake angle
C. Both materials B. Negative rake angle
Answer: B D. None of these C. Positive cutting edge angle
D. Negative cutting edge angle
48. A process can be considered as a hot working process if Answer: B
the material is heated Answer: A
A. Below recrystallization temperature 8. The relative motion of work piece in planning is
B. Above recrystallization temperature A. Rotary 18. Cemented carbide and ceramic cutting tools are usually
C. Below normal temperature B. Translatory provided with
D. Above normal temperature C. Rotary and translator A. Positive rake angle
D. None of these B. Negative rake angle
Answer: B C. Positive cutting edge angle
Answer: B D. Negative cutting edge angle
49. Grinding is
A. Metal fusion operation 9. The accuracy obtained by the grinding process can be of Answer: B
B. Metal powdering operation the order of
C. Metal finishing operation A. 0.25 mm 19. Coefficient of friction in anti-friction guide ways is:
D. None of these B. 0.025 mm A. High
C. 0.0025 mm B. Low
Answer: C D. 0.00025 mm C. Medium
D. None of these
50. Grinding is done wherever Answer: D
A. Other machining operation cannot be carried Answer: B
out 10. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine, the ram
B. A large amount of material is to be removed stroke length is proportional to 20. Nitriding process of surface treatment for steel tools is
C. High accuracy is required A. Slotter arm length used for taking
D. None of these B. Crank length A. Light cuts
C. Ram length B. Heavy cuts
Answer: C D. None of these C. Medium cuts
D. None of these
Answer: B
Test 33 Answer: A
1. The recommended value of the rake angle for machining 11. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke in quick
aluminum with cutting tools made up of cemented carbide return mechanism of shaping machine is 21. At very low cutting speeds the tool wear is due to
tool A. 3:2 A. Plowing action
A. 5° B. 3:1 B. Transfer
B. 10° C. 3:4 C. Material
C. 15° D. 3:5 D. Temperature
D. 25°
Answer: A Answer: A
Answer: C
12. The amount of metal removed by honing process is less 22. Are mixture of lard, cotton seed or rape-seed oils and
2. Laser beam machining process is used to machine than mineral oils.
A. Thicker materials A. 0.125 mm A. Cutting oils
B. Thinner materials B. 0.225 mm B. Cooling oils
C. Heavier materials C. 0.325 mm C. Heating oils
D. Stronger materials D. 0.425 mm D. Emulsion

Answer: B Answer: A Answer: A

3. The size of abrasive grains in abrasive a jet machining 13. In ECM process thermal current requirement is 23. How is aluminum work piece marked?
varies from A. 100 amps/cycle of work piece area A. Ball pen
A. 60 to 100 microns B. 200 amps/cycle of work piece area B. Lead pencil
B. 10 to 50 microns C. 500 amps/cycle of work piece area C. Crayon
 D. Chalk B. Drifting A. Grade
C. Jumping B. Grit
Answer: B D. Upsetting C. Peebles
D. None of these
24. How is the height of a bench vice adjusted? Answer: C
A. By using a wooden plate form Answer: B
B. By using a wooden packing piece under the vice 34. It cannot be forged because it will break if heated and
base beaten by hammer 44. It is the combination of iron, carbon and other alloying
C. By using a vice adjusting fixture A. High speed steel elements.
D. All of these B. Tool steel A. Cast iron
C. Carbon steel B. Brass
Answer: D D. Cast iron C. Carbon steel
D. Alloy steel
25. What is the material of hacksaw blade? Answer: D
A. High carbon steel Answer: D
B. High speed steel 35. It is a process of enlarging and smoothing the punched
C. Low tungsten steel hole by means of tapered drifts of various sizes and shapes. 45. The main purpose of ________ is to resist wear and
D. Any of these A. Drifting unable it to cut the other metal.
B. Drawing A. Tempering
Answer: D C. Upsetting B. Hardening
D. Jumping C. Quenching
26. Why hacksaw blade teeth get dull? D. Normalizing
A. Coarse pitched blade is used on hard metal Answer: A
B. Too much speed and pressure Answer: B
C. Pressure is not released in return stroke 36. It is the process by which the length of a work piece is
D. Any of these increased by reducing its cross-sectional area. 46. Lip clearance angle for drilling soft materials should be
A. Flattening ________ that for drilling hard materials.
Answer: D B. Drawing out A. Less than
C. Swaging B. Equal to
27. Files are classified according to D. Jumping C. More than
A. Size or length D. Zero
B. Shape Answer: B
C. Grade and cut Answer: C
D. All of these 37. Shaper tools are made up of what type of material?
A. Brass 47. It is also known as slab peripheral milling
Answer: D B. Bronze A. Form milling
C. High speed steel B. Climb milling
28. How are rivets made? D. Babbit C. Convex milling
A. Cold pressing D. Plain milling
B. Rolling Answer: C
C. Drawing Answer: D
D. None of these 38. A _________ is reciprocating type tool used for
machining flat, cylindrical and irregular surfaces. 48. In _______ the tool is released in return stroke.
Answer: A A. Shaper A. Shaper
B. Planer B. Planer
29. It is a case hardening process in which work piece is C. Puncher C. Slotter
heated in a stream of ammonia at 500 to 550°C. D. Slotter D. Reamer
A. Quenching
B. Annealing Answer: D Answer: A
C. Tempering
D. Nitriding 39. An operation to enlarge the previous drilled hole 49. It is the process of driving the periphery of the job in
A. Drilling degrees.
Answer: D B. Boring A. Direct indexing
C. Reaming B. Plain indexing
30. It is used to measure gap between two mating parts to D. Broaching C. Differential indexing
set the job and machine in alignment and to measure D. Angular indexing
clearance of piston and cylinder in automobiles. Answer: B
A. Compound gauge Answer: D
B. Feeler gauge 40. An operation to make smaller hole in exact center for
C. Inspection gauge lathe center. 50. It is also known as conventional milling in which the
D. Workshop gauge A. Broaching rotation of the cutter is in a direction opposite to the
B. Reaming direction of the table movement.
Answer: B C. Counter boring A. Down milling
D. Center drilling B. Up milling
31. The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer C. Straddle milling
surface of the driver and driven pulleys within the area of Answer: D D. Gang milling
arc of contact.
A. Slip 41. It is the operation of beveling the mouth of a hole Answer: B
B. Creep A. Counter sinking
C. Interference B. Counter boring
D. Crowning C. Spot facing Test 34
D. Counter boring 1. It is also known as climb milling in which the rotation of
Answer: B the cutter and the movement of the table is the same
Answer: A direction.
32. The temperature at which an oil gives off sufficient A. Down milling
vapor without actually setting fire to the oil. 42. It is the operation of smoothing and squaring the surface B. Up milling
A. Flash point around the hole C. Straddle milling
B. Fire point A. Reaming D. Gang milling
C. Pour point B. Counter sinking
D. Cloud point C. Spot facing Answer: A
D. Counter boring
Answer: A 2. The _______ is a machine tool used to remove metal
Answer: C from a work piece to give it the required shape and size.
33. It is the process by which the length of a work piece is A. Shaper
reduced. 43. The size of abrasive grains produced by crushing B. Planer
A. Drawing process is called C. Lathe
 D. Grinder C. It saves the time A. Caliper
D. All of these B. Gage block
Answer: C C. Sine bar
Answer: D D. Micrometer
3. It is the method of grinding cylindrical surfaces.
A. Centerless grinding 13. It is done then and there by adjusting or repairing the Answer: C
B. Plunge-cut grinding faults come in notice during the work.
C. Through feed grinding A. Preventive maintenance 23. A _________ consists of a slide and swivel vise
D. None of these B. Predictive maintenance mounted on the compound rest in place of the tool post.
C. Routine maintenance A. Milling attachment
Answer: A D. Corrective maintenance B. Relieving attachment
C. Grinding attachment
4. It is the angle between the side cutting edge and the Answer: C D. Reaming attachment
longitudinal axis of the tool.
A. Side cutting edge angle 14. A __________ is used between the cutting tool and Answer: A
B. End cutting edge angle work piece to minimize the friction heat.
C. Side relief angle A. Lubricant 24. ________ are hardened steel devices with a taper shank
D. End relief angle B. Coolant on one end and a 60 degree point at the other end.
C. Water A. Tailstock centers
Answer: A D. Alcohol B. Lathe centers
C. Live centers
5. It is a surface finishing process and is used to produce a Answer: B D. Dead centers
lustrous surface of attractive appearance.
A. Polishing 15. Which of the following is NOT a function of bearings Answer: B
B. Buffing A. To support the shaft
C. Lapping B. To guide the shaft 25. It is a work holding device
D. Glazing C. To give free rotation to the shaft A. Arbor
D. To transmit power B. Mandrel
Answer: B C. Jigs
Answer: D D. Fixtures
6. It consists of surface irregularities, which result from the
various manufacturing process. 16. It is a process of cleaning the face of grinding wheel by Answer: B
A. Lay means of a dresser for removing the glazing and loading of
B. Waiveness wheel and to improve the cutting action of a wheel. 26. The cutting of groove nest to a shoulder on a piece of
C. Flaws A. Dressing work
D. Roughness B. Polishing A. Undercutting
C. Truing B. Necking
Answer: D D. Lapping C. Grooving
D. Any of these
7. A _________ is formed when a shaft rotates in a bush, Answer: A
lines of the bore of a housing. Answer: F
A. Ball bearing 17. What should be the top rake angle to cut brass?
B. Roller bearing A. 0° 27. The operation of producing a beveled edge at a specified
C. Plain bearing B. 15° angle of the end of a turned diameter.
D. Needle Bearing C. 30° A. Chamfering
D. 45° B. Knurling
Answer: C C. Honing
Answer: A D. Undercutting
8. CNC in machine shop means
A. Computer Number Control 18. It is a long, tapered punch used for loosening straight Answer: A
B. Computer Numerical Control pins, rivets and other small parts being disassembled.
C. Communication Network Control A. Drive-pin punch 28. It is a large casting located on the left end of the bed.
D. Computer Network Center B. Hand punch A. Tailstock
C. Drift punch B. Headstock
Answer: B D. Center punch C. Carriage
D. Chuck
9. It is the time lost due to break downs, waiting for tools, Answer: C
minor accident etc. Answer: B
A. Set up time 19. A tool used for turning nuts or bolts.
B. Handling time A. Plier 29. A ___________ is a thread that has a lead equal to the
C. Machining time B. Wrench pitch.
D. Down time C. Long nose A. Right hand thread
D. C-Clamp B. Left hand thread
Answer: D C. Single thread
Answer: B D. Multiple head
10. Refers to the process of separating or removing the
burning of combustible material from the neighborhood of 20. A sharp pointed steel tool used to scribe lines on metal Answer: C
the fire. being laid out.
A. Starvation A. Divider 30. The distance between the crest and the brace of the
B. Blanketing B. Scriber thread, measured perpendicular to the axis.
C. Cooling C. Trammel A. Depth of thread
D. None of these D. Hermaphrodite caliper B. Length of engagement
C. Depth of engagement
Answer: A Answer: B D. Axis of thread

11. When does a chisel get blunt 21. A ______ is used to be test the accuracy of holes Answer: A
A. When it is properly heat treated A. Snap gage
B. When it is not properly heat treated B. Ring gage 31. Used to permit lever shift for vertical travel of rail
C. When it is properly tempered C. Plug gage A. Ball crank
D. When it is not properly tempered D. Depth gage B. Clamp plates
C. Plunger knob
Answer: B Answer: C D. None of these

12. What is it necessary to provide tolerance? 22. A _________ consists of hardened and ground steel bar Answer: C
A. It saves the labor charges in which two hardened and ground of the same diameter are
B. It saves the material from wastage set.
32. It is mounted on the top of the column and is guided in Answer: B
perfect alignment by the machine dovetailed surfaces. Answer: D
A. Over arm 42. A hand tool used to measure engine crank web
B. Spindle deflection. 2. Material having a high electrical resistance and should
C. Arbor A. Feeler gage not be used as conductor of electrical current.
D. Saddle B. Compound gage A. Magnesium
C. Distortion gage B. Copper
Answer: A D. Dial gage C. Nickel
D. Iron
33. Refers to circular milling attachment that is bolted to the Answer: C
top of the table of a plain or universal milling machine. Answer: D
A. Slotting attachment 43. A device used for accurately measuring diameters.
B. Rotary attachment A. Dial gage 3. The property that characterizes a material ability to be
C. Milling attachment B. Feeler gage drawn into a wire is known as:
D. Spiral attachment C. Caliper A. Plasticity
D. Micrometer B. Elasticity
Answer: B C. Ductility
Answer: D D. Utility
34. The process of removing burrs and the gates and risers
left on casting after the molding process. 44. It is used to true and align machine tools, fixtures and Answer: C
A. Reaming works.
B. Snagging A. Dial indicator 4. Stress relieving is also _________ for the purpose of
C. Honing B. Radial indicator reducing the internal stress of steel material / metal.
D. Knurling C. Dial gage A. Quenching
D. Feeler gage B. Normalizing
Answer: B C. Tempering
Answer: A D. Drawing
35. The __________ supports the table on the cross rail
and moves across it from left to right. 45. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of Answer: A
A. Apron the end of a hole, as for a recess for a flattened screw.
B. Bearing A. Counter boring 5. A carbon content in the range of ______ in steel readily
C. Spindle B. Counter sinking responds to heat treatment.
D. Handle C. Reaming A. 0.35 to 0.40% C
D. Drilling B. 0.28 to 0.30% C
Answer: A C. 0.18 to 0.25% C
Answer: C D. 0.12 to 0.15% C
36. Name of mechanism, which a welding operator holds
during gas welding and at the end of which the gages are 46. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, which could Answer: A
burred to perform the various gas welding operation. be adjusted separately.
A. Hose A. Independent chuck 6. It indicates how many times a volume of material is
B. Torch B. Combination chuck heavier than an equal volume of water.
C. Gage C. Magnetic chuck A. Specific gravity
D. Switch D. Universal chuck B. Specific volume
C. Specific weight
Answer: B Answer: A D. Specific density

37. A tool used for measuring diameters. 47. It is used for cutting long pieces of metals. Answer: A
A. Protractor A. Planer
B. Scriber B. Shaper 7. Nickel – Chromium – Molybdenum steel designation
C. Caliper C. Power saw SAE ______
D. Compass D. Broaching machine A. 81xx
B. 74xx
Answer: C Answer: C C. 94xx
D. 64xx
38. A fine grained, salty silica rock used for sharpening 48. It is used for external, internal and relieving of mill
edged tools. cutters and taps Answer: C
A. Oilstone A. Milling attachment
B. Surface grinder B. Thread attachment 8. Moment of inertia is also called _______
C. Rocky oil C. Taper attachment A. Modulus of elasticity
D. None of these D. Relieving attachment B. Weep strength
C. Radius of gyration
Answer: A Answer: D D. None of these

39. Device used to prevent leakage of media. 49. It is the stretching or spreading of metal by hammering Answer: D
A. Gasket A. Peening
B. Seal B. Flaring 9. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being
C. Shield C. Upsetting heated to a very high temperature then suddenly subjected to
D. Stopper D. Bending rapid cooling to improve hardenability of wear resistance is
called:
Answer: B Answer: A A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
40. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids 50. The _______ is the most common of the standard tapers. C. Tempering
normally under dynamic conditions. A. Brown D. Quenching
A. Packing B. Jarno
B. Gasket C. Sharpe Answer: D
C. Shield D. Morse
D. Seal 10. A good general purpose deoxidizer which promotes fine
Answer: A grain in steel
Answer: A A. Copper
B. Magnesium
41. A hand tool used to measure tension in bolts Test 35 C. Molybdenum
A. Tensile range 1. What is the lightest known metal? D. Silicon
B. Torque wrench A. Mercury
C. Hooke’s gauge B. Steel Answer: D
D. Spring balance C. Chromium
D. Aluminum
11. Treatment process that produces a residual compressive the steel under consideration. The endurance limit of the
stress at the surface and residual tension on the inside that steel is: 30. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated with:
results in considerable increase in fatigue strength for A. Equal to the allowable stress of the module of elasticity A. Aluminum
members on torsion / bending is known as: B. Equal to half of the ultimate strength B. Tin
A. Partial quenching C. Equal to module of elasticity C. Zinc
B. Heavy oil quenching D. Equal to 80% of the elastic limit D. Manganese
C. Quenching
D. Shallow quenching Answer: B Answer: C

Answer: D 21. Mirror finish has surfaces fitness of _______ rms. 31. A metal which has a high electrical conductivity but
A. 1 should not be used for high temperature.
12. The flux that should be provided in soldering electrical B. 2 to 8 A. Silicon
connection or commutator wires as it tends to corrode the C. 1 to 3 B. Zinc
connections. D. 2 to 5 C. Chrome Alloy
A. Sal ammoniac D. Carbide
B. Zinc chloride Answer: A
C. Stearing Answer: B
D. Acid fluxes 22. Chromium steel to include heat and corrosion resistant
designation. 32. It improves red hardness of steel.
Answer: D A. SAE 56xx A. Chromium
B. SAE 514xx B. Cobalt
13. The characteristics of tool steel sustain shocks and major C. SAE 61xx C. Boron
impacts is due to its: D. SAE 9xx D. Lead
A. Toughness
B. Stiffness Answer: B Answer: B
C. Ductility
D. Machinability 23. Non-metallic material of high melting temperature being 33. What is the SAE specification number of molybdenum?
used as furnace lining. A. SAE 2xxx
Answer: A A. Quartz bricks B. SAE 3xxx
B. Refractories C. SAE 4xxx
14. The application of electrical current to the corrosion C. Silica sand D. SAE 5xxx
circuit to counter the corrosion reaction is called: D. Dolomite clay bricks
A. Cathodic protection Answer: C
B. Sacrificial anodes method Answer: B
C. Chemical corrosion process 34. Which does not belong to the group?
D. Galvanic action 24. In greater quantity, this element is harmful to the molten A. SAE
ferrous metal. B. AISI
Answer: A A. Silicon C. SEA
B. Aluminum D. ASTM
15. A major component of cast steel is: C. Oxides
A. Silicon D. Sulfur Answer: C
B. Iron
C. Manganese Answer: D 35. It is the ability of the material of resist deformation
D. Chromium under stress.
25. Silicon – manganese steel designation, SAE ________. A. Plasticity
Answer: B A. 72xx B. Stiffness
B. 40xx C. Toughness
16. Normally, cast iron contains 2% carbon or more and C. 92xx D. All of these
silicon in the range of ______%. D. 9xx
A. 1 to 3 Answer: B
B. 1 to 4 Answer: C
C. 2 to 3 36. Which of the following is not a structural class of steel?
D. 1 to 6 26. Cold drawing is also called: A. High speed steel
A. Hard drawn B. Tool and die
Answer: A B. Oxidized steel C. Low carbon
C. Cold lap steel D. High carbon
17. The material for engine radiation is usually made of D. Strain hardening
_________. Answer: B
A. Yellow brass Answer: A
B. Silicon brass 37. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress is
C. Admirally brass 27. The brittleness in steel elevated temperature is known less than the yield point is known as:
D. Navy brass as: A. Plasticity
A. Hard drawn B. Elasticity
Answer: A B. Cold lap C. Creep
C. Red shortness D. Ductility
18. A problem-by product used as an electrode in an electric D. Residual stresses
arc furnace melting operations is called: Answer: C
A. Anthracite coke Answer: C
B. Foundry coke 38. Killed steel is always associated with:
C. Graphite electrodes 28. Material may be stretched and still returns to its former A. Silicon
D. Bituminous coke form / condition upon release of force is called: B. Manganese
A. Plasticity C. Phosphorous
Answer: C B. Modulus of elasticity D. Sulfur
C. Ductility
19. Which of the following does not affect the tensile D. Elastic limit Answer: A
strength of steel?
A. Sulfur Answer: D 39. The good deoxidizer in steel melting.
B. Cobalt A. Manganese
C. Phosphorus 29. What is the SAE specification number of molybdenum – B. Silicon
D. Boron chromium – nickel? C. Aluminum
A. 48xx D. All of these
Answer: D B. 47xx
C. 46xx Answer: D
20. Alloy steel axle under repeated load / stress will D. 45xx
eventually fail if the load / stress is above the endurance for 40. Good stabilizer in stainless steel is:
Answer: B A. Columbium
 B. Titanium
C. Tantalum 50. An alloy that improves strength of steel at high Answer: A
D. All of these temperature application.
A. Tungsten 10. A material that should be avoided in constructing wood
Answer: D B. Molybdenum pattern is:
C. Chromium A. Sap wood
41. Metals are conductive because: D. All of these B. Kin dried wood
A. The electrons are loosely bound to the nuclei and C. Heart wood
therefore mobile Answer: D D. Core portion of wood
B. Having characteristics luster
C. They are on the left side of the periodic table Answer: A
D. They are on the left side of the periodic table Test 36
D. They have extra electrons as exhibited by normally 1. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself 11. The gradual chemical reaction by other substance such
possible balance state A. Zinc that the metal is converted to an oxide or other
B. Antimony compounds
Answer: A C. Babbit A. Corrosion
D. Lead B. Cheeping
42. The yield strength of the rectangular yellow brass 65 tp C. Rusting
70% Cu, 30 to 35% Zn can be increased / improved by Answer: C D. Weathering
_____.
A. Cold working 2. The smallest area at a point of rupture of a tensile Answer: A
B. Tempering specimen divided by the original area is called:
C. Shill casting A. Percentage elongation 12. What is the property of a material which resists forces
D. Heat treatment B. Izod test acting to pull the material apart?
C. Charpy test A. Shear strength
Answer: A D. Percentage reduction of the area B. Tensile strength
C. Torsional strength
43. Used as cast condition steel casting with carbon content Answer: D D. Compressive strength
less that __________ % C.
A. 0.26 3. All are associated with the grade of steel except: Answer: B
B. 0.15 to 0.18 A. SAE 43xx
C. 0.20 B. SAE 13xx 13. What is the difference between brass and bronze?
D. 0.25 C. SAE 10xx A. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while
D. SAE 74xx bronze is composed of copper and tin
Answer: C B. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while
Answer: D bronze is basically copper and tin plus non-
44. Liners are normally made of: ferrous alloy such as manganese, aluminum
A. Cast iron 4. Cold working of steel plates make the metal and chromium
B. Alloyed bronze A. Tougher C. Bronze is reddish in color while brass is a
C. Alloyed steel B. More ductile mixture of copper and antimony
D. Alloyed aluminum C. Harder D. Bronze is mostly an alloy of copper and tin
D. More malleable while brass is a mixture of copper and
Answer: A antimony
Answer: C
45. A furnace used in melting non-ferrous metals is called: Answer: A
A. Cupola furnace 5. The property that characterizes the material’s ability to
B. Crucible furnace be drawn into a wire is called: 14. A liquid metal is called _________
C. Induction furnace A. Ductility A. Mercury
D. Tempering furnace B. Thermal conductivity B. Lead
C. Tensile strength C. Zinc
Answer: B D. Endurance limit D. Aluminum

46. A furnace used in melting ferrous metals. Answer: A Answer: Alam mo na!
A. Annealing furnace
B. Tempering furnace 6. Normal stress relieving temperature for cast steel is: 15. Which of the following elements when large quantity
C. Induction furnace A. 200 to 300°F is harmful to the ferrous metal?
D. Normalizing furnace B. 400 to 500°F A. Sulfur
C. 300 to 400°F B. Silicon
Answer: C D. 450 to 550°F C. Zinc
D. Aluminum
47. All are associated with standard material specified Answer: D
except ________. Answer: A
A. American Iron and Steel Institute 7. Most effective alloying element for reducing
B. Society of Automotive Engineers brittleness of steel at very low temperature 16. It has molybdenum alloy except:
C. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel Institute A. Manganese A. SAE 43xx
D. American Society for Testing Materials B. Molybdenum B. SAE 41xx
C. Silicon C. SAE 6xxx
Answer: C D. Nickel D. SAE 5xxx

48. The ability of metal to be deformed considerable Answer: D Answer: D

without rupture is called:
A. Malleability 8. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength and elasticity 17. Cast alloy steel for very high temperature application
B. Elasticity significantly of about what temperature? A. Manganese-nickel steel casting
C. Ductility A. 900-1000°F B. High chrome steel casting
D. Plasticity B. 800-900°F C. Chrome-nickel steel casting
C. 700-850°F D. High manganese casting
Answer: D D. 600-700°F
Answer: C
49. Permanent deformation or strain may occur without Answer: D
fracture is called: 18. What heat treatment process can cast steel materials of
A. Malleability 9. For a high corrosion resistant stainless steel, what high chrome high manganese etc. be subjected for the
B. Elasticity minimum chromium content is required? purpose machining process?
C. Ductility A. 8% A. Annealing
D. Plasticity B. 4.3% B. Tempering
C. 1.1% C. Normalizing
Answer: D D. 5.8% D. Quenching
 Answer: A 28. The temperature above which the alloy is liquid and Answer: C
will run is known as ______
19. Galvanized steel plate is: A. Melting point 38. Which of the following metal is non-magnetic?
A. Aluminum B. Flow point A. Manganese steel
B. Tin C. Pour point B. Cast steel
C. Zinc D. Dew point C. Alloy steel
D. Manganese D. Cast iron
Answer: A
Answer: C Answer: A
29. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material
20. Major component of bronze casting is: on the heat-transfer surface 39. Which of the following is not a kind of cast iron?
A. Copper A. Low line A. Gray iron
B. Manganese B. Pressure drop B. White iron
C. Zinc C. Fouling C. Malleable iron
D. Lead D. Scaling D. Lead iron

Answer: A Answer: C Answer: D

21. Alloy steel known for its resistance to corrosion, 30. Steel containing large amounts of mild nickel and 40. Which of the following is not used to temper steel?
abrasion and wear that is usually ideal for mill grinding chromium A. Oil bath
of ore or cement and concentrator application. It is A. Carbon steel B. Brine/salt bath
usually combined with molybdenum to increase the B. Stainless steel C. Steam bath
depth hardening. C. Alloy steel D. Water bath
A. Manganese chromium steel D. Cast steel
B. Chromium-moly steel Answer: C
C. Chromium-nickel-moly steel Answer: B
D. Manganese-moly steel 41. Which of the following metals is easy to chisel?
31. The corrosion of iron or iron-base alloy A. Alloy steel
Answer: B A. Rusting B. Manganese steel
B. Crazing C. Stainless steel
22. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material available in C. Chalking D. Cast iron
the market with carbon content of 0.28 to 0.4? D. Fritting
A. SAE 4132 Answer: B
B. SAE 4320 Answer: A
C. SAE 1030 42. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large amount of
D. SAE 4130 32. A corrosion occurs within or adjacent to a crevice A. Manganese
formed by contact with another piece of the same or B. Carbon
Answer: C another metal is called: C. Sulfur
A. Galvanic D. Phosphorus
23. Heating of metal above the critical temperature and B. Pitting
then cooling slowly usually in the furnace to reduce the C. Erosion Answer: B
hardness and improve the machinability is called: D. Crevice
A. Normalizing 43. Which of the following is not a classification of iron
B. Annealing Answer: A core?
C. Tempering A. Siderite
D. Quenching 33. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony or sometimes lead B. Hematite
A. Gold C. Sulfurite
Answer: B B. Babbit D. Magnetite
C. Aluminum
24. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being D. Cast iron Answer: C
heated to a very high temperature then suddenly
subjected to rapid cooling to improve hardenability or Answer: B 44. Stainless steel is obtaining principally by the use of
wear resistance is called: which of the alloying element?
A. Normalizing 34. The cheapest and most abundant engineering material A. Chromium
B. Tempering is ________ B. Nickel
C. Annealing A. Aluminum C. Carbon
D. Quenching B. Steel D. Tungsten
C. Cast iron
Answer: D D. Babbit Answer: A

25. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment Answer: C 45. Which of the following metals will respond to heat
A. SAE 1060 treatment?
B. SAE 1117 35. They are usually steel or steel casting A. Cast iron
C. SAE 1030 A. Mild steel B. Wrought iron
D. SAE 1020 B. Carbon steel C. Medium carbon steel
C. Fire box steel D. Low carbon steel
Answer: B D. Drop-forge-dies
Answer: C
26. A form of correction that develop on a highly localized Answer: B
area on a metal surface 46. The property of steel which resist indention of
A. Crevice 36. An iron has physical properties closely resembling penetration is called
B. Erosion those of mild steel called A. Hardness
C. Galvanic A. Malleable cast iron B. Elasticity
D. Apitting B. Malleable iron C. Ductility
C. White iron D. None of these
Answer: D D. Gray iron
Answer: A
27. The deterioration of organic coating characterized as Answer: A
completely _________ 47. The ability of metal to stretch bend or twist without
A. Chalking 37. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically breaking or cracking is called
B. Rusting combined with the iron is called A. Elasticity
C. Checking A. Cast iron B. Ductility
D. Fritting B. Gray iron C. Brittleness
C. White iron D. Plasticity
Answer: A D. Malleable iron
 Answer: B 7. The operation of cooling a heated piece of work A. High speed
rapidly by dipping it in water, brine or oil. B. Chromium
48. The ability of material to return to its original shape A. Quenching C. Cast iron
B. Annealing D. Carbon steel
after being elongated or distorted when the forces are
C. Tempering
released is called D. Normalizing Answer: A
A. Elasticity
B. Brittleness Answer: A 19. A material that can wear away a substance softer than
C. Plasticity itself is called
D. Creep 8. A metallic element and only metal that is liquid at A. Abrasive
ordinary temperature. B. Corrosive
A. Aluminum C. Tungsten
Answer: A
B. Mercury D. Alloy
C. Zirconium
49. Material usually ceramics employed where resistance D. Zinc Answer: A
to very high temperature is required as for furnace
linings and metal melting pots is called Answer: Bagsak ka na pag di mo alam toh! 20. The process of heating a piece of steel to a temperature
A. Bricks within or above critical range and cooling rapidly.
B. Insulator 9. A metallic element of copper-tin alloy A. Normalizing
A. Aluminum B. Hardening
C. Refractories
B. Brass C. Annealing
D. Clay C. Bronze D. Tempering
D. Chromium
Answer: C Answer: B
Answer: C
50. Any material that retard the flow of electricity used to 21. The process of checking or producing checkers on the
prevent or escape of electric current from conductors 10. An alloy of copper and zinc surface of a piece by rolling checkered depression into
A. Aluminum the surface called
A. Bricks
B. Brass A. Knurling
B. Insulators C. Bronze B. Hemming
C. Refractories D. Chromium C. Breading
D. Composite D. Embossing
Answer: B
Answer: B Answer: A
11. Which of the following is not a classification of an iron
ore? 22. A material used in softening a piece of metal that is too
A. Hematite hard to machine and is done by heating steel slowly
B. Magnetite above the usual hardening temperature keeping it at the
Test 37 C.
D.
Sulfurite
Siderite
heat for ½ to 2 hours then cooling slowly, preferably in
a furnace
1. Hardening the surface of the iron-based alloys by
heating them below the melting point in contact with a A. Broaching
carbonaceous substance. Answer: C B. Quenching
A. Carburizing C. Normalizing
B. Normalizing 12. A soft yellow metal, know since ancient times as a D. Annealing
C. Mar tempering precious metal which all materials values
D. Hardening A. Solid’s Answer: D
B. Bronze
C. Gold 23. A manganese steel containing approximately 0.20%
Answer: A D. Austenite carbon
A. SAE 1320
2. A special metal formed when two or more metals are Answer: C B. SAE 1230
melted together. C. SAE 2340
A. Monel 13. An amorphous solid may be fusing silica with a basic D. SAE 4230
B. Alloy oxide
C. Solder A. Pearlite Answer: A
D. Hastalloy B. Rock
C. Silicon 24. Heating to some 100F above the transformation range
Answer: B D. Glass with subsequent cooling to below that range in still air
at room temperature to produce uniform structure of
3. Subjecting a substance to a high temperature below the Answer: D metal is termed as
fusion point usually to make it friable. A. Annealing
A. Calcinations 14. A fine grained salty silica rock used for sharpening B. Hardening
B. Fusion edge tools. C. Normalizing
C. Boiling A. Eutectoid D. Tempering
D. Super heating B. Austenite
C. Oilstone Answer: C
Answer: A D. Pearlite
25. Heating to a sub-critical temperature about 1,100F to
4. Substances having sufficient carbon and/or hydrogen Answer: C 1300F and holding at that temperature for a suitable
for chemical oxidation to produce exothermally, time for the purpose of reducing internal residual
worthwhile quantities of heat. 15. A highly transparent and exceedingly hard crystalline stresses is called
A. Lubrication stone of almost pure carbon is called A. Annealing
B. Graphite A. Gold B. Hardening
C. Grease B. Diamond C. Tempering
D. Fuels C. Bronze D. Stress relieving
D. Crystalline
Answer: D Answer: D
Answer: B
5. The principal materials used in high production metal 26. Reheating to a temperature below the transformation
working tools 16. A common deoxidizer and cleanser of steel forming range, followed by any desired rate of cooling to attain
A. Hyper-eutectoid oxides and sulfates that are carried off in the slag the desired properties of the metal
B. High speed steel A. Manganese A. Annealing
C. Lead B. Carbon B. Hardening
D. High speed carbon C. Tungsten C. Tempering
D. Sulfur D. Stress relieving
Answer: B
Answer: A Answer: C
6. The softening of metal by heat treatment and most
commonly consist of heating the metal up to near 17. An alloy of copper, tin and small amount of 27. The effect of alloying zinc to copper is
motion state and then cooling it very slowly phosphorous A. To increase hardness
A. Annealing A. Chromium B. To increase strength and ductility if added up
B. Indexing B. Bronze to 10-30 %
C. Knurling C. Brass C. To impact free machining properties
D. Soldering D. Aluminum D. To improve hardness and strength

Answer: A Answer: B Answer: B

18. The material used in high speed processes. 28. Polyesters belong to the group of:
 A. Phenolics
B. Thermoplastic plastics Answer: B Test 38
C. Thermo setting plastics 1. The process of increasing the carbon content to
D. All of these 40. Which of the following has the highest specific surface of steel by exposing it to hot
strength of oil structure materials? carbonaceous material above the transformation
Answer: C A. Chromium alloys of 1650 to 1750 F
B. Magnesium alloys A. Carbonitriding
29. The imperfection in the crystal structure is metal is C. Titanium alloys B. Case hardening
known as: D. None of these C. Carburizing
A. Dislocation D. Induction hardening
B. Fracture Answer: C
C. Impurity Answer: C
D. Slip 41. Addition to lead and bismuth to aluminum will
produce: 2. In the SAE identification code of steel shafting,
Answer: A A. An improvement of casting characteristics the 3rd and 4th digits represents the content of:
B. An improvement of corrosion resistance A. % of manganese in the steel
30. The most important element that controls the physical C. One of the best known age and precipitation B. % of alloy
properties of steel is: hardening system C. % of carbon content
A. Carbon D. An improvement in machinability D. % of chromium in the steel
B. Chromium
C. Silicon Answer: D Answer: C
D. Tungsten
42. Hastalloy contains: 3. It is associated with nickel steel
Answer: A A. Aluminum and nickel A. Magnesium
B. Copper and aluminum B. Lead
31. The process commonly used over thermo-plastic C. Nickel and copper C. Columbium
materials is: D. Nickel and molybdenum D. Tin
A. Cold forming
B. Die casting Answer: D Answer: D
C. Injection molding
D. Shell molding 43. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break 4. A non-magnetic steel is:
A. By forming a bulge A. Nodular iron
Answer: C B. By shearing along oblique plane B. Manganese steel
C. In a direction along the direction of load C. Tungsten-molybdenum steel
32. A space lattice found in alpha-iron is called the D. Into large number of piece D. All of these
A. Body centered cubic space lattice
B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice Answer: B Answer: B
C. Face centered cubic space lattice
D. None of these 44. The maximum hardenability of any steel depends on 5. At small quantity, this alloy is effective for
__________ improvement strength at high temperature
Answer: A A. The alloying elements present A. Chromium
B. The carbon content B. Manganese
33. A unit cell contains nine atoms is known as the C. The chemical composition C. Selenium
A. Body centered cubic space lattice D. The grain size D. Molybdenum
B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
C. Face centered cubic space lattice Answer: B Answer: A
D. None of these
45. Steel with 0.80% carbon and 100% pearlite is known 6. Consist of carbon and alloy used in production
Answer: A as: of precision work tools
A. Austenite A. Chrome-manganese
34. A knoop intender is a diamond ground to a B. Eutectoid B. Titanium
__________. C. Hyper-eutectoid C. High speed steel
A. Cylindrical form D. Solidous D. Chrome-molybdenum
B. Needle form
C. Prismoidal form Answer: B Answer: C
D. Pyramidal form
46. Substance that can increase the machinability of steel 7. In powder metallurgy, the process of heating the
Answer: D A. Phosphorous cold pressed metal powder is called:
B. Phosphorous and aluminum A. Deposition
35. Which of the following timber is used for sports C. Silicon and sulfur B. Granulation
goods? D. Sulfur graphite and aluminum C. Precipitation
A. Deodar D. Sintering
B. Mahogany Answer: A
C. Mulberry Answer: D
D. Sal 47. Compressive strength of a gray cast iron in tone per
cm2 is of the order of: 8. Electro-forming is especially valuable for
Answer: C A. 3-5 A. Decorative items
B. 5-7 B. Good conductors of electricity
36. Super conductors C. 7-10 C. Non-ferrous components
A. Are non-crystalline D. 15-22 D. Thin walled parts requiring a high order of
B. Are the purest forms of metal accuracy and internal surface finish
C. Are the densest of materials is Answer: B
D. Exist at the temperature below 10K Answer: D
48. The presence of sulfur in pig iron makes ____
Answer: D A. It brittle 9. Aluminum alloys for pressure die casting
B. It easily machinable A. Must possess considerable fluidity
37. Select the one that has the highest specific gravity C. It hard B. Must not be free from hot shortness
A. Aluminum D. The casting unsound C. Must have iron as one of the constituents
B. Brass D. Must be light
C. High carbon steel Answer: D
D. Lead Answer: A
49. The hardness of steel increase if it contains
Answer: D ___________ 10. In carbon steel castings
A. Austenite A. The percentage for alloying elements is
38. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the material used B. Pearlite controlled
with lead to reduce the risk of seizure is C. Stalactite B. The percentage of carbon is between
A. Iron D. Martensite 1.7% to 2%
B. Silver C. The percentage of carbon is less than
C. Tin Answer: D 1.7%
D. Zinc D. None of the above
50. Which one is different from the group?
Answer: B A. Cyaniding Answer: C
B. Nitriding
39. Age-hardening is related with: C. Flame hardening 11. It has a powerful softening effect on cast iron
A. Cast iron D. Electroplating and its pressure in cast iron reduces the ability
B. Duralumin of the iron to retain carbon in chemical
C. German silver Answer: D combination
D. Stainless steel A. Aluminum
 B. Carbon B. Stages at which further heating does not 32. High carbon steel has a carbon content of:
C. Silicon increase temperature for sometime A. 0.05 to 1 %
D. Sulfur C. Stages at which properties do not change B. 0.8 to 2 %
with increase in temperature
C. 1 to 3 %
Answer: C D. There is nothing like points of arrest
D. 2%
12. Cyaniding is the process of Answer: A
A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment Answer: B
of steel to increase its surface hardness 23. Delta iron occurs at:
B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath A. Temperature above melting point 33. During tensile testing on a specimen cup and
C. Obtaining cyanide salts B. Temperature between 1400°C and cone formation is observed with _______.
D. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts 1539°C A. Cast iron
C. Temperature between 1000°C and
B. Cast steel
Answer: A 1400°C
D. Room temperature C. Glass
13. An engineer’s hammer is made of D. Mild steel
A. Cast iron Answer: B
B. High speed steel Answer: D
C. Forged steel 24. Gamma iron exists at the temperature range
D. Mild steel A. Between 910°C and 1400°C 34. Kerosine is used as coolant, while machining
B. Between 1400°C and 1539°C which material?
Answer: C C. Near melting point A. Aluminum
D. Room temperatue
B. Cast iron
14. A cold chisel is made of
A. Cast iron Answer: A C. Mild steel
B. High carbon steel D. Stainless
C. High speed steel 25. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature
D. Mild steel range of: Answer: B
A. Below 723 oC
Answer: A 35. One of the following materials is commonly
B. 700 – 910 oC
C. 1000-1440 oC used for bearings.
15. Eutectoid steel the percentage of carbon is
D. 1400-1539 oC A. Aluminum
A. 0.02%
B. 0.30% B. Gun metal
C. 0.63% Answer: A C. Steel
D. 0.80% D. Zinc
26. The mould for casting ferrous materials in
Answer: D continuous melting process is made of: Answer: B
A. Low carbon steel
16. Machining properties of steel can be improved 36. Babbit metal is an alloy of
by adding: B. Medium carbon steel
C. High carbon steel A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead
A. Chromium, nickel
B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium D. Copper B. Copper, zinc and tin
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus C. Iron and tungsten
D. Vanadium, aluminum Answer: D D. Tin, copper, lead and phosphorous

Answer: C 27. A silver refers to Answer: A

A. The pointed location spot silver plated.
17. The ability of a material to absorb energy when 37. The bed of machine tool is normally made of
deformed elastically and to return to it when B. The point on an instrument dial a reading
unloaded is known as beyond which may be dangerous for the A. Alloy steel
A. Creep system. B. Cast iron
B. Fatigue strength C. The temperature at which silver melts. C. Medium carbon steel
C. Hardness D. The temperature of equilibrium between D. Mild steel
D. Resilience solid silver and liquid silver at normal
atmospheric pressure. Answer: B
Answer: D

Answer: D 38. The main constituent molding sand is

18. A ductile fracture is characterized by
A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to A. Carbon
propagation of crack 28. Piston compression rings are made of: B. Clay
B. Fragmentation into more than two pieces A. Aluminum C. Graphite
C. Negligible deformation B. Bronze D. Silicon
D. Rapid rate for crack propagation C. Cast iron
D. White metal Answer: D
Answer: A

Answer: C 39. Cobalt is added to high speed steel to

19. ____ of metals wherein strength of metal is
increased and the ductility increases the A. Increase ductility
heating at a relatively low temperature after 29. One of the materials used for making surface B. Increase fatigue strength
cold working plate is C. Increase hot hardness
A. Cluster A. Brass D. Increase wear resistance
B. Screw dislocation B. Granite
C. Solid solution hardening Answer: C
D. Strain aging C. Stainless steel
D. Wood
40. During cold working metals are worked
Answer:
Answer: B A. Below room temperature
20. The material recovers its original dimensions B. Below the melting point
when the load is removed, it is called: 30. Cast iron contains _____ % carbon. C. Below their recrystallization temperature
A. Annealed A. 0.05 to 0.30 D. Below 200 o
B. Brittle Answer: C
B. 0.30 to 0.80
C. Elastic
D. Plastic C. 0.80 to 1.30
D. 2 to 4 41. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red
Answer: C color and
Answer: D A. Dousing in cold water
21. A body having identical properties all over is B. Cooling slowly in water
called: 31. Tungsten in high speed imparts which of the C. Dousing in oil
A. Ductile following characteristics? D. Dousing hot water
B. Elastic
A. Corrosion resistance
C. Homogenous
B. Ductility Answer: B
D. Isentropic
C. Red hardness
Answer: C D. Shock resistance 42. Tool steel can be hardened by
A. Heating red hot and plunging into water
22. Points of arrest of iron correspond to: Answer: C B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry
A. Stages at which allotropic forms change
 C. Heating red hot and plunging into linseed or A. Physical properties D. Refractories
cotton seed oil B. Chemical properties
D. Any of the above, depending on type and use C. Mechanical properties Answer: C
D. Electrical properties
Answer: D 12. A combination of minerals which can be profitably
Answer: C mined
43. The purpose of annealing is to make a metal A. Gangue
A. Harder 3. The amount of energy per unit volume which the B. Metal
B. Medium hard material will possess when subjected to the elastic C. Alloy
C. Softer limit stress is called: D. Ore
D. Shiny A. Bulk modulus
B. Modulus of Resilience Answer: D
Answer: C C. Modulus of Elasticity
D. Modulus of Rigidity 13. The mechanical treatment by which the concentration
44. The purpose of tempering is to make the metal of ores is increased are called:
A. Harder Answer: B A. Gravity Separation
B. Softer B. One dressing
C. Less brittle 4. ______________ means the resistance to penetration C. Distillation
D. More brittle A. Hardness D. Sintering
B. Strength
Answer: C C. Toughness Answer: B
D. Stiffness
45. A scriber is made of
14. Process which involve the reduction of the metal
A. Carbon steel
Answer: A from aqueous solution by replacement or by
B. Cold-rolled steel
electrolysis are called:
C. Hot-rolled steel
5. _____________ means the increasing hardness and A. Pyrometallurgical Processes
D. Tool steel
strength by plastic deformation at temperatures lower B. Electrometallurgical Processes
than crystallization range? C. Hydrometallurgical Processes
Answer: D
A. Case Hardening D. Amalgamation Process
B. Strain Hardening
46. Knurling is done to
C. Nitriding Answer: C
A. Polish material
D. Stiffness
B. Roughen material
15. Non-metallic materials of high melting temperature
C. Sharpen the material
Answer: B used in the construction of furnaces, crucible and so
D. Smoothen the material
forth are called:
6. The plastic deformation at temperatures above the A. Refractories
Answer: B
recrystallization temperature. B. Ceramics
47. Muntz metal contains which of the following A. Hot Working C. Insulators
alloys? B. Cold Working D. Grable
A. Copper – nickel C. Normalizing
B. Copper – zinc D. Annealing Answer: A
C. Copper – tin
D. Copper – aluminum Answer: A 16. The flux and gauge when in proper proportions will
have a melting temperatures considerably lower than
Answer: B 7. The plastic deformation at temperatures below the that of ethane and the resulting combination is called:
recrystallization temperature. A. Lime
48. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be A. Hot Working B. Residue
made up of: B. Normalizing C. Stag
A. Clad material C. Annealing D. Refractories
B. Composite material D. Cold Working
C. Homogenous material Answer: C
D. Heterogenous Answer: D
17. An iron-bearing slate or chert in the form of compact
Answer: D 8. A preliminary evaluation of the elevated temperature siliceous rock.
properties of materials may be secured by means of a A. Tacomite
49. In testing the material for endurance strength, it A. Stress rupture test B. Hermatite
is subjected to B. Creep C. Magnetite
A. Static load C. Impact test D. Limenite
B. Impact load D. Modulus of rupture
C. Dynamic load Answer: A
D. Completely reversed load Answer: A
18. A mechanical mixture of very pure iron and a silicate
Answer: D 9. The temperature at which this decrease of impact slag
energy occurs is called: A. Bronze
50. Which of the following is not a sound A. Recrystallization temperature B. Brass
absorptive material B. Transition temperature C. Cat Iron
A. Rug C. Rupture temperature D. Wrought Iron
B. Mirror D. Ultimate temperature
C. Carpet Answer: D
D. Heavy drape Answer: B
19. An alloy of iron and carbon in which the carbon
Answer: B 10. An intimate mechanical mixture of two or more content does not exceed 1.7%.
phases having a define composition and a definite A. Brass
freezing melting point. B. Steel
Test 39 A. Allotropy C. Babbit
1. The ability of a substance to exist in more than one
B. Pentectic D. Bronze
lattice form is known as
C. Eutectic
A. Allotropy
D. Protactic Answer: B
B. Grain
C. Crystallization
Answer: C 20. The structure formed when transformation occurs at
D. Diamagnetic
temperaute down to the knee of the curve
11. The science which deals with the preparation and A. Pearlite
Answer: A
application of metals and alloys. B. Bainite
A. Manufacturing C. Martinsite
2. Properties which describe the behavior of the
B. Metalloids D. Limonite
materials under the association of force are called as:
C. Metallurgy
 Answer: A C. Bronze D. Molybdenum
D. Copper
21. The process producing a hard surface in a steel Answer: B
having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond Answer: B
in hardening by cooling of the surface. 40. The art of making definite impressions in sand by
A. Flame Hardening 31. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing agent and means of a pattern for a purpose of producing a
B. Induction Hardening promotes the nitriding of steels casting
C. Cyaniding A. Aluminum A. Molding
D. Carburizing B. Boron B. Pattern
C. Copper C. Extrusion
Answer: A D. Brass D. Die casting

22. It is one in which some elements other than carbon Answer: A Answer: A
has been added to improve change the physical
properties. 32. It is used to toughen and strengthen the steel, to 41. Products that have cross sections of less than 6 inches
A. Low Carbon Steel reduce the grain size and to act as a cleanser and and that are not in the finished forms
B. Alloy Steel degasifier. A. Slabs
C. Medium Carbon Steel A. Nickel B. Gangue
D. High Carbon Steel B. Boron C. Blooms
C. Vanadium D. Billets
Answer: B D. Molybdenum
Answer: D
23. SAE 1020 steel is a carbon steel containing ____ Answer: C
percent carbon 42. It is the process of forging by which the metal in the
A. 20% 33. Materials having a high percentage of alumina or plastic state is made to flow within a die by the
B. 0.20% steatite are known as application of plunger pressure
C. 10% A. Titanium A. Extrusion forging
D. 0.10% B. Vanadium B. Smith forging
C. Refractories C. Drop forging
Answer: B D. Ceramics D. Press forging

24. SAE 2317 steel is a nickel steel alloy containing Answer: D Answer: A
_____percent nickel
A. 2% 34. It is a process of hardening the outer portion of the 43. It is a squeezing process used to finish sheet or bar
B. 3% metal by prolonged heating free from contact with air stock for special purpose
C. 1% while the metal packed in carbon in the form of bone A. Cold forging
D. 7% char, leather scraps, or charcoal. B. Sizing
A. Carburizing C. Cold rolling
Answer: B B. Cyaniding D. Coining
C. Nitriding
25. AISI C1095 designates that it is a basic open hearth D. Aging Answer: C
carbon steel having ________percent carbon
A. 5% Answer: A 44. The term used for most press operations
B. 9% A. Glazing
C. 95% 35. The degree to which a material will deform before B. Stamping
D. 0.95% ultimate fracture A. Coning
A. Brittleness B. Swaging
Answer: D B. Ductility
C. Malleability Answer: B
26. Molybdenum steels are painted ________. D. Plasticity
A. Green 45. It is a process of shearing in which sheet or plate is
B. Blue Answer: B cut out to a definite outline in a press
C. Red A. Blanking
D. Orange 36. The property of a material that indicates its ability to B. Stamping
transfer heat C. Spinning
Answer: A. Thermal conductivity D. Trimming
B. Electrical resistivity
27. Used for members of intricate shape that would be C. Thermal expansion Answer: A
difficult to manufacture by other methods D. Electrical conductivity
A. Forging 46. It is a special case of drawing in which the work is
B. Casting Answer: A rotated and formed by means of a tool
C. Extruding A. Spinning
D. Hot Working 37. A group of heat treatable cast iron moderate to high B. Embossing
strength, high modulus of elasticity, goal machinery, C. Bulging
Answer: and good resistance carbon. D. Stretching forming
A. Gray iron
28. AISI means B. Malleable iron Answer: A
A. Association Iron and Steel Institute C. Ductile
B. African Iron and Steel Institute D. White iron 47. It is a squeezing operation used for flattening or
C. Aluminum Iron and Steel Institute surfacing various parts where small amount of flow
D. American Investment for Steel Industry Answer: of material is involved
A. Hobbing
Answer: A 38. Steels may be carburized and nitride simultaneously B. Stamping
by the process known as C. Coining
29. SAE means A. Nitriding D. Sizing
A. Society of American Engineers B. Carburizing
B. Society of Automotive Engineers C. Carbonitriding Answer: D
C. Society of Australian Engineers D. Cryaning
D. Society of African Engineers 48. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal is made to
Answer: C flow into dies by the application of sudden blows to
Answer: B the material
39. It is used in steels as an alloying element to combing A. Drop forging
30. Which of the following metals increases the strength hardness obtained B. Press forging
without sacrificing the ductility of the carbon steels? A. Vanadium C. Extrusion
A. Brass B. Chromium D. Machine forging
B. Nickel C. Titanium
 Answer: A B. Silver
Answer: C C. Lead
49. It is the measure of stiffness D. Copper
A. Modulus of rigidity 8. Involves the loss of ductility because of a
B. Modulus of resilience physical or chemical change of the material is Answer: B
C. Modulus of elasticity known as
D. Modulus of toughness A. Embrittlement 18. The laminations are made from
B. Pitting A. Low carbon steel
Answer: C C. Cold shortness B. Silicon sheet steel
D. Decarburization C. Nickel alloy steel stays
50. It is the measure of the total energy-absorbed D. Chrome steel sheets
capacity of the material and includes the energy of Answer: A
both elastic and plastic deformation. Answer: B
A. Modulus of toughness 9. A material commonly used for shielding or
B. Modulus of resilience screening magnetism 19. Which of the following metals gets deposited to
C. Modulus of elasticity A. Brass provide an undercut for chromium?
D. Modulus of rigidity B. Copper A. Copper
C. Aluminum B. Silver
Answer: A D. Soft iron C. Bronze
D. Lead
Answer: D
Answer: C
Test 40 10. A magnet is able to attract
1. The maximum stress to which a standardized A. Iron, aluminum and brass 20. In nickel – iron cell, the electrolyte is:
test specimen may be subjected without B. Iron, cobalt and zinc A. Dilute sulphuric acid
permanent deformation. C. Iron, copper and nickel B. Dilute potassium hydroxide
A. Endurance limit D. Nickel, cobalt and steel C. Dilute sodium ammonium hydroxide
B. Proportional limit D. Dilute sodium chloride solution
C. Elastic limit Answer: D
D. Plastic limit Answer: B
11. Which of the following materials is used for
Answer: C making permanent magnets? 21. Which of the following is not a primary cess?
A. Carbon steel A. Carbon zinc
2. The modulus of plasticity is a measure of B. Platinum cobalt B. Silver oxide
E. Stiffness C. Alnico C. Silver zinc
F. Toughness D. All three mentioned D. Nickel – cadmium
G. Resilience
H. Hardness Answer: D Answer: C

Answer: E 12. Which of the following is the best conductor of 22. Select from the conductors below that has the
electricity? least electrical conductivity
3. Aging at moderately elevated temperature A. Graphite A. Lead
expedites the process and B. China clay B. Tin
A. Natural aging C. Porcelain C. Zinc
B. Artificial aging D. Ceramics D. Aluminum
C. Normal aging
D. Supernatural aging Answer: A Answer: A

Answer: B 13. Dielectric strength of a material depends on the 23. The material used for commutator brushes is
material’s mostly
4. It is the tendency to fracture without appreciable A. Moisture content A. Copper
deformation B. Thickness B. Mica
A. Ductility C. Temperature C. Carbon
B. Brittleness D. All of these D. Cast iron
C. Malleability
D. Plasticity Answer: D Answer: C

Answer: B 14. Which medium has highest value of dielectric 24. Generally, the material for thermocouple is
strength? A. Chrome copel
5. It is the characteristic of exhibiting different A. Glass B. Chrome alumei
properties when tested in different directions B. Mica C. Platinum rhodum
A. Allotropy C. Porcelain D. Any of these
B. Anisotropy D. Quartz
C. Isentropic Answer: D
D. Isotropic Answer: B
25. Select the best conductor of electricity
Answer: B 15. Which of the following is a primary cell? A. Carbon
A. Mercury – oxide B. Silver
6. It is one in which specimen, supported at both B. Lead – acid C. Copper
ends as a simple beam is broken by the impact C. Nickel – iron – alkaline D. Iron
strength of the metal D. Nickel – cadmium – alkaline
A. Charpy test Answer: B
B. Izod test Answer: A
C. Rockwell test 26. Any heating and cooling of steel that produces a
rounded or glocular form of carbide.
D. Universal test 16. Which of the following contact point metals has A. Spheroidizing
highest melting point B. Malleability
Answer: A A. Silver C. Graphizing
B. Tungsten D. Normalizing
7. Steel that has been deoxidized with strong C. Gold
deoxidizing agent such as silicon or aluminum, D. Copper Answer: A
in order to eliminate the reaction between the
carbon and oxygen during solidification Answer: C 27. Steel that has been hammered rolled or drawn in
A. Carbon steel
the process of electricity
B. Tool steel 17. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse A. Wrought steel
C. Killed steel wire B. Rimmed Steel
D. Structural steel A. Aluminum
 C. Killed steel Answer: D Answer: A
D. Stainless steel
36. If 1080 steel is annealed by very slow cooling 44. Aluminum pistons are either cast or
Answer: A from 1000 C to ambient temperature, its A. Ground
microstructure will consist almost solely of: B. Forged
28. Which of the following improves red hardness? A. Austenite C. Pressed
A. Boron B. Bainite D. Welded
B. Cobalt C. Cementite
C. Copper D. Pearlite Answer: B
D. Columbium
Answer: D 45. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are
Answer: B made of
37. Steel can be strengthened by all of the following A. Iron
29. An alloy of nickel and copper practices, EXCEPT: B. Bras
A. Monel A. Annealing C. Copper
B. Iconel B. Quenching and tempering D. Bronze
C. Titanium C. Work hardening
D. Vanadium D. Grain refinement Answer: A

Answer: A Answer: A 46. Which of the following gasket materials should

be used on a Freon system?
30. Commutator segments are made of 38. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically A. Metallic
A. Zinc conductive, with electrons as majority carriers B. Asbestos
B. Brass when adopted with which of the following? C. Rubber
C. Copper A. Antimony D. A and B
D. Nickel B. Boron
C. Germanium Answer: D
Answer: C D. Aluminum
47. The non ferrous alloy corrodes in ammonia is
31. What are the most commonly used materials as Answer: A A. Copper
photo cathode for the photoelectric emission? B. Bronze
A. Barium and calcium 39. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of C. Brass
B. Cesium and rubidium steel is known as the : D. All of these
C. Arsenic and boron A. Modulus of elasticity
D. Thorium and tungsten B. Plasticity Answer: D
C. Irreversible range
Answer: C D. Elastic range 48. What is used in main condenser to control
electrolysis?
32. Manganese is an alloy of Answer: D A. Brass plate
A. Copper, manganese and nickel B. Aluminum plates
B. Copper, aluminum and chromium 40. Imperfections within metallic crystal structures C. Zinc plates
C. Copper, zinc and lead may be all of the following. EXCEPT: D. Bronze plate
D. Copper, chromium and cadmium A. Lattice vacancies or extra interstitial atom
B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals Answer: C
Answer: A C. Displacement of atoms of interstitial sites
D. Linear defects or slippage dislocations 49. Which of the following types of packing would
33. The one that is an acceptor impurity element caused by shear be used on steam points?
A. Antimony A. Asbestos
B. Gallium Answer: B B. Neoprene
C. Arsenic C. Metallic
D. Phosphorus 41. When a metal is cold worked, all of the D. A or C
following generally occur, EXCEPT:
Answer: B A. Ductility decreases Answer: D
B. Grains become equal-axed
34. Which of the following is not a method of non- C. Tensile strength increases 50. The process applied to iron pipe, which retards
destructive testing of steel castings and forging? D. Slip or twinning occurs corrosion
A. Radiography A. Galvanizing
B. Magnetic particle Answer: B B. Annealing
C. Ultrasonic C. Soldering
D. Chemical analysis 42. Hard water is water, which contains soluble D. Tinning
salts of which of the following elements?
Answer: D A. Sodium Answer: A
B. Sulfur
35. All of the following statements about rusting of C. Calcium 51. A scriber is made from what steel?
iron are correct, except: D. Chlorine A. Carbon steel
A. Contact with water and oxygen are B. Cold rolled steel
necessary for rusting to occur Answer: C C. Tool steel
B. Contact with a more electropositive metal D. Hot-rolled steel
reduces rusting 43. Which of the following metals has the highest
C. Halides aggravate rusting process which specific heat capacity at 100 C? Answer: C
involves electrochemical oxidation A. Aluminum
reduction reaction B. Bismuth
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic areas C. Copper
and the rust is deposited nearby D. Iron