Important Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue or Black Ball Point Pen.
To mark answers on the OMR Sheet, use Blue or Black ball point pen only.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. There are FOUR sections in the question paper, Subject I, II III,
and IV consisting of Physics (45 Questions), Chemistry (45 Questions), Botany (45 questions) and Zoology
(45 questions) in each subject of equal weightage.
3. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response. For each wrong answer, 1 (One) mark will be
deducted. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the
answer sheet.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 3 above.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any text material, printed or written, mobile phone or any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
6. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.
7. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations
of the Examination body.
SUBJECT SYLLABUS COVERED
PHYSICS Electrostatic (Excluding Capacitors)
CHEMISTRY Solid State
BOTANY Sexual Reproduction In Flowering Plant
ZOOLOGY Reproduction in organism and Human reproduction
 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - I (PHYSICS) 180 MARKS
1. When the distance between the charged particles 6. A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and
is halved, the force between them becomes: Q – q. If the coulomb repulsion between them
(1) One-fourth (2) Half when they are separated is to be maximum, the
(3) Double (4) Four times Q
ratio of should be:
q
2. The ratio of the forces between two small
spheres with constant charge (a) in air (b) in a (1) 2 (2) 1/2
(3) 4 (4) 1/4
medium of dielectric constant K is:
(1) 1 : K (2) K : 1 7. Two charges are at a distance ‘d’ apart. If a
copper plate (conducting medium) of thickness
(3) 1: K2 (4) K2 :1
d
3. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a is placed between them, the effective force
2
square ABCD, as shown in the adjoining figure. will be:
The force on the charge kept at the centre O is: (1) 2F (2) F / 2
(3) 0 (4) 2F
8. Inside a hollow charged spherical conductor, the
potential:
(1) Is constant
(2) Varies directly as the distance from the
(1) Zero
centre
(2) Along the diagonal AC (3) Varies inversely as the distance from the
(3) Along the diagonal BD centre
(4) Perpendicular to side AB (4) Varies inversely as the square of the
distance from the centre
4. A body can be negatively charged by:
(1) Giving excess of electrons to it 9. Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are
placed r metre apart. If one of the spheres is
(2) Removing some electrons from it
taken around the other one in a circular path of
(3) Giving some protons to it
radius r, the work done will be equal to:
(4) Removing some neutrons from it
(1) Force between them  r
5. Out of gravitational, electromagnetic, Vander (2) Force between them  2r
Waals, electrostatic and nuclear forces; which
(3) Force between them /2r
two are able to provide an attractive force (4) Zero
between two neutrons:
10. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point
(1) Electrostatic and gravitational
to another over an equipotential surface, then:
(2) Electrostatic and nuclear (1) Work is done on the charge
(3) Gravitational and nuclear (2) Work is done by the charge
(4) Some other forces like Vander Waals (3) Work done is constant
(4) No work is done

Page [2] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
11. Electric lines of force about negative point 17. The unit of intensity of electric field is:
charge are: (1) Newton/Coulomb
(1) Circular, anticlockwise (2) Joule/Coulomb
(2) Circular, clockwise (3) Volt – metre
(3) Radial, inward (4) Newton/metre
(4) Radial, outward
18. Electric field strength due to a point charge of
12. The electric field inside a spherical shell of
5C at a distance of 80 cm from the charge is:
uniform surface charge density is:
(1) Zero (1) 8 104 N/C (2) 7  104 N/C
(2) Constant, less than zero (3) 5  104 N/C (4) 4  104 N/C
(3) Directly proportional to the distance from
the centre 19. Two positive point charges of 12C and 8C
(4) None of the above are 10 cm apart. The work done in bringing
13. A charge particle is free to move in an electric them to 4 cm is:
field. It will travel: (1) 5.8 J (2) 5.8 eV
(1) Always along a line of force (3) 13 J (4) 13 eV
(2) Along a line of force, if its initial velocity 20. Figures below show regular hexagons, with
is zero
charges at the vertices. In which of the
(3) Along a line of force, if it has some initial
following cases the electric field at the centre is
velocity in the direction of an acute angle
not zero?
with the line of force
(4) None of the above
14. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in
(a)
between two charged plates as shown. The lines
of force look like:
(A) (B)

(b)
(C) (D)

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
15. Angle between equipotential surface and lines of (c)
force is:
(1) Zero (2) 180°
(3) 90° (4) 45°
16. A charge of 5C experiences a force of 5000 N (d)
when it is kept in a uniform electric field. What
is the potential difference between two points
separated by a distance of 1 cm? (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 10V (2) 250V (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 1000V (4) 2500 V

Page [3] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
21. An electron is moving towards x-axis. An 27. The potential at a distance R/2 from the centre of
electric field is along y-direction then path of a conducting sphere having charge Q of radius R
electron is: will be:
(1) Circular (2) Elliptical Q
(1) 0 (2)
(3) Parabola (4) None of these 80 R
22. A simple pendulum of period T has a metal bob Q Q
which is negatively charged. If it is allowed to (3) (4)
40 R 20 R
oscillate above a positively charged metal plate,
its period will: 28. A bullet of mass 2 gm is having a charge of
(1) Remains equal to T 2 C . Through what potential difference must it
(2) Less than T (3) Greater than T be accelerated, starting from rest, to acquire a
(4) Infinite speed of 10 m/s?
23. A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an (1) 5 kV (2) 50 kV
electric field produced by a point charge placed (3) 5 V (4) 50 V
at P as shown in figure. Let VA ,VB ,VC be the 29. The points resembling equal potentials are:
potentials at points A,B and C respectively.
Then:

(1) P and Q (2) S and Q

(3) S and R (4) P and R
30. An electric dipole is kept in non-uniform electric
(1) VC  VB (2) VB  VC
field. It experiences:
(3) VA  VB (4) VA  VC (1) A force and a torque
24. Work done in moving a positive charge on an (2) A force but not a torque
equipotential surface is: (3) A torque but not a force
(1) Finite, positive but not zero (4) Neither a force nor a torque
(2) Finite, negative but not zero 31. An electric dipole of moment p is placed
(3) Zero (4) Infinite
normal to the lines of force of electric intensity
25. If an insulated non-conducting sphere of radius R has E , then the work done in deflecting it through
charge density  . The electric field at a distance r
an angle of 180 is:
from the centre of sphere (r  R) will be:
(1) pE (2)  2pE
R r
(1) (2) (3) 2pE (4) Zero
30 0
r 3 R 32. The electric field due to a dipole at a distance r
(3) (4) on its axis is:
30 0
(1) Directly proportional to r 3
26. The wrong statement about electric lines of force is:
(1) These originate from positive charge and (2) Inversely proportional to r 3
end on negative charge (3) Directly proportional to r 2
(2) They do not intersect each other at a point
(3) They have the same form for a point charge (4) Inversely proportional to r 2
and a sphere
(4) They have physical existence

Page [4] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
33. The torque acting on a dipole of moment P in 40. A uniform electric field having a magnitude E0
an electric field E is: and direction along the positive X  axis exists.
(1) PE (2) PE If the potential V is zero at x = 0, then its value
at X = + x will be:
(3) Zero (4) EP (1) V(x)   xE0 (2) Vx  xE0
34. The minimum charge on an object is (3) Vx  x 2 E0 (4) Vx  x 2 E0
(1) 1 coulomb
(2) 1 stat coulomb 41. An electric dipole is put in north-south direction
(3) 1.6 1019 coulomb in a sphere filled with water. Which statement is
correct?
(4) 3.2 1019 coulomb (1) Electric flux is coming towards sphere
35. Electric potential at an equatorial point of a (2) Electric flux is coming out of sphere
small dipole with dipole moment P (r, distance (3) Electric flux entering into sphere and
from the dipole) is: leaving the sphere are same
P (4) Water does not permit electric flux to
(1) Zero (2) enter into sphere
40 r 2
42. If the electric flux entering and leaving an
P 2P enclosed surface respectively is 1 and  2 the
(3) 3
(4)
40 r 40 r 3 electric charge inside the surface will be:
36. Total electric flux coming out of a unit positive (1) (1  2 )0 (2) (2  1 )0
charge put in air is: (3) (1  2 ) / 0 (4) (2 1 ) / 0
(1) 0 (2) 01 43. If E is the electric field intensity of an
1
(3) (40 ) (4) 40 electrostatic field, then the electrostatic energy
density is proportional to:
37. Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm
are connected by a thin wire. No current will (1) E (2) E2
flow, if they have: (3) 1 / E2 (4) E3
(1) The same charge on each
44. A cube of a metal is given a positive charge Q.
(2) The same potential
For the above system, which of the following
(3) The same energy
statements is true?
(4) The same field on their surfaces
(1) Electric potential at the surface of the
38. A charge q is placed at the centre of the open cube is zero
end of cylindrical vessel. The flux of the electric (2) Electric potential within the cube is zero
field through the surface of the vessel is : (3) Electric field is normal to the surface of
q the cube
(1) Zero (2)
0 (4) Electric field varies within the cube
q 2q 45. Two insulated charged spheres of radii 20 cm
(3) (4)
20 0 and 25 cm respectively and having an equal
charge Q are connected by a copper wire, then
39. A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube. they are separated:
Then the flux passing through one face of cube (1) Both the spheres will have the same
will be: charge Q
q q (2) Charge on the 20 cm sphere will be
(1) (2)
0 20 greater than that on the 25 cm sphere
q q (3) Charge on the 25 cm sphere will be
(3) (4) greater than that on the 20 cm sphere
40 60 (4) Charge on each of the sphere will be 2 Q

Page [5] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - II (CHEMISTRY) 180 MARKS
46. The unit cell length of sodium chloride crystal 52. In the closest packing of atoms:
is 564 pm. Its density would be: (1) the size of tetrahedral void is greater than
that of octahedral void.
(1) 1.082 g cm3
(2) the size of tetrahedral void is smaller
(2) 2.165 g cm3 than that of octahedral void.
(3) the size of tetrahedral void is equal to
(3) 3.247 g cm3
that of octahedral void.
(4) 4.330 g cm3 (4) the size of tetrahedral void may be
greater or smaller or equal to that of
47. Lithium selenide can be described as a
octahedral void depending upon the size
closestpacked array of selenide ions with
of atoms.
lithium ions in all of the tetrahedral voids.
53. Which of the following expression is correct for
Formula of lithium selenide would be:
CsCl unit cell (edge length, a)?
(1) Li2Se (2) LiSe
(1) rc  ra  a
(3) LiSe2 (4) Li3Se
(2) rc  ra  a / 2
48. If the edge length of NaH unit cell is 488 pm, (3) rc  ra  3a / 2
what is the length of NaH bond if it
(4) rc  ra  a / 2
crystallizes in rock salt structure?
(1) 488 pm (2) 122 pm 54. In rocksalt structure (edge length, a), which of
the following expression is correct?
(3) 244 pm (4) 976 pm
(1) ra  2a (2) ra  a / 2
49. The fraction of volume of the unit cell
unoccupied by atoms in a primitive cubic unit (3) ra  a / 2 2 (4) ra  a / 4
cell is: 55. CsBr has bcc structure with edge length 4.3 Å.
(1) 0.48 (2) 0.52 The shortest inter ionic distance between Cs
(3) 0.55 (4) 0.68
and Br  would be:
50. In sodium chloride crystal, the number of (1) 3.72 Å (2) 1.86 Å
 (3) 7.44 Å (4) 4.3 Å
nearest neighbors of each Na ion is:
(1) 8 Cl ions (2) 10 Cl ions 56. The number of atoms per unit cell in a simple
cube, face centered cube and body centered
(3) 6 Cl ions (4) 12 Cl ions
cube are:
51. If a is the edge length of unit cell of sodium (1) 1, 4 & 2 respectively
chloride, the distance between the nearest Na  (2) 1, 2 & 4 respectively
(3) 8, 14 & 9 respectively
and Cl ions is:
(4) 8, 4 & 2 respectively
(1) a (2) 2a
(3) a/2 (4) 3a

Page [6] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
57. Each carbon atom is sp3 hybridized in diamond. 64. The volume occupied by an atom in a simple
cubic unit cell is:
The number of tetrahedral voids occupied in
4a3
diamond are: (1) a3 (2)
(1) 25% (2) 50% 3
(3) 75% (4) 100% a 3 3
(3) (4)
6 8
58. The number of atoms required to prepare a bcc
unitcell is: 65. The radius of the Na  is 95 pm and that of Cl
(1) 2 (2) 1 ion is 181 pm. The probable coordination
(3) 9 (4) 3 number of Na  would be:
59. To make ptype semiconductor out of pure (1) 4 (2) 6
‘Si’, we introduce an element of ……. as (3) 8 (4) 2
impurity. 66. The ratio of radius of cation to anion in an
(1) group 1 (2) group 13 octahedral close packing would be:
(3) higher atomic weight (1) 0.414 (2) 0.225
(4) lower atomic weight (3) 0.02 (4) None of these
60. A crystal may have one or more planes of 67. In a face centered cubic arrangement of A and
symmetry as well as one or more axes of B atoms where A atoms are at the corner of the
symmetry but it has: unit cell and B atoms at the face centers. One of
(1) two centers of symmetry the A atom is missing from one corner in the
(2) no center of symmetry unit cell. Simplest formula of the compound
(3) one center of symmetry would be:
(4) four centers of symmetry (1) A7 B3 (2) AB3
(3) A7B24 (4) A7/8B2
61. The number of atoms per unit cell in a
facecentered cube is: 68. If the anions (A) form hexagonal closest
(1) 2 (2) 3 packing and cations (C) occupy only 2/3 of the
(3) 4 (4) 14 octahedral voids in it, then the general formula
of the compound would be:
62. In which of the following cells packing (1) CA (2) CA 2
fraction is maximum? (3) C 2 A3 (4) C3A2
(1) Simple cube
(2) Facecentered cube 69. AgI crystallizes in the cubic closepacked zinc
blende structure. Assuming that the iodide ions
(3) Bodycentered cube occupy lattice points, fraction of the tetrahedral
(4) All of them have same packing fraction sites occupied by silver ions is:
(1) 50% (2) 75%
63. In a bodycentered cubic arrangement the ion
(3) 100% (4) 33.3%
A occupies the centre while the ions of B
occupy the corners of a cube. The formula of 70. Number of tetrahedral and octahedral voids in a
ccp unit cell will be:
the crystal is:
(1) 8 and 4 respectively
(1) AB (2) A2B (2) 4 and 8 respectively
(3) AB2 (4) AB3 (3) 2 and 4 respectively
(4) 4 and 2 respectively

Page [7] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
71. 6:6 coordination of NaCl changes to 8:8 76. Which of these solids is antiferroelectric?
coordination by: (1) BaTiO3 (2) PbZrO3
(1) applying high pressure (3) KH2PO4 (4) MgAl2O4
(2) increasing temperature
77. In which one of the following unit cells, the
(3) both (1) and (2) constituent species can be arranged in all the
(4) no effect on coordination four possible ways viz, primitive, body
72. In FCC lattice, A, B, C, D atoms are arranged centered, face centered and end centered?
at corner, face center, octahedral void and (1) Cubic
tetrahedral void respectively, then the body (2) Hexagonal
(3) Orthorhombic
diagonal contains:
(4) Rhombohedral
(1) 2A, C, 2D
(2) 2A, 2B, 2C 78. Cesium bromide has cubic structure with
(3) 2A, 2B, D cesium ion at the center and bromide ions at the
(4) 2A, 2D corners of each cube. The number of nearest
bromide ions and the number of next nearest
73. A solid has a structure in which tungsten (W)
bromide ions around each bromide ion are
atoms are located at the corners of a cubic
respectively:
lattice, O atoms at the center of edges and Na
(1) 8 and 12 (2) 6 and 12
atom at the center of cube. The formula for the
(3) 8 and 6 (4) 6 and 8
compound is:
(1) NaWO2 (2) NaWO3 79. An ionic compound AB has rock salt structure
with anions B forming FCC space lattice.
(3) Na2WO3 (4) NaWO4
Assuming anionanion contact, the vacant

74. The radius of Ag ion is 126 pm while that of space in the unit cell is about:
I  ion is 216 pm. The coordination number of (1) 28% (2) 24%
Ag in AgI is: (3) 21% (4) 26%
(1) 2 (2) 4 80. With dimensions a = 100 pm, b = 125 pm, c = 150
(3) 6 (4) 8 pm and  =  =  = 90° the unit cell will be:
75. The number of atoms in 100 g of an fcc crystal (1) tetragonal
(2) orthorhombic
with density d = 10 g cm3 and cell edge as 200
(3) triclinic
pm is equal to:
(4) monoclinic
(1) 3 1025
81. Coordination number of ccp and hcp
(2) 0.5 1025
(3dimensional) are:
(3) 11025 (1) 12 and 6 (2) 12 and 12
(4) 2 10 25 (3) 6 and 12 (4) 12 and 8

Page [8] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
82. Number of possible basic lattices and Bravais (2) nonavailability of electrons
lattices are: (3) crystal defect
(1) 7 and 14 (4) immobility of electrons
(2) 7 and 21
87. In which case interparticle forces are the
(3) 14 and 7
weakest?
(4) 21 and 7
(1) graphite (2) diamond
83. In NaCl(s) Cl occupy: (3) fullerenes (4) dryice
(1) Corners and face centers 88. A solid AB has NaCl type crystal structure. On
(2) Corners and body centers removing latticepoints from the centers of one
(3) Face centers and body center pair of the opposite faces of each unit cell the
(4) Body center and edge centers stoichiometric formula of the resultant solid
84. Which solids possess substances of highest will be:
melting points? (1) A4 B3 (2) A3B4
(1) Molecular solids (3) A3B3 (4) AB2
(2) Metallic solids
(3) Covalent solids 89. In Na 2O crystal, the coordination number of
(4) Ionic solids Na  and O2 , respectively are:
(1) 4 and 4 (2) 4 and 8
85. In Fe0.94O ; fractional presence of Fe2 is:
(3) 8 and 8 (4) 8 and 4
39 40
(1) (2) 90. Super conductors are derived from the
47 47
41 42 compounds of:
(3) (4) (1) sblock elements
47 47
(2) pblock elements
86. Ionic crystals are bad conductor (Insulators) of
electricity due to: (3) dblock elements
(1) less degree of freedom (4) fblock elements

Page [9] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - III (BOTANY) 180 MARKS
91. The innermost layer of anther wall in 97. Geitonogamy is:
angiospermic plant is: (1) Genetically autogamous
(1) Endothecium which is nutritive layer (2) Ecologically autogamous
(2) Tapetum which is polyploid (3) Genetically allogamous
(3) Middle layers which are ephemeral (4) Functionally autogamous
(4) Tapetum which plays a vital role in 98. Endosperm development precedes embryo
dehiscence of anther development because:
92. Pollen grains in most angiosperms is shed at: (1) Its ploidy level is 3n
(1) Three-celled stage (2) It develops from central cell
(2) Two-celled stage (3) It provides nutrition to developing embryo
(3) One-celled stage (4) It is larger than embryo
(4) Five-celled stage 99. Which of the following plant provides safe
93. Microsporogenesis involves: place to insect for laying eggs?
(1) Formation of male gametophyte from (1) Sage plant
microspore (2) Amorphophallus
(2) Formation of male gametes by mitotic (3) Ophrys
division in pollen grains (4) Mango
(3) Formation of microspore tetrads by 100. Perisperm is:
reductional division (1) Diploid sporophytic tissue
(4) Formation of pollen grains and gametes (2) Represents the future gametophytic
94. Pollen grains lose its viability within half an generation
hour of its release in: (3) Seen in seeds of black pepper
(1) Cereals such as wheat and rice (4) More than one option is correct
(2) Pea, tomato, groundnut 101. Double fertilization is exhibited by:
(3) Rose and rice (1) Gymnosperms
(4) Bean, tobacco, rose (2) Algae
95. Pollenkitt, sporopollenin and incompatibility (3) Fungi
proteins are synthesised by ___ of anther wall: (4) Angiosperms
(1) Endothecium 102. Choose the incorrect match:
(2) Epidermis (3) Middle layers (1) Microsporophyll – Stamen
(4) Tapetum (2) Embryo sac – Female gametophyte
96. Vegetative cell in a pollen grain: (3) Pollen grain – Male gametophyte
(1) Floats in cytoplasm of generative cell (4) Ovary – Haploid or Gametophytic
(2) Is small and spindle shaped 103. The stalk by which an ovule is attached to the
(3) Is larger than generative cell but lacks placenta is called?
reserve food (1) Hilum (2) Raphe
(4) Has a large irregularly shaped nucleus. (3) Funicle (4) Chalaza

Page [10] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
104. Synergids are two in number in Polygonum 111. Attractants and rewards are required for:
type of embryo sac and: (1) Anemophily (2) Entomophily
(1) Have filiform apparatus towards (3) Hydrophily (4) Cleistogamy
micropylar end 112. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm
(2) Present at chalazal end with chalaxal develops into:
vacuole (1) Ovule (2) Endosperm
(3) Have a chalazal nucleus and micropylar (3) Embryo sac (4) Embryo
vacuole
(4) More than one option is correct 113. The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac:
(1) By penetrating into the persistent synergid
105. Which one of the following is the correct (2) Through the space between synergid and
representation of the life cycle of a flowering egg cell
plant? (3) Through the degenerated synergid
(1) Thallus — archegonium — antheridium (4) Directly into egg
— sporangium — spore
(2) Seed — flower — pollen — ovule — 114. The pollen grain in angiosperms represents:
zygote (1) Male gamete (2) Male gametophyte
(3) Thallus – conjugation tube – zygospore (3) Microsporophyll
– spore – prothallus (4) Microsporangium
(4) Seed — cone — ovule — pollen — 115. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the function
zygote of the germ pore:
106. Find odd one out w.r.t. endospermic seeds: (1) It allows growth of pollen tube
(1) Coconut (2) Pea (2) It allows water absorption in seed
(3) Castor (4) Maize (3) It helps dehiscence of pollen grain
(4) More than one option is correct
107. A single large shield shaped cotyledon seen in
grass embryo is: 116. Integumented megasporangium is:
(1) Suspensor (2) Scutellum (1) Ovule (2) Pollen sac
(3) Epiblast (3) Pollen grain (4) Embryo sac
(4) Coleoptile 117. The ploidy level of nucellus and female
108. Viability of seeds: gametophyte respectively is:
(1) May be lost within few months (1) n, n (2) n, 2n
(2) Is 2000 years in Phoenix (3) 2n, n (4) 2n, 2n
(3) Tested with 1% TTC 118. Examples of water pollinated flowers are:
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Zostera, Lotus, water lily
109. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. outbreeding device: (2) Lotus, Vallisneria, Hydrilla
(1) Heterostyly (2) Dichogamy (3) Potamogeton, Vallisneria, Lotus
(3) Homogamy (4) Dicliny (4) Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zostera
110. Match the following plants and their pollinators: 119. Intine of pollen grains is composed of:
Column I Column II (1) Lipid and protein
(2) Cellulose and pectin
P. Satalum (i) Colpa
(3) Lignin and cutin
Q. Pinus (ii) snake
(4) Pectin and lignin
R. Ophrys (iii) air
S. Flax (iv) Lizard 120. In flowering plants, a mature 'male gametophyte' is
(1) P (ii), Q (iv), R (iii), S (i) derived from a 'pollen mother cell' by:
(2) P (i), Q (iii), R (ii), S (iv) (1) Three mitotic divisions
(3) P (ii), Q (iii), R (i), S (iv) (2) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions
(4) P (iii), Q (ii), R (iv), S (i) (3) Two meiotic divisions
(4) A single meiotic division

Page [11] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
121. Pollen grains are formed in: (2) Fusion of one male gamete with two
(1) Anther (2) Stigma polar nuclei
(3) Filament (4) Ovule (3) Syngamy and triple fusion
122. Emasculation: (4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
(1) Prevent self-pollination in female parent 129. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in
(2) Prevent cross pollination in female parent liquid nitrogen having a temperature of:
(3) Prevent self-pollination in male parent (1) –120°C (2) –80°C
(4) Prevent cross pollination in male parent (3) –160°C (4) –196°C
123. Which is incorrect statement? 130. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
I. Each cell of sporogenous tissue in anther is (1) Autogamy and xenogamy
capable of giving rise to microspore tetrad. (2) Autogamy and geitonogamy
II. The pollen grain represent male gametophyte. (3) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
III. Pollen grains are usually triangular and (4) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
10-15 μm in diameter. 131. Pollination is best defined as:
IV. Sporopollenin is one of the most resistance (1) Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
organic material which can be destroyed only (2) Germination of pollen grains
by strong acids and alkali. (3) Growth of pollen tube in ovule
(1) I, II are incorrect but III, IV are correct (4) Visiting flowers by insects
(2) III, IV are incorrect but I, II are correct
(3) I, III are incorrect but II, IV are correct 132. Cheiropterophily is the process of pollination
(4) II, IV are correct but I, III are incorrect by:
(1) Water (2) Bat
124. An angiospermic plant is having 24 chromosomes in (3) Insect (4) Bird
its leaf cells. The number of chromosomes present in
synergid, pollen grain, nucellus & endosperm will be 133. Pollen tube at the time of entering embryo sac
respectively: has:
(1) 12, 12, 12, 72 (1) Four gametes
(2) 8, 8, 12, 36 (3) 12, 12, 24, 36 (2) Three male gametes
(4) 12, 12, 12, 36 (3) Two male gametes
(4) One gametic nucleus
125. Synergids are:
(1) Tetraploid (2) Triploid 134. Double fertilization involves:
(3) Diploid (4) Haploid (1) Fertilization of the egg by two male
gametes
126. Which of the following pairs of plant parts are (2) Fertilization of two eggs in the same
both haploid? embryo sac by two sperms brought by
(1) Antipodal cells and egg cells one pollen tube
(2) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus (3) Fertilization of the egg and the central
(3) Nucellus and antipodal cells cell by two sperms brought by different
(4) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cells pollen tubes
127. Which of the following has proved helpful in (4) Fertilization of the egg and the central
preserving pollen as fossils? cell by two sperms brought by the same
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Cellulosic intine pollen tube
(3) Sporopollenin 135. If the number of chromosomes in endosperm of a
(4) Oil content dicot plant is 36, the root cells will contain:
128. Double fertilization is: (1) 72 chromosomes
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen (2) 28 chromosomes
tube with two different eggs (3) 24 chromosomes
(4) 48 chromosomes

Page [12] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
SECTION - IV (ZOOLOGY) 180 MARKS
136. Read the following statements and select the Arrange the figures in the correct sequence and
correct option stating which statement is select the correct answer.
true(T) and which ones are false(F). (1) (iv)  (iii)  (i)  (ii)  (v)
(a) Clones are morphologically and (2) (iii)  (iv)  (i)  (ii)  (v)
genetically similar individuals. (3) (iii)  (v)  (ii)  (iv)  (i)
(b) Lifespan of crow is 140 years. (4) (iv)  (iii)  (ii)  (v)  (i)
(c) Formation of diploid zygote is universal 140. Refer to the given figure and identify structure
in all sexually reproducing organisms. X in cockroach.
(d) Embryonal protection and care are better
in viviparous organisms as compared to
oviparous organisms
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) T T F T
(2) T F T T
(3) F T F T (1) Testis (2) Ovary
(4) F F T T (3) Sperms (4) Egg
137. Select the type of parthenogenesis in which 141. Study the following figures and select the
unfertilized eggs form only females. correct statements regarding these.
(1) Amphitoky (2) Thelytoky
(3) Arrhenotoky (4) None
138. Complete the analogy and choose the correct
option.
Euglena : Longitudinal binary fission ::
Planaria :__________
(1) Transverse binary fission
(2) Simple binary fission (i) A shows mode of asexual reproduction
(3) Oblique binary fission in sponges through internal buds.
(4) Longitudinal binary fission (ii) B shows sexual reproduction through
139. Study the given figures representing the zoospores in Chlamydomonas.
process of binary I fission in Amoeba. (iii) C shows asexual reproduction through
fragmentation in Penicillium.
(iv) D shows external budding in Sycon.
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

Page [13] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
142. Read the following statements about 'Terror of 148. Gemmules are asexual reproductive structures
Bengal' and select the correct ones. present in:
(i) 'Terror of Bengal' is the name given to (1) Hydra (2) Amoeba
water hyacinth (Eichhornia), an algae, (3) Spongilla (4) Yeast
(ii) Eichhornia was introduced in India due 149. Oocyte from ovary enters the oviduct by help
to its aesthetic value. of:
(iii) Eichhornia drains oxygen from the (1) Beating action of the flagellum
water which leads to death of fishes. (2) Finger like projections fimbriae
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii) (3) Contraction of ovarian muscles
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) Uterine contractions
143. Every sexually reproducing organism, 150. Female reproductive hormone that inhibits
including human beings begin their life as a FSH is:
single cell, which is the vital link that ensures (1) hCG (2) Inhibin
continuity of species between organism of one (3) hPL (4) Relaxin
generation and the next. This vital link is:
151. In human ovary, the structure which is formed
(1) Sperm (2) Zygote
after failure in fertilization is:
(3) Egg (4) Sperm and egg
(1) Corpus callosum
144. Maximum lifespan of crocodile is about: (2) Corpus hemorrhagicum
(1) 78 years (2) 28 years (3) Corpus albicans
(3) 60 years (4) 45 years (4) Corpus luteum
145. It is observed that simple organisms like algae 152. Interstitial cells produce testosterone under the
and fungi normally reproduce asexually but influence of:
before the onset of adverse conditions they (1) GH (2) LH
shift to sexual reproduction. It is so because (3) hCG (4) FSH
sexual reproduction:
153. Strobilanthus kunthiana flowers once in:
(1) saves time (2) is rapid
(1) 5 years (2) 12 years
(3) produces variations
(3) 20 years (4) 50 years.
(4) all of these
154. If the menstrual cycle of female is of 35 days
146. Oblique binary fission occurs in:
then ovulation takes place on:
(1) Ceratium (2) Euglena
(1) 30th day (2) 16thday
(3) Paramecium (4) Diatoms
(3) 21st day (4) 14th day
147. Choose the incorrect match.
155. Organisms reproduction throughout the year
(1) Testicular lobules in each testis – 250
are called ______ breeders e.g., _______ and
testicular lobules.
those who show recurring sexual activity are
(2) Mammary lobes in each breast -15 to 20
called breeders e.g.,_______
(3) Sperm count in a healthy male per
(1) continuous, sparrow, seasonal, hen
ejaculate - 200-300 million
(2) seasonal, lizard, continuous, hen
(4) Number of primary follicles in each
(3) continuous, man, seasonal, tiger
ovary at puberty – 6000 to 8000
(4) seasonal, hen, continuous, tiger

Page [14] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
156. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. sperm. 160. Match the column I with column II and choose
(1) Head - Has haploid nucleus the correct match.
(2) Middle piece - Has mitochondria Column I Column II
(3) Tail - Has central axial filament a. Menstrual (i) Release of ovum
phase
(4) Neck - Has spirally arranged b. Follicular (ii) Fully mature
mitochondria phase Graafian follicle
c. Ovulatory (iii) Corpus luteum
157. Read the following statement (A) and phase
statement (B) w.r.t. morula and choose the d. Luteal phase (iv) Breakdown of
correct option. endometrium
Statement (A): The embryo with 8-16 (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
blastomeres is called morula. (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Statement (B): The size of morula in human is (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
smaller than a fertilized egg. (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Both the statements are correct 161. Choose the false statement w.r.t. oviparous
(2) Both the statements are incorrect organism:
(3) Statement (B) is correct (1) The development of zygote occurs
(4) Statement (A) is correct outside the body of female parent
158. Following is a diagrammatic representation of (2) They lay only unfertilized eggs
menstrual cycle of 30 days. What will be the (3) In reptiles and birds the eggs are covered
length of phase A and B, if menstrual phase is by hard calcareous shell and are laid in a
of 5 days? safe place in the environment
Choose the correct option. (4) In oviparous animals after a period of
incubation young ones hatch out
162. In mammalian males, excretory and
reproductive systems share:
(1) Urethra (2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Ureter
(1) A: 10 days, B: 15 days
163. Choose the odd one w.r.t. asexual reproduction.
(2) A: 14 days, B: 11 days
(1) Rapid mode of reproduction
(3) A: 11 days, B: 14 days
(2) Biparental in nature
(4) A: 16 days, B: 10 days
(3) Young ones are exact replicas of their
159. The events in sexual reproduction are: parent
(i) pre-fertilisation (ii) fertilisation (4) Simpler than sexual reproduction
(iii) post-fertilisation
164. Select the odd one w.r.t ploidy.
The sequential order of their occurrence is:
(1) Primary spermatocytes
(1) (ii) - (i) - (iii)
(2) Spermatids
(2) (iii) - (ii) - (i)
(3) Secondary oocyte
(3) (i)- (ii) - (iii)
(4) Ootid
(4) (i) - (iii) - (ii).

Page [15] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
165. Refer the following figures and identify the (1) Ovum  abdominal cavity  ampulla
type of gametes (A, B and C) respectively.  isthmus  infundibulum  uterus
(2) Ovum abdominal cavity
infundibulum  ampulla  isthmus 
uterus
(3) Ovum  abdominal cavity  isthmus
ampulla  infundibulum  uterus
(1) Heterogametes, isogametes, (4) Ovum  abdominal cavity  fimbriae
homogametes  isthmus  ampulla
(2) Isogametes, homogametes, 170. All the following statements are correct about
heterogametes estrous cycle, except:
(3) Homogametes, isogametes, (1) It occurs in non-primate mammalian
heterogametes females
(4) Homo/Isogametes, heterogametes, (2) There is no menstruation at the end of an
heterogametes estrous cycle inspite of breakdown of
166. Birth canal consist of______ and_______ the tissues in female reproductive tract
option which fill the blanks correctly. (3) Estrous cycles occur more often than
(1) Vagina and uterus menstrual cycles
(2) Vagina and cervix (4) It is associated with a period of `heat’ in
(3) Cervix and hymen mid cycle when the level of estrogen is
(4) Vagina and hymen maximum
167. Process of release of spermatozoa from 171. Which of the following are called as
seminiferous tubules is called: sustentacular cells in the testis?
(1) Spermatocytogenesis (1) Interstitial cells
(2) Spermiogenesis (2) Sertoli cells
(3) Spermiation (3) Seminiferous tubules
(4) Capacitation (4) Seminal vesicle
168. Testes descend into scrotal sacs in mammals 172. Match the following
because: Column I Column II
(1) Additional compartment is required for a. Seminal (i) Opens into penile
the complete development of testes vesicle urethra
(2) Developing viscera in the abdomen b. Prostate (ii) Opens into
move the foetal testes downward. gland ejaculatory duct
(3) Normal spermatogenesis cannot occur at c. Cowper’s (iii) Opens into
body temperature gland prostatic urethra
(4) Testosterone can be produced by testes (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
only when these are located in scrotum. (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
169. Trace the correct path of transport of ovum (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
released into the abdominal cavity upto uterus: (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

Page [16] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes
173. Which of the following are not included under 177. How many primary oocytes are required for
accessory sex glands? the formation of 400 ovum?
(1) Prostate gland (1) 200 (2) 400
(2) Leydig’s cells (3) 100 (4) 50
(3) Seminal vesicle 178. Which of the following statement is correct?
(4) Cowper’s glands (1) Spermatids undergo meiosis I
174. Implantation occurs at: (2) Meiosis I occurs in secondary
(1) Zygote stage spermatocytes
(2) Morula stage (3) Meiosis I occurs in primary
(3) Blastocyst stage spermatocytes
(4) Gastrula stage (4) Spermatids undergo meiosis II
175. Structure in female external genitalia which is 179. Choose the incorrect match/characteristic:
homologous to male scrotum is: (1) Hymen – Presence or absence of hymen
(1) Labia majora is not a reliable indicator of virginity of
(2) Labia minora sexual experience
(3) Mons pubis (2) Birth canal – Cervical canal along with
(4) Clitoris vagina
176. Semen consists of: (3) Castration – Choir boys, often castrated
I. Spermatozoa to maintain high pitch voice
II. Spermatids (4) Uterus – In normal position, uterus is
III. Seminal plasma present in line with vagina
IV. Spermatogonia 180. Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and
Which is correct? sperms are transported simultaneously to the:
(1) I, II, III (2) II, I, III, IV (1) Ampullary region
(3) I and III (4) I and II (2) Isthmus
(3) Uterus (4) Infundibulum

Page [17] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

 Vidyamandir Classes

   End of (MOT-1) VMC MEDICAL MONTHLY ONLINE TEST -1 GENERATION-1 | NEET-2021   

Page [18] SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK