Super Problems in Inorganic Chemistry PDF

SUPER PROBLEMS IN
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
Volume-0
by
PMS
PIYUSH MAHESHWARI
SUPER PROBLEMS IN
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
Volume-0
by
PMS
PIYUSH MAHESHWARI
About the author
Piyush Maheshwari (PMS)
B.E.(hons.) graduate, is teaching
IIT-JEE, NEET aspirants from
2009. He started his career from
Allen Career Institute (Kota
centre) then he worked as senior
faculty in Vibrant Academy Pvt.
Ltd. Kota, also worked as Head of
Department in Bansal Classes
Pvt. Ltd. Kota, He also recorded
lectures in Etoos India, currently
he is top educator in Unacademy.
H e i s w e l l f a m o u s f o r h i s
e x p l a n a t i o n s , m o t i v a t i o n ,
c o n c e p t b u i l d i n g , l o g i c a l
re a s o n i n g i n c o n c e p t s a n d
mnemonics. After attending his
c l a s s e s s t u d e n t s f e e l t h a t
inorganic is very interesting and
logical subject.
“Very less percentage of graphite

(crowd) is converted into diamond
wh o c a n w i t h s t a n d a t h i g h
temperature and pressure”
PMSSIR CHEMSTUDIOS BY PMS

PREFACE
Super problems in Inorganic Chemistry has been conceived to meet the
specific requirements of the students preparing for IIT-JEE, NEET,
Olympiad and other competitive examinations. The best way to ensure
that students understand the concepts of Inorganic chemistry is to
solve as many problems on each topic. Students should attempt a
variety of different problems, rather than spending too much time with
the same problems again and again. Students should also ensure to
read each problem carefully, since a small variation in the wording of a
problem can make huge difference in its solution.
The book has ample number of problems of different profiles to help

students to get a grip on the subject quickly. The number of problems
given in every exercise will definitely aid the purpose.
Each chapter of this book has two exercise, except chapter 6 (Types of
reaction).
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT
I would like to express my special thanks of gratitude to my mentors
Respected Kapil Wadhwa sir, Respected Jitendra Pandey sir, Respected
Vimal Kumar Jaiswal sir and my colleagues Mr. Hari Shankar Rathore,
Mr. Nitesh Tiwari sir, Mr. Shashank Garg sir, Mr. Rohit Saini sir, Mr. Kunal
Sharma sir, Mr. Aditya Gupta sir, Mr. Ankush Dhakad sir for their
unlimited support.
I am also thankful to my seniors, my colleagues with whom I worked in
different years in different institutes for brain storming and healthy
discussion.
2009-2011 (Allen Career Institute) – Mr. Sunil Jangid sir, Mr. Aashish
Bansal sir, Mr. Dilip Sharma sir, Mr. Gajendra Singh sir, Mr. M.S. Bhati sir,
Mr. SB Saxena sir, Mr. Surendra Sharan sir, Mr. Deepak Gupta sir,
Mr. Deepak Pareek sir, Mr. Ashish Goyal sir, Mr. Abhinav Sharma sir,
Mr. Arvind Sharma sir, Mr. Sandeep singh Gerewal sir
2011-2013 and 2017-2019 (Bansal classes, Kota) – Mr. V.N. Pathak
sir, Mr. Deepak Joshi sir, Mr. Prashant Vijavargiya sir, Mr. Anumpam sir,
Mr. Ved Prakash Mishra sir, Mr. B.K. Meghvanshi sir, Mr. Nitin
Khandelwal, Mr. Sanjay Sodhani sir, Mr. Sharad Dadich Sir, Mr. Randheer
Jha sir, Mr. KD Pathak sir
2013-2017 (Vibrant Academy, Kota) – Mr. Dherendra Singh sir,
Mr. Tarun Kumar Dabhai Sir, Mr Akash Agarwal sir
Special thanks to Mr. Pradeep Kumar Verma, Mr. Brijesh Jindal,
Mr. Prince Singh, Mr. Divyesh Tiwari, Mr. Vineet Khatri for immense
support and motivation in this journey
I also pay my sincere thanks to all the students and people which are
directly and indirectly part of this journey.
This book is incomplete without the support and patience of my
daughter Dviti, my wife Ankita and my mother Respected Indu
Maheshwari and all family members.
Piyush Maheshwari
Dedicated to My Father
Late. Shri Shyam Sunder Maheshwari

INDEX
Chapter Pages
• General Chemistry
– Exercise-1 001
– Exercise-2 010
• Classification of Elements & Periodic Properties
– Exercise-1 021
– Exercise-2 055
• Basic Chemical Bonding
– Exercise-1 087
– Exercise-2 102
• Advanced Chemical Bonding
– Exercise-1 125
– Exercise-2 152
• Coordination compound
– Exercise-1 185
– Exercise-2 217
• Types of Chemical Reactions
– Exercise 237
• Hydrogen & s-Block elements
– Exercise-1 253
– Exercise-2 274
• p-block elements
– Exercise-1 288
– Exercise-2 325
• d & f-block elements
– Exercise-1 351
– Exercise-2 365
• Metallurgy
– Exercise-1 376
– Exercise-2 402
• Salt Analysis
– Exercise-1 421
– Exercise-2 444
SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY GENERAL CHEMISTRY
1
CHAPTER
GENERAL CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE-1
[SINGLE CORRECT CHOICE TYPE]
Q.1 Select the correct statement for Ne.
(A) It is not isoelectronic with O–2
(B) Last electron enters in s-orbital
(C) The value of ‘m’ must be zero for last electron
(D) The value of ‘l’ must be ‘1’ for last electron
Q.2 The correct set of quantum numbers for the last electron of Na+ is
1 1 1 1
(A) 3, 0, 0, – (B) 3, 1, 0, + (C) 3, 1, 1, + (D) 2, 1, 0, –
2 2 2 2
Q.3 The penetrating power of the orbitals for a particular principal quantum number runs as
(A) s d > f > s (C) f > p > d > s (D) s > p > d > f
1 1
Q.4 If possible values of spin quantum numbers are 3 i.e.  , 0,  . The permissible values of other
2 2
quantum numbers and rules for filling of orbitals remains unchanged, then number of elements in 4th
period is
(A) 27 (B) 18 (C) 9 (D) 54
Q.5 If each orbital were containing three electrons, then the ground state electronic configuration of iron
were:
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6 (B) 1s3 2s3 2p6 3s3 3p6 4s3 3d2
(C) 1s3 2s3 2p9 3s3 3p8 (D) 1s3 2s3 2p6 3s3 3p6 3d5
Q.6 The sum of azimuthal quantum number of the orbital whose electron cause maximum screening and the
one whose cause minimum screening (for same value of 'n') is equal to
(A) The value of principal quantum number
(B) Number of different orbitals present in a shell
(C) Number of different subshells possible in a shell.
(D) Shell number of the penultimate shell.
chemstudios by pms Page # 1

1
Q.7 If an electron has the quantum numbers : m = 3 and s = – , it may belong to :
2
(A) s - subshell (B) p - subshell (C) d - subshell (D) f - subshell
Q.8 Which of the following set of Quantum numbers is not possible?

(A) n = 4,  = 3, m = + 2, s = +1/2 (B) n = 4,  = 2, m = + 2, s = –1/2
(C) n = 4,  = 2, m = – 2, s = +1/2 (D) n = 4,  = 1, m = – 2, s = –1/2
Q.9 The total number of orbitals with n +  = 10, is

(A) 5 (B) 16 (C) 25 (D) 36
Q.10 An electron, that has quantum numbers : n = 4 and m = –3
1
(A) must have s =  (B) must have  = 3
2
(C) may have  = 0, 1, 2, 3 (D) may have  = 3, 4
Q.11 The ground state electronic configuration of Chromium and Silicon are :
(A) Cr : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6
Si : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
(B) Cr : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d4
Si : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
(C) Cr : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5
Si : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p3
(D) Cr : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5
Si : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
Q.12 In ground state of phosphorus atom (Z = 15), the numbers of occupied sub-shells and occupied orbitals
are respectively
(A) 3, 3 (B) 5, 9 (C) 5, 5 (D) 3, 6

Q.13 Quantum numbers of some electrons are given below on the basis of it, arrange them from lowest to
highest energy order.
n l m s
1
I 4 1 0
2
1
II 5 0 0 –
2
1
III 6 2 0 
2
1
IV 6 3 –1 
2
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) II < III < I < IV (C) II < III < IV < I (D) IV < II < III < I
Q.14 “Electron pairing cannot occur in p, d and f-orbitals until each orbital of a given subshell contains one
electron”. This is known as
(A) Aufbau’s rule (B) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(C) Hund’s rule (D) Fajan’s rule
Q.15 Which of the following set of quantum numbers is correct for last electron of fluorine atom?
(A) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = 1/2 (B) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = –1/2
(C) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 (D) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1, s = 1/2
Q.16 Find the species having highest value of magnetic moment in their ground state.
(A) Cu+ (B) Cr3+ (C) Mn2+ (D) Ni2+
Q.17 In ground state of phosphorus atom (Z = 15), the numbers of occupied sub-shells and occupied orbitals
are respectively
(A) 3, 3 (B) 5, 9 (C) 5, 5 (D) 3, 6
Q.18 Which of the following has maximum unpaired electrons?

(A) Fe3+ (B) Fe2+ (C) Mn3+ (D) Sc3+
Q.19 The number of elements which should be theoreitcally present in 8th period of the modern long form of
periodic table, is
(A) 32 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 48
Q.20 The correct option regarding size of orbitals is :

(A) 3p > 4p > 5p (B) 3p < 4p = 5p
(C) 3p < 4p < 5p (D) 3p = 4p = 5p

Q.21 IfAufbau rule is not followed, Potassium atomic number -19 will be placed in
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
1 1
Q.22 If spin quantum number have the values  , 0 and  but all other quantum number have values as
2 2
they have, then the maximum number of electrons in 5th orbit should be
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 75 (D) 33
Q.23 The correct option regarding size of orbitals is :

(A) 2p > 3p > 4p > 5p (B) 2p = 3p < 4p = 5p
(C) 2p < 3p < 4p < 5p (D) 2p = 3p = 4p = 5p
Q.24 Azimuthal and Magnetic quantum numbers are respectively related to :

(A) shape and orientation (B) size and orientation
(C) orientation and shape (D) none of these
1
Q.25 If an electron has spin quantumnumber of + and magnetic quantumnumber of –1 it cannot be present in
2
(A) f-orbital (B) d-orbital (C) p-orbital (D) s-orbital
Q.26 For a 7s electron the values of n,l,m,s respectively could be:

(A) 7,4,4,+1/2 (B) 7,2,0,+1/2 (C) 7,1,0,+1/2 (D) 7,0,0, +1/2
Q.27 What type of orbital is designated n = 2,  = 3, m = –2 ?

(A) 4p (B) 4d (C) 4f (D) None
Q.28 The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of Bromine atom is
n l m n l m
(A) 2 1 0 (B) 2 1 1
(C) 4 1 1 (D) 3 0 0

Q.29 Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represent an impossible arrangement
n l m ms n l m ms
1 1
(A) 3 2 –2 (B) 4 0 0
2 2
1 1
(C) 3 0 –1 (D) 5 3 0
2 2
Q.30 Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electron (atomic number of Fe = 26)
(A) Fe (B) Mn2+ (C) Fe (III) (D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.31 Currently, the last element in group 18 is Radon, Rn(z = 86). Based on the building up principle, what
would be the abbreviated ground state configuration for next element in group 18 should it be discovered.
(A) [Rn] - 7s2 5f14 6d10 7p2
(B) [Rn] - 6s2 4f14 5d10 6p6
(C) [Rn] - 7s2 6d10 7p6
(D) [Rn] - 7s2 5f14 6d10 7p6
Q.32 Orbital angular momentum of electron in hydrogen depends on.

(A) l and m (B) n and l (C) n and m (D) m and s
Q.33 Subshell which has maximum value of (n + l + m) quantum numbers in 27Co is :

(A) 3p (B) 3d (C) 4d (D) 4s
Q.34 X¯, Y–2 and Z–3 are isotonic and isoelectronic. Thus increasing order of atomic number of X, Y and Z is
(A) X < Y < Z (B) Z < Y < X (C) X = Y = Z (D) Z < X < Y
Q.35 For the following set of quantum numbers

n = 4; l = 4 ; ml = 0
(A) It describes an electron in 4f orbital
(B) It describes one of the seven orbitals of a subshell
(C) It describes an electron in a 4g-orbital
(D) It is not allowed

Q.36 Which of the following sets of quantum number describes the electron which is removed most easily
from Cu atom in its ground state:
1 1
(A) n = 3; l = 2 ; m = 0 ; s = + (B) n = 3; l = 1 ; m = 1 ; s = –
2 2
1 1
(C) n = 4; l = 0 ; m = 0 ; s = + (D) n = 3; l = 2 ; m = 1 ; s = +
2 2
Q.37 Which of the following is correct for compounds:

(A) They are same as mixture
(B) Compound can be separated in its components by a physical process
(C) They have different type of atoms chemically combined in fixed mass ratio.
(D) All are correct
238
Q.38 Select the correct option regarding number of sub-atomic particles in nucleus of 92 U :
(A) n = 146 ; p = 92 ; e– = 92 (B) n = 238 ; p = 92 ; e– = 92

(C) n = 146 ; p = 92 ; e– = 0 (D) n = 92 ; p = 146 ; e– = 92
Q.39 If Hund's rule of maximummultiplicityis violated then which of the following species will be paramagnetic?
(A) Fe+2 (B) Mn+5 (C) Cu+2 (D) Cr+2
Q.40 Select the impossible arrangement(s) of quantum numbers -

n l ml s n l ml s
1 1
(A) 4 3 –3 + (B) 3 0 –1 –
2 2
1 1
(C) 2 1 –1 + (D) 1 0 0 –
2 2
Q.41 Which of the following is not characterized by principal quantum number(n) ?

(A) shell (B) size of the atomic orbital
(C) Energy of atomic orbital (D) spatial orientation of atomic orbital
Q.42 Correct electronic configuration of La(57) is :

(A) [54Xe] , 4f 0 , 5d1 , 6s2 (B) [54Xe] , 4f 1 , 5d0 , 6s2
(C) [86Rn] , 5f 0 , 6d1 , 7s2 (D) [86Rn] , 5f 1 , 6d0 , 7s2

Q.43 Select the incorrect statement:

(A) Zn+2, Cu+ and Cu have same number of d-electrons.
1
(B) Electron having n = 4; l = 2; m = 0; s =  values of quantum number is present in one of the five
2
degenerate atomic orbitals
(C) For any value of l, 2(2l + 1) values of m are possible.
(D) There are 2 unpaired electrons in Mn+5.
Q.44 Which of the following is not a pair of isodiaphers:

208 204 234 230 222 218 234 235
(A) 84 Po, 82 Pb (B) 92 U, 90 Th (C) 88 Ra , 86 Rn (D) 92 U, 92 U
Q.45 Select the electronic configuration which does not belongs to d-block element:
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 (B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p1
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1
Q.46 Maximum value of spin multiplicity for electrons in Cr atom is -

(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 7
Q.47 Which of the following has maximum energy ?
3s 3p 3d 3s 3p 3d
(A) (B)
3s 3p 3d 3s 3p 3d
(C) (D)
Q.48 Maximum possible number of elements present in 4th period

(A) 9 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 18
Q.49 Number of electrons in Cu atom having (n + l + m) = 4 is -

(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
Q.50 For Cr(24) calculate number of electrons having n + l = 4

(A) 5 (B) 1 (C) 6 (D) 7

Q.51 In the ground state of Cr, the number of electrons with l + |m| = 3
(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 10 (D) 2
Q.52 If the electronic configuration of oxygen is written as it would violate :

1s 2s 2p
(A) Hund's rule (B) Pauli's exclusion principle

(C) Both Hund and Pauli's principles (D)Aufbau principle
Q.53 A given orbital is labelled by m = –1. This can not be :

(A) s-orbital (B) p-orbital (C) d-orbital (D) f-orbital
Q.54 The set of quantum numbers not applicable for an electron in an atom is :
1 1
(A) n = 1, l =1, m = 1, s =  (B) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = 
2 2
1 1
(C) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s =  (D) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = 
2 2
Q.55 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell is :

(A) (2l + 1)2 (B) 22 (2l + 1) (C) 2(2l + 1) (D) (2l + 1)
Q.56 Magnetic moments of V, Cr and Mn are x, y and z respectively. Hence:

(A) x = y = z (B) x < y < z (C) x < z < y (D) z < y < x
Q.57 In which of the followingAufbau's rule is followed?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.58 In a multi-electron atom, which of the following orbitals described by the three quantum number will
have the same energy in the absence of magnetic and electric fields?
(I) n =1, l = 0, m = 0 (II) n =2, l = 0, m = 0
(III) n =2, l = 1, m = 1 (IV) n =3, l = 2, m = 0
(V) n =3, l = 2, m = 1
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) IV and V

Q.59 Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an orbital in an atom?
1 1
(A) n = 3, l =0, m = 0, s =  (B) n = 3, l =1, m = 1, s = 
2 2
1 1
(C) n = 3, l =2, m = 1, s =  (D) n = 4, l =0, m = 0, s = 
2 2
Q.60 The electron identified by quantum numbers n and l:

(I) n = 4, l =1 (II) n = 4, l =0 (III) n = 3, l =2 (IV) n = 3, l =1
can be placed in order of increasing energy as:
(A) III < IV < II < I (B) IV < II < III < I (C) II < IV < I < III (D) I < III < II < IV
Q.61 Select the correct order of energy level in H-atom:

(A) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d (B) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s
(C) 1s < 2s = 3s = 4s (D) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p < 3d < 4s
Q.62 As per the theory which of the following sub-shell is not possible -
(A) 3d (B) 4f (C) 5h (D) 6g
1
Q.63 Minimum number of electrons in Mn(25) atom having |m| = 1 and s =  is -
2
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

EXERCISE-2
[MULTIPLE CORRECT CHOICE TYPE]
Q.1 Which of the following statements are true regarding variation of Zeff on valence shell electron for
elements in the periodic table as per Slater's Rule.
(A) On moving along the period from left to right Zeff increases by 0.65 in s and p-block.
(B) On moving along the period from left to right in inner transition elements, Zeff remains constant.
(C) On moving along the period, from left to right in 3d series Zeff increases by 0.15 without any
exception.
(D) Order of sheilding power of electron corresponds to ns > np > nd > nf.
Q.2 Which of the following options have elements / ions with same value of spin multiplicity.
(A) Cr, Mn+1 (B) Ni+2 , Ti, C
(C) F, Sc, K, Rb (D) N, P, V
Q.3 For 24Cr which of the following statements is/are correct.

(A) Number of electrons with principle quantum number '3' are 13
(B) Number of electrons with azimuthal quantum number '1' are 12
(C) Number of electrons with magnetic quantum number '0' are 12
(D) Number of minimumor maximumelectrons with same spin quantumnumber are '9' or 15 respectively.
Q.4 Which of following statements is/are incorrect?

(A) Lanthanum is the first element of lanthanides
(B)Actinium violates theAufbau's principle.
(C) Chromium violates the Pauli's exclusion principle.
(D) Total 10 exchanges are possible for d electrons in Zn.
Q.5 The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s1. This represents its:
(A) Excited state of an element
(B) Ground state of atom
(C) Cationic form of an element
(D) More stable electronic configuration as compared to [Ar] 3d9 4s2
Q.6 Which of the following energy level can not exist according to quantum theory?
(A) 3f (B) 5g (C) 5h (D) 6h

Q.7 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) For a H-atom, the energies of electron in 2s and 2p-subshells is same.
(B) The maximum number of electrons possible in the penultimate shell is 18.
(C) A d-orbital can have a maximum of two electrons, with opposite spin.
(D) In the ground state of sodium atom, there are six electrons in one spin and another five electrons,
in opposite spin.
Q.8 Which of the following configuration violates Hund's Rule?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.9 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for the ground state electronic configuration of
potassium(K)?
(A) The 19th electron enters in the 4s-subshell.
(B) There is only one unpaired electron.'
(C) Their is a maximum of 10 electrons in the parallel spin.
(D) It is an exception of configuration.
Q.10 Select the pair which follows energy order according to (n + l) rule (Aufbau's principle).
(A) 4f < 6s (B) 5d > 5p (C) 3d < 4d (D) 4s < 3s
Q.11 Which of the following sub-shells does not exist for an atom, according to quantum theory?
(A) 2d (B) 4f (C) 5h (D) 7h
Q.12 Which of the following having same value of magnetic moment?

(A) Mn2+ & Na+ (B) Co3+ & Fe2+ (C) Fe3+ & Mn2+ (D) Zn2+ & Na+
Q.13 Which of the following having same value of magnetic moment?

(A) Mn2+ & Na+ (B) Co3+ & Fe2+ (C) Zn2+ & Cl (D) Zn2+ & Na+
Q.14 Number of electrons present in d-subshell and valence shell in Cr(24) are :
(A) 3d5 (B) 4s1 (C) 4d4 (D) 5s2
Q.15 In which of the following pairs, the ions are iso-electronic?

(A) Na+, F– (B) Al3+, O¯ (C) Na+, Ne (D) N3–, Cl¯

Q.16 The number of d- electrons in Fe3+ is equal to that of :

(A) p-electrons in N (B) total s-electron in Na
(C) d-electrons in Co+3 (D) total p-electrons in O–
Q.17 Read the following statements and identify correct statements:

(A) An orbital is defined as that zone in space where electron is most likely to be found.
(B) According to Hund's No two electrons in an atom can have same values of all the four quantum
numbers.
(C)According to 'AUFBAU' the electrons are added progressively to the various orbitals in the order of
increasing energies starting with the orbital of the lowest energies.
(D) Two or more atoms of different elements which show a constant difference inA–Z in their respective
Nuclei are known as isotones.
Q.18 Which of the following configuration is / are incorrect according to Hund's rule?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.19 Select the correct statement(s):

(A) In H-atom, energy of orbital can be determined by (n + l) rule.
(B) If magnetic quantum number for an electron is 1 then it must be in p-orbital.
(C) A p-orbital can accommodate maximum 6 electrons.
(D) In orbital diagramAufbau principle is violated.
Q.20 Select the incorrect statement(s):

(A) Particles of liquid are arranged in a regular pattern
(B) Matter is always classified as solid, liquid and gas
(C) A pure substance must be an element
(D) Smallest particle of an element is always an atom.
Q.21 Select the correct order of energy level in H-atom:

(A) 1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d
(B) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s
(C) 1s < 2s < 3s < 4s
(D) 1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p < 3d < 4s

Q.22 Which of the following information(s) is / are incorrect for Fe+2 (Z = 26) :
(A) Electronic configuration is [18Ar] 3d4 4s2
(B) Number of unpaired electrons are 4
(C) Maximum number of electrons having m = 0 are 6
1
(D) Four quantum numbers of outermost electrons are n = 4; l = 0 ; m = 0; s = 
2
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
Paragraph for question nos. 23 to 25
Electronic configuration of elements give an idea about various properties of elements and hence it is one
of the basis for periodic classification of elements. An element prefers to stay in that configuration in
which its energyis least.Asubstance is said to show "Paramagnetic properties" if it has unpaired electrons.
Q.23 Which of the following options correctly mention the configuration which is most stable among Q and R.
Q R
2s 2p 4s 3d
-I -I
2s 2p 4s 3d
- II - II
2s 2p 4s 3d
- III - III
(A) Q - I and R - I (B) Q - I and R - II

(C) Q - II and R - I (D) none of the above options
Q.24 Which of the following is expected to be paramagnetic :

(A) Fe (B) Zn (C) Ne (D) Be
Q.25 Specie having configuration same as ns2np4 where 'n' represents last shell is/are :
(A) 32 (B) 34Se79 (C) 9F19 (D) Both 16O32 and 34Se79
16O
Paragraph for question nos. 26 & 27

When an atom in ground state is subjected to energy radiations, it gets excited to higher energy level.
Depending upon the energy provided, different excited state can be obtained. If S-I represents ground
state of He, S-II represents 1s1 2s1 and S-III represents 1s1 2p1, then
Q.26 In which of the state both the electrons will be closest to the nucleus.
(A) S-I (B) S-II (C) S-III (D) All are at same distance
Q.27 Which of the state will have maximum energy.

(A) S-I (B) S-II (C) S-III (D)All have same

Information-1 : Principal quantum number 'n' is defined as 1,2,3,......
Information-2 : Azimuthal quantum number ' l ' is defined as 1 to (n + 2) in integral steps of 1
Information-3 : Magnetic quantum number 'm' is defined as – l / 2 to + l / 2
(including zero, if any)
in integral steps.
Information-4 : Spin quantum number 's' has five possible values  2,1,0,1,2
Information-5 : The sub-shell corresponding to l = 1,2,3,4,5....designated as A,B,C,D,E,F...
respectively.
Information-6 : The values of m for a given value of l give the number of orbitals in a sub-shell.
Information-7 : The principles for filling electrons in the shells remain unchanged.
On the basis of above informations, answer the following questions.
Q.28 The second period would begin with–

(A) Gallium (B) Iron (C) Cesium (D)Arsenic
Q.29 For the element having atomic number 62, last electron enters in
(A) 1C (B) 2A (C) 3A (D) 2B
Q.30 The number of orbitals & the maximum number of electrons that can be filled in a F sub-shell are
respectively.
(A) 6, 36 (B) 7, 35 (C) 7, 42 (D) 6,30

Imagine a universe in which the four quantum number can have the following values.
n = 1 to 
l = 0 to n
m = – (l +1) to + (l +1) including zero
1 1
s=  and –
2 2
Answer the following questions based on the above values.
Q.31 Total number of elements in the III period of periodic table is
(A) 8 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 15
Q.32 If AUFBAU (n + l) rule is valid then block of 30Zn is


Q.33 Spin only magnetic moment () of the element sulphur (16S) is
(A) 3 B.M. (B) 0 B.M. (C) 8 B.M. (D) 15 B.M.

Arrangement of electrons into the orbitals of different atoms take place according to theAufbau principle
which is based on the Pauli's exclusion principle, the Hund's rule of maximum multiplicityand the relative
energies of the orbitals.
As per Aufbau principle, in the ground state of atom, orbitals are filled in order of their increasing
energies and according to Pauli, No two electrons in an atom can have same values of all four quantum
numbers.
While Hund's rule deals with filling of electrons in degenerate atomic orbitals of a subshell.
Q.34 The orbital diagram in which both Hund's rule andAufbau principle are violated :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.35 Which of the following electronic configuration violates Pauli's exclusion principle?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.36 For the following four electronic configuration (remaining inner orbitals are completely filled) select the
correct option ?
(i) (ii)
3s 3p 3s 3p
(iii) (iv)
3s 3p
3s 3p
(A) (iii) violates all three rules of electronic configuration.
(B) order of spin multiplicity (iii) > (i) > (ii) > (iv)
(C) stability order (iii) > (i) > (ii)
(D) above all are incorrect

[MATCH THE COLUMN]

Q.37 Instructions : Column I represents some characteristics associated with electronic configuration and
column II represents partial electronic configurations. Match them appropriately.
Column I Column II
ns np
(A) Violation of Pauli's Exclusion (P)
ns (n–1)d
(B) Violation of Hund's rule (Q)
ns (n–1)d np
(C) Violation ofAufbau's principle (R)
ns nd
(D) Result of extra stabilityof half filled (S)
configuration hence correct

ns np
configuration (T)
Q.38 Column-I Column-II

(A) Zero unpaired electron (P) Na+, Mg2+, F¯
(B) Same number of electron (Q) F¯, Mg, O2–
in s & p subshells.
(C) Same number of electrons with (R) Mg, Ne, O2–
the l = 1
(D) Isoelectronic species (S) Na+, Ne, F–
(T) Cl–, Ca, S– –

Q.39 Column I Column II

(A) Violation ofAUFBAU principle (P) Ca
(B) Possible species which has 12 electrons for l = 1 (Q) Cr
(C) Maximum possible species which has same (n + l) (R) Mn

value for last electron
(D) Maximum possible species which can have even (S) Co

number of electrons for m = –1
(T) Ag

(A) 4s (P) n = 4, l = 3, m = 0
(B) 2p (Q) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1
(C) 3d (R) n = 3, l = 2, m = –1
(D) 4f (S) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0
(T) n = 4, l = 3, m = –3
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.41 Calculate ‘Q’ for last electron of Ga.
where Q = n + l + maximum possible value of ‘m’.
Q.42 If one orbital occupied 3 electron than calculate the number of element in a 10th period of the periodic
table?
[If your answer is 79 so write 0079]
Q.43 Find the number of electrons having the value of azimuthal quantum number 'l' = 1 for Cd2+.
Q.44 If for any electron in an orbital another parameter ‘B’ is defined as

B = n + l + m, where n, l , m are the quantum numbers of that orbital then what will be the maximum
value of B for the last electron of 35Br.
Q.45 In case of nitrogen, if M1 represents spin multiplicity if Hund’s rule is followed and M2 represents spin
M1
multiplicity if onlyHund’s Rule is violated then the value of M will be :
2

Q.46 Calculate total number of orbitals having (n + ) value = 8 and magnetic quantum number a non-
zero quantity.
Q.47 According to Aufbau's Principle, the maximum number of electron that can be accomodated in the
outermost orbit (ab) and the penultimate orbit (cd) is :
[Fill the OMR as abcd. For example, if these numbers are ab = 02 and cd = 08, then fill OMR
as 0208]
Q.48 What is the maximum number of electrons possible in Ni+ having same spin.
Q.49 How many orbitals, contain at least one electron in the ground state electronic configuration of
Chromium atom?
Q.50 An electron has the quantum numbers n = 3 and m = 2. For this electron, the value of 'l' should be
[If the only possible 'l' value is x, then fill OMR as 000x and if the possible 'l' values are x,y
and z, then fill OMR as 0xyz, where x, y and z are in the increasing order]
Q.51 Maximum number of electrons in parallel spin in the ground state of Chromium atom is :
Q.52 If the magnetic quantum number for an electron is –3, the minimum value for its principal quantum
number is :
Q.53 The mass number of an element 'X' is 'A'. If X4– contains 10 electrons and 6 neutrons, then the value of
A
is
3
Q.54 Calculate the total number of p-orbitals electrons present in Cu (29) atom.
(If your answer is 12 so write is 0012)
Q.55 Find the total number of elements present in 5th period?

Q.56 Calculate the total number of electron for Fe having n + l + m = 2.


Q.57 Find the total number of paramagnetic species among the following?
Sc3+, Fe3+ , Mn2+, Co4+, Co3+, Cr+, Fe2+, Mn3+, Cr3+, Zn2+, Ti+4, V3+, Na+, Mg2+, Ca2+
Q.58 Calculate the total number of p-orbitals electrons present in Ag (47) atom.
lm
Q.59 Find maximum number of electrons in 13Al in which = 0.
n
Q.60 How many total number of orbitals are present in 30Zn which has m (magnetic quantum number) = 0 ?
Q.61 Calculate maximummultiplicityvalue for 'd' electron of Co+x ion if ithas magnetic moment value 24 B.M.
Q.62 Magnetic moment of an ion of Mn+x is 3.873 B.M. If number of unpaired electron is 'y' in this ion the
value of (x + y):
Q.63 Maximum possible number of electrons in an atom having following quantum numbers n = 4 ; |ml | =1 ;
1
s=+ .
2
Q.64 Maximum number of possible exchanges in d7 configuration:

[Subtract your answer by 5]
Q.65 If Hund's rule is violated and all other rules stands true then find number of among followings which are
having number of unpaired electrons greater than those present in Fe2+.
Cr+3, Mn+2, Cu+1, Zn+1, Co+1, Sc3+, Ni2+

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 D Q.2 D Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 C
Q.6 D Q.7 D Q.8 D Q.9 C Q.10 B
Q.11 D Q.12 B Q.13 A Q.14 C Q.15 A
Q.16 C Q.17 B Q.18 A Q.19 C Q.20 C
Q.21 C Q.22 C Q.23 C Q.24 A Q.25 D
Q.26 D Q.27 D Q.28 C Q.29 C Q.30 D
Q.31 D Q.32 A Q.33 B Q.34 B Q.35 D
Q.36 C Q.37 C Q.38 C Q.39 C Q.40 B
Q.41 C Q.42 A Q.43 C Q.44 D Q.45 B
Q.46 D Q.47 C Q.48 D Q.49 D Q.50 D
Q.51 D Q.52 A Q.53 A Q.54 A Q.55 C
Q.56 C Q.57 C Q.58 D Q.59 C Q.60 B
Q.61 B Q.62 C Q.63 B
EXERCISE-2
Q.1 AB Q.2 ABCD Q.3 ABCD Q.4 ACD Q.5 BCD
Q.6 AC Q.7 ABCD Q.8 BC Q.9 ABC Q.10 BC
Q.11 AC Q.12 BCD Q.13 BD Q.14 AB Q.15 AC
Q.16 BD Q.17 ACD Q.18 AB Q.19 D Q.20 ABC
Q.21 BC Q.22 ACD Q.23 B Q.24 A Q.25 D
Q.26 A Q.27 C Q.28 B Q.29 D Q.30 B
Q.31 C Q.32 B Q.33 B Q.34 D Q.35 B
Q.36 D
Q.37 (A) RT (B) PRT or PR (C) PORS or PRS (D) Q
Q.38 (A)PQRST (B) PS (C) PQRST (D) PS
Q.39 (A) QT (B) PQRS (C) QRS (D) PST
Q.40 (A) S; (B) Q; (C) R; (D) PT
Q.41 0006 Q.42 0108 Q.43 0018 Q.44 0006 Q.45 0002
Q.46 0012 Q.47 0818 Q.48 0015 Q.49 0015 Q.50 0002
Q.51 0015 Q.52 0004 Q.53 0004 Q.54 0012 Q.55 0018
Q.56 0004 Q.57 0009 Q.58 0018 Q.59 0009 Q.60 0007
Q.61 0004 or 0005 Q.62 0007 Q.63 0006 Q.64 0006 Q.65 0003

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS & PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES
2
CHAPTER
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS &
PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES
EXERCISE-1
PERIODIC TABLE
Q.1 If A, B and C are the three element of Dobereiner's Triad and atomic mass of A and B are 7 and 15
respectively then the atomic mass of C is
(A) 1 (B) 11 (C) 23 (D) 25
Q.2 According to the Lother Meyer's curve which of the following statement is incorrect.
(A) The element having similar properties will occupy the same position in the curve.
(B) Alkaline earth metals are at the peaks of the curve.
(C) Halogens are at ascending part of the curve.
(D) The atomic volume of the elements in a period initially decreases and then increases.
Q.3 For which set of elements “diagonal relationship” is not existing.

(A) B, Si (B) Li, Mg (C) B, Mg (D) Be, Al
Q.4 Which of the following element is not a 'p' block element.

(A) Bi (B) Ga (C) Sn (D) Cd
Q.5 Which of following is not correctlymatched

(A) d-block element : electronic configuration is ns0–2 (n – 1)d1 – 10.
(B) p-block element : electronic configuration is ns1 – 2 np1 – 6
(C) s-block element : electronic configuration is ns1 – 2
(D) Ce : f-block’s first member.
Q.6 Which is not transition element.

(A) Cu (B) Ac (C) Zn (D) Pd
Q.7 Which of the following atomic numbers represent s, p and d-block respectively.
(A) 10, 41, 23 (B) 20, 82,46 (C) 4, 44, 19 (D) 32, 55, 16

Q.8 The “atomic volume” of an element is defined as

(A) the volume occupied by an atom
(B) the volume occupied by one gram of an atom
(C) the volume occupied by the one gram-atom of an element
(D) none of these
Q.9 Find the odd element from the given electronic configuration.
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (B) 1s2 2s1
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1 (D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1
Q.10 The total number of element present in 4th period in the long form of periodic table.
(A) 18 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 32
Q.11 An element having electronic configuration of [Ar] 3d3 4s2 belongs to

Q.12 Which of the following element is/are of d-block element (for which the atomic numbers are given).
(A) 19 (B) 81 (C) 46 (D) 58
Q.13 The elements in which 5f-orbitals are progressively filled are called as
(A) Lanthanides (B)Actinides
(C) Transition elements (D) None of these
Q.14 Which of the following is ‘d’ block element.

(A) Bi (B) Sn (C) Nb (D) In
Q.15 The elements P, Q and R are one of the Dobereiner's triad of elements in the increasing order of their
atomic masses. If the atomic masses of P, Q and R are x, y and z respectively, then
(A) x = 2y + z (B) z = x + y (C) z = 2x – y (D) x + y + z = 3y
Q.16 Which of the following statement is incorrect for Lother Mayer's curve ?
(A) Atomic volumes of elements were taken on y-axis and atomic masses of elements on x-axis.
(B) All the peaks were occupied by alkali metals.
(C) Halogens were present on the descending curve.
(D) Alkaline earth metals were present on the descending curve.

Q.17 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Li shows similarity in properties with Mg
(B) Li, Na and K forms Doberenier's Triads.
(C) In the Lother Meyer's curve alkaline earth metals occupy the ascending positions of the curve
(D) IUPAC name of the element having atomic number 112 is Uub.
Q.18 The period number, group number, and block of the element having atomic number 39 will be :
(A) 5, 5, d (B) 5, 4, d (C) 5, 3, d (D) 5, 15, p
Q.19 In the Modern long form of periodic table, 4th period contains only 18 elements. It is due to filling of
electrons in the :
(A) 4s, 4p and 4d sub-shells (B) 4s, 3d and 4p sub-shells
(C) 4s, 4p, 4d and 4f sub-shells (D) 3s, 3p and 3d sub-shells
Q.20 Which of the following element does not belongs to p-block?

(A) Cl (B) S (C) H (D) Ne
Q.21 If x, y and z are the three elements of Dobereiner's triad and the atomic masses of x and z are 7 and 23
respectively, the atomic mass of y is
(A) 15 (B) 11 (C) 12 (D) 24
Q.22 In the general electronic configuration

(n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2, if value of n = 7 the configuration will be :
(A) Lanthanides (B)Actinides (C) Transition elements (D) None
Q.23 Find the species not having same number of d-electron in last possible filled d-subshell as in Zn.
(A) Ga (B) Pd (C) Cd (D) Pt
Q.24 According to modern periodic law, properties of the elements are the periodic functions of their
(A)Atomic weight (B) Surface area (C)Atomic number (D) Density
Q.25 The element having the lowest atomic number and a ground state electronic configuration of (n–1) d6 ns2
is placed in
(A) Fifth period (B) Fourth period (C) Sixth period (D) Third period
Q.26 Select the configuration of neutral atom(s), which belongs to s-block?

(A) [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 (B) [Xe] 5d1 6s2 (C) [Xe] 4f7 3d0 6s2 (D) [Xe] 6s2

Q.27 Select the pair of elements which are present in same group but in different sub group in Mendeleev's
periodic table.
(A) F, Ar (B) Cl, B (C) K, Cu (D) Be, Mg
Q.28 Select the pair of elements which are present in same period in long form of periodic table.
(A) C, Ar (B) Sc, Y (C) Na, La (D) P, S
Q.29 If an orbital can have maximum 4 electrons then, how may elements can be present in 8th period?
(A) 100 (B) 75 (C) 128 (D) 64
Q.30 Principle of modern periodic table is given by :

(A) Mosley (B) Mendeleef (C) Doberinier (D) Newland
Q.31 In the Lother - Mayer graph, A,B,C,D & E element are

E
D
C
Atomic Volume
B
A
Atomic Weight
(A) Halogens (B)Alkaline earth metals

(C)Alkali metals (D) Transition metals
Q.32 Most of the 'd' block elments are known as :

(A)Alkali metals (B)Alkaline earth metals
(C) Innertransition element (D) Transition element
Q.33 If the atomic number of an element is 33, it will be placed in the periodic table in the _________
(A) first group (B) third group (C) fifth group (D) seventh group

Q.34 Match column I (atomic number) with column II (position in the Periodic Table) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below:
Column I Column II
I. 52 P. s-block
II. 56 Q. p-block
III. 57 R. d-block
IV. 60 S. f-block
(A) I – P, II – Q, III – S, IV – R (B) I – Q, II – P, III – S, IV – R
(C) I – P, II – Q, III – R, IV – S (D) I – Q, II – P, III – R, IV – S
Q.35 In which group of periodic table, the elements of 4th, 5th and 6th period have different ground state
electronic configuration for last two shells, from each other?
(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 18
Q.36 Identify the atom which has ground state configuration [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p1
(A)Al (B) Ga (C) In (D) Tl
Q.37 Name of element with atomic number (z) = 110.

(A) Unnilbium (B)Ununnillium (C)Unnilunium (D) Ununtrium
Q.38 Which of the following statement is correct for an element having atomic number (z) = 98?
(A) It is s-block element. (B) It is p-block element.
(C) It is transition element. (D) It is inner transition element.
Q.39 Which of the following is not a bridge element of in Mendeleev's table?

(A) Mg (B)Al (C) Si (D) Ar
Q.40 What will be the atomic number of yet undiscovered element directly below Fr in periodic table?
(A) 117 (B) 118 (C) 119 (D) 120
Q.41 Which of the following is p-block element.

(A) Zn (B) Rb (C) Pb (D) Nb
Q.42 The outer electronic configuration of an element in ground state is 5s2 4d10 5p3. The properties of
element is likely to be similar to that of
(A) Chlorine (B) Sulphur (C) Phosphorus (D)Aluminium
Q.43 In the sixth period, the orbitals are filled as-

(A) 6s 5f 6d 6p (B) 6s 4f 5d 6p (C) 5s 5p 5d 6p (D) 6s 6p 6d 6f

Z=5
Q.44
X
In above figure if 'Z' is the atomic number then identify the period number of element 'X' in periodic
table-
(A) 5th (B) 4th (C) 6th (D) 7th
Q.45 Identify the group number of Tl element in periodic table.

(A) Group number = 13 (B) Group number = 4
(C) Group number = 16 (D) Group number = 7
Q.46 Mendleeve left the space for elements in periodic table, the element is not ______.
(A) Ga (B) Sc (C) Ge (D) Te
Q.47 The number of elements in 6th period of the modern periodic table are :
(A) 8 (B) 18 (C) 32 (D) None of these
Q.48 The number of groups in modern periodic table that belong to d-block are :
(A) 18 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 2
Q.49 Which of the following is a transition element?

(A) Zn (B) Cd (C) Hg (D) Cu
Q.50 The number of elements present in the group 3 of the modern periodic table is:
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32
Q.51 The elements with given atomic numbers that belong to the group number 16 of the modern periodic
table is:
(A) 34, 52 (B) 15, 33 (C) 38, 56 (D) None of these
Q.52 In the modern periodic table the maximum number of elements are present in :
(A) Group I and period number 5 (B) Group III and period number 6
(C) Group V and period number 7 (D) Same for all

EFFECTIVE NUCLEAR CHARGE

Q.53 Choose the correct statement from the following :
(A) Zeff on ‘d’ electron of Sc2+ is 18
(B) Zeff values on an electron present in 4s and 4p orbital of an atom are identical.
(C) Zeff values on an electron present in 3s and 4s orbital of an atom are identical.
(D) the screening constant value on one electron in H– ion is 0.35.
Q.54 According to Slater rule, which set of elements show incorrect order of zeff.
(A) Al > Mg (B) Na > Li (C) K > Na (D) None of these
Q.55 The value of screening constant () for N-atom is 3.10 and that for O-atom is
(A) 3.10 (B) 2.75 (C) 3.45 (D) 3.80
Q.56 In a given shell the order of screening effect is

(A) s > p > f > d (B) s > d > p > f (C) s > p > d > f (D) s < p < d < f
Q.57 Calculate the effective nuclear charge for the outer most electron of oxygen atom.
(A) 3.45 (B) 4.55 (C) 0.85 (D) 6.4
Q.58 What will be the difference of Zeff in N and O for last electron.
(A) 0.35 (B) 0.65 (C) 2.1 (D) 0.85
Q.59 The outermost and penultimate shell of an element contains 2 and 8 electrons, respectively. The effective
nuclear charge for the valence electron of this element, according to Slater's Rule, should be :
(A) 2.20 unit (B) 2.50 unit (C) 2.85 unit (D) 7.15 unit
Q.60 Which of the following pair of elements have the same value of shielding constant () for 3s-electron.
(A) Mn & Zn (B) Fe & Na (C) Ar & Cl (D)All of these
Q.61 Which of the following pair has the same value of screening constant for '3s' electron?
(A) Cl & Mg (B) Mg & Ca (C) N & Na (D) K & Ca
Q.62 The value of  for the 4s and 5s electron of Rb is respectively ?

(A) 27.75 and 34.80 (B) 28.95 and 34.80
(C) 27.75 and 28.10 (D) 28.10 and 28.95

Q.63 Effective nuclear charge on last electron of Fe2+ (Using Slater's Rule)
(A) 7.5 (B) 7.45 (C) 6.25 (D) 19.75
Q.64 Zeff for the valence electron of Al (Z = 13) is :

(A) 9.50 unit (B) 3.50 unit (C) 3.85 unit (D) 3.15 unit
Q.65 Find Zeff (using Slater's Rule) on 3d electron of Cu(29)

(A) 8.3 (B) 6.85 (C) 7.85 (D) None of these
Q.66 Choose the following atom which has maximum value of Zeff ?
(A) Na (B) Li (C) S (D) O
Q.67 Calculate the value of Zeff for 3d electron of 21Sc.

(A) 18.69 (B) 21.69 (C) 3.69 (D) 3.00
Q.68 Which of the following transition element has minimum value of effective nuclear charge (according to
Slater'a rule).
(A) Zn (B) Cu (C) Ni (D) Mg
SIZE
Q.69 In Which of the following case the size ratio is maximum :
(A) Cl– / Cl (B) I– / I (C) H– / H (D) F– / F
Q.70 Among the following species the highest radius is of

(A)Al3+ (B) F¯ (C) Na+ (D) N3–
Q.71 Select the correct sequence of increasing radius (left to right)

(A) Se2–, O2–, F¯ (B) Ca2+, Ar, K+ (C) Se, As, Ge (D) Fe, Fe2+, Fe3+
Q.72 Atomic radii of fluorine and neon inAngstrom units are respectively given by
(A) 0.72, 1.60 (B) 1.60,1.60 (C) 0.72, 0.72 (D) 1.60, 0.72
Q.73 Choose the correct ionic radius order:

(A) N3– < N2– (B) N3– < P3– (C) K+ < Ca2+ (D) O2– < Mg2+
Q.74 In which of the following compound size of cation to anion ratio is minimum :
(A) CsF (B) LiI (C) LiF (D) CsI

Q.75 The Lanthanide contraction is caused by

(A) sudden increase of number of proton inside the nucleus of an atom.
(B) sudden decrease of number of valence shell electrons.
(C) presence of large number of d and f-electrons having poor shielding effect.
(D) the repulsion of inner shell electrons.
Q.76 Atomic radius variation of an unknown group in the periodic table is as below
Atomic radius
• •
• •
A B C D E
The element B & C respectively are :
(A) Cl & Br (B) Be & Mg (C) Si & Ge (D) Al & Ga
Q.77 Choose the incorrect ionic radius order.

(A) Al3+ < Li+ (B) O2– > C4– (C) Cl¯ < S2– (D) Na+ > Li+ > H+
Q.78 The smallest size cation and anion available are respectively.
(A) H+ and H¯ (B) H+ and F¯ (C) Li+ and F¯ (D) Li+ and H¯
Q.79 Select the correct order of ionic radii.

(A) O2– > S2– > Se2– > Te2– (B) S2– > O2– > Se2– > Te2–
(C) Te2– > Se2– > S2– > O2– (D) Se2– > Te2– > O2– > S2–
Q.80 Which of the following is smallest anion.

(A) F (B) H (C) Cl (D) O2–
Q.81 Which of the following is the correct increasing size?

(A) Cl¯< Ca2+ < S2– < Al3+ (B) Mg2+ < K+ < Li+ < Al3+
(C) Mg2+ < Na+ < F¯ < O2– < N3– (D) F¯ < Na+ < Mg2+ < O2–
Q.82 Which of the following elements have smaller size than carbon?
(A) Lithium (B) Nitrogen (C) Neon (D) Sodium
Q.83 For an element, the covalent radius is xÅ, metallic radius is yÅ and the Vanderwaal's radius is zÅ. Which
of the following order is correct?
(A) x < y < z (B) y < x < z (C) z < y < x (D) x < z < y
Q.84 Which of the following is incorrect order of ionic radii?

(A) N– < N2– < C4– (B) O– < N3– (C) Mg+ < Al3+ (D) Si4+ < Al2+ < Al+
Q.85 Choose the correct order of size.

(I) Fe2+ > Fe3+ (II) Cu < Zn (III) Cu2+ > Cu+ (IV) Hg22+ > Hg2+
(A) I, II & IV (B) I, II & III (C) I, III & IV (D) II & IV

(A) Na+ (B) Mg2+ (C) Al3+ (D) Si4+
Q.87 The correct order of atomic radii is

(A) K+ < Ca2+ < Cl– < S2– (B) Cl– < K+ < Ca2+ < S2–
(C) Cl– < S2– < K+ < Ca2+ (D) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
Q.88 The correct order of ionic radii is

(A) N3– > Na+ > O2– > F¯ (B) Na+ > O2– > N3– > F¯
(C) O2– > F¯ > Na+ > N3– (D) N3– > O2– > F¯ > Na+
Q.89 The correct order of ionic radii is :

(A) Te2– > I– > Cl– > Ar+ (B) I– > Te2– > Cl– > Ar+
(C) I– > Te2– > Ar+ > Cl– (D) I– > Cl– > Te2– > Ar+
Q.90 The Lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that :

(A) Zr and Y have almost the same radius.
(B) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state.
(C) Zr and Hf have almost the same radius.
(D) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state.
Q.91 Select the correct order of ionic radii :

(A) Te2– > Se2– > S2– > O2– (B) Te2– < Se2– < S2– < O2–
(C) Te2– = Se2– > S2– = O2– (D) None
Q.92 Which one is correct order of the size of the Nitrogen species?
(A) N+ < N < N– (B) N > N¯ > N+
(C) N+ > N¯ > N (D) N > N+ > N¯
Q.93 Which one is correct order of the size of the iodine species?
(A) I¯ > I > I+ (B) I > I¯ > I+ (C) I+ > I¯ > I (D) I > I+ > I¯

Q.94 Correct order of radius among the following

F¯, Al3+, Na+ are
(A) Al3+ = Na+ = F¯ (B) Al3+ > Na+ > F¯
(C) Al3+ = Na+ > F¯ (D) Al3+ < Na+ < F¯
Q.95 The ionic radii of Fe2+ and Fe3+ are x and y respectively the correct relationship between x and y is :
(A) x > y (B) x < y (C) x = y (D) can’t be predicted
Q.96 The ions O2–, F¯, Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic. Their ionic radii show:
(A) an increase from O2– to F¯ and then decrease from Na+ to Al3+
(B) a decrease from O2– to F¯ and then increase from Na+ to Al3+
(C) a significant increase from O2– to Al3+
(D) a significant decrease from O2– to Al3+
Q.97 The correct order of ionic radii is :

(A) O– > F– > Li+ > B3+ (B) F– > O– > Li+ > B3+
(C) F– > B3+ > O– > Li+ (D) O– > F– > B3+> Li+
Q.98 Which of the following pair of species having nearly same atomic size
(A) Zr & Hf (B) Pd & Pt (C) Fe & Co (D)All of these
Q.99 Select the pair of almost same size.

(A) Al, Ga (B) Zr, Hf (C) Fe, Co (D)All of these
Q.100 Choose the correct order of atomic / ionic radii.

(A) Sc < Y < La (B) Fe < Co < Ni
(C) Be2+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ (D) Tl+ < Pb2+ < Bi3+
Q.101 Arrange in the increasing order of atomic radii of the following elements O, C, F, Cl, Br
(A) F < O < C < Cl Mg2+ > Al3+
(C) Na+ = Mg2+ = Al3+ (D) Na+ < Al3+ < Mg2+
Q.103 In following compound which has minimum ionic radius of maganese is :

(A) Mn2(SO4)3 (B) MnO (C) KMnO4 (D) MnO2
Q.104 Choose the compound in which 'Cr' atom has minimum atomic radii:
(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO
(C) K2Cr2O7 (D) All molecule has same atomic radii of Cr
Q.105 Which of the following pair of element has incorrect order of atomic radii?
 Co
(A) Fe ~ Y
(B) La ~  Pd
(C) Pt ~  Hf
(D) Zr ~
Q.106 Atom which has largest atomic radii in following -

(A) Se (B) Br (C) Te (D) I
Q.107 Which options are correct for atomic radii ?

(A) Ne > F (B) F > Cl (C) F > Ne (D) Cl > Ar
Q.108 Which of the following has the largest size?

(A) K+ (B) Ca+2 (C) Ar (D) S2–

(A)Al3+ (B) Mg2+ (C) Li+ (D) Na+
IONISATION ENERGY
Q.110 Find the highest ratio of IP values of given pair of elements :
(A) He : Ne (B) Ne : Ar (C) He : Xe (D) Kr : Xe
Q.111 Which one of the following electronic configuration of an atom has the lowest ionisation energy
(A) 1s22s22p3 (B) 1s22s22p63s1 (C) 1s22s22p6 (D) 1s22s22p5
Q.112 The first five ionization energies of an element are 9.1, 16.2, 24.5, 35 and 205.7 eV respectively. Then
number of valence electron in the atom is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Q.113 Which one of the following electronic configuration of an atom has the highest ionisation energy
(A) 1s22s22p3 (B) 1s22s22p63s1 (C) 1s22s22p6 (D) 1s22s22p5
Q.114 Which of the following magnetic moment values will correspond to highest ionisation energy for cobalt
specie.
(A) 2 2 (B) 15 (C) 35 (D) 24

Q.115 Which of the following has 2nd I.P. < Ist I.P.
(A) Mg (B) Ne (C) C (D) None of these
Q.116 Highest difference between Ist & IInd ionisation energies will be observed in:
(A) Li (B) B (C) O (D) F
Q.117 Ionisation energies of element X are given below (in kJ/mol)

IE1 IE2 IE3
520 7,340 11,000
If ‘X’ reacts with different elements which compounds are possible
(A) XF (B) X2O (C) X3N (D) All of above
Q.118 The correct order of ionisation energy of Al, K, Fe, Mg is

(A) K < Al < Mg < Fe (B) K < Mg < Al < Fe
(C) Mg < K < Al < Fe (D) Mg < Fe < Al < K
Q.119 One element (A) is having four valence shell electron and which of following values will be maximum.
(A) EA of 'A' (B) IE4 – IE3 (C) IE5 – IE3 (D) IE2 – IE1
Q.120 The 2nd ionisation potential of Mg is less than that of Na because

(A) Atomic size of Mg is less than that of Na.
(B) Atomic size of Mg is greater than that of Na.
(C) 2nd electron removal from Na occur from inert gas configuration, while the same for Mg results inert
gas configuration.
(D) Both are having same Zeff value for 3s electron.
Q.121 Which of the following set of elements are having strongest tendency to form cation?
(A) I, Cl, Br (B) C, Sn, Se
(C) Na, K, Sr (D) Mn, Ti, Fe
Q.122 The ionisation potential values 54.40 eV & 39.30 eV correspond to

(A) H+ & H (B) Li & Li+
(C) He & He+ (D) He+ & He
Q.123 The ionisation energy for ‘Sc’ , ‘Y’ and ‘La’ are x, y and z kcal/mol respectively. Choose the correct
relationship between them.
(A) z > x  y (B) x > y > z (C) x > z  y (D) x < y > z

Q.124 For an element ‘A’.
A  A+ 2  A2+  A3+  ...................

IE1 IE 3 IE
The IE1 and IE3 values are 27 kJ/mole and 51 kJ/mole respectively. Then the value of IE2 is _______
kJ/mole.
(A) 21 (B) 33 (C) 59 (D) 63
Q.125 Which of the following atom has highest ionisation energy.

(A) N (B) O (C) P (D) S
Q.126 Rb forms Rb+ ion but it does not form Rb2+ because
(A) Very low value of (I.E.)1 and (I.E.)2
(B) Very high value of (I.E.)1 and (I.E.)2
(C) low value of (I.E.)1 and low value of (I.E.)2
(D) low value of (I.E.)1 and high value of (I.E.)2
Q.127 Choose the correct Ionisation potential order :

(A) O¯ > O (B) N¯ > N (C) H¯ > H (D) None of these

Q.128 An+(g)  A ( n 1) (g) + e
X
In above process 'X' is

(A) Electron gain enthalpy (B) Electronegativity
(C) Ionisation energy (D) None of these
Q.129 H IE (First Ionisation Enthalpy) of Na, Mg and Si is 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1, respectively. What
1
will be the ΔHIE value of Al?

1
(A) 760 kJ mol–1 (B) 450 kJ mol–1

(C) 580 kJ mol–1 (D) 800 kJ mol–1

(Successive I.E.)
z
b
y
H x H a
Q.130
+1 +2 +3 +4 +1 +2 +3
(Charge on the ion) (Charge on the ion)
Graph - I Graph - II
Above graphs represent successive ionisation energies of an element.

Given : x < y < 11 eV and z > 16 eV ; a < 11 eV and b > 16 eV
Which of the following is incorrect according to above two graphs?
(A) Graph I may belong to the elements of 13th group.
(B) Graph II may belong to the elements of 2nd group.
(C) Stable oxidation state of metal ion according to Graph-II would be +2.
(D) ns2np1 may be the general electronic configuration of element according to Graph-II.
Q.131 Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution?
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 (B) 1s2 2s1
(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 (D) [Xe] 6s1
Q.132 For an element 'A' belonging to alkaline earth metal family.

 A+ IE
A IE   A3+ IE
 A2+ IE
 
 A4+ ..... are defined. If IE3 and IE4 are respectively
1 2 3 4
4.9 and 6.5 M J/ mol. What will be the values of IE1 and IE2 respectively.
(A) 1, 4 (B) 0.6, 1.1 (C) 4, 4.5 (D) 1.5 , 5.2
Q.133 The ionisation enthalpyof sodium is 500 kJ/mol at T K. How many sodium atoms may be converted into
sodium ions (Na+) by the absorption of 200 J heat at T K ? (NA = 6 × 1023)
(A) 2.4 × 1023 (B) 2.4 × 1020 (C) 1.5 × 1021 (D) 1.5 × 1024

Q.134 The successive ionisation energies of an element (in eV/atom) are :
The outer electronic configuration of the element may be :

(A) ns2 np0 (B) ns2np3 (C) ns2np1 (D) ns2np2
Q.135 Ionisation energies of Cl– , Cl and Cl+ are respectively (in KJ/mol)
(A) 1251, 349, 2300 (B) 2300, 349,1251 (C) 349, 1251, 2300 (D) 349, 2300, 1251
Q.136 Which of the following isoelectronic species has the lowest ionisation energy?
(A) S2– (B) K+ (C) Cl¯ (D) Ca2+
Q.137 Which ionisation potential in the following equations involves the greatest amount of energy?
(A) K+  K2+ + e– (B) Ca+  Ca2+ + e– (C) Fe  Fe+ + e– (D) Li+  Li2+ + e–
Q.138 Which of the following has the lowest second ionisation energy?
(A) Sc (B) Ti (C) V (D) Ca
Q.139 Which of the following elements has the highest ionisation energy?
(A) [Ne] 3s23p1 (B) [Ne] 3s23p3 (C) [Ne] 3s23p2 (D) 3d10, 4s2 4p3
Q.140 The first ionisation potential (in eV) of N , O atoms are:

(A) 14.6, 13.6 (B) 13.6, 14.6 (C) 13.6, 13.6 (D) 14.6, 14.6
Q.141 Ionisation potential of which element is highest?

(A) H (B) Cl (C) He (D) Fr
Q.142 Which of the following elements has the lowest ionisation potential?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Mg (D)Al
Q.143 Inert pair effect is prominent character of

(A) p-block element (B) d-block element (C) s-block element (D) f-block element
Q.144 For element, A there is large energy difference between 5th and 6th ionisation energy. This element is
member of
(A) Pnictogen family (B) Chalcogen family (C) Halogen family (D) Noble gases

Q.145 Second ionization potential of Li, Be and B is in the order

(A) Li > Be > B (B) Li > B > Be (C) Li > Be Be > Li
Q.146 Consider following electronic configuration of atoms and select correct code in order of increasing
ionization energy
[I] 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 [II] 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
[III] 1s2 2s2 2p4 [IV] 1s2 2s2 2p5
[V] 1s2 2s2 2p6
(A) [II] < [I] < [III] < [IV] < [V] (B) [II] < [III] < [IV] < [I] < [V]
(C) [II] < [IV] < [III] < [I] < [V] (D) [II] < [III] < [I] < [IV] < [V]
Q.147 The incorrect statement among the following is :

(A) The first ionisation energyof calcium is more than first ionisation energy of gallium
(B) The second ionisation energy of copper is greater than that of potassium
(C) The third ionisation energy of Mg is greater than the third ionisation energy ofAl
(D) The IE1 of Mg+ is less than the IE1 of Na+
Q.148 Choose the correct ionisation energy order.

(A) Li < B < Be < C < N < O < F (B) Na < Mg < Al < Si < S < P < Cl
(C) K < Ga < Ca < Ge < As < Se < Br (D) Rb < Sr < In < Sn < Sb < Te < I
Q.149 Select correct graph, which is plotted between Ionisation Energy of 2nd period elements and their
atomic number.
IE IE
IE IE
(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Atomic number
(Z) Atomic number (Z)
Q.150 Which of the following has the highest second ionisation energy?
(A) Cr (B) Mn (C) Co (D) Fe
Q.151 Ionisation energy order is :

(A) Li < Be > B (B) Be Zn (B) Cr > Mn (C) Na > Mg (D) Mg > Al
Q.153 Select the correct order of IInd I.E. of C, N, O, F.

(A) C > N > O > F (B) C < N < O < F (C) C < N < O > F (D) C < N > O < F
Q.154 Successive ionization enthalpies (in eV/atom) of an element are 5, 8, 9, 90, 100. The number of
valence electrons are :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.155 Which of the following element will have highest ionization energy?
(A) H (B) He (C) Ne (D) F
Q.156 The correct order of second ionisation energy.

(A) N > O (B) Li > Ne (C) P > N (D) Br > Cl
Q.157 I and III ionisation energies of an element are 40 and 60 eV/atom respectively. II ionization energy can
be
(A) 51 eV/atom (B) 39 eV/atom (C) 65 eV/atom (D) 100 eV/atom
Q.158 Which of the following is incorrect statement(s):

(A) Tl3+ > Tl+ (Stability order) (B) Pb2+ > Pb4+ (Stability order)
(C) Fe+ > Fe2+ > Fe3+ (Radius order) (D) O2– > F¯ > Na+ (radius order)
Q.159 Which of the following is only incorrect increasing order of first ionisation energy of the atoms or ions
mentioned?
(A) Mg+ < Al2+ < Na+ (B) I¯ < I < I+ (C) Li < B < Be (D) Br¯ < Cl¯ < F¯
Q.160 Which of the following case is affected by lanthanoid contraction according to their given properties?
(A) Stable oxidation state of thallium is +1.  Hf.
(B) Atomic radius of Zr ~
(C) Ionisation potential of Tl > In (D) all of these
Q.161 In which of the following, the energy change corresponds to first ionisation potential?
(A) X(g)  X+(g) + e– (B) 2X(g)  2X+(g) + 2e–
(C) X(s)  X+(g) + e– (D) X(aq)  X+(aq) + e–
Q.162 Out of N, O, Ne, Na and Na+, select the species which have minimum and maximum ionisation energy
respectively.
(A) N, Ne (B) O, Na+ (C) Na, Ne (D) Na, Na+

Q.163 The first ionisation enthalpies of four consecutive elements present in the second period of the periodic
table are 8.3, 11.3, 14.5 and 13.6 eV respectively. Which one of the following is the first ionisation
enthalpy of nitrogen ?
(A) 13.6 (B) 14.5 (C) 11.3 (D) 8.3
Q.164 Stability of ions of Ge, Sn and Pb will be in the order :

(A) Ge2+ > Sn2+ > Pb2+ (B) Ge4+ > Sn4+ > Pb4+
(C) Sn4+ < Sn2+ (D) Pb2+ < Pb4+
Q.165 M 
X
M+ 
Y
M+2
Select the correct statement regarding the value of 'X':
(A) The value of 'X' is equal to ionisation potential of M.
(B) The value of 'X' is equal to magnitude of electron affinity of M+.
(C) Any information about 'X' can not |X| = |Y|
(D) Both option (A) and (B) regarding 'X' are correct.
Q.166 The correct order of ionisation energy among the following is :

(A) O > S > O– > S– (B) O > O– > S > S–
(C) O > S > S– > O– (D) S > O > S¯ > O¯
Q.167 Element which has maximum ionisation energy.

(A) Zn (B) Cu (C) Cd (D) Hg
Q.168 Element which has minimum first ionisation energyis -

(A) N (B) P (C) O (D) S
Q.169 For an element the successive ionisation energy values (in eV atom–1) are given below 12.32, 26.84,
44.56, 65.63, 203.9, 251.12, 308.4
The element that satisfies the above values is :
(A) Si (B) Ca (C) Al (D) S
Q.170 The ionisation energies for B, T and In are X,Y and Z kcal/mol respectively, Choose the correct
relationship between them -
(A) Z > X = Y (B) X > Y > Z (C) X > Y = Z (D) X < Y > Z
Q.171 For an element having only one valence shell electron, then which of the following ionisation energy
difference will have the maximum value -
(A) IE2 – IE1 (B) IE3 – IE2 (C) IE3 – IE1 (D) can't predict

Q.172 Which of the following represent second ionization energy?

(A) O(g)  O2+(g) + 2e– (B) O2 (g)  O22+ (g) + 2e–
(C) O+ (g)  O2+ (g) + e– (D)All of these
Q.173 The element having maximum tendency to form ionic bonds is

(A) Cs (B) Rb (C) K (D) Li
Q.174 Which of the following has maximum ionisation energy?

(A) Li+ (B) He (C) Ne (D) Na
Q.175 The strongest reducing agent in gaseous phase is

(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) Cs
Q.176 M(g)  M+(g)  M+2(g) 

X
M+3(g)
IP 1IP 2
IP1 X
The ratio of IP  2
2
Then calculate the value of IP1 and IP2 if

M(g)  
 M+3(g), H = 5X
8X 4X 8X 4 X 2 4 X 2 8X 4X 8X
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
3 X 2 X 2X 2X 2X 2X 2 X 3 X
+ is 'X'. Then choose the correct code if

Q.177 The ionisation potential value for process M(g) — M(g)
– — M process is 'Y'.
ionisation potential value for M(g) (g)
(A) X = Y (B) X > Y (C) X < Y (D) Data Insufficient
ELECTRONAFFINITY
Q.178 Which process can produce maximum number of Fe2+ ions from iron atom by absorbing energy from
the given species.
Considering equal number of given species.
(A) Formation of N¯ from N-atom. (B) Formation of F¯ from F-atom.
(C) Formation of Cl¯ from Cl-atom. (D) Formation of S¯ from S-atom.
Q.179 In which of the following process, maximum amount of energy involved.

(A) Cl  Cl¯ (B) Br¯  Br (C) F¯  F (D) I¯  I

Q.180 Which of the following statement is correct.

(A) The 1st ionisation potential of N is greater than that of O+.
(B) The 1st ionisation potential of N is equal to that of O+.
(C) The 1st ionisation potential of N is less than that of O+.
(D) The electron affinity of ‘N’ is greater than that of ‘O’.
Q.181 Choose the correct order of the property given below :

(A) N3– < O2– : ionic radius (B) N > O : Ist ionisation energy
(C) N > O : 2nd ionisation energy (D) N > O : Electron affinity order
Q.182 Calculate the value of electron gain enthalpy egH) at 300 K if electron affinity of Cl is 90 Kcal.
(A) – 91.5 Kcal (B) + 88.5 Kcal (C) –88.5 Kcal (D) – 1590 Kcal
 1
Q.183 The electron gain enthalpy (egH) of an element 'A' is    times of its ionisation enthalpy (iH).
 2
When one mole of A+(g) is completely converted into A–(g), 900 kJ heat is released. The egH of
element 'A' is :
(A) – 300 kJ/mol (B) – 600 kJ/mol (C) 600 kJ/mol (D) 300 kJ/mol
Q.184 If egH of A+ (g) = – x kJ/mol, egH of A(g) = – y kJ/mol and ionisationH of A+ (g) = +z kJ/mol, then
H for the process : A– (g)  A2+(g), is
(A) (x + y + z) kJ/mol (B) (z – x – y) kJ/mol
(C) (x + y – z) kJ/mol (D) (x – y + z) kJ/mol
Q.185 Which of the following are correct?

(I) 1st Ionisation Energy of N > O (II) 2nd Ionisation Energy of O > N
(III) 1st Electron Affinity of N < O (IV) 1st ElectronAffinity of Be < B
(A) I & II (B) I and III (C) I, II, III (D)All of these
Q.186 Which of the following would require least energy?

(A) Si– (g)  Si (g) + e– (B) P– (g)  P (g) + e–
(C) S– (g)  S (g) + e– (D) Cl– (g)  Cl (g) + e–
Q.187 Which of the following represents correct order of electron affinity?

(A) O < S < F < Cl (B) O < F < S < Cl
(C) F > O > Cl > S (D) F > Cl > O > S

Q.188 Which of the following has the lowest electron affinity?

(A) O (B) S (C) F (D) Cl
Q.189 The incorrect order of electron affinity is :

(A) F < Cl (B) N > P (C) O < S (D) Cl > Br
Q.190 The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ would be
(A) –2.55 eV (B) –5.1 eV (C) –10.2 eV (D) 2.55 eV
Q.191 The least stable anion is :

(A) Li– (B) Be– (C) B– (D) C–
Q.192 The increasing order of electron affinity is :

(A) N < O < Cl < Al (B) O < N < Al < Cl
(C) Al < N < O < Cl (D) Cl < N < O < Al
Q.193 Which is the correct order of ionisation energies?

(A) F¯ > F > Cl¯ > Cl (B) F > Cl > Cl¯ > F¯
(C) F¯ > Cl¯ > Cl > F (D) F¯ > Cl¯ > F> Cl
Q.194 Which of the following statement is correct regarding following process.
(ii) Cl¯  Cl

I.E.
(i) Cl E

. A.
 Cl¯
(iv) Cl+  Cl2+

I. E .
(iii) Cl I
.E .
Cl+
(A) | I.E. of process (ii) | = | E.A. of process (i) |
(B) | I.E. of process (iii) | = | I.E. of process (ii) |
(C) | I.E. of process (iv) | = | E.A. of process (i) |
(D) | I.E. of process (iv) | = | I.E. of process (iii) |
Q.195 Select incorrect order of E. A.

(A) Cl > F (B) O < S (C) N > P (D) C < Si
Q.196 Select correct relationship for Na atom.

(A) | I.E. of Na | < | E.A. of Na | (B) | I.E.of Na | > | I.E. of Na¯ |
(C) | I.E. of Na | > | I.E. of Na+ | (D) | E.A. of Na | = | I.E.of Na+ |

Q.197 The correct order of electron affinity is

(A) N > P > S > Cl (B) P > N > S > Cl
(C) Cl > N > P > S (D) Cl> S > P > N
Q.198 Choose the incorrect statement.

(A) 2nd electron gain enthalpy for any element is (+) ve.
(B) E.A. of an element  Zeff
(C) The ionisation energy order : F¯ > Cl¯
(D) The ionisation energy order : F¯ < Cl¯
Q.199 Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) Ionisation energy of A¯ is greater than A when A is a halogen atom.
(B) Ionisation energy of A+ is greater than that of A2+ when Ais the member of alkali metals.
(C) Successive ionisation energy is always increasing for 1st and 2nd period element.
(D) Electron affinity value of 'A+' is numerically identical with the ionisation potential of A¯ [for any
atom].
Q.200 Which of the following is exothermic:

(A) N(g) + 1e–  N–(g) (B) P(g) + 1e–  P–(g)
(C) Na(g)  Na+(g) + 1e– (D) 1e– + Be(g)  Be–(g)
Q.201 In which transition maximum amount of energy will be released.

(A) S(g) + 1e–  S–(g) (B) O(g) + 1e–  O–(g)
(C) N(g)  N+(g) + 1e– (D) He(g) + 1e–  He–(g)
Q.202 Which of the following is incorrect order of electron affinity:

(A) Li < Na (B) Al > B (C) Si > C (D) Cl > F
Q.203 Which of the following process is endothermic?

(A) Na(g) + 1e¯ Na¯(g) (B) O+ (g) + 1e¯  O(g)
(C) O¯ (g) + 1e¯  O2– (g) (D) S + 1e¯  S¯(g)
Q.204 Which of the following is incorrect?
(A) For A(g) + e–  A¯(g), H may be positive
(B) For A¯(g) + e–  A2–(g), H may be negative
(C) For A¯(g) + e–  A2–(g), H must be positive
(D) For A2+(g) + e–  A+(g), H must be negative

Q.205 If electron gain enthalpyof X(g) is – 4.0 eV, then the ionisation enthalpy of X(g) at the same temperature
may be :
(A) 4.0 eV (B) 3.5 eV (C) 5.5 eV (D) any of these values
Q.206 The correct order of increasing electron affinity of halogens is :

(A) F < Cl < Br < I (B) I < Br < F < Cl (C) I < Br < Cl < F (D) Br < I < F < Cl
Q.207 For the process

X(g) + e– X–(g), H = x and
X–(g) X(g) + e–, H = y
Select correct alternate :
(A) Ionization energy of X–(g) is y (B) Electron affinity of X(g) is – x
(C) Electron affinity of X(g) is +y (D) All are correct statements
Q.208 If the amount of energy required in the process X to X¯ is –5 kJ/mole then calculate how many energy
is required in X to X+ process
(A) –5 kJ/mole (B) > 5 kJ/mole (C) < 5 kJ/mole (D) 5 kJ/mole
Q.209 Which of the following speices has maximum tendency to accept electron cloud?
(A) O2– (B) O–1 (C) O+1 (D) O+2
Q.210 Select the correct order of electron affinity :

(A) F– > Cl– (B) F > Cl (C) Cl > F (D) F– > F
Q.211 The numerical value of energyinvolved in the given process ; S  S– is less than, which of the following
process :
(A) S–  S (B) Se  Se– (C) S  S+ (D) (B) and (C) both
Q.212 Which of the following process is exothermic ?

(A) P  P+ (B) P  P– (C) P–  P (D) P+  P+2
Q.213 Which is correct order of electron affinity?

(A) Li < Be (B) Be > B (C) Li > B (D) Li > C
Q.214 Which element has highest ElectronAffinity?

(A) Be (B) B (C) Li (D) C

Q.215 If the amount of energy required in the process X to X¯ is –8 kJ/mole then calculate how many energy
is required in X to X+ process
(A) –8 kJ/mole (B) > 8 kJ/mole (C) < 8 kJ/mole (D) 8 kJ/mole
Q.216 Select the atom which has maximum electron affinity -

(A) C (B) Si (C) N (D) P
Q.217 Which of the following process is associated with the energy release.
(A) Li  Li+ (B) O¯  O2– (C) Cl +  Cl (D) Be  Be¯
ELECTRONEGATIVITY
Q.218 In which of the following process, maximum amount of energy involved.
(A) Cl  Cl¯ (B) Br¯  Br (C) F¯  F (D) I¯  I
Q.219 The most acidic oxide is :

(A) SO3 (B) P2O5 (C) Cl2O7 (D) P2O3
Q.220 The E.N. of H, X, O are 2.2, 3.0 and 3.5 respectively comment on the nature of the compound
H–O–X, that is :
(A) Basic (B)Acidic (C)Amphoteric (D) Can't be predicted
Q.221 Find the incorrect acidic strength order:

(A) K2O > Rb2O > Cs2O (B) N2O < NO2 < N2O3
(C) Li2O < BeO < N2O5 (D) Cl2O7 > P2O5 > SiO2
Q.222 The correct order of electronegativity of C in C2H2, C2H4 and C2H6 is

(A) C2H2 > C2H6 > C2H4 (B) C2H2 > C2H4 > C2H6
(C) C2H6 > C2H4 > C2H2 (D) C2H4 > C2H2 > C2H6
Q.223 Ionisation energy and electron affinity of fluorine are respectively 17.42 eV and 3.45 eV, then
electronegativityof F atom on Pauling scale will be
Q.224 Which of the following order is wrong.

(A) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 – Acidic (B) Li < Be E.N. of As (AsF5)
(B) E.N. of As (AsF3) < E.N. of As (AsF5)
(C) E.N. of As is identical in both cases
(D) No comment can be predicted.
Q.226 Select the correct statement regarding oxides.

(A)As the electronegativity of element increase acidic character of oxide increases.
(B) Down the group the acidic nature of oxide increase.
(C) B2O3 and Al2O3 are both acidic oxides.
(D) Nitrogen forms all the three types of oxides (neutral, basic & acidic)
Q.227 A student went to meet his friend, where he saw that his friend was doing the study of a particular
chemistry book. But he could not find the theoretical value of bond length in H-F but he found that rH &
rF are 0.37 Å and 0.72 Å respectively & electronegativity of F & H are 4.0 and 2.1 respectively.What
is bond length of H–F bond.
(A) 1.09 (B) 1.784 (C) 0.92 (D) 0.46
Q.228 Calculate the electronegativityof Cl in Pauling scale

[Given : E.A. (Cl) = 4.0 eV / atom and I.E. (Cl) = 13.0 eV / atom]
(A) 2 (B) 3.03 (C) 3.5 (D) 4.0
Q.229 Which of the following is strongest in basic character ?

(A) Be(OH)2 (B) Mg(OH)2 (C) Al(OH)3 (D) Si(OH)4
Q.230 For an inert gas element the atomic number is z, then which of the following element having atomic
number ‘___________’is having highest electronegativity.
(A) z – 2 (B) z – 1 (C) z + 1 (D) z + 2
Q.231 The electronegativityof ‘N’ is maximum in which of the following compound of N.

(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) NO (D) N2O4
Q.232 Which of the following acidic order is correct.

(A) HI > HCl > HBr > HF (B) HI < HCl < HBr < HF
(C) HOCl > HOBr > HOI (D) HOCl < HOBr < HOI
Q.233 The correct order of Electronegativity is :

(A) F > O > N (B) N > O > F (C) O > N > F (D) N = O > F

Q.234 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) Order of acidic strength N2O < N2O3 < NO2.
(B) Electron Affinity of O is more than that of Cl.
(C) Percent ionic character of As – H bond is less than that of Sb–H bond.
(D) A 'sp' hybridised carbon is more Electronegative than a sp2 hybridised carbon.
Q.235 An element X has electronegativity of 3.0 on Pauling scale. Which of the statements is correct?
(A) The ionisation energy (IE) of X > 8.4 eV/atom
(B) The electron affinity (EA) of X > 8.4 eV/atom
(C) Both IE and EA > 8.4 eV/atom.
(D) Both IE and EA < 8.4 eV/atm.
Q.236 The bond energies of A – A, B – B and A – B bonds are 81, 100 and 115 kcal/mol, respectively. If the
electronegativity of B is 3.0 and B is more electronegative than A, then from Pauling's Scale, the
electronegativityofAis :
(A) 4.04 (B) 1.96 (C) 2.96 (D) 2.04
Q.237 The bond lengths of A –A and B – B bonds are 1.6 and 2.0 Å, respectively. If the electronegativities of
Aand B are 2.8 and 2.1, respectively, the according to Schomaker and Stevenson's Equation, the bond
length of A – B bond should be :
(A) 3.537 Å (B) 2.97 Å (C) 1.737 Å (D) 1.17 Å
Q.238 If X – Y bond is 30% ionic in character, then according to Hanny and Smyth Equation, the
electronegativity difference between X and Y is :
11 10 9
(A) 1.0 (B) (C) (D)
7 7 7
Q.239 The correct order of acidic strength of these hydra acids is :

(A) HCl < HBr < HI < HF (B) CH4 < SiH4 < GeH4
(C) NH3 < CH4 < H2O < HF (D) HBr < H2S < NH3
Q.240 Which of the following is the most electropositive?

Q.241 The most electronegative element is

(A) O (B) F (C) Cl (D) N

Q.242 Which of the following relations is correct? (E.N, is on Mulliken scale)

(A) 2 I.P. – E.A. – E.N. = 0 (B) 2 I.P. – E.N. + E.A. = 0
(C) 2 E.N. – I.P. – E.A. = 0 (D) E.N. – I.P. – E.A. = 0
Q.243 Calculate the percentage ionic character for molecule AB, if electronegativity difference betweenAB
molecule is 1.5.
Q.244 Ionisation energy and electron affinity of fluorine are respectively 18.42 eV and 2.45 eV, then
electronegativity of F atom on Pauling scale will be
Q.245 Which of the following has maximum difference in bond length if the electronegativity difference is
considered and not considered?
(A) HCl (B) HF (C) HI (D) HBr
Q.246 Which of the following is amphoteric in nature?

(A) HClO4 (B) NaOH (C) Zn(OH)2 (D) N2O
Q.247 Which of the following is the most acidic in nature?

(A) SiO2 (B) P4O10 (C) CO2 (D) SO3
Q.248 The correct order of basic nature of given oxides is

(A) V2O3 < V2O5 < V2O4 (B) V2O3 < V2O4 < V2O5
(C) V2O5 < V2O4 < V2O3 (D) V2O5 < V2O3 < V2O4
Q.249 Following is the graph representating Electronegativity of certain elementsA1,A2,A3 ,A4,A5. Which of
the following option(s) representing corresponding elements can be correct?
(A) A1 = N, A2 = P, A3 = F, A4 = Cl, A5 = Al
(B) A1 = Cl, A2 = P, A3 = O, A4 = N, A5 = Al
(C) A1 = N, A2 = P, A3 = O, A4 = Si, A5 = Al
(D) None

Q.250 Identify incorrect order of acidic strength :

(A) N2O < NO < N2O3 < N2O5 (B) CaO < CO < CO2
(C) H2O < Na2O < MgO (D) H2SO3 < H2SO4
Q.251 Find % covalent character of NO [Given: Electronegativity of N = 3 and O = 3.5]

(A) 8.875 % (B) 91.125 % (C) 20.2 % (D) 60.8 %
Q.252 Two elements A and B are such that Bond energy of A–A, B–B & A–B are respectively 81 kcal/mol,
64 kcal/mol and 88 kcal/mol. If electronegativity of B is 3 then electronegativity of Amay be _____.
(A) 1.9 (B) 2.168 (C) 3.832 (D) 4.2
Q.253 Which is incorrect order of acidic strength?

(A) N2O < NO < N2O3 < NO2 (B) SO2 < SO3
(C) HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (D) CO2 < B2O3 < BeO < Li2O
Q.254 Which of the following is correct?

(A) Pauling scale is based on bond energy data.
(B) Muliken scale is based on IE and EA data
(C) Allred Roschow is based on electrostatic attraction.
(D) All are correct
Q.255 The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic nature is-
(A) CuO, Na2O, MgO, Al2O3 (B) Al2O3, MgO, CuO, Na2O
(C) MgO, Al2O3, CuO, Na2O (D) Na2O, MgO, Al2O3, CuO
Q.256 Identify the oxidation state of unknown element 'M' in following structure -
Electronegativity of H < Oxygen atom but M > Hydrogen atom
H
O
O M H
O H
(A) + 5 (B) + 6 (C) + 3 (D) +4

Q.257 On Muliken scale if electronegativityof particular atom 'X' is 'P' and electron affinity of atom 'X' is Q eV
then identify the approximate value of electronegativity of 'X' on Pauling scale -
2P  Q P
(A) (B) P × 2.8 (C) (D) (2P–Q) × 2.8
2. 8 2. 8
Q.258 Select the neutral oxide in following -

(A) CO2 (B) CO (C) P4O10 (D) NO2
Q.259 What will be the C–X bond length if C – C bond length is 1.54 Å, X – X bond length is 1.00 Å and
electronegativity values of C and X are 2.0 and 3.0 respectively.
(A) 2.45Å (B) 1.18 Å (C) 2.54 Å (D) 1.81 Å
Q.260 Which is amphoteric in nature.

(A) ZnO (B) Be(OH)2 (C) PbO2 (D)All of these
Q.261 Electronegativity of H-atom is 2.1 and F-atom is 4.1, find % ionic character of HF.
(A) 26 % (B) 32 % (C) 46 % (D) 62 %
Q.262 On study it is seen that the electronegativity of the atom linearly increases with the partial ionic charge
(q). Thus electronegativity can be written as, x = a + bq, where large and soft atoms have low value of
b, while small and hard atoms have a large value of b, and a is constant, then which of the following given
plot describes the electronegativity variation of F and Cl accurately?
[Given : XF = 4, XCl = 3 and XH = 2]
x x
F Cl
4
3 4
2 Cl 3 F
(A) (B) 2
q q
x
F x F
4 Cl
3 4 Cl
2 3
(C) (D) 2
q
q

Q.263 Which of the following oxide is basic in nature?

(A) B(OH)3 (B) I(OH) (C) Cl(OH) (D) Cs(OH)
Q.264 Which of the following nitrogen oxide is neutral ?

(A) NO2 (B) N2O5 (C) N2O (D) N2O3
Q.265 Which of the following compound has maximum acidic character?

(A) CO2 (B) SiO2 (C) NH3 (D) H2O
Q.266 Calculate the bond length of P–Q molecule if internuclear distance of P2 is X and internuclear distance of
3X X
Q2 is and electronegative difference of P and Q element is .
2 2
3X
(A) (B) 1.20 X (C) 0.50 X (D) 0.20 X
2
Q.267 Least stable hydride is

(A) stannane (B) Silane (C) Plumbane (D) Germane
Q.268 Calculate the % ionic character for metal fluoride where the electronegativity of electropositive element
is 2.1
(A) 43.03 % (B) 56.8 % (C) 50 % (D) 12 %
Q.269 Select the gas-phase reaction(s) which can proceed spontaneously?

(A) Cl¯ + I  I¯ + Cl (B) Si+ + Cl  Si + Cl+
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Kr + He+  Kr+ + He
Q.270 Comment on the electronegativity (E.N.) of P in PF3 and PF5.

(A) Electronegativity of P(PF3) > Electronegativity of P(PF5)
(B) Electronegativity of P(PF3) < Electronegativity of P(PF5)
(C) Electronegativity of P is identical in both cases
(D) No comment can be predicted

Q.271 The amphoteric oxide among the following is :

(A) Na2O (B) ZnO (C) SO2 (D) B2O3
Q.272 The correct order of acidic nature of the oxides of chlorine is :

(A) Cl2O < ClO2 < Cl2O6 < Cl2O7 (B) ClO2 < Cl2O < Cl2O6 < Cl2O7
(C) Cl2O < ClO2 < Cl2O7 < Cl2O6 (D) Cl2O7 < Cl2O6 < ClO2 < Cl2O
Q.273 Which one of the following is most acidic?

(A) SO3 (B) Cl2O7 (C) P2O5 (D) SiO2
Q.274 Calculate the % ionic character of molecule AB where the electronegative atom A is 3 and B is 2.1?
(A) 17.2 % (B) 19 % (C) 34 % (D) 50 %
Q.275 Which of following oxides is amphoteric in nature?

(i) ZnO (ii) N2O (iii) Cl2O7 (iv) BeO
(A) (i) ,(iv) (B) (i), (ii) (C) (iii) & (ii) (D) (i), (iv), (ii)
BORN HABER'S CYCLE

Q.276 Choose the correct ionic mobility order in water.
(A) Be2+ > Ba2+ (B) Li+ > Rb+ (C) I¯ < Cl¯ (D) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+
Q.277 The compound having least lattice energy is

(A) BeO (B) BaO (C) BeS (D) BaS
Q.278 Which of the following is incorrect order of the mentioned property in increasing order?
(A) First ionization potential : Na<Al<Mg<Si
(B) Ionization energy : Be+ < C+ < B+ < N+ < F+ < O+ < Li+
(C) Hydrated radius order : Ba2+ (aq) < Sr2+ (aq) < Mg2+(aq)
(D) Polarity order : N–H < Sb–H < As–H < P–H
Q.279 The correct order of increasing hydration energy of following ion is

(A) Fe+2 < Co+2 < Fe+3 (B) Fe+2 < Co+2 > Fe+3
(C) Fe+2 >Co+2 > Fe+3 (D) Fe+2 < Fe+3 < Co+2
Q.280 Select the correct radius order :

(A) Li+(aq) < Na+(aq) < K+(aq) (B) Li+(g) < Be2+(g)
(C) Na(g) < Mg(g) < Al(g) (D) Li+(g) > Al3+(g)

Q.281 Choose the correct statement :

(A) Na+(g) > Mg2+(g) >Al3+(g) (Hydration energy)
(B) Li+(aq) < Na+(aq) < K+(aq) (Ionic Mobility)
(C) F–(aq) < Cl–(aq) < Br–(aq) (Hydrated radius)
(D) CaF2 > CaO (Lattice energy)
Q.282 Which of the following ions attach the least number of water molecules to itself when dissolved in water?
(A) Mg2+ (B) Li+ (C) [(CH3)4N]+ (D) NH 4
Q.283 The ion having highest mobilityin aqueous solution is :

(A) Be2+ (B) Mg2+ (C) Ca2+ (D) Ba2+
Q.284 Which of the following property increases down the group in a aqueous solution?
(A) Hydration energy (B) Ionic mobility (C) Ionic size (D)All of these
Q.285 Given
Reaction Energy Change (in kJ)
Li(s)  Li(g) 161
Li(g)  Li+(g) 520
1
F (g)  F(g) 77
2 2
F(g) + e–  F–(g) (Electron gain enthalpy)
Li+(g) + F–(g)  LiF(s) –1047
1
Li (s) + F (g)  LiF(s) –617
2 2
Based on data provided, the value of electron gain enthalpy of fluorine would be :
(A) –300 kJ mol–1 (B) –228 kJ mol–1 (C) – 328 kJ mol–1 (D) –350 kJ mol–1
Q.286 Identify the correct order of conductivity in an aqueous solution.

[Where M is the d-block metal]
(A) [M(H2O)x]+2 > [M(H2O)y]+4 (B) [M(H2O)x]+2 < [M(H2O)y]+4
(C) [M(H2O)x]+2 = [M(H2O)y]+4 (D) we can not predict

Q.287 Choose the correct order of the following:

(A) Na+ (g) < Mg2+ (g) < Al3+ (g) : Hydration energy
(B) Mg2+(aq) > Sr2+ (aq) > Ba2+ (aq) : Hydrated radius order
(C) Mg2+(aq) > Sr2+ (aq) > Ba2+ (aq) : Ionic mobility order
(D) NaF > MgO > SrO : Lattice energy order
Q.288 Which one of the following is correct sequence followed by molar ionic conductance of the ions in
aqueous solution.
(A) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ (B) Rb+ < K+ < Na+ < Li+
(C) Sr2+ < Ca2+ < Mg2+ < Be2+ (D) Na+ < K+ < Li+ < Rb+
Q.289 Choose the correct statement

(A) Ionic mobilityAl3+ is greater than Mg2+ in water
(B) K+(aq) is having lesser ionic mobility than Ca2+(aq)
(C) Cl–(aq) is having highest ionic mobility among halide(aq) ions
(D) Ionic mobility of Cs+(aq) is the highest among the alkali metal ions
Q.290 The incorrect hydrated radius order is :

(A) Li+(aq) < Be2+(aq) (B) Na+(aq) < Al3+(aq)
(C) I–(aq) > Cl–(aq) (D) Ba2+(aq) < Ca2+(aq)
Q.291 The correct order of the lattice energy of the following hypothetical ionic compounds AB,A2B &A2B3
where in all compounds B is in –2 oxidation state & Ahas variable oxidation state.
(A) A2B > AB > A2B3 (B) A2B3 > AB > A2B
(C) AB > A2B > A2B3 (D) A2B3 > A2B > AB

EXERCISE-2
Q.1 For which of the following species the contribution of ‘s’ electron to the shielding constant is 0.3.
(A) H+ (B) He (C) Li+ (D) H¯
Q.2 Choose the correct statement.

(A) Be and Al are not in same group.
(B)All the transition metal ions are generally typical Lewis acid
(C) Be and Al are having lot of similarities in their properties.
(D) The atomic radius gradually decreases from Sc to Zn.
Q.3 Which of the following is false

(A) Cr2+(g) ion has greater magnetic moment compared to Co3+(g).
(B) The magnitude of ionization potential of iron anion (monoanion) would be equal to electron gain
enthalpy of iron.
(C) lanthanide contraction is cause of lower I.P. of Pb than Sn.
(D) If successive ionization energy are 332, 738, 849, 4080, 4958 (in kJ/mol). Then this element can be
of 15th group.
Q.4 Which prediction/s is/are incorrect according to the Lother meyer curve.
(A) Each peak of the curve is occupied by the alkali metals.
(B)Alkaline earth metals occupy ascending position of curve
(C) Atomic volume increases first and then decreases in a period (which is defined later) in Lother
Meyer curve.
(D) Identically placed elements in the atomic volume v/s atomic mass curve, occur in the same period,
in the periodic table.
Q.5 Which of the following properties are the properties of metal.

(A) They are sonorous
(B) They are in general poor conductor of heat and electricity.
(C) They are malleable and ductile
(D) They are hard

Q.6 Four elements P, Q, R & S have ground state electronic configuration as:
P  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 Q  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
R  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p3 S  1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p1
Select the correct statement(s).
(A) size of P < size of Q
(B) size of R < size of S
(C) size of P < size of R (appreciable difference)
(D) size of Q < size of S (appreciable difference)
Q.7 Find the correct 2nd ionisation energy order from following option(s).
(A) Al > Mg (B) Te > Sb (C) Fe > Fe+ (D) In > Sr
Q.8 The correct statements among the following are :

(A) Helium has the highest first I.P. in the periodic table.
(B) The process O(g) + e  O–2(g) is exothermic.
(C) The electron affinities of S and P are less than that of O and N respectively.
(D) In any period, the first ionisation potential of noble gas is the highest.
Q.9 Which of the following represents the correct order of the properties indicated?
(A) Ni2+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ > Mn2+ (size)
(B) Sc > Ti > Cr > Mn (size)
(C) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ (unpaired electron)
(D) H3AsO4 > H3PO4 (Acidic strength order)
Q.10 The ionic radii depends upon the following factors

(A) charge of cation.
(B) charge of anion.
(C) Shell number of valence shell electron(s) of the ion.
(D) number of atoms for multiatomic ion.
Q.11 Which of the following pair(s) of elements is/are chemically most similar?
(A) Be, Al (B)Al, In (C) Ge, Sb (D) Ti, Hf
Q.12 Which of the following element/s have same value of shielding constant () for 3s-electron.
(A) Cr (B) Fe (C) Ar (D) Cl
Q.13 Which of the following ionisation energy order is correct.

(A) S > S¯ (B) O > S¯ (C) O > O¯ (D) S > O¯
Q.14 Choose the correct order of the following properties:

(A) Fe+3 (aq) > Fe2+ (aq) : Ionic mobility order
(B) Br¯ (aq) < Cl¯ (aq) < F¯ (aq) : Hydrated radius order
(C) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 : M–H bond polarity order
(D) S > C > H > B : Electronegativity order
Q.15 Which of the following set of elements are showing diagonal relationship.
(A) Na  Ca (B) Li  Mg (C) B  Si (D) N  P
Q.16 Which of the following is / are true.

(A) Multiplicity in Fe3+ is greater than that in Co3+.
(B) Ti3+, Cr+, Sc2+ ions are diamagnetic.
(C) Value of (n + l + m) for last electron of Mg is 3.
(D) The value of Zeff for 3s electron of Cl is 10.9.
Q.17 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect.

(A) Boron is diagonally related to magnesium.
(B) Bi5+ ion has smaller radius compared to Bi3+.
(C) last number of the seventh period of periodic table will have atomic number of 124 if discovered.
(D) Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide.
Q.18 Which of the following species is/are paramagnetic?

(A) Cr3+ (B) Cr6+ (C) Al3+ (D) O¯
Q.19 Select the correct statement(s).

(A) According to Mulliken, electronegativity is related to the average of the ionization energy and
electron affinity of the atom when they are expressed in eV / atom.
(B) Electronegativityof an atom having half filled electronic configuration will be more in general.
(C) HClO3 is stronger acid than HClO.
(D) Electronegativity goes on increasing with increase in atomic number in general as we move along a
period.
Q.20 Select the correct order of Ionic radii .

(A) Mn2+ > Mn4+ (B) Mn4+ > Mn2+ (C) N > N3– (D) N3– > N
Q.21 Which of the following set of molecules have same group.

(A) Ba, Ca, Na (B) In, Al, Tl (C) Sc, Ac, La (D) Ge, Ga, Se

Q.22 Which of the following Ist ionisation energy order is / are correct
(A) Be Na (D) P > S
Q.23 Which of the following process is endothermic

(A) A2–  A¯ (B) A3+  A2+
(C) A+  A3+ (D) A+ (ns2np6(n+)s1)  A2+
Q.24 Choose the incorrect hydration energy order:

(A) Li+ > H+ (B) H+ > Rb+ (C) Be2+ < Sr2+ (D) All are correct
Q.25 Which of the following term can be calculated from the Born-Haber cycle of formation of Al2O3.
(A) Lattice energy of Al2O3 (B) Electron affinity of O-atom.
(C) Hydration energy of Al3+ (D) Ionisation energy ofAl

(A) 2nd electron gain enthalpy for any element is (+) ve.
(B) E.A. of an element  Zeff
(C) The ionisation energy order : F¯ > Cl¯
(D) All are correct
Q.27 When  is increases then which of the following periodic properties is/ are decreasing
(A) Electron gain enthalpy (B) Electronegativity
(C) Ionisation energy (D)Atomic radius
Q.28 Which of the following may represent the excited state of C–atom.
1s 2s 2p 3s 1s 2s 2p 3s
(A) (B)
1s 2s 2p 3s
(C) (D) None of these
Q.29 Which of the following pairs of elements show diagonal relationship.

(A) Li – Mg (B) Be – Mg (C) Be – Al (D) B – Si
Q.30 Which of the following statements are correct?

(A) First ionisation energy (IE1) of Be is higher than that of B.
(B) Second ionisation energy (IE2) of O is higher than that of first ionisation energy of O.
(C) F is more electronegative than Cl.
(D) CH4 and SiH4 have all equal bond angles.
Q.31 Which of the following options have correct comparison of the radii of the species involved.
(A) Na > P (B) K > Si
(C) A–2 > A–1 > A+1 > A (D) Mg > Al+3
Q.32 Which of the following statements are correct :

(A) IE2 of Cu > IE2 of Zn where as IE1 of Cu < IE1 of Zn.
(B) |egH| of S > |egH| of O.
(C) Reducing nature of Li in aqueous solution is more than that of Na.
(D) There is a substantial contraction in size observed on moving from 3rd group to 4th group in 6th
period of periodic table.
Q.33 Which of the following order is correct?

(A) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 : Acidic nature
(B) Li < Be < B < C : IE1
(C) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O : Basic nature
(D) Li+ (g) < Na+(g) < K+(g) < Cs+(g) : Ionic radius
Q.34 Choose the incorrect statement(s) :

(A) Ionic mobility of Al3+ is greater than Mg2+ in water
(B) K+(aq) is having lesser ionic mobility than Ca2+(aq)
(C) Cl¯(aq) is having highest ionic mobility among halide(aq) ions
(D) Ionic mobility of Cs+(aq) is the highest among the alkali metal ions
Q.35 Identify correct statement(s) from the following?

(A) Diamond is the hardest natural substance
(B) H+ is the smallest cation of the periodic table.
(C) Metalloids are present only in p-block.
(D) O2– has fullyfilled configuration and hence energy will be released when O2–(g) is formed from O(g)
atom.
Q.36 Which of the following ions in ground state electronic configuration will behave as diamagnetic?
(A) Na+ (B) Mg+2 (C) Sc+1 (D) K+
Q.37 Select the correct statement :

(A) Atomic size of Al is nearly equal to Atomic size of Ga.
(B) In Ist group from Na to Cs, Zeff remains constant
(C) If for an atom all the three types of radius can be measured then rvanderwall > rmetallic > rcovalent
(D) For the 3d-series elements, atomic radius remains almost constant.
Q.38 Which statement/statements are true for Zn (30) ?

(A) Zeff for 3d electron is 8.85 (B) Zeff for 4s electron is 4.35
(C)  3d for Zn is 21.15 (D)  4s for Zn is 25.65
Q.39 The ionisation energyand electron affinity of an element is 12.9 eV/atom and 3.9 eV/atom, respectively.
The electronegativity of the element is :
(A) 3.0, on Pauling scale (B) 3.0, on Mulliken scale
(C) 8.4, on Pauling scale (D) 8.4, on Mulliken scale
Q.40 Which of the following is/are correct statement(s) ?

(A) In gaseous state, Cs is stronger reducing agent than Li.
(B) In gaseous atomic state, Chlorine is stronger oxidising agent than Fluorine.
(C) In gaseous molecular state, Fluorine is stronger oxidising agent than Chlorine.
(D) In gaseous state, Al should be stronger reducing agent than Mg, if both the gaseous atoms are
converting intoAl+(g) and Mg+ (g) ions, respectively.
Q.41 Which of the following is/are correct order?

(A) Acidic strength : HClO < HBrO < HIO
(B) Basic strength : Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 > SiO2
(C) Electron affinity : I < Br < F < Cl
(D) Ionisation energy : Cl– < Cl < Cl+
Q.42 The ionic compound A+ B¯ is formed when the

(A) electron gain enthalpyof B is high (B) ionization energy ofAis low
(C) lattice energy ofAB is high (D) lattice energy of AB is low
Q.43 The correct order of atomic radii is

(A) N < Be Li < K (D) Fe2+ > Fe3+ > Fe4+
Q.44 Which of the following do(es) not have higher ionisation energy as compared to their adjacent elements
across period?
(A)Al (B) Si (C) P (D) Cl
Q.45 Which of the following order is correct for first ionisation energy?
(A) Ga > Al (B) Na < Li (C) Be > Mg (D) F < Cl

Q.46 Which of the following process energy is liberated?

(A) Cl  Cl+ + e– (B) I + e–  I– (C) Cl + e–  Cl– (D) O– + e–  O2–
Q.47 Which option is/are not correct with respect to increasing order of atomic weight?
(A) Ar < K (B) Te < I (C) Th < Pa (D) Co < Ni
Q.48 Which of the following is correct?

(A) O has more electron affinity than Se.
(B) Cl has more electron affinity than F.
(C) F is most electronegative among Halogens.
(D) Ne has highest ionisation energy in periodic table.
Q.49 Which of the following is correct regarding Ist ionisation energy?

(A) B > Al (B) Tl > In (C) Ga  Al (D) B < Tl
Q.50 Which of the following is/are correct order of first ionisation energy?
(A) P > S (B) Be > B (C) N > O (D) Li > Be
Q.51 Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

(A) F > O (Electronegativity) (B) Mg > Al (Ist ionisation energy)
(C) HCl > HI (Thermal stability) (D) Diamond > Graphite (Electrical conductance)
Q.52 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

(A) Ionisation energy of A¯ is greater than A when A is a halogen atom.
(B) Ionisation energy of A+ is greater than that of A2+ when Ais the member of alkali metals.
(C) Successive ionisation energy is always increasing for 1st and 2nd period element.
(D) Electron affinity value of 'A+' is numerically identical with the ionisation potential of A¯ [for any
atom].
Q.53 Select the pair which follows energy order according toAufbau principle.
(A) 4f < 6s (B) 5d > 5p (C) 3d < 4d (D) 4s < 3s
Q.54 Select the classification which can explain same property of 'Li, Na, K'.
(A) Lavoisier Classification (B) Dobereiners Triad Law
(C) Newland Octave (D) Mendleev
Q.55 Select the element(s) which belongs to d-block but not transition elements
(A) Zn (B) Cd (C) Hg (D) Pt
Q.56 Degenerate orbital always have :

(A) n same (B) l same (C) m different (D) same shape
Q.57 Which of the following pairs were incorrectly arranged in Mendeleev's Periodic table?
(A) Ar - K (B) Te - I (C) Th - Pa (D) Co - Ni
Q.58 Which option is correct for atomic radius?

(A) Ne > F (B) Ar > Cl (C) F > Ne (D) Cl > Ar
Q.59 Choose the correct order of ionic size :

(A) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ (B) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+
(C) N3– > O2– > F– (D) Pb2+ > Pb > Pb4+
Q.60 The species having 4 or more unpaired electrons are

(A) Fe2+ (B) Co3+ (C) Mn2+ (D) Ni2+
Q.61 Which option is / are correct?

(A) Atomic radius decreases with increase in Zeff
(B) The atomic number 50 element present in a 5th period
(C) Alkaline earth elements are II Agroup elements
(D) Alkali metals are I Agroup elements.
Q.62 Ionisation energy of an element is

(A) Equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to the electron affinity of the cation of the element.
(B) Same as electron affinity of the element
(C) Energy required to remove one valence electron from an isolated gaseous atom in its ground state.
(D) Equal in magnitude but opposite in sign to the electron affinity of the anion of the element.
Q.63 Which of the following ionisation energy order is/are correct :

(A) F > Cl– (B) F > Cl (C) Cl > F– (D) Cl– > F–

(A) Order of acidic strength N2O < NO2 < N2O3
(B) Electron affinity of O is more than that of Cl.
(C) Percent ionic character of As–H bond is less than that of Sb–H bond.
(D) Amonoatomic cation is more electronegative than its parent atom.

Q.65 Which of the following gas - phase reactions can proceed spontaneously?
(A) Kr + He+  Kr+ + He (B) Si + Cl+  Si+ + Cl
(C) Cl– + I  I– + Cl (D) Cl– + F  F– + Cl
Q.66 Mendlev left the space for elements in periodic table elements are :
(A) Ga (B) Sc (C) Ge (D) Tc
Q.67 If an element with atomic number 120 has discovered, then the correct information(s) regarding the
position of this element is modern long form of periodic table and its configuration is/are :
(A) It should belong from 8th period
(B) It's group number should be 2.
(C) It's ground state electronic configuration should be [Uuo] 8s2.
(D) It should have 28 electrons with l = 3, in the ground state.
Q.68 The increasing order of electron affinity.

(A) B < Al < O < S (B) Al < B < O < S (C) Al < B < S < O (D) Be < B < C < Si
Q.69 Which of the following is/are correct regarding p - orbital?

(A) Probability of finding a p-electron near nucleus is zero.
(B) There are three allowable values of magnetic quantum number (m)
(C) All p-orbitals are at 90° to each other.
(D) p orbitals have more penetration effect than s-orbital
Q.70 Within a given energy level order of energy can be :

(A) s > p > d > f (B) f > d > p > s (C) d > f > p > s (D) d = p = f = s
Q.71 The increasing order of atomic radius :

(A) O < N < S < P (B) Al < Se < Br < Ca
(C) Be < Li < Mg < Na (D) Al < Br < Se < Ca
Q.72 Which of the following set(s) all elements will have zero or negative electron affinity?
(A) Zn, Cd, Hg, N (B) Zn, Cd, Hg, P (C) He, Ne, Ar, Kr (D) F, Cl, Br, I
Q.73 Which of the following is incorrect order of ionisation energy.

(A) Sc > Y > La (B) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(C) Li > Na > K (D) B > Be

Q.74 Which of the following set, have elements, which are having same number of electrons in their penultimate
shell?
(A) K, Na (B) Na, Mg (C) Rb, Sr (D) None of these
Q.75 In which of the following pair, size of first element is higher as compare to second.
(A) Sc, Zn (B) Ga, Al (C) N, F (D) Fe, Co
Q.76 Choose the correct ionisation energy order for the given species?
(A) O > S > S– > O– (B) F > F– > Cl– > Cl
(C) O > O– > S– > S (D) F > Cl > Cl– > F–
Q.77 Select the correct order according to their given properties.

(A) F > Cl > Br > I [Order of Electronegativity]
(B) F– > Cl– > Br– > I– [Order of Hydrated radii]
(C) F– > Cl– > Br– > I– [Order of Ionic radii]
(D) F– < Cl– < Br– < I– [Order of Electrical conductivity]
Q.78 Select the incorrect statements:

(A) Halogens are at ascending part of the Lother-Mayer's atomic volume curve.
(B) Maximum number of elements possible in the 9th period of the periodic table are 50.
(C) As radius of Zn is greater than Cu so its ionisation energy is less than Cu.
(D) Ap-orbital can take maximum of six electron.
Q.79 Select correct statements among the following:

(A) The 1st IP of Al is less than that of Ga
(B) The 2nd IP of oxygen is greater than 2nd IP of F
(C) The 2nd IP of lithium is less than 2nd IP of oxygen
(D) The EA1 of sodium is greater than EA1 of Al
Q.80 Which of the following order is / are incorrect :

(A) O < Se < S [EA1 order ]
(B) O2– < Na+ < F¯ < Mg+2 [Ionic radius order]
(C) Li < Be < B < C [IE1 order]
(D) Cl < F < Br < I [EA1 order]
Q.81 Which of the following is / are Bridge elements?

(A) Na (B) K (C) Mg (D) Ca

Q.82 In which of the following elementsAufbau principle is violated?

(A) Cr (B) Cd (C) Cu (D) Co
Q.83 The stable oxidation states of the element with the following values of successive ionisation energy will
be:
IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4 IE5 (eV/ atom)
18 26 46 54 65
(A) +1 (B) +2 (C) +4 (D) +5
Q.84 Choose the correct options :

(A) First Ionisation Energy of N > First Ionisation Energy of O - atom
(B) First Ionisation Energy of N  < First Ionisation Energy of O atom
(C) First Ionisation Energy of N < First Ionisation Energy of N  atom
(D) First Ionisation Energy of O < Second Ionisation Energy of O- atom
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
Electronegativityis important periodic property of the elements. It varies across the period and down the
group. There are certain reasons of its variation. It also affects the properties of the compounds.
Q.85 In which of the following hydrocarbons, carbon has highest electronegativity?
(A) C2H4 (B) CH4 (C) C2H2 (D) C2H6
Q.86 Which of the following oxide is most acidic?

(A) NO (B) N2O5 (C) N2O3 (D) NO2
Q.87 Which of the following species of Mn has lowest electronegativity?

(A) Mn(II) (B) Mn(IV) (C) Mn(VI) (D) Mn(VII)


Electronic configuration (E.C.) of following elements are given as follows :
(I) 1s2 2s2 2p2 (III) 1s2 2s2 2p3
(II) 1s2 2s2 2p2 3s1 3p6 4s1 (IV) 1s2 2s2 2p0 3s2 3p6 3d1 4s2
Q.88 Select the correct set of block, group and period number for the above E.C. in periodic table.
Block Group Period Number
(A) Ip IVA 2
(B) II s IA 4
(C) III p VI A 2
(D) IV d IB 4
Q.89 Select the decreasing order of radius for the above E.C. in periodic table.
(A) II > I > IV > III (B) IV > III > II > I
(C) II > IV > I > III (D) III > IV > II > I
Q.90 Select the decreasing order of electron affinity for the above E.C. in periodic table.
(A) II > III > I > IV (B) I > II > IV > III
(C) II > I > IV > III (D) III > I > II > IV

Ionisation energy of the elements increases along the period and decreases along the group. Ionisation
energy of an element is numericallyidentical with electron affinity of the respective univalent cation.
Q.91 The first ionisation potential (in eV) of N, O atoms are:
(A) 14.6, 13.6 (B) 13.6, 14.6
(C) 13.6, 13.6 (D) 14.6, 14.6
Q.92 For the process

X (g) + e¯  X¯ (g) , H = x
and X¯ (g)  X (g) + e¯, H = y
Select correct alternate:
(A) Ionisation energy of X¯ (g) is y (B) Electron affinity of X(g) is x
(C) Electron affinity of X(g) is –y (D) All are correct statements
Q.93 Sodium forms Na+ ion but it does not form Na2+ because:
(A) Very low value of (IE)1 and (IE)2
(B) Very high value of (IE)1 and (IE)2
(C) Low value of (IE)1 and low value of (IE)2
(D) Low value of (IE)1 and high value of (IE)2

The distribution of electrons in various shells, subshells and orbitals in an atom of an element, is called its
electronic configuration.
nlx
n = represent shell
l = represent subshell
x = number of electrons in subshell
Q.94 ns2 np4 electronic configuration of outermost shell correspond to which atomic number.
(A) 82 (B) 54 (C) 34 (D) 14
Q.95 Find the species having same number of d-electron in last possible filled d-subshell in Zn.
(A) Ga (B) Pd (C) Pt (D) None of these
Q.96 For the given electronic configuration the correct set of period number, group number & block is
respectively. 1s1 2s2 2p5 3s2 3p3 3d9 4s1 4p0
(A) 4, 3, d (B) 4, 5, d (C) 3, 13, p (D) 3, 1, s

The electron affinity is a inherent property of the atom and it depends upon several factors.
Q.97 The correct electron affinity order is
(A) F > Cl (B) Cl > F (C) S O

(A) 1st I.E. of A¯ is equal to electron affinity of A
(B) 2nd electron affinity is always greater than 1st electron affinity.
(C) O  O2– process is endothermic
(D) Li  Li+ process is endothermic.

The radius of an element can be measured in three ways, covalent radii (rc), metallic radii (rm) and
Vander Waal’s radii (rv) because they are not available in a single state. Ionic radii (ri) also measured
from their crystal lattices and it depends upon their different arrangement also.
Q.99 The radius of F and Ne are respectively (approximately).
(A) 1.6Å, 0.72Å (B) 0.72Å, 0.72Å (C) 0.72Å, 1.6Å (D) 1.21Å, 1.05Å
Q.100 Which of the following order is correct for the radii of the species.
(A) Fe3+ > Fe2+ (B) O 22  O 2 (C) S2– < Cl¯ (D) Ga >> Al
Q.101 For a particular element, the correct order of radii is

(A) rc < rv < rm (B) rc  rv > rm (C) rm > rv > rc (D) rv > rm > rc


ElementsA,B,C,D and E are having the electronic configuration of:
A : 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p1
B : 1s2 , 2s2, 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p2
C : 1s2 , 2s2, 2p6 , 3s1
D : 1s2 , 2s2, 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p1
E : 1s2 , 2s2, 2p6
Q.102 Which among these will belong to same group in the periodic table.
(A) A and B (B) A and D (C) B and D (D) C and E
Q.103 The element having maximumionisation energyis

(A) D (B) B (C) E (D) C

From the following information
A– (g)  A+2 (g) + 3e– H1 = 1400 kJ/mole
A (g)  A+2 (aq) + 2e– H2 = 700 kJ/mole
He.g[A+(g)] = – 350 kJ /mol
(IE1 + IE2) for A(g) = 950 kJ /mol
Q.104 Find the value of egH of A2+ (g) in kJ / mole.

(A) + 600 (B) – 600 (C) – 500 (D) + 500
Q.105 Find the value of IE1 of A¯ in kJ/mole.

(A) + 450 (B) + 350 (C) + 600 (D) + 250
Q.106 Find the Hhydration of A2+ (g) in kJ/mole .

(A) + 250 (B) – 350 (C) – 250 (D) – 300


Some of the properties which depend on electronic configuration of elements such as atomic radii,
ionisation potential, and electronegativity etc.
Q.107 The element with maximum electronegativity belongs to
(A) Period 2, group 17 (B) Period 3, group 18
(C) Period 4, group 17 (D) Period 2, group 16
Q.108 In period, the ionisation energy is lowest for the

(A) Noble gases (B) Halogen
(C)Alkaline earth metals (D)Alkali metals
Q.109 The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4 respectively. The percentage ionic
character of A – B bond is :
(A) 50% (B) 72.2% (C) 55.3% (D) 43.0%

Ionization energy is the amount of energy required to knock out the most loosely bound electron in the
outer most shell in an isolated atom in the gaseous phase.
I.E1 = 40 eV / atom
I.E2 = 42 eV / atom
I.E3 = 200 eV / atom
Q.110 The element may belong to group

(A) 1st (B) 2nd (C) 13th (D) 14th
Q.111 The most stable oxidation state for the metal is

(A) +1 (B) +2 (C) +3 (D) +4
Q.112 Compare ionisation energy of X and X+.

X = 1s2 2s2
X+ = 1s2 2s1
(A) X+ > X (B) X > X+ (C) X+  X (D) None of these


The minimum amount of energy which is required to remove an outermost electron from any isolated
neutral gaseous atom is known as first ionisation energy. These are the following factors which effect
ionisation energy.
1
(i) Ionisation Energy  principal quantum number
(ii) Ionisation Energy  Zeff

(iii) If orbitals are fullyfilled or half filled so stability will be more and ionisation energy will
be high.
(iv) If penultimate electron will effectively shield the nucleus ionisation energy will be less and vise
versa.
Q.113 Choose the correct order of Ist ionisation energy.

(A) Ne < F (B) O > N (C) Na > Al (D) Mg > Al
Q.114 Which of the following has maximum Ist ionisation energy?

(A) He (B) Mg (C) N (D) Na
Q.115 IE1 and IE2 of Mg are 178 kcal/mol and 348 kcal/mol. The enthalpy required for the reaction
Mg  Mg2+ + 2 e– is :
(A) +170 kcal/mol (B) +526 kcal/mol
(C) – 170 kcal/mol (D) – 526 kcal/mol
Paragraph for question nos..116 to 118

The ionisation energy (IE1) of an atom is defined as the energy needed to remove an electron from
gaseous atom in its ground state. The 2nd ionisation energy (IE2) is the additional energy needed to
remove the 2nd electron and so forth. The successive ionisation energy of anyspecie is increasing always.
Q.116 If the ionisation values of elements are plotted against atomic number, then peaks are occupied by
(C) Noble gas elements (D) Halogens
Q.117 The correct order of IInd ionisation energy is :

(A) Li > Ne > O (B) Ne > F > O (C) N > O > F (D) N > O > Li
Q.118 The Ist and IIIrd ionisation energy of an element is 20 eV and 50 eV respectively than IE2 is :
(A) 40 eV (B) 60 eV (C) 55 eV (D) 10 eV


An atom is assumed to be spherical in shape and thus , the size of atom is generally given in terms of
radius of the sphere and is called atomic radius. It is usually defined as the distance between the centre
of the nucleus and outermost shell where electron or electrons are present. The exact measure of atomic
radius is not easy due to following reasons:
(i) The atom does not have well defined boundary. The probability of finding the electron is
never zero even at large distances from the nucleus.
(ii) It is not possible to get an isolated atom. The electron density around an atom is affected
by the presence of neighbouring atoms, i.e., the size of the atom changes in going from
one set of environment to another.
(iii) The size of an atom is very small, of the order of about 1.2 Å, i.e., 1.2 × 10–10 m.
An estimate of the size of the atom can, however, be made by knowing the distance between the atoms
in the combined state. The distance between the atoms, i.e., bond lengths are generally measured by the
application of techniques such as X-ray diffraction, electron diffraction, infrared spectroscopy, nuclear
magnetic resonance spectroscopy, etc. However, bond lengths change with different type of bonding.
Three types of radius are commonly used, i.e.,
(a) Covalent radius
(b) Crystal radius
(c) Vander Waal's radius
Q.119 The correct order of effective nuclear charge Zeff is

(A) Na < Mg < Al < Si Mg > Al > Si > P (D) None of these
Q.120 Choose incorrect option regarding atomic radius.

(A) F– < Cl– < H– (B) N3– > O2– > F¯
(C) Fe2+ < Fe3+ (D) Fe2+ > Fe3+
Q.121 Which of the following set of ions have the same value of screening constant for the valence electron,
calculated from Slater's rule?
(A) Li+, Na+, K+ (B) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+
(C) F¯, Cl¯, Br¯ (D) F¯, O2–, S2–

Paragraph for question nos.122 to 124

The ionisation energy (IE1) of an atom is defined as the energy needed to remove an electron from
gaseous atom in its ground state. The 2nd ionisation energy (IE2) is the additional energy needed to
remove the 2nd electron and so forth. The successive ionisation energy of anyspecie is increasing always.
Q.122 Suppose a gas mixture of He, Ne, Ar and Kr is irradiated with photons of the frequency appropriate to
ionise Ne. What ions will be present in the mixture.
(A) He+ only (B) Ne+ only
(C) He+, Ne+, Ar+ only (D) Ne+, Kr+, Ar+ only
Q.123 If the ionisation values of elements are plotted against atomic number, then peaks are occupied by
(C) Noble gas elements (D) Halogens
Q.124 The numerical value of energy involved in the given process; Na  Na¯ is less than that of which of
the following processes.
(A) Na¯  Na (B) Na  Na+
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these


Over view of long form of periodic table is as shown in which seven period and eighteen groups are
present.
IUPAC
Group No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Period
st
1 Period
nd
2 Period
rd
3 Period
th
4 Period
th
5 Period
th
6 Period
th
7 Period
Q.125 If same structure will maintain for further discovery of new elements, then what is the maximum number
of elements that can be accomodated by 10th period of periodic table?
(A) 18 (B) 36 (C) 72 (D) 90
Q.126 If each orbital can hold a maximum of 3 electron. The number of elements in 4th period of periodic table
is:
(A) 48 (B) 57 (C) 27 (D) 36
Q.127 Element with atomic number 58 belongs to which IUPAC group number in the periodic table.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

The force of attraction exerted by the nucleus on a given electron is decreased due to repulsion caused
by the intervening electrons. The net force of attraction is represented by Zeff where Zeff = Z – .
Q.128 The value of Zeff is minimum for
(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) Same for all
Q.129 The value of  for 5s electron of Rb37 is

Q.130 The force of attraction exerted the nucleus will be maximum on:
(A) 4s (B) 4p (C) 4d (D) 4f

[MATCH THE COLUMN]

(A) N, F, O, Li (P) Increasing order of | EA |
(B) F, N, Si, Mg, Rb (Q) Increasing order of IE1
(C) K, Na, Al, Mg (R) Increasing order of IE2
(D) N, B, O, Cl (S) Increasing order of radius
Q.132 Match the column :

Column-I Column-II
(A) Ni (P) Elements having same number of unpaired electron in

their dipositive ion in column I.
(B) K (Q) At least 13 electrons are having magnetic

quantum number 'zero'.
(C) Mn (R) Atom is paramagnetic.
(D) Pd (S) Element is not transition element
(T) Element having pseudo inert gas configuration in

its dipositive cation.
(Atomic Number)
(A) 57 (P) d-Block or p-Block
(B) 17 (Q) 4th Period element
(C) 19 (R) ViolatesAufbau's Principle
(D) 29 (S) Not lanthanides

Q.134 Match the column:

Column I Column II
(A) Zn (P) Solid at room temperature
(B) Hg (Q) Transition element
(C) Cr (R) d-block element
(S) Liquid at room temperature

(Characteristic involved in the (Process described)
given process of Column II)
(A) Energy released (P) S  S¯
(B) Energy absorbed (Q) O¯  O2–
(C) Inert gas configuration is achieved (R) Sr  Sr2+
(D) Half filled configuration is achieved (S) N¯  N
(T) Ge  Ge¯

(A) Si (P) Having diagonal relationship with B
(B) He (Q) p-block element
(C) O (R) Two unpaired electrons present in its ground state
(S) Having highest ionisation energy.

(A) Cl (P) Non transition element
(B) Be (Q) Having highest electronegativityamong the three.
(C) Cd (R) Element which is present in II B group
(S) Element which is first element of its group.

(Set of substances) (Characteristic the set)
(A) Ag+ , Cd+2, Sn+4 (P) Corresponding elements are representative elements.
(B) F, Br, Cl (Q) Isoelectronic species.
(C) Li, Na, K (R) Corresponding elements will lie on similar positions in
Lothermeyer's curve.
(D) Ba+2, Sr+2, La+1 (S) Arranged in increasing order of size.
(T) At least one of the corresponding elements belong to
different block.
[ Given Data : Sr (Z = 38) , Ba (Z = 56), Ag (Z = 47), Cd (Z = 48), Sn (Z = 50)]

(A) K (P) s-block element
(B) Mg (Q) element of 4th period
(C) Cr (R) d-block element
(D) Zn (S) transition element
(T) all the electrons are paired

(Number of Elements) (Period number of modern
long form of periodic table)
(A) 8 (P) 2
(B) 18 (Q) 3
(C) 32 (R) 5
(S) 6

(A) Na+, Na, Na– (P) Increasing order of radius
(B) B, C, N (Q) Decreasing order of I E
(C) F–, Cl–, Br–, I– (R) Same number of outermost shell electrons
(D) Be, Mg, Ca (S) Same principal quantum number 'n' for the
outermost shell containing electron(s).
(T) increasing order of total electrons

(A) Be (P) Bridge element
(B) Al (Q) Element having diagonal relationship
(C) O (R) Have unpaired electron
(D) Fe (S) Transition element
(T) Have no unpaired electron

Q.143 List -I List - II

(P) Total number of s-block elements (1) 14
(Q) Maximum number of electrons in some spin in (2) 15

the ground state of Chromium(Z = 24)
(R) Number of metalloid in group-13 of the modern (3) 0

long form of periodic table
(S) Effective nuclear charge for 3p- electron in the (4) 14.75
ground state of iron (Fe = 26), as per Slater's rule.
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 3 4

(A) Atomic Number = 7 (P) It belong to d-block
(B) Atomic Number = 21 (Q) Normal element
(C) Atomic Number = 16 (R) It can have magnetic quantum number value m = –2
(D) Atomic Number = 29 (S) If each orbital is occupy by 3-electrons then
It belong to p-block
(T) It have total number of even electron which has
1
l = 1 and s = 
2

(A) He (g) > H (g) (P) Ist ionisation energy
(B) Li+ (g) < Be+2 (g) (Q) Tendency to gain an electron
(C) O(g) > P (g) (R) Electronegativity
(S) Effective nuclear charge value


(A) N (P) Paramagnetic
(B) Cu+ (Q) Diamagnetic
(C) Fe (R) p-block
(D) O (S) d-block
(T) Partiallyfilled d-orbitals
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.147 The IE1, IE2, IE3, IE4 and IE5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 32.5, 46.8 and 162.2 eV respectively. The
stable oxidation state of the element is _______.
Q.148 Calculate the Zeff (approx) for 4s electron of Ni-atom according to Slater's rule.
Q.149 Find total number of elements upto atomic number 10 having positive H eg1 .
Q.150 If there were 9 periods in the periodic table & each orbital can have maximum 5 electrons, then how
many maximum number of elements will be present in period 9?
Q.151 Calculate the value of Zeff on 3d electron of Sc?
Q.152 How many elements from the following are not transition element?
Zr, Co, Cd, Hg, Au, Cu
Q.153 The amount of energyreleased when one million atoms of iodine in vapour state are converted to I– ions
is 4.9 × 10–13 J. What is the electron affinity of Iodine in eV per atom.
Q.154 Given
Bond energy of F – F bond = 38 Kcal / mol–1
Bond energy of Cl – Cl bond = 58 Kcal / mol–1
Bond energy of Cl – F bond = 61 Kcal / mol–1
Electronegativityof fluorine = 4 eV
Calculate the electronegativity of chlorine atom.
Q.155 Calculate the Zeff on the electron present in 5d-orbital of Gd (Atomic number = 64).

Q.156 Calculate the Zeff of 39th electron of Y (Yttrium).
Q.157 Find the total number of species having magnetic moment value of 2.84 B.M. from following species.
Fe2+, Cr, Cr3+, Ti2+, Mn2+, V3+
Q.158 Find the total number of low shielding electrons in Hg2+ ions.
Q.159 Find the number of 'p' block elements from the following atomic numbers given below.
83 79 42 64 37 54 34
Q.160 Find the total number of electron in d-orbital.
Q.161 The number of p block elements accordingly to following configuration is __________.

1s22s22p6, 1s22s2, 1s22s22p63s2 3p63d104s2, 1s22s22p63s2 3p1
Q.162 The number of electrons present in the s-subshell within Mn.
Q.163 The value of  (screening constant) for 3s electron of P is 10.5 then what is value of  for 3p electron
of S.
[If your answer is 3.45 then write 0345]
Q.164 The internuclear distance (x Å ) between C and H in C–H bond is determined by using Schomaker &
Stevenson equation . If internuclear distance between the two carbon atoms in C–C bond is 2.4 Å and
between the two hydrogen atoms in H–H bond is 0.8Å. Given Electronegativities of C and H are 2.4
and 2.1 respectively. Calculate the value of 1000x.
Q.165 The number of process that are definitely exothermic (Energy is released) out of the following
processes are :
(i) 2Cl(g)  Cl2(g) (ii) Na+(g) + F(g) + e–  NaF(s)
(iii) Cl(g) + H2O + e–  Cl–(aq) (iv) Al+2(g) + e–  Al+1(g)
(v) P(g) + e–  P–(g) (vi) Ne(g) + e–  Ne–(g)
(vii) Hf of H+(g) (viii)A(s)  A(g) where Ais any element

Q.166 BF3 has the following structure . If covalent radius of B is 0.85 Å and that of F is 0.73 Å and
100 Y
electronegativity of B is 2 and F is 4 then calculate the value of where Y is the intermolecular
3
distance between two fluorine atoms in Å.
Q.167 Given :  eg H of A+ = – 5x
 eg H of A2+ = – 8x
H IE of A2+ = 15x
 eg H of A4+ = – 23x
If the enthalpy change in the given process A+ (g) A4+(g) isH = ax
Then 'a' will be
Q.168 Calculate the sum of "Code numbers" of all the cases in which correct order of the mentioned parameter
is represented.
S.No. Order Parameter Code Number
1. Na < Cl < F Electronegativity 28
2. Be < Mg < Na Metallic character 53
3. Al3+ > Mg Ionic radius 14
4. O < F < Cl |egH| 8
5. Cl2O7 > Al2O3 > Na2O Basic nature of oxide 59
For example if S.No. (3) & (5) are correct your answer should be 59 + 14 = 73 therefore fill
0073.

Q.169 Calculate sum of code numbers of all those orders which are incorrectly written.
S.No. Parameter Order Code No.
1. Ionisation energy(IE1) O¯> S¯ 58
2. Atomic Size Mg > Cl > Si 22
3. Acidic nature of oxides Na2O < H2O < CO2 < SO3 46
4. Number of unpaired electron Na+ < Fe2+ < Cr < Mn 113
Q.170 The outermost shell of an element has only one electron in the ground state. If the outermost shell is the
'N' shell, then the minimum and maximum atomic numbers for the element is/are :
[If the minimum and maximum atomic numbers are 9 and 45, then fill the OMR as 0945]
Q.171 If Q = Zeff of the 26th electron of Fe then find out the value of 100 × Q ?
Q.172 The difference in atomic numbers of the inert gas and alkali metal in the 5th period of the modern long
form of periodic table is
Q.173 The ratio of 1st, 2nd and 3rd ionisation enthalpies of A– (g) is 1 : 3 : 12. If H for the process :
A2+ (g)  A– (g) is – 320 Kcal/mol, then the 2nd ionisation enthalpy of A(g) (in Kcal/mol) is :
Q.174 The species having one or more unpaired electron are paramagnetic. Among the following ions :
Cu2+, Zn2+ , Fe2+ , Ni2+, Cr3+, Co3+, Sc3+, Ti4+
the number of paramagnetic ions is :
Q.175 Read the following statements :

(i) The number of unpaired electrons in ground state of N-atom is 'x'
(ii) The maximum number of unpaired electrons in parallel spin in the ground state of Ni - atom is 'y'
(iii) The minimum number of electrons in parallel spin in the ground state of Cr-atom is 'z'.
The sum of (x + y + z) is :
Q.176 According to Pauling, the percentage ionic character in A–B molecule may be given as :
Percent ionic character = 18 (XB – XA)1.4
Where XB and XA are electronegativities of B and A, respectively and XB > XA. If XA = 1.84 and
XB = 3.48, then the percentage ionic character in A–B is (Given : (2)5/7 = 1.64)
Q.177 For an element, the metallic radius is 20% greater than its covalent radius. If the metallic radius of the
element is 180 pm, then its covalent radius (in pm) is :

Q.178 Among the following compounds, the number of compounds having greater magnitude of lattice energy
than RbBr, are
NaCl, KF, RbCl, CsBr, NaBr, KCl, CsI, RbI.
Q.179 If therewere more periods in the modern long form of the periodic table, then the maximum number of
elements in the 9th and 10th period should be (If number of elements in 9th and 10th period are 36 and
8, respectively, then answer as 3608)
Q.180 Find the group number of element 'X' which belongs to s- or p- block, having successive ionisation
energies as per the graph gives below :
35
30
IE
(ev)
12
IE1 IE2 IE3 IE4

Successive Ionisation
If your answer is group-I, write it as 0001.
Q.181 Find the total number of species having two unpaired electron from the following species.
Fe2+, Cr, Cr3+, Ti2+, Mn2+, V3+
[If your answer is 9 then write the answer as 0009]
Q.182 Find the difference(magnitude) in effective nuclear charge between a 3d electron of Ni (Z = 28) and a 2p
electron of oxygen.
Q.183 Find the total number of elements which have higher ionisation energy than their both adjacent elements
(either in a period or in a group in the long form of periodic table.)
Be, B, N, P, Ga, S, Mg
Q.184 What is the atomic number of element having IUPAC name 'Uub'?
Q.185 The magnetic moment value of species 'X' is 4.8 B.M. Find out the number of unpaired electrons in 'X'.

Q.186 From the given compounds if 'X' number of compounds which are acidic in water.
Li2O, SiO2, Cl2O7, B2O3, Cr2O3, CO, CO2, SO3, MgO, Al2O3
then find the value of 'X'
Q.187 For atom 'A' ionisation energy is given in eV :

I.E.1 I.E.2 I.E.3 I.E.4 I.E.5
11.2 24.3 37.4 48.4 392.0
How many electrons are present in valance shell of that atom?
Q.188 For X5+ ion, the successive electron affinities (in eV) are 289.7, 270.9, 30.1, 17.9 and 8.3. The expected
number of electrons in the outermost shell of X-atom is
Q.189 Representative elements 'x', 'y' and 'z' are p-block element except inert gas. If order of their magnetic
moment is x > y > z. Find the difference in possible value of group number of element 'z'.
Q.190 How many following total number of process are endothermic -

O 
 O– N 
 N– Cl+ 
 Cl
N 
 N+ Ne 
 Ne+ P 
 P+
S 
 S+ Be 
 Be+ Se 
 Se–2
Q.191 What will be the difference of Zeff in 11Na and 19K for last electron -

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 C Q.2 B Q.3 C Q.4 D Q.5 B
Q.6 C Q.7 B Q.8 C Q.9 C Q.10 A
Q.11 C Q.12 C Q.13 B Q.14 C Q.15 D
Q.16 C Q.17 C Q.18 C Q.19 B Q.20 C
Q.21 A Q.22 B Q.23 D Q.24 C Q.25 B
Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 D Q.29 A Q.30 A
Q.31 C Q.32 D Q.33 C Q.34 D Q.35 C
Q.36 B Q.37 B Q.38 D Q.39 D Q.40 C
Q.41 C Q.42 C Q.43 B Q.44 C Q.45 A
Q.46 D Q.47 C Q.48 B Q.49 D Q.50 D
Q.51 A Q.52 B Q.53 B Q.54 C Q.55 C
Q.56 C Q.57 B Q.58 B Q.59 C Q.60 A
Q.61 D Q.62 A Q.63 C Q.64 B Q.65 C
Q.66 C Q.67 D Q.68 B Q.69 C Q.70 D
Q.71 C Q.72 A Q.73 B Q.74 B Q.75 C
Q.76 D Q.77 B Q.78 B Q.79 C Q.80 A
Q.81 C Q.82 B Q.83 A Q.84 C Q.85 A
Q.86 A Q.87 D Q.88 D Q.89 A Q.90 C
Q.91 A Q.92 A Q.93 A Q.94 D Q.95 A
Q.96 D Q.97 A Q.98 D Q.99 D Q.100 A
Q.101 A Q.102 B Q.103 C Q.104 C Q.105 B
Q.106 C Q.107 A Q.108 C Q.109 D Q.110 C
Q.111 B Q.112 C Q.113 C Q.114 A Q.115 D
Q.116 A Q.117 D Q.118 A Q.119 C Q.120 C
Q.121 C Q.122 D Q.123 B Q.124 B Q.125 A
Q.126 D Q.127 D Q.128 C Q.129 C Q.130 D
Q.131 B Q.132 B Q.133 B Q.134 D Q.135 C
Q.136 A Q.137 D Q.138 D Q.139 B Q.140 A
Q.141 C Q.142 B Q.143 A Q.144 A Q.145 B
Q.146 A Q.147 B Q.148 D Q.149 A Q.150 A
Q.151 A Q.152 D Q.153 C Q.154 C Q.155 B
Q.156 B Q.157 A Q.158 A Q.159 D Q.160 D
Q.161 A Q.162 D Q.163 B Q.164 B Q.165 D
Q.166 C Q.167 D Q.168 D Q.169 A Q.170 B
Q.171 C Q.172 C Q.173 A Q.174 A Q.175 D
Q.176 C Q.177 B Q.178 C Q.179 A Q.180 C

Q.181 B Q.182 A Q.183 A Q.184 A Q.185 D
Q.186 B Q.187 A Q.188 A Q.189 B Q.190 B
Q.191 B Q.192 C Q.193 B Q.194 A Q.195 C
Q.196 B Q.197 D Q.198 C Q.199 C Q.200 B
Q.201 A Q.202 A Q.203 C Q.204 B Q.205 C
Q.206 B Q.207 D Q.208 B Q.209 D Q.210 C
Q.211 C Q.212 B Q.213 C Q.214 D Q.215 B
Q.216 B Q.217 C Q.218 A Q.219 C Q.220 B
Q.221 B Q.222 B Q.223 C Q.224 B Q.225 B
Q.226 A Q.227 C Q.228 B Q.229 B Q.230 B
Q.231 D Q.232 C Q.233 A Q.234 B Q.235 A
Q.236 B Q.237 C Q.238 C Q.239 B Q.240 D
Q.241 B Q.242 C Q.243 C Q.244 A Q.245 B
Q.246 C Q.247 D Q.248 C Q.249 C Q.250 C
Q.251 B Q.252 BC Q.253 D Q.254 D Q.255 D
Q.256 C Q.257 C Q.258 B Q.259 B Q.260 D
Q.261 C Q.262 D Q.263 D Q.264 C Q.265 A
Q.266 B Q.267 C Q.268 A Q.269 D Q.270 B
Q.271 B Q.272 A Q.273 B Q.274 A Q.275 A
Q.276 D Q.277 D Q.278 D Q.279 A Q.280 D
Q.281 B Q.282 C Q.283 D Q.284 B Q.285 C
Q.286 A Q.287 B Q.288 A Q.289 D Q.290 C
Q.291 B
EXERCISE-2
Q.1 BC Q.2 ABC Q.3 ACD Q.4 BCD Q.5 ACD
Q.6 ABC Q.7 ABD Q.8 AD Q.9 BC Q.10 ABCD
Q.11 ABD Q.12 ABC Q.13 ABCD Q.14 BCD Q.15 BC
Q.16 AC Q.17 AC Q.18 AD Q.19 ACD Q.20 AD
Q.21 BC Q.22 CD Q.23 CD Q.24 AC Q.25 ABD
Q.26 CD Q.27 ABC Q.28 AC Q.29 ACD Q.30 ABCD
Q.31 ABD Q.32 ABCD Q.33 ACD Q.34 ABC Q.35 ABC
Q.36 ABD Q.37 ABC Q.38 ABCD Q.39 AD Q.40 ABCD
Q.41 BCD Q.42 ABC Q.43 BCD Q.44 ABD Q.45 ABC
Q.46 BC Q.47 ABCD Q.48 BC Q.49 ABC Q.50 ABC
Q.51 ABC Q.52 ABD Q.53 BC Q.54 ABCD Q.55 ABC
Q.56 ABC Q.57 ABCD Q.58 AB Q.59 AC Q.60 ABC
Q.61 ABCD Q.62 AC Q.63 ABCD Q.64 AB Q.65 AB

Q.66 ABCD Q.67 ABCD Q.68 AD Q.69 ABC Q.70 BD
Q.71 ACD Q.72 AC Q.73 BD Q.74 ABC Q.75 AC
Q.76 AD Q.77 ABD Q.78 CD Q.79 ABD Q.80 BCD
Q.81 AC Q.82 AC Q.83 BCD Q.84 ABC Q.85 C
Q.86 B Q.87 A Q.88 A Q.89 C Q.90 C
Q.91 A Q.92 A Q.93 D Q.94 C Q.95 AB
Q.96 B Q.97 B Q.98 B Q.99 C Q.100 B
Q.101 D Q.102 B Q.103 C Q.104 B Q.105 A
Q.106 C Q.107 A Q.108 D Q.109 B Q.110 B
Q.111 B Q.112 A Q.113 D Q.114 A Q.115 B
Q.116 C Q.117 A Q.118 A Q.119 A Q.120 C
Q.121 B Q.122 D Q.123 C Q.124 B Q.125 C
Q.126 C Q.127 C Q.128 A Q.129 B Q.130 A
Q.131 (A) R; (B) S; (C) Q ; (D) P Q.132 (A) P,Q,R (B) R,S (C) P,Q,R (D) P,Q
Q.133 (A) P,R,S (B) P,S (C) Q,S (D) P,Q,R,S Q.134 (A) P,R ; (B) R,S ; (C) P,Q,R
Q.135 (A) P,S,T (B) Q,R (C) Q,R (D) S,T Q.136 (A) P,Q,R (B) S (C) Q,R
Q.137 (A) P, Q (B) P, S (C) P, R Q.138 (A) Q, T (B) P,R, (C) P,R,S (D) T
Q.139 (A) P,Q, (B) PT (C) Q,R,S (D) Q,R,T Q.140 (A) P,Q (B) R (C) S
Q.141 (A) P, Q, T; (B) S, T; (C) P, R, T ; (D) P, Q, R, T
Q.142 (A) QT (B) PQR (C) R (D) RS
Q.143 D Q.144 (A) QS (B) PRST (C) QT (D) PRT
Q.145 (A) PS (B) PQRS (C) PQR Q.146 (A) PR (B) QS (C) PST (D) PR
Q.147 + 4 Q.148 0004 Q.149 4 Q.150 0125
Q.151 0003 Q.152 0002 Q.153 3.06 Q.154 3.22 eV Q.155 3
Q.156 0003 Q.157 2 Q.158 44 Q.159 3 Q.160 2
Q.161 2 Q.162 8 Q.163 1085 Q.164 1573 Q.165 0005
Q.166 140 Å Q.167 0046 Q.168 0089 Q.169 0193 Q.170 1929
Q.171 625 Q.172 0017 Q.173 0240 Q.174 0005 Q.175 0014
Q.176 0036 Q.177 0150 Q.178 0005 Q.179 5072 Q.180 0002
Q.181 0002 Q.182 0003 Q.183 0005 Q.184 0112 Q.185 0004
Q.186 5 Q.187 4 Q.188 3 Q.189 4 Q.190 7
Q.191 0

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY BASIC CHEMICAL BONDING
3
CHAPTER
BASIC CHEMICAL BONDING
EXERCISE-1
INTRODUCTION
Q.1 What will be the correct formula if A and B are involved to form ionic compound. The electronic
configuration ofAand B are as follows:
A : [Ar] 3d10 4s2 B : [Ne] 3s2 3p4
(A) A2B (B)AB (C) AB2 (D) A2B3
Q.2 The atomic number of two elementsAand B are 17 and 20 respectively. The formula of ionic compound
made byAand B is (where the cation is conventionally written first)
(A) AB (B) A2B (C) AB2 (D) BA2
Q.3 Which of the following pair(s) represent(s) the isoelectronic species ?


(I) CH4 and NH4+ (II) SO2 and NO3– (III) NO and C N (IV) SO2 and NH3
(A) I & II (B) II, III, IV (C) I, II, III, IV (D) II & III
Q.4 Which of the following ionic compound has highest lattice energy?
(A) NaF (B) NaCl (C) AlF3 (D) Al2O3
Q.5 Which of the following statements is correct regarding HCN and HNC?
(A) Both produce same ions on ionisation
(B) Both have equal tendency to release proton
(C) Both have same central atom.
(D) Both are not linear
Q.6 The total number of valence electrons in 4.2 g of N3¯ ion are
(A) 2.2 NA (B) 4.2 NA (C) 1.6 NA (D) 3.2 NA
Q.7 In which of the following species the bonds are non-directional.

(A) NCl3 (B) RbCl (C) BeCl2 (D) BCl3

Q.8 Which has the highest lattice energy?

(A) LiF (B) LiCl (C) NaCl (D) MgO
Q.9 Which set of species is molecule at room temperature?

(A) NaCl, CO2 (B) HCl, SiO2 (C) HCl, CO2 (D) NaCl, SiO2
Q.10 Bond energy of which of the following interaction is less than 8 kJ/mole.
(A) Cu2+(aq) and NH3 (B) Xe and H2O (C) Na+ and [BF4]– (D) C2H5OH and HF
Q.11 Variable covalency is exhibited by which pair of atoms , when formal charge on atom is zero.
(A) P and S (B) N and O (C) N and P (D) F and Cl
Q.12 Consider three hypothetical ionic compounds AB, A2B and A2B3 , where in all the compounds B is in
–2 oxidation state and A has a variable oxidation state. What is the correct order of lattice energy for
these compounds ?
(A) A2B > AB > A2B3 (B) A2B3 > AB > A2B
(C) AB > A2B > A2B3 (D) A2B3 > A2B > AB
Q.13 Read the following information about ionic compound -

(I) For formation of ionic compound ionisation potential of metal should be high.
(II) Ionic bond has non-directional nature.
(III) For completion of octet ionic bond can represent as a coordinate bond.
(IV) Ionic compound does not conduct electricity in solid state but conduct electricity in molten state.
(V) During the solubility of ionic compound if lattice energy < Hydration energy then compound is
soluble in water.
The number of statements which are correct is :
(A) two (B) three
(C) one (D) All five statement are correct
Q.14 The number of excited state of centre atom to the formation of , IF7 , PCl5, SO2Cl2 and NH3 are x, y,
z and w respectively, the correct order of :
(A) x > z > y > w (B) x = z = y = w (C) x > z = y < w (D) x < z < y < w
Q.15 The succeessive ionization enthalpies of an element (M) are 899, 1757 and 14850 kJ mol–1. Formula of
its chloride is :
(A) MCl (B) MCl2 (C) MCl3 (D) MCl4

Q.16 A compound contains three elements A, B and C, if the oxidation number of A = +2, B = +5 and
C = –2, the possible formula of the compound is
(A) A3(B4C)2 (B) A3(BC4)2 (C) A2(BC3)2 (D) ABC2
LEWIS OCTET RULE

Q.17 What is the formal charge on nitrogen in NO3¯ ?
(A) + 3 (B) +1 (C) –1 (D) + 4
Q.18 Sum of formal charge of all atom of given species is

(A) real charge on given species (B) imiginary charge charge on given species
(C) oxidation state of central atom (D) oxidation state of surrounding atom
:
O
Q.19 The formal charges on three 'O' atoms in O3 molecule are : :.
O: :O:
(A) 0, 0, 0 (B) 0, 0, –1 (C) 0, 0, +1 (D) 0, +1, –1
Q.20 Find out the molecule/ species which is not electron defficient.
(A)AlCl3 (B) BeH2 (C) BH4¯ (D) BF3
Q.21 The number of -bonds and -bonds in the octet structure of SO3 is
(A) 3, 3 (B) 3, 2 (C) 3, 1 (D) None of these
Q.22 Which of following molecule/specie is having maximum number of lone pairs in Lewis - dot structure.
(A) BH4– (B) BF4– (C) CN¯ (D) COCl2
Q.23 Which of the following is correct Lewis Dot structure for N3¯.

       –2
(A) N  N – N (B) N  N = N (C) N  N = N (D) N  N = N
Q.24 Which of the following molecule has co-ordinate bond in it’s Lewis structure.
(A) CO32– (B) SO3 (C) NO2– (D) HCN
Q.25 Which of the following ion has inert gas configuration and having complete octet.
(A) B+3 (B) Al+3 (C) Ga+3 (D)All of these
Q.26 Which of the following does not exist?

(A) SF4 (B) OF6 (C) OF2 (D) SF6

Q.27 The compound which does not exist, is

(A) NCl3 (B) NCl5 (C) PCl5 (D) PH3
Q.28 Which of the following doesn't obeys Lewis octet rule?

(A) CO (B) NO3– (C) O3 (D) NO
Q.29 Which of the following has incomplete octet?

(A) NH3 (B) BF3 (C) SiCl4 (D) CO2
Q.30 Which of the following molecule does not exist?

(A) PF5 (B) NOF3 (C) FCl3 (D) NO2Cl
VBT (OVERLAPPING THEORY)

Q.31 Which of the approaching axis is not appropriate to form -bond by two py-orbitals.
(A) y-axis (B) x-axis (C) z-axis (D) No suitable axis
Q.32 Which of the following elements does not form stable diatomic molecules?
(A) Iodine (B) Phosphorus (C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen
Q.33 Which of the following combination will not form -bond?

(A) p – p overlapping (B) s – p overlapping (C) d – d overlapping (D) d – p overlapping
Q.34 Choose the correct order of bond strength by overlapping of atomic orbitals
(A) 1s-1s > 1s-2s > 1s-2p (B) 2s-2s > 2s-2p > 2p-2p
(C) 2s-2p > 2s-2s > 2p-2p (D) 1s-1s > 1s-2p > 1s-2s
Q.35 The possible orientations in space for a d-orbital is

(A) 7 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 5
Q.36 Which of the following orbital is having longest lobe.

(A) 3p (B) 3d (C) 2p (D) 4d
Q.37 Choose the incorrect option for bond strength.

(A) 2p– 2p > 2p – 3p (B) 2p– 3p > 2p – 3d
(C) 1s– 2p > 2s – 2p (D) 2s– 2p > 3s – 3p

Q.38 If x-axis is the internuclear axis, -bond is formed by overlap between :
(A) py and dxy (B) px and dxy (C) px and d x 2  y 2 (D) None of these
Q.39 Which of the following is maximum thermal stable compound?

(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI
Q.40 Which of the molecule has p – p overlapping?

(A) Cl2 (B) HCl (C) H2O (D) NH3
Q.41 The strength order of  bond is

(A) 2p–2p > 2p–3d > 2p–3p > 3p–3p (B) 2p–2p < 2p–3d < 2p–3p < 3p–3p
(C) 2p–2p < 2p–3d < 2p–3p > 3p–3p (D) 2p–2p < 2p–3d > 2p–3p < 3p–3p
Q.42 d z 2 orbital is combination of :
(A) d z2 & d xz (B) d z 2  x 2 & d z 2  y 2 (C) d z 2 & d xy (D) d z2 & d yz
Q.43 If internuclear axis is y then  - bond is form by -

(A) px + px (B) s + px (C) py + py (D) px + py
Q.44 Which is correct order of bond strength ?

(A) 1s – 1s > 2p – 2p (B) 2p–2p < 2p – 3d
(C) 2p – 3p > 2p – 3d (D) 2s – 2s > 2p – 2p
Q.45 Assuming the bond direction to be z-axis, which of the overlapping of atomic orbitals of two atom (A)
and (B) will result in bonding?
(I) s-orbital of A and px orbital of B (II) s-orbital of A and pz orbital of B
(III) py-orbital of A and pz orbital of B (IV) s-orbitals of both (A) and (B)
(A) I and IV (B) I and II (C) III and IV (D) II and IV
Q.46 In which of the following pair of elements the  -bond formation tendency is maximum.
(A) S and O (B) Si and O (C) P and O (D) Cl and O
Q.47 Which of the following set of orbital overlap can not form - bond.
(A) d x 2  y 2 and py (B) dxy and py (C) px and px (D) dxy and dxy

Q.48 Which one of the following bonds has the highest bond energy :
(A) C – C (B) Si – Si (C) Ge – Ge (D) Sn – Sn
Q.49 Two pz orbitals from two atoms can form a -bond when they approach along.
(A) x-axis (B) z-axis (C) y-axis (D) None
Q.50 Number of  and  bonds present in : CH3 – CH = CH – C  CH

(A) 10, 3 (B) 10, 2 (C) 9, 2 (D) 8, 3
HYBRIDISATION
Q.51 What is the hybridisation of anionic part of solid Cl2O6 molecule.
(A) sp3d (B) sp3 (C) sp2 (D) sp3d2
Q.52 How many bond angles of 90° are present in trigonal bipyramidal shape of PCl5?
(A) 9 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) None of these
Q.53 The number of 90° angle in SF6 are :

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 16
Q.54 Choose the correct option for following statements :

(I) sp3 hybrid orbitals are at 90° to one another
(II) sp3d2 adjacent hybrid orbitals are at 90° to one another
(III) sp2 hybrid orbitals are at 120° to one another
(IV) Bond order of N–O bond in NO3¯ is 1 1 3
(A) T F T F (B) T T F F (C) F T T T (D) F T F T
Q.55 Which of the following compound having number of p-p bond is equal to p-d bonds?
(A) SO2 (B) SO3 (C) O3 (D) POCl3
Q.56 What is the state of hybridisation of anionic part of solid N2O5

(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) Not applicable
Q.57 The pair of compounds having similar geometry.

(A) BF3, NF3 (B) BeF2, H2O (C) BCl3, PCl3 (D) BF3, CH3+

Q.58 TeF5¯, XeF2 , I3+ , XeF4 , PCl3

Which of the following shape does not describe to any of the above species ?
(A) Square pyramidal (B) Square planar
(C) Trigonal planar (D) Linear
Q.59 Which of the following species does not exist?
(A) XeF3 (B) XeF4 (C) XeF5 (D) XeF6
Q.60 Find the species / molecule is having maximum number of lone pair on the central atom.
(A) ClOF4¯ (B) ClOF2+ (C) BH4¯ (D) XeOF2
Q.61 What is the hybridisation of C-atoms bonded by the triple bond in benzyne.
(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) Can't be predicted
Q.62 The hybridisation of central atom of cationic and anionic part of Cl2O6 (solid) respectively.
(A) sp2, sp2 (B) sp3, sp2 (C) sp2, sp3 (D) sp, sp2
Q.63 The number of  bonds and -bonds in case of lewis structure of SO42–.
(A) 4, 2 (B) 4, 1 (C) 4, zero  (D) 4, 4
Q.64 The orbital involved in case of sp3d2 hybridisation is
(A) s + px + py + dxy + pz + d z 2 (B) s + px + py + d z 2 + pz + dyz
(C) s + px + py + pz + d z 2 + d x 2  y 2 (D) s + px + py + pz + dyz + dxz
Q.65 Which of the following molecule / species is having minimum number of lone pair on its central atom.
(A) BrF3 (B) BrF4¯ (C) XeF5+ (D) I3¯
Q.66 If pure 'p' orbitals are involved in molecule formation, then the shape of H3O+ will be
(A) Pyramidal (B) Tetrahedral (C)Angular (D) Planar
Q.67 The species which is not tetrahedral in shape is


(A) ICl 4 (B) BF4 (C) AlH 4 (D) NF
4

Q.68 Which of the following pair of species is not isostructural ?
(A) KrF2, ICl 2 (B) SO3, SO32 (C) CO32 , BO33 (D) SiO 44 , IO 4
Q.69 Find the pair of species having same shape but different hybridisation.
(A) SO3, CO32– (B) NO2¯, ClO2¯ (C) BeCl2, HCN (D) XeF2, SnCl2
Q.70 The hybridisation of all carbon atom in benzene is

(A) sp2 (B) sp3 (C) sp2 and sp3 (D) sp2 and sp
Q.71 d z 2 orbital is present in which of the following hybridisation.
(A) sp3d (Square pyramidal) (B) sp3

(C) sp3d2 (D) sp3d4 (square anti prismatic)
Q.72 Which of the following molecule has two -bonds in it’s structure.
(A) N 3 (B) SCN¯ (C) C34– (D) All are correct
Q.73 What is the hybridisation of Xe in cationic part of solid XeF6.

(A) sp3d3 (B) sp3d (C) sp3d2 (D) sp3
Q.74 Which of the following d-orbital takes part in sp3d hybridisation?

(A) dxy (B) dyz (C) d 2 (D) dzx
z
Q.75 Shape of NH4+ and BF4– are :

(A) Tetrahedral & Tetrahedral (B) Pyramidal & Tetrahedral
(C) Square planar & Tetrahedral (D) Tetrahederal & Trigonal planar
Q.76 Which of the following has total 5 lone pair in molecule?

(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) ClF3 (D) [XeF5]–
Q.77 Which of the following is T-shaped?

(A) PCl3 (B) BCl3 (C) NH3 (D) ClF3
Q.78 Which of the following is linear?

(A) CO2 (B) BeCl2 (C) NO2+ (D)All of these

CO-ORDINATE BOND
Q.79 Which of the following molecule when combines with water, then H2O molecule does not attack at
central atom?
(A) PCl3 (B) NCl3 (C) ClF3 (D) CO2
Q.80 For which of the following combination, Lewis-acid base interaction does not occur:
(A) H3BO3 + H2O (B) CO2 + H2O (C) KI + I2 (D) SF6 + H2O
Q.81 Which one is least basic among the following trihalide?

(A) NF3 (B) NCl3 (C) NBr3 (D) NI3
Q.82 Which of them follows octet rule and also act as Lewis acid?
(A) BCl3 (B) XeF2 (C) SiF4 (D) PCl5
Q.83 Which of following molecule can show Lewis acidity.

(I) CO2 (II) Br2 (III) SnCl2 (IV) HF (V) NMe3
(A) III, IV (B) I, II, III (C) I, III, IV (D) II, III, V
Q.84 Which of the following species will be the strongest Lewis acid.
(A ) Fe0 (B) Fe+3 (C) Fe2+ (D) Fe+1
Q.85 F3B + : NH 3 F3B : NH3

What will be the hybridisation of B and N respectively?
(A) sp3 , sp3 (B) sp2 , sp3 (C) sp2 , sp2 (D) sp2 , sp2
Q.86 The maximum no of atoms in a plane for the compound formed by reaction of SbF5 with SO2 is :
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 9
Q.87 SbF5 reacts with XeF4 to form an adduct. The shapes of cation and anion in the adduct are respectively.
(A) Square planar, trigonal bipyramidal (B) T-shaped, octahedral
(C) Square pyramidal, octahedral (D) Square planar, octahedral
Q.88 MF (M+ = alkali metal cation) + XeF4  'A'

The state of hybridisation of the central atom in 'A' and shape of the species are respectively.
(A) sp3d, TBP (B) sp3d3, distorted Octahedral
(C) sp3d3 , Pentagonal Planar (D) No compound formed at all

Q.89 IF7 + BF3  [X]

What is the shape of cationic and anionic part in ionic compound [X] respectively?
(A) Trigonal bipyramidal and Octrahedral
(B) Trigonal bipyramidal & Tetrahedral
(C) Octahedral & Tetrahedral
(D) Pentagonal bipyramidal & Tetrahedral
BOND PARAMETERS & BENT’S RULE

Q.90 For which of the following molecule s-character is found to be maximum in lone pair present at central
atom.
(A) NH3 (B) H2O (C) SF2 (D) AsH3
Q.91 It has been observed that % 's' character in Sb–H bond in SbH3 is 0.5%. Predict the % 's' character in
the orbital occupied by the lone pair is
(A) 99.5 % (B) 99.0 % (C) 98.5 % (D) 98.0 %
Q.92 The orbitals occupy more space will have more “s” character and accordinglywhich is incorrect statement.
(A) l.p. will go to the axial position of PBP (pentagonal bipyramidal) geometry.
(B) l.p.will go to the equitorial position of TBP (trigonal bipyramidal) geometry.
(C)Axial bond lengths of PBP geometry is longer than equatorial.
(D) Equatorial bond lengths of TBP geometry are shorter than axial.
Q.93 Calculate the % p character in the orbital occupied by the lone pairs in water molecule.
[Given : ÐHOH is 104.5° and Cos (104.5°) = – 0.25]
(A) 80% (B) 20% (C) 70 % (D) 75%
Q.94 As the s-character of hybrid orbitals increases

(A) Bond angle decreases (B) Bond angle increases
(C) Bond strength decreases (D) Bond length increases
Q.95 Select the correct order of bond angle of the following species.
ClO3¯ , BrO3¯, IO3¯
(A) BrO3¯ > IO3¯ > ClO3¯ (B) ClO3¯ > BrO3¯ > IO3¯
(C) IO3¯ > BrO3¯> ClO3¯ (D) IO3¯ < BrO3¯ > ClO3¯
Q.96 The bond order of X–O bond in HPO32– and ClO4¯ are respectively.
(A) 1.25 and 1.75 (B) 1.33 and 1.25 (C) 1.33 and 1.33 (D) 1.33 and 1.75

Q.97 Find out the relation between (adjacent angle) FClF and FBrF bond angle in ClF3 and BrF3 molecule
respectively.
(A) FClF = FBrF (B) FClF > FBrF
(C) FClF < FBrF (D) Can't predicted.
Q.98 The compound is having shortest S–O bond length is

(A) SO3F¯ (B) SO42– (C) SOF4 (D) SOCl2
Q.99 Which of the following statement is not correct regarding SF2Cl2 molecule?
(A) Two axial bond lengths are longer compared to two equitorial bond lengths.
(B) Two S–F bond lengths are identical.
(C) Two S–Cl bond lengths are identical.
(D) Lone pair is not changing its position.
Q.100 The total right angled  ClPCl are present in PCl5, PCl4+, PCl6¯ _ , _ , _ respectively.
(A) 0, 1, 4 (B) 6, 0, 4 (C) 2, 4, 0 (D) 6, 0, 12
Q.101 If hybridisation is absent in NH3 and pure orbitals involved in bonding then select the incorrect statement.
(A) All bonds have equal strength (B) Shape of NH3 will be pyramidal
(C) All HNH angles are 90° (D) All HNH angles are 107°
Q.102 Which of the following has 90° bond angle in its structure?
(A) IF7 (B) SF6 (C) PCl5 (D)All
Q.103 The correct order of  OPX bond angle is (X = F, Cl, Br):

(A) POF3 > POCl3 > POBr3 (B) POF3 < POCl3 < POBr3
(C) POF3 = POCl3 = POBr3 (D) POCl3 > POF3 > POBr3
Q.104 The correct order of bond length (C – O) is

(A) CO2 < CO < CO32– (B) CO32– < CO < CO2
(C) CO < CO2 < CO32– (D) CO < CO32– < CO2
Q.105 Which of the following has maximum bond angle?

(A) NF3 (B) NCl3 (C) PCl3 (D) OF2
Q.106 Which of the following has the shortest N–H bond length?
(A) H2N – NH2 (B) H–N = N–H (C) NH3 (D) CH3—NH2
Q.107 Which of the following has minimum bond angle about oxygen?
(A) OF2 (B) OCl2 (C) (CH3)2O (D) H2O
Q.108 Which of the following molecules or ions has different bond lengths?
(A) XeF4 (B) BF4¯ (C) SF4 (D) SiF4
Q.109 The correct order of bond angle is

(A) PF3 < PCl3 < PI3 < PBr3 (B) PF3 < PCl3 < PBr3 < PI3
(C) PF3 > PCl3 > PBr3 > PI3 (D) PCl3 > PF3 > PBr3 > PI3
Q.110 Which of the following has all equal bond angles?

(A) CH3Cl (B) CH2F2 (C) NH3 (D) NH2–OH
Q.111 In which of the following O–N–O bond angle is highest?

(A) NO2+ (B) NO3– (C) NO2– (D) None
Q.112 Correct order of bond length of p, q, r, s in following compound is
O H– C – H (s)
(q)
¯O – C – O¯
(r)
CH3 – C – O¯ CH3 – OH
(p) O O
(A) p < s < q < r (B) s < p < q < r (C) r < q < s < r (D) q < p < s < r
Q.113 Which of the following tri-atomic planar species have bond angle greater than 104° and less than bond
angle in perfectly tetrahedral species?
(A) OCl2 (B) NH3 (C) OF2 (D) OH2
Q.114 Choose the correct statement regarding the I–I bond length in free I3 .
(A) shorter than I-I distance in I2 (B) Two I–I distances are different.
(C) Two I–I distances are same. (D) Resonance predict the bond length.
Q.115 The bond length of the S–O bond is maximum in which of the following compound.
SOBr2, SOCl2, SOF2
(A) SOCl2 (B) SOBr2 (C) SOF2 (D)All have same length
Q.116 In which of following cases C–C bond length will be highest.

(A) CH3–CF3 (B) FCH2–CH2F (C) F2CH–CHF2 (D) CF3–CF3

Q.117 Which of the following statements is/are incorrect for following species:
BO33 , CO 32 , NO 3
(A) They are isoelectronic and isostructural.

(B) They have same bond angle.
(C) The extent of -bonding is in the order of CO32  NO3  BO33 .
(D) Bond angles are same in every cases.
Q.118 The correct order in which dO– O increases

(A) H2O2 < O2 < O3 (B) O2 < O3 < H2O2
(C) H2O2 < O3 < O2 (D) O2 < H2O2 < O3
Q.119 In which of the following option, all bond lengths are not equal.
(A) BF3 (B) NF3 (C) XeF4 (D) ClF3
POLAR AND PLANAR (DIPOLE MOMENT)

Q.120 Choose the correct option for the following molecule in view of chemical bonding
(A) non-planar (B)   0 (C) A & B both (D)  = 0
Q.121 What may be the geometry of molecule if AX3 molecule has non-zero dipole moment.
(A) Trigonal planar (B) Bent T-shape (C) Pyramidal (D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.122 Find the molecule which is planar and polar.

(A) B3N3H6 (B) F2C = C = C = CF2
(C) BrF2Cl (D) F2C = C = CF2
Q.123 How many maximum number of atoms are present in single plane ofAl(CH3)3 molecule.
(A) 7 (B) 4 (C) 10 (D) 6
Q.124 The polar and planar compound is :

(A) SF4 (B) BF2Cl (C) CH2F2 (D) O2F2

Q.125 Select the property which do(es) not follow the following order for NX3 (X = halogen).
NF3 < NCl3 < NBr3 < NI3
(A) XNX bond angle (B) NX bond length
(C) N–X bond polarity (D)All of these
Q.126 Which of the following molecule is planar?

(A) F2C = C = C = C = CF2 (B) H2C = C = CH2
(C) C2H2 (D)All of these
Q.127 Amongst NO 3 , AsO 33 , CO 32 , ClO 3 , SO 32 and BO33 , the non-planar species are
(A) CO 32 , SO 32 , BO33 (B) AsO 33 , ClO 3 , SO 32
(C) NO 3 , CO 32 , BO33 (D) SO 32 , NO 3 , BO33
Q.128 The nodal plane in the -bond of ethene is located in

(A) the molecular plane
(B) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
(C) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon-carbon  bond at right angle.
(D) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon-carbon bond.
Q.129 Which of the following pair of molecule have same shape but different in polarity (Polar or nonpolar)
(A) H2O & NH3 (B) SnCl2 & SO2 (C) CO2 & N2O (D) SO2 & SO3
Q.130 In which of the following pairs of compounds, the first one is more polar than the second one?
(A) SO3 , SO2 (B) NF3 , NH3 (C) CH3Cl, CH3F (D) PF2Cl3, PF3Cl2
Q.131 The molecule which is planar.

(A) SF4 (B) BrF5 (C) ICl4¯ (D) NH4+
Q.132 Which of the following is non polar and pentagonal planar species?
(A) XeF6 (B) XeOF4 (C) XeF5¯ (D) XeF4
Q.133 Which of the following statements is incorrect for the dipole moment measurement of the compound.
(A) It helps to predict the percentage ionic character in a bond.
(B) It helps to predict the shape of the molecule.
(C) It helps to predict the particular cis trans isomer.
(D) It help to predict the bond energies of all bonds within the molecule.
Q.134 Which of the following molecule / ion has zero dipole moment.
(A) ClF3 (B) ICl2 (C) SF4 (D) None of these
Q.135 If the measured dipole moment for the molecule is zero then for which of given formula the shape and
hybridization of the species can be predicted.
(A) AX3 (B) AX4 (C) AX5 (D) AX2
Q.136 The correct order of dipole moment is :

(A) CH3Cl < CH3F < CH3Br < CH3I (B) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br > CH3I
(C) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I (D) CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I
Q.137 Which of the following has non-zero dipole moment?

(A) CCl4 (B) C2H6 (C) CO2 (D) SO2
Q.138 Which of the given compound has highest dipole moment ?
Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl
Q.139 Which of the following molecule have nonzero dipole moment?

(A) P(CH3)3(CF3)2 (B) PF3Cl2 (C) BF3, (D) CCl4
Q.140 If IFxn, types species are planar and nonpolar, then which of the following match is correct (where x is
number of F atoms and n is charge on species)
(A) x = 2 and n = + 1 (B) x = 3 and n = 0 (C) x = 2 and n = – 1 (D) x = 5 and n = 0

EXERCISE-2

Q.1 Which of the following are isoelectronic pairs.
(A) H2, HD (B) CO, N2 (C) HCl, H2S (D) D2O, Ne
Q.2 Which pair(s) can form XY type compound?

(A) Al, P (B) Mg, N (C) Ca, O (D) Na, F
Q.3 Which bonds are directional?

(A) ionic (B) covalent (C) Dative (D)All of these
Q.4 Correct statement(s) regarding ionic compound is/are:

(A) High melting points and non-directional bonds.
(B) Shows structural isomerism.
(C) Directional bonds and low-boiling points.
(D) High solubilities in polar solvents.
Q.5 Which of the following is / are not possible?

(A) NOF3 (B) NF5 (C) OF4 (D) SnCl3–
Q.6 Which of the following molecule is / are electron deficient.

(A) BeCl2 (B) CH2Cl2 (C) BH3 (D) NH2Cl
Q.7 Assuming pure 2s and 2p orbitals of carbon are used in forming CH4 molecule, which of the following
statement are true?
(A) Three C–H bonds will be at 90°.
(B) Three C–H bond will be stronger than 4th C–H bond.
(C) The angle of C–H bond formed by s–s overlapping will be uncertain with respect to other
three bonds.
(D) No prediction regarding the shape of the molecule.
Q.8 Which of the following overlapping is involved in formation of only -bond.

(A) s – p overlapping (B) p – d overlapping
(C) s – s overlapping (D) p – p overlapping

Q.9 Which of the following statement is correct

(A) xz plane is the nodal plane for py orbital.
(B) xy and xz planes are nodal planes for dxz orbital.
(C) nodal planes for d x 2  y 2 are at 45° inclined with the x-axis and perpendicular to xz-plane.
(D) nodal planes of -bonds of B3N3H6 are at molecular plane.
Q.10 If z-axis be the internuclear axis, -bond would be formed by the overlap between:
(A) s and pz (B) pz and pz (C) py and py (D) d z 2 and d z 2
Q.11 Select correct statements regarding  and  bonds.

(A)  -bond lies on the line joining the nuclei of bonded atoms.
(B)  -electron cloud lies on either side to the line joining the nuclei of bonded atoms.
(C) (2p - 3d) -bond is stronger than (2p - 3p) -bond.
(D) -bond has primary effect to decide direction of covalent bond, while -bond has no primary effect
in direction of bond.
Q.12 Which of the following pair of compound have same hybridisation but different shape of the molecule
(A) BeH2, XeF2 (B) SO2, SO3 (C) CO2, SnCl2 (D) XeF2, SeF4
Q.13 Which of following shape can not be derived from sp3d2 hybridisation of the molecule having single
central atom.
(A) Octahedral (B) Trigonal pyramidal
(C) Square planar (D) Linear
Q.14 What are the following types of bond present in CuSO4. 5H2O.
(A) H-bond (B) Electrovalent bond
(C) Covalent bond (D) Co-ordinate covalent bond
Q.15 Which of following pair of species is having different hybridisation but same shape.
(A) BeCl2 and CO2 (B) CO2 and SO2 (C) SO2 and I3 (D) ICl 2 and BeH2
Q.16 The bent-shape of the molecule maydevelop from which of the following hybridisation(s).
(A) sp3d (B) sp3 (C) sp (D) sp2
Q.17 The hybridisation of Xe–atom in XeO64 is same as
(A) Xe in XeF6 (B) Te in TeO66 (C) P in PF6 (D) Si in SiF62

Q.18 The shape of H2S2 is identical to that of

(A) S2Cl2 (B) O2F2 (C) C2F2 (D) H2O2
Q.19 Which pair of compounds is not isostructural but possesses same number of lone pairs on the central
atom?
(A) SF4 and SO32 (B) CO2 and SO2 (C) XeF2 and BeH2 (D) ClF3 and XeF4
Q.20 From octahedral electron geometry of the central atom which of the following shape of the molecule /
species may be possible.
(A) Square pyramidal (B) Linear
(C) Square planar (D) Bent
Q.21 Which of the following molecule does not have cyclic structure.
(A) S3O9 (B) B3O63– (C) H2S4O6 (D) H5P3O10
Q.22 In which of following cases, the hybridisation of the central atom for the cationic part in their solid is
identical.
(A) PCl5(s) (B) PBr5(s) (C) N2O5(s) (D) XeF6(s)
Q.23 Which of the following has tetrahedral shape?

(A) KMnO4 (B) K2CrO4 (C) KClO4 (D) NH3
Q.24 Which of the following electronic arrangement(s) is/are stable?

:
F
:
F
:
F F F
: F Xe– F
(A) F Cl (B) F S (C) Xe (D)
: F F
F F
F F F
:
Q.25 Which of the following have a three dimensional network structure ?

(A) SiO2 (B) Diamond (C) P4 (white) (D) CCl4
Q.26 Which of the following statement(s) is/ are correct regarding hybrid orbitals?
(A) The number of hybrid orbitals is equal to the number of the atomic orbitals that get hybridised.
(B) Hybrid orbitals are equivalent in energy and shape
(C) The hybrid orbitals are more effective in forming stable bonds than the pure atomic orbitals.
(D) Promotion of electron is essential condition prior to hybridisation

Q.27 Which of the following orbitals involved in hybridisation of IF7?
(A) d x 2  y 2 (B) d 2 (C) dxy (D) Py

z
Q.28 The compounds or ions which do not exist, are

(A) OF4 (B) HFO4 (C) NCl5 (D) PBr6¯
Q.29 Which of the following has sp3d2 hybridisation?

(A) [IF6]+ (B) SF6 (C) [PCl6]– (D) H2S2O3
Q.30 Which of the following statements is/are not correct for following compounds.
(I) SCl2 (OCH3)2 and (II) SF2 (OCH3)2
(A) –OCH3 groups in both cases occupy the same position.
(B) Cl-atoms occupy equitorial position in case of (I) and F-atoms occupy equitorial position in case of
(II).
(C) Cl-atoms occupy axial position in case of (I) and F-atoms occupy equitorial position in case of (II)
(D) Cl and F-atom occupy either axial or equitorial position in case of (I) and (II) respectively.
Q.31 Halogens form compounds among themselves with the formula XX', XX & XX '7 (where X is the heavier
halogen) which of the following pair(s) represent(s) correct geometry with polar and non-polar nature
(theoretically)
(A) XX' — Linear — Polar (B) XX — Linear — Polar
(C) XX' — Linear — Non-polar (D) XX '7 — Pentagonal bipyramidal — Non-polar
Q.32 Which of the following statement is correct in the context of the allene molecule C3H4.
(A) The central carbon is sp hybridized.
(B) the terminal carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized.
(C) The planes containing the CH2 groups are mutually perpendicular to permit the formation of two
separate  bonds.
(D) Central atom is sp2 hybridized.
Q.33 Select the molecule have non equivalent hybrid orbitals around central atom .
(A) SOF2 (B) PCl3 (C) SiF4 (D) CH2Cl2
Q.34 The compounds having 8 or more bond angles equal to 90°, are :
(A) XeO64– (B) IF7 (C) BrF5 (D) XeF6

Q.35 Select the compounds which have polyatomic anion in their solid state/liquid state ?
(A) PCl5 (B) XeF6 (C) BrF3 (D) N2O5
Q.36 Which of the following has/have open book structure?

(A) O2F2 (B) O2H2 (C) S2F2 (D) S2Cl2
Q.37 Which of the following compounds have sp2 hybridised in anionic species?
(A) N2O3(s) (B) N2O4(s) (C) N2O5(s) (D) PCl5(s)
Q.38 In which of the following molecular species, d-orbital with no nodal plane is involved in the hybridisation
of central atom.
(A) XeF5– (B) IF6+ (C) TeF5– (D) SeF5–
Q.39 Select correct statement(s) with respect to geometry of hybrid orbitals.

(A) sp3 and d3s have identical shape.
(B) spz has linear geometry along z-axis.
(C) different geometry may be formed from sp3d.
(D) If pz orbital is replaced by d x 2  y 2 in sp3 hybridization, non-planar geometry changes to planar
geometry.
Q.40 Shape of NH3 is very similar to


(A) SeO32– (B) CH 3 (C) H3O+ (D) CCl3¯
Q.41 The species having linear structure is / are:

(A) SnCl2 (B) NCO¯ (C) CS2 (D) S52–
Q.42 Which of the following statement is / are correct.

(A) (s + py) produces sp hybrid orbitals which are lying in yz-plane.
(B) (s + py) produces sp hybrid orbitals which are lying in xz-plane.
(C) (s + px + pz) produces sp2 hybrid orbitals are lying in xz-plane.
(D) (s + py) produces sp hybrid orbitals which are lying in y-axis.
Q.43 Which of the following molecular are having p–d bonds?

(A) SO2 (B) SO3 (C) P4O10 (D) B3N3H6

Q.44 In which of the following species, all bond pairs are formed by hybridized orbitals
(A) PH4+ (B) SbH3 (C) GeH4 (D) C2H4
Q.45 Which of the following species are formed by Lewis acid base interaction.
(A) CH4 (B) NaBF4 (C) PCl4+ (D) Al(OH)4¯
Q.46 NH4 NO3 contains :

(A) Ionic bond (B) Covalent bond (C) Coordinate bond (D) Back bond
Q.47 There is change of hybridisation when:

(A) NH3 combines with H+ (B) AlH3 combines with H–
(C) NH3 forms NH2– (D) SiF4 forms SiF62–
Q.48 Select the correct order ?

(A) NH3 > NI3 > NF3  Decreasing order of Lewis basic character
(B) HI > HBr > HCl > HF  Decreasing order of thermal stability
(C) PCl5 > CCl4  Decreasing order of Lewis acid character
(D) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2  Decreasing order of bond dissociation energy
Q.49 The incorrect order of bond angle in the following molecule is/are
F
F
x
y S O
z
F
F
(A) y = z > x (B) z > y > x (C) y > x > z (D) x > y > z
Q.50 Which of the following statements is not correct for SiF62– and ClF6+.
(A) They are isoelectronic
(B) They are isostructural
(C) All possible FSiF and FClF angles are identical.
(D) dSi–F and dCl–F (bond lengths) are identical.

Q.51 Which of the following is / are incorrect.

(A) Graphite is good conductor of electricity than diamond.
(B) XeF3 does not exist
(C) In SF6, the S–F bond length is greater in axial than that in equatorial.
(D) NO & CO are acidic oxide.
Q.52 Which of the following has/have different bond angles ?

(A) CF4 (B) PCl5 (C) NF3 (D) SF4
Q.53 Which of the following has more than four 90° bond angle among following?
(A) PCl5 (B) SF6 (C) SF4 (D) CH4
Q.54 Choose the correct angle order.
(A) H P H in PH4+ is equal to H C H in CH4
(B) H N H in NH3 < H P H in PH3
(C) H N H in NH3 < H P H in PH4+
(D) O S O in SO42– < O N O in NO3¯
Q.55 Which of the following statements are not correct?
(A) All C–O bonds in CO 32 are equal but not in H2CO3.
(B) All C–O bonds in HCO 2 are equal but not in HCO2H
(C) C–O bond length in HCO 2 is longer than C–O bond length in CO 32 .
(D) C–O bond length in HCO 2 and C–O bond length in CO 32 are equal.
Q.56 In the structure of H2CSF4, which of the following statement is/are correct?
(A) Two C–H bonds are in the same plane of axial S–F bonds.
(B) Two C–H bonds are in the same plane of equitorial S–F bonds.
(C) Total six atoms are in the same plane.
(D) Equitorial S–F bonds are perpendicular to plane of –bond.

Q.57 Which statement(s) is/are correct regarding the dI – I in I3 ?
(A) both are identical (B) both are different

(C) It depends upon the cation attached. (D) It can't be predicted from its formula.
Q.58 The correct statements about the structures of H2O2, O2F2 and OF2 is/are :
(A) H2O2, O2F2, OF2 are polar compounds (B) dO – O of H2O2 > dO – O of O2F2
(C) dO – F of OF2 > dO – F of O2F2 (D) No peroxide linkage in O2F2

(A) All S – F bond lengths are identical in SF4. (B) All Cl – F bond length are identical in ClF3.
(C) All FClF angles are identical in ClF3. (D) All possible angle in BF2Cl are 120°.
Q.60 Choose the correct properties for the following molecules.

(I) CH2F2 (II) CHF3 (III) CH3F
(A) C–F bond length order : CH3F > CH2F2 > CHF3
(B) C–H bond length order : CH3F > CH2F2 > CHF3
(C) Shape is not perfect tetrahedral for given compounds.
(D) Dipole moment is non zero for given compounds.
Q.61 Which of the following relationship is correct for the following figure.
O
x y
C
H z F
(A) x = y = z (B) x = y > z (C) x > 120° (D) z < 120°
Q.62 Select the correct statement(s) for following molecules.

(I) PF2 (CH3)3 (II) PF2 (CF3)3
(A) Both have trigonal bipyramidal structure
(B) Both have same dipole moment
(C) P–F bond length is longer in PF2(CH3)3 than the PF2(CF3)3
(D) P–F bond length is longer in PF2(CF3)3 than the PF2 (CH3)3

Q.63 Select the correct option(s) regarding PMeF2Cl2.(–Me is –CH3 )

(A) P–Cl bond length is longer than P–F bond length.
(B) Both fluorine atoms occupyaxial position.
(C) P-Me bond has more s-character than P-Cl bond.
(D) Both chlorine atoms occupy axial position.
Q.64 Which of the following are correct statement(s).

(A) Bond angle order (X–S–X) is OSF2 < OSCl2 < OSBr2
(B) (O–O) bond length in O22– is more than O2F2
(C) dC–Cl bond length in CH3Cl > CF3Cl
(D) 4 P–P–P angles are equal to 90° in P4 molecule.
Q.65 Choose the incorrect order of bond angle?

(A) H2S < H2O < NH3 (B) NO2 > NO2¯ > NO2
(C) OF2 < OH2 < O(CH3)2 (D) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3
Q.66 In compound PXn Y5–n ; X & Y are monovalent surrounding atoms and order of electronegativity is
X > Y then according to given information correct statement is / are:
(A) If n= 3 then bond angle between central atom and less electronegativity atom is greater than 120°.
(B) If n = 0, then all five bond lengths are not equal.
(C) if n =1, then axial plane can have two same substituent and equatorial plane can have three same
substituent.
(D) If n = 4 then axial plane can have three same substituent and equatorial plane can have two same
substituent.
Q.67 Which of the following pair of species having individual equivalent bond lengths?
(A) SF6 & CCl4 (B) CH3Cl & PCl5 (C) IF7 & PCl5 (D) BF3 & CF4
Q.68 Correct order regarding bond angle in the following species?
(A) NH4+ > NH3 > NH2– ( H N H bond angle)
(B) NO2+ > NO3– > NO2– ( O N O bond angle)
(C) OCl2 > OF2 > OH2 ( X O X ) (X = terminal atom)
(D) BCl3 > PCl3 > NCl3 ( Cl X Cl ) (X = central atom)

Q.69 Select the correct statement(s):

(A) CH3 – C–CH3 angle in (CH3)2C = CH2 is smaller and the CH3 – C = CH2 angle is larger than the
trigonal 120°.
(B) O – I – F angle is less than 90° (89°) in IOF4–.
(C) In SeOCl2, Cl – Se – Cl angle is less than the Cl – Se – O angle
(D) POCl3 is tetrahedral with a double bond between P and O. There is no lone pair on central atom.
Q.70 Correct order(s) for following molecular species is/are :(x1 and x2 are bond length)
O O
x1 x2
C N
O 1 O O 2 O
(A) x1 > x2 (B) x2 > x1 (C) 1 > 2 (D) 1 = 2
Q.71 Correct order(s) for following structure is/are:

F F
x1 y1 F x2 y2 F
S 1 Se 2
F F
F F
(A) x1 < x2 (B) y1 < y2 (C) x2 > y2 > x1 (D) 1 > 2
Q.72 Which of the following is incorrect bond angle?

(A) NH3 > H2O (B) SO3 > SO2 (C) CCl4 > CCl3¯ (D) CO2 < CCl4
Q.73 Consider skeleton of following two species :

H O
O z
3
1 x Cl
Cl y
O 2 O O O
O
O
where 1, 2 and 3 are O – Ĉl – O bond angles and x, y and z are 'Cl – O' bond lengths then which of
the following order is incorrect.
(A) 2 > 1 (B) x > y (C) 2 < 3 (D) z > y
Q.74 SO2 has the similar geometry as

(A) XeF2 (B) F2O (C) BeCl2(g) (D) SnCl2

Q.75 Which of following statements are correct for HCN molecule.

(A) Two -bonds are perpendicular to each other.
(B) Lone pair lying in the orbital which is perpendicular to both -bonds.
(C) The dipole moment value is non zero.
(D) The direction of dipole moment is from N to H atom.
Q.76 Find the correct order of dipole moment ?

(A) HF > HCl (B) CH3F > CH3Cl (C) CH2Cl2 > CHCl3 (D) NF3 > NH3
Q.77 If PF2Cl3 has zero dipole moment, the correct statement(s) is / are
(A) The two F atoms are at 180° with respect to each other.
(B) Maximum 4 atoms are present in the same plane.
(C) P–Cl bond is longer than P–F bond
(D) The d-orbital of 'P' involved in the formation of PF2Cl3 is d z2
Q.78 Which of the following option is / are correct?
Cl Cl
(A) & (Equal dipole moment)

Cl Cl
(B) H2O & HF (Inter molecular H bonding)

(C) PCl5(s) & PBr5 (s) (Cation of both the compound have same hybridisation)
(D) N2O & CO2 (Both are acidic oxide)
Q.79 SO2 and SO3 are different in :

(A) Hybridisation (B) Compound polarity
(C) Number of p-p bond (D) Structure
Q.80 Which of the following has non-zero dipole moment?
OH SH NH2 SH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH SH NF2 OH
Q.81 Which of the following has zero dipole moment value?

(A) PCl3F2 (B) P(CH3)3F2 (C) PCl5 (D) PF3Cl2

Q.82 Select the correct statements regarding molecules of CF4 and F2C = C = CF2
(A) Both are polar (B) Both are planar
(C) Both are non-polar (D) Both are non-planar
Q.83 The dipole moment of AX3, BX3 and CY3 are 4.97 × 10–30 , 0.60 × 10–30 and 0.00 columb meter
respectively, then the shape of molecules may be
(A) Pyramidal, T-shape, Trigonal planar (B) Pyramidal, pyramidal, T-shape
(C) Pyramidal, pyramidal, Trigonal planar (D) Pyramidal , pyramidal , linear
Q.84 Which of the following compounds are planar as well as non polar.
(A) XeF4 (B) XeF2 (C) XeF5 (D) XeF5+
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
Lewis theory does not guide regarding the shape of the molecule and initially it was thought that pure
atomic orbitals are forming bond and next hybridisation theory is adopted to explain the several facts
properly.
Q.85 Which of the Lewis structure is not correctly drawn.
O O
H
N P+
(A) O – N = O (B) H — B — H (C) + (D)
O H O
O O
H
Q.86 Which of the following set of molecules/ ions does not exist?
(A) NCl5, PCl5 , BiF5 (B) PBr6–, SiCl62–, XeF4
(C) NCl5, OF4, SF8 (D) H2S, PH3, TlI
Q.87 Which of the following Lewis dot structure of CO2 is incorrect ?

::
::
::
::
:
(A) O – C  O : (B) O = C = O : (C) :O  C – O: (D) None of these


B
D —A— C
In above diagram A has five valence electrons and B,C and D have six valence electrons each.According
to the L.D.S. A has x formal charge, B has y and C has z formal charge. The above mentioned
compound / ion follows Lewis octet theory. Give the answer of following question.
Q.88 Identify the formal charge of A,B and C respectively.

(A) –2, 0,+1 (B) +1, 0, +1 (C) –2, 0, +2 (D) +1, 0, –1
Q.89 Choose the incorrect options?

(A) B,C,D belong to chalcogen family.
(B) Molecule does not have equal bond length
(C) Central atomA has sp2 hybridisation
(D) The sum of formal charge is zero in this molecule.
Initiallyit was thought that pure atomic orbitals are involved in covalent bond formation and various kind
of overlap are there for  and -bond formation.
Q.90 Which of the following set of overlap can not provide -bond formation.
(A) 3d and 2p (B) 2p and 3p (C) 2p and 2p (D) 3p and 1s
Q.91 The ratio of number of -bond to -bond in N2 and CO molecules are
1 1 1 1
(A) 2.0 , 2.0 (B) 2, (C) , (D) ,2
2 2 2 2
Different types of bonds are formed in the chemical compounds. These bond have different strength and
bond energies associated with them. These bonds are formed with atoms in different environments.
Q.92 Which of the following bond has highest bond energy?

(A) -bond (B) -bond (C) Hydrogen bond (D) Metallic bond
Q.93 Shape of the molecule is decided by

(A) -bond (B) -bond

(C) both  and -bond (D) Never  Nor -bond
Q.94 Which of the following hydrides is thermally least stable?

(A) H2O (B) H2Te (C) H2S (D) H2Se

The process of inter mixing of pure atomic orbitals to produce a set of new orbitals having equal energy
is called hybridized orbitals and phenomenon is called hybridization.
Total number of hybrid orbitals is equal to number of  bond + number of lone pairs
d 2
+p +p y 2 2
s sp sp2 x  dsp
+p (square planar)
d 2 2  d
dsp x  sp   sp3d
3 y 3
x 2
(square pyramidal) (trigonal bipyramidal)
d 2 d 2 2
x x y
d2sp3 sp3d2
(octahedral) (octahedral)
If central atoms is from d block having d configuration or in higher oxidation state then it show d3s
0
hybridization.
Q.95 In which of the following compound vaccant orbital(s) participate In hybridisaticn during its formation
(A) BF3 (B) Be2Cl4 (C) SF4 (D) Si2H6
Q.96 Type of orbtial of S-atom involved in -bond formation in SOF4 molecule is

(A) px (B) dzx (C) dyz (D) dxy

Bond formation between two atoms is then envisaged (imagine) as the progressive overlapping of an
atomic orbital from each of the participating atoms the greater the overlap achieved, the stronger the
bond so formed.
Q.97 In which of the following pair both have similarityin hybridisation?

(A) PCl3, PCl4+ (B) PCl4+, PCl5 (C) PCl5, PCl6– (D) PCl4+, PCl6–
Q.98 According to Lewis dot structure, the number of  -bond(s) and -bond(s) in SO3 molecule respectively
are :
(A) 2 and 3 (B) 3 and 3 (C) 3 and 1 (D) 3 and 2


Among the hydrides of nitrogen family, NH3 can easily donate its lone pair and forms number of
compounds and complexes.
Q.99 When NH3 reacts with BF3, then an addition compound is formed. Which of the following statement is
incorrect regarding the addition compound.
(A) Hybridisation of N-atom changes (B) Hybridisation of B-atom changes
(C) Shape of NH3 changes (D) Shape of BF3 changes
Q.100 Which of the following hydride contains least bond angle.

(A) PH3 (B) SbH3 (C) NH3 (D) AsH3
Q.101 The correct increasing order of H – N – H bond angle in NH2¯, NH3 and NH4+ is
(A) NH2¯ > NH3 > NH4+ (B) NH2¯ < NH3 < NH4+
(C) NH3 > NH4+ > NH2¯ (D) NH3 < NH4+ < NH2¯

All species tend to attain or adopt the electronic geometryin which overall repulsion is minimum. If all the
sites (positions) are equivalent (e.g. octahedral), lone pairs prefer to be trans (anti) to each other, else
lone pairs choose the largest site (e.g. equilateral position in trigonal bipyramidal). In trigonal bipyramidal
geometry, axial position (a) is more crowded than equatorial position (e) which results in elongation of
axial bond as compared to equatoraial bond, thereby increasing the axial bond length. This holds valid if
the substituents are same. Also bonding pairs to more electronegative substituents occupy less space
than those to more electropositive or less electronegative substituents. Double bond occupy more space
than single bond.
Q.102 Choose the correct statement regarding ClF3 .

(A) Cl – Fa is shorter than Cl – Fe (B) All Cl – F bonds are of equal length
(C) Fa – Cl – Fa is exactly equal to 180º (D) Cl – Fa is longer than Cl – Fe
Q.103 Consider the molecule given below,

F
 F
O S 
 F
F
Which of the following is correct order of bond angle?
(A)  >  >  (B)  >  >  (C)  >  >  (D)  >  > 


The more ionic character (i.e. poorer covalency) in a bond (due to the more electronegative substituent
to the central atom) leads to the utilisation of hybrid orbitals containing more pweharacter (i.e.less
s-character) of the central atom. In other words, the multiple bond encourages the central atom to utilise
its hybrid orbitals which contain more sweharacter.
The percentage of s- or p-character between two adjacent and equivalent hybrid orbitals can determined
from the knowledge of the corresponding bond angle () as follows:
Q.104 If x1, x2 and x3 are S – S bond lengths in S2O42–, S2O52– and S2O62– respectively, then correct order
for S – S bond length is :
(A) x3 > x2 > x1 (B) x1 > x2 > x3 (C) x3 > x1 > x3 (D) x1 > x3 > x2
Q.105 The percentage of p-character (approx) in hybrid orbital having the lone pair at central atom in SF4
molecule will be (given F – Ŝ – F equatorial bond angle is 102º and cos 102º = – 0.21)
(A) 65.5 (B) 34.5 (C) 50.5 (D) 82.2

Polar covalent molecules exhibit dipole moment. Dipole moment is equal to the product of charge
separation, q and the bond length d for the bond. Unit of dipole moment is Debye. One Debye is equal
to 10–18 esu cm.
Dipole moment is a vector quantity. It has both magnitude and direction. Hence, dipole moment of a
molecule depends upon the relative orientation of the bond dipoles, but not on the polarity of bonds
alone. A symmetrical structure shows zero dipole moment. Thus, dipole moment helps to predict the
geometryof a molecules. Dipole moment values can be used to distinguish between cis- and trans-isomers;
ortho-, meta- and para-forms of a substance, etc.
Q.106 Among the following, which is a type of non-planar as well as non-polar compound.
(A) H2C= C = CH2 (B) ClF3 (C) XeF4 (D) PF3Cl2

Q.107 Which of the following pair of species having same dipole moment value?
Cl Cl Cl OH
(A) & (B) &

Cl
Cl OH
Cl Cl
&
(C) (D) Both (A) & (C)
Cl Cl
Cl
Q.108 The dipole moment value of H–X molecule is 1.2 Debye. If the internuclear distance between H–X is
0.8 Å then the % ionic character in H–X molecules is:
(A) 31.3 % (B) 50% (C) 14% (D) 25%
The formal charge is the difference between the number of valence electrons in an isolated (i.e. free)
atoms and the number of electrons assigned to that atom in a Lewis structure.
For a molecule the net dipole moment is the vector addition of bond moment and lone pair moment.
Q.109 In SnCl3 ion calculate the formal charge on Sn.

(A) +1 (B) –1 (C) zero (D) –2
Q.110 In which of the following molecule has polar as well as non polar bond
(A) HCN (B) PCl5 (C) H2O2 (D) All are correct
Q.111 Select the correct statement.

(A) NH3 has higher bond dipole than that of NF3
(B) CCl4 is polar molecule
(C) SF4 is polar molecule
(D) IF7 is polar molecule

[MATCH LIST TYPE]

Q.112 List-I (Molecule) List-II (Number of d-orbital(s) used in bond formation)
(P) SOF4 (1) 1
(Q) XeO3F2 (2) 2
(R) XeO3 (3) 3
(S) POCl3 (4) 4
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 4 2 1
Q.113 List-I List-II

(P) XeO3 (1) Planar and lone pair is present on central atom
(Q) CF4 (2) Planar and lone pair is not present on central atom
(R) XeF2 (3) Non-planar and lone pair is not present on central atoms
(S) CO 2 (4) Non-planar and lone pair is present on central atom
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4
[MATCH THE COLUMN]

(A) 2 lone pair (P) XeF5–
(B) Zero dipole moment (Q) NF 3
(C) Planar (R) ICl3
(D) All adjacent bond angles are equal (S) XeF4

Q.115 Column -I Column-II

(Type of orbital) ( Orbitals involved in hybridisation )
(A) d z 2 -orbital (P) sp3 (Tetrahedral)
(B) s - orbital (Q) sp3d2 (Octahedral)
(C) d x 2  y 2 - orbital (R) sp3d (TBP)
(D) py - orbital (S) dsp2 (square planar)

(A) XeO3 (P) Pyramidal geometry
(B) XeF5 (Q) Non planar molecule
(C) XeO2F2 (R) One lone pair is present on Xe
(S) d Z2 orbital is involved in hybridisation.
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.117 Find the number of hypervalent compounds.
BF3, SF4, NCl3, PCl5, SiF4, BrF5 , XeF2, BeCl2
Q.118 Find the number of -bonds and  bonds in the Lewis structure of PO43–.
[If the answers are 2 and 5 then represent as 0025 ]
Q.119 How many of the following overlaps of orbitals at right angle to the internuclear z-axis would lead to the
formation of -bond.
dxy – dyz , px – px , py – py, dyz – dyz, dxz – dxz, s – px, pz – pz
Q.120 The ratio of lone pairs on the surrounding atoms to that of central atom of XeO2F2 is ________.
Q.121 How many molecules have two lone pairs on the central atom?
H2O, SF4, I3¯, XeF5¯, XeO3, XeOF4, PCl3, NCl3, ClF3, XeF2, NO2¯, CO32–
Q.122 Calculate p–d bonds present in SO42–, NO3– and trimer of SO3.
[If number of p–d bonds are 1, 0, 5 respectively, write it as 0105.]
Q.123 Find the number of the has sp3 hybridised atoms / ion in their cationic / anionic part.
Note : Consider all given compounds in their solid / liquid state.
PCl5 , Cl2O6, PBr5 , XeF6 , I2Cl6, N2O5, N2O4, N2O3
[If your answer is 2, write it as 0002.]

Q.124 Find the total number of species having bent shape

I3–, NO2+, H2S, OCl2, XeF2, SO2, NOCl
Q.125 Find the number of species where d x 2  y 2 orbital participate in hybridisation.
XeF6 SF6 IF7 XeO3

PCl5 PF5
Q.126 In following structure calculate percentage 's' character in lone pair occupy by oxygen atom.
F3 C O CF3
Al  Al
F3 C CF3
Given : Cos= – 0.99
[Note : If your answer is 38% then write your answer in OMR sheet is 3 but if your answer
0.38% then write your answer in OMR sheet is 3.]
Q.127 Find the number of FSF angle which are less than 90° in SF4 according to V.S.E.P.R. theory..
Q.128 Find the number of species which do not exist.

XeF3–, PbI4, SnCl2, SCl6, SH2, SH6, XeH4, PH3, NaBF4, NF5, NOF3, POF3
[If your answer is 3, write it as 0003]
Q.129 Which of the following has only  bonded molecule.

PCl5, PF5, POCl3, XeOF4, XeF2, XeF4, NCl3, IF7, SO2Cl2, SOCl2, SO2, SO3
[If your answer is 11 so write 0011.]
Q.130 How many maximum Nodal plane of -bonds are present in one plane in following structure.
H H
C=C=C=C=C
H3C CH3
Q.131 How many compound which has p-d bonds -

CO32–, ClO4– , SO3, SO42–, P4O10, NO3–, HCN, [I(CN)2]–, PO43–
Q.132 Find out total number species in which at least two nonaxial d-orbitals are used in bond formation.
SO22–, ClO3–, XeO64–, XeO3F2, XeOF4, IO2F2–, SOF4, S3O62–, S2O32–

Q.133 SiF4 + 2HF  H2SiF6

Find out the value of expression |x – y| for the above reaction.
where
x = Total number of Si – F bonds in H2SiF6 that are longer than Si–F bonds present in SiF4.
y = Total number of ionizable hydrogen ion(s) in H2SiF6.
Q.134 How many total adjacent bond angles are present in IF7?
[If your answer is 13, write it as 0013.]
Q.135 Find the number of species having more than 4 bond angle.
CH4, CCl4, CHCl3, XeF6, XeF4, CO2, SO2, SOCl2, POCl3
Q.136 Find the maximum number of identical bond angles in CH2F2.
Q.137 Total number of molecules having only one type of bond angle.
PF3, CF4, XeF4, PF5, BeF2, SF6, IF7
Q.138 How many compounds have zero dipole moment?

PCl3F2, PF3Cl2, OCl2, OH2, CCl4, SF4, SF6, C2H4, NCl3
If your answer is 2, write the answer as 0002.
Q.139 Find the number of non polar molecule having all polar bonds.
CCl4, PCl5, SF6, IF7, IF5, PCl4F, SF4 , NO2, BF3
Q.140 Find the number of planar molecule.

(i) BF3 (ii) BCl3 (iii) CO32– (iv) SO3 (v) NH3 (vi) NCl3
(vii) PCl3 (viii) PF3
Q.141 How many number of tetra atomic species are planar and polar with central atom sp3d hybridised?

PCl4 , ClF3, XeF2, SOF2, SF4, [I2CN] , ICl2
Q.142 The molecules / ions which are planar as well as polar :

SnCl2, I3+, NH2–, IF3, BF3, H2O, CO32–, I3–, SF2, XeF2, NO2–, XeF4, ICl4–, NH2+

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 A Q.4 D Q.5 A
Q.6 C Q.7 B Q.8 D Q.9 C Q.10 B
Q.11 A Q.12 B Q.13 B Q.14 A Q.15 B
Q.16 B Q.17 B Q.18 A Q.19 D Q.20 C
Q.21 C Q.22 B Q.23 C Q.24 B Q.25 B
Q.26 B Q.27 B Q.28 D Q.29 B Q.30 C
Q.31 A Q.32 B Q.33 B Q.34 D Q.35 D
Q.36 D Q.37 B Q.38 A Q.39 A Q.40 A
Q.41 A Q.42 B Q.43 A Q.44 A Q.45 D
Q.46 D Q.47 A Q.48 A Q.49 B Q.50 A
Q.51 B Q.52 B Q.53 C Q.54 C Q.55 A
Q.56 B Q.57 D Q.58 C Q.59 A Q.60 D
Q.61 B Q.62 C Q.63 C Q.64 C Q.65 C
Q.66 A Q.67 A Q.68 B Q.69 B Q.70 A
Q.71 C Q.72 D Q.73 C Q.74 C Q.75 A
Q.76 B Q.77 D Q.78 D Q.79 B Q.80 D
Q.81 A Q.82 C Q.83 B Q.84 B Q.85 A
Q.86 C Q.87 B Q.88 C Q.89 C Q.90 D
Q.91 C Q.92 C Q.93 C Q.94 B Q.95 B
Q.96 D Q.97 B Q.98 C Q.99 A Q.100 D
Q.101 D Q.102 D Q.103 A Q.104 C Q.105 B
Q.106 B Q.107 A Q.108 C Q.109 B Q.110 C
Q.111 A Q.112 D Q.113 D Q.114 C Q.115 B
Q.116 B Q.117 C Q.118 B Q.119 D Q.120 D
Q.121 D Q.122 C Q.123 A Q.124 B Q.125 C
Q.126 C Q.127 B Q.128 A Q.129 C Q.130 C
Q.131 C Q.132 C Q.133 D Q.134 B Q.135 A
Q.136 B Q.137 D Q.138 C Q.139 B Q.140 C

EXERCISE-2
Q.1 ABCD Q.2 ACD Q.3 BC Q.4 AD Q.5 BC
Q.6 AC Q.7 ABCD Q.8 AC Q.9 AD Q.10 ABD
Q.11 ABCD Q.12 BD Q.13 BD Q.14 ABCD Q.15 CD
Q.16 BD Q.17 BCD Q.18 ABD Q.19 AD Q.20 AC
Q.21 CD Q.22 AB Q.23 ABC Q.24 ACD Q.25 AB
Q.26 ABC Q.27 ABCD Q.28 ABCD Q.29 ABC Q.30 ABCD
Q.31 AD Q.32 ABC Q.33 ABD Q.34 AB Q.35 ACD
Q.36 ABCD Q.37 ABC Q.38 ABCD Q.39 ABCD Q.40 ACD
Q.41 BC Q.42 ACD Q.43 ABC Q.44 AC Q.45 BD
Q.46 ABC Q.47 BD Q.48 AC Q.49 ACD Q.50 CD
Q.51 CD Q.52 BD Q.53 AB Q.54 ACD Q.55 CD
Q.56 AC Q.57 CD Q.58 ABD Q.59 ABCD Q.60 ABCD
Q.61 CD Q.62 ABC Q.63 ABC Q.64 ABC Q.65 BD
Q.66 ABCD Q.67 AD Q.68 AB Q.69 ABCD Q.70 AD
Q.71 ABCD Q.72 CD Q.73 C Q.74 BD Q.75 ABC
Q.76 AC Q.77 ABCD Q.78 BC Q.79 BD Q.80 ABCD
Q.81 ABC Q.82 CD Q.83 AC Q.84 ABC Q.85 C
Q.86 C Q.87 B Q.88 D Q.89 D Q.90 D
Q.91 C Q.92 A Q.93 A Q.94 B Q.95 B
Q.96 D Q.97 A Q.98 C Q.99 A Q.100 B
Q.101 B Q.102 D Q.103 D Q.104 B Q.105 B
Q.106 A Q.107 D Q.108 A Q.109 B Q.110 C
Q.111 C Q.112 B Q.113 B
Q.114 (A) P, R, S; (B) P, S; (C) P, R, S; (D) P, Q, R, S
Q.115 (A) Q,R (B) P,Q,R,S (C) Q,S (D) P,Q,R,S
Q.116 (A) P,Q,R (B) S (C) Q,R,S
Q.117 4 Q.118 0040 Q.119 4 Q.120 10
Q.121 3 Q.122 0206 Q.123 0004 Q.124 4 Q.125 3
Q.126 2 Q.127 4 Q.128 0006 Q.129 0006 Q.130 2
Q.131 5 Q.132 5 Q.133 4 Q.134 0015 Q.135 5
Q.136 4 Q.137 3 Q.138 0004 Q.139 5 Q.140 4
Q.141 2 Q.142 8

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY ADVANCED CHEMICAL BONDING
4
CHAPTER
ADVANCED CHEMICAL BONDING
EXERCISE-1
STRUCTURE DRAWING & OXYACID
Q.1 Hypophosphoric acid is having ________ number of replaceable H-atom.
(A) Four (B) Two (C) Three (D) Five
Q.2 Which of the following acid can not form acidic salt.
(A) Pyrosulphuric acid (B) Hypophosphorous acid
(C) Hypophosphoric acid (D) Carbonic acid
Q.3 The number of identical P–O bonds in P2 O 64 is

(A) Four (B) Six (C) Five (D) Three
Q.4 Which of the following species/molecule is not having X–X linkage (X are the central atom).
(A) Hypophosphoric acid (B) Symmetrical molecule of N2O3
(C) Thiosulphurous acid (D) Thiosulphuric acid
Q.5 The number of P – O – P linkages in P4O10 and P4O6 are respectively.

(A) 6, 6 (B) 6, 8 (C) 8, 6 (D) 8, 8
Q.6 The state of hybridisation of ‘B’ atoms in borax (Na2B4O7 · 10H2O) is

(A)All sp2 hybridised (B) Three sp2 and one sp3 hybridised
(C) One sp3 and three sp3 hybridised (D) Two sp2 and two sp3 hybridised
Q.7 The lowest number of X–O–X linkage is the following molecule / species
(A) (P3O9)3– (B) P3O105– (C) S3O9 (D) B3O63–
Q.8 Which of the following species is having same number of X – O – X linkage.

(I) S4O62– (II) S3O9 (III) S2O52– (IV) P3O93–
(A) II & IV (B) II & III (C) I & III (D) I & IV

Q.9 Which of the following molecule has P–P bond.

(A) H3PO5 (B) P4 (C) P4O6 (D) H6P4O13
Q.10 Which of the following molecule has peroxy linkage.

(A) HClO4 (B) H2SO4 (C) H2S2O3 (D) None of these
Q.11 What is the ratio between  and  bonds in H2S5O6.

(A) 2.5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1.5
Q.12 What is the oxidation state of S in H2S2O3.

(A) +6, –2 (B) +4, 0 (C) +2, +2 (D) +6, 0
Q.13 Oxy acid which shows cis and trans isomers.

(A) H2S2O3 (B) H4P2O6 (C) H6Si2O7 (D) H2N2O2
Q.14 Number of p-orbitals involved in hybridisation of central atom of H3PO4.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) zero
Q.15 H6P6O18 has how many P–O–P linkages.

(A) one (B) Two (C) Three (D) six
Q.16 Number of  -bond in P4O10 are :

(A) 16 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 3
Q.17 The number of -bond present in sulphuric acid are:

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
Q.18 How may S–O–S and S–S bonds are present in trimer of SO3 respectively?
(A) 3,0 (B) 0,3 (C) 3,3 (D) 0,0
Q.19 Which of the following contains 'S' in different oxidation states?

(A) H2S2O6 (B) H2S2O8 (C) H2S2O7 (D) H2S4O6

Q.20 H4P2O6 exists in two forms : X and Y. 'X' has P–O–P linkage and its basicity is 3 whereas 'Y' has P–P
linkage and its basicity is 4. Select the correct statement.
(A) Average oxidation state of P in both X and Y is same.
(B) Number of p–d linkage is same in both X and Y.
(C) Hybridisation of P in both X and Y is same.
(D) All of these.
Q.21 Which of the following is correct formula of sodium di hydrogen pyrophosphate?

(A) Na4P2O7 (B) Na2H2P2O7 (C) Na4P2O8 (D) Na2H2P2O6
Q.22 Strongest acid among the following :

(A) HClO4 (B) HClO3 (C) HClO2 (D) HOCl
Q.23 Which of the following pair of species having same basicity?

(A) NaH2PO2 and NaNH4HPO4 (B) NaH2PO3 and NaH2PO2
(C) NaH2PO3 and NaNH4HPO4 (D) NaHSO4 and NaH2PO3
Q.24 In a polythionic series (H2SnO6) if [n = 4]. Which of the following option is incorrect?
(A) Absolute oxidation state of S is +5 as well as zero.
(B) Number of S–S linkage are three
(C) It has four sp3 sulphur atom.
(D) It has only non-polar bonds.
Q.25 Find the ratio of  bond in Marshall's acid to Caro's acid?

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 8
Q.26 Which of the following compounds does not have peroxide bond?
(A) H2SO5 (B) H2S2O7 (C) H2S2O8 (D) CrO5
Q.27 What is the formula of sodium hydrogen phosphate?

(A) Na2HPO4 (B) NaH2PO4 (C) Na3PO4 (D) None of these
BACK BOND
Q.28 Choose the correct order for barrier to rotation around the B–N bond of the following compounds.
(A) BH(NR2)2 > B(NR2)3 > BH2–NH2 (B) BH2NR2 > B(NR2)3 > BH(NR2)2
(C) BH2–NR2 > BH(NR2)2 > B(NR2)3 (D) B(NR2)3 > BH(NR2)2 > BH2–NR2

Q.29 In which of the following compounds B–F bond length is shortest?
(A) BF4 (B) BF3  NH3 (C) BF3 (D) BF3  N(CH3)3
Q.30 Which of the following is correct skeleton for Ge–N–C–O in H3GeNCO molecule
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.31 The compound in which the mentioned bond angle in parenthesis is found to be greater than expected
not due to back bonding.
(A) H3SiNCS (Si–N–C) (B) BI3 ( I–B–I)
(C) MeNCS (CNC) (D) None of these
Q.32 In which of following cases the extent of back bonding is most effective.
(A) BeF2 (B) (CH3)2O (C) AsF3 (D) Cl3C¯
Q.33 Which of the following has planar shape with respect to the central atom?
(A) P(SiH3)3 (B) N(CH3)3 (C) N(SiH3)3 (D) NCl3
Si
Q.34 If skeleton O of O(SiH3)2 lies in XY plane, then nodal plane of 2p 3d back bond from
Si
oxygen to silicon atom lies in
(A) XZ (B) YZ (C) XY (D) Cannot be predicted
Q.35 Both N(SIH3)3 and NH(SiH3)2 compounds have trigonal planar skeleton. Incorrect statement about
both compounds is
(A) SiNSi bond angle in NH(SiH3)2 > SiNSi bond angle in N(SiH3)3
(B) N–Si bond length in NH(SiH3)2 > N–Si bond length in N(SiH3)3
(C) N–Si bond length in NH(SiH3)2 < N–Si bond length in N(SiH3)3
(D) Back bonding strength in NH(SiH3)2 > Back bonding strength in N(SiH3)3
Q.36 Hybridisation of central atom does not change due to (2p–3d) back bonding.
(A) O(SiH3)2 (B) H3BO3 (C) PF3 (D) H3SiNCS

Q.37 The geometry with respect to the central atom of the following molecules are :
N(SiH3)3 ; Me3N ; (SiH3)3P
(A) Planar, Pyramidal, Planar (B) Planar, Pyramidal, Pyramidal
(C) Pyramidal, Pyramidal, Pyramidal (D) Pyramidal, Planar, Pyramidal
Q.38 Number of Boron atom(s) which participtate in back bonding in borax (Na2B4O7.10H2O)
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
Q.39 Select incorrect statement / order.

(A) dB–N in B3N3H6 > dC–C in C6H6
(B) dB–H in B3N3H6 > dC–H in C6H6
(C) B3N3H6 undergoes addition reaction with HBr but C6H6 does not
(D) -electron cloud is symmetrically distributed over all atoms in both B3N3H6 and C6H6
Q.40 Incorrect order for : B(OH)3 and B(OH)4¯ is:

(A) dB–O : B (OH)4¯ > B(OH)3
(B) OBO : B(OH)3 > B(OH)4¯
(C) Bond order of B – O > B(OH)3 > B(OH)4¯
(D) HOB > 109° in both B(OH)3 and B(OH)4¯
Q.41 For which of the following molecule observed bond length is more longer than theoretically determined
bond length.
(A) BF3 (B) CF4 (C) NF2+ (D) OF2
Q.42 Among following molecules, in which molecule N–Si bond length is shortest.
(A) N(SiH3)3 (B) NH(SiH3)2
(C) NH2(SiH3) (D)All have equal N–Si bond length
Q.43 Select incorrect order:

(A) SiH3OH > CH3OH (Arrhenius acidic character)
(B) CHCl3 > CHF3 (Arrhenius acidic character)
(C) BF3 > BI3 (Lewis acidic character)
(D) N(CH3)3 > N(SIH3)3 (Lewis base character)
Q.44 Select the incorrect order in the following :

(A) O(CH3)2 < O(SiH3)2 : Reactivity towrads lewis acid
(B) SO3 < SO2 < SO42– < SO32– : Order of S–O bond length
(C) (SiH3)3N < (SiH3)3P < (CH3)3N : Order of lewis base character
(D) S2O62– < S2O52– < S2O42– : Order odf S–S bond length

Q.45 Which of the d-orbital(s) of silicon atoms can form back bond in N(SiH3)3. If N(SiH3)3 is present in xy
plane
(I) dxy (II) dxz (III) dyz (IV) d x 2  y 2
(A) All I, II, III, IV (B) Only I, II, III (C) Only II, III, IV (D) Only II, III
Q.46 Which of the following molecules have back bond

(I) P4O10 (II) (SiH3)3N (III) P4O6 (IV) N2O3
(A) I, II and III only (B) II & IV only (C) I & III only (D) I & II only
Q.47 Boron forms BX3 type of halides. The correct decreasing order of Lewis-acid strength of these
halides is
(A) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3 (B) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(C) BF3 > BI3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (D) BF3 > BCl3 > BI3 > BBr3
BRIDGE BOND
Q.48 In which example vacant orbital take part in hybridisation :
(A) B2H6 (B)AlCl3 (C) C2H5Cl (D) H3BO3
Q.49 In which of compounds octet is complete and incomplete for all atoms.
Note: C for complete octet and ‘IC’ for incomplete octet.
Al2Cl6 Al2(CH3)6 AlF3 Dimer of BeCl2 Dimer of BeH2
(A) IC IC IC C C
(B) C IC IC C IC
(C) C IC C IC IC
(D) IC C IC IC IC
Q.50 The state of hybridisation of central atom in dimer form of both BH3 and BeH2 is
(A) sp2, sp2 (B) sp3, sp2 (C) sp3, sp3 (D) sp2, sp3
Q.51 Find out the similarities between I2Cl6 andAl2Cl6.

(A) both have coordinate bond
(B) both have sp3 hybridisation for the central atom
(C) both are non planar
(D) All are correct
Q.52 Hybridisation of central atom is independent of the phase/state of the compound in case of
(A) BeH2 (B) N2O5 (C) XeF6 (D) PF5

Q.53 In which of the dimerisation process the achievement of the octet is the driving force
(A) 2 BeH2  Be2H4 (B) 2 AlCl3  Al2Cl6
(C) 2 AlH3  Al2H6 (D) None of these
Q.54 Which of the following overlapping is involved in polymer of [Be(Me)2]n

(A) sp – sp2 – sp3 (B) sp2 – sp3 – sp2
(C) sp2 – sp – sp2 (D) sp3 – sp3 – sp3
Q.55 Which of the following molecule has 3c  2e  bond

(A) BeH2 (B)AlCl3 (C) AlBr3 (D) None of these
Q.56 The number of two centre, two electron bonds in a molecule of diborane is:
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 4 (D) 6
Q.57 Which of the following molecule having 3c – 2e bond -

(A) C2H6 (B) N2H4 (C) Be2H4 (D) Al2Br6
Q.58 Which of the following species is planar and has presence of coordinate bond
(A) BeCl2(solid) (B) BeH2(solid) (C) Dimer of AlCl3 (D) Dimer of ICl3
Q.59 In which of the following molecular species both -dative and -dative bonds are present.
(A) BF4¯ (B) Be2Cl4 (C) NH4+ (D) [BeF4]2–
Q.60 Correct set of electron deficient species is

(i) BeCl2(s) (ii)AlCl3(s) (iii) BeH2(s) (iv)AlH3(s)
(A) i, ii, iii, iv (B) onlyii, iii, iv (C) onlyiii, iv (D) only(iii)
Q.61 Select correct statement

(A) BMe3 is stabilised by dimerization
(B) In B2H6, all B-H bond are equivalent
(C) Hybridisation of boron in BF3 changes due to back bonding
(D) Al2Cl6 is not electron deficient but Al2H6 is electron deficient compound
Q.62 The type of of BACK BOND in compound (X) in following reaction is :

B2H6 + 2NH3  [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]¯ 200  (X)
ºC
(A) (2p – 2p) symmetrical distribution of e¯ density

(B) (2p – 2p) unsymmetrical distribution of e¯ density
(C) (2p – 3p) unsymmetrical distribution of e¯ density
(D) (2p – 3p) symmetrical distribution of e¯ density

Q.63 If dimer for of AX3 molecule is planar, then 'A' and 'X' should be
(A) A = Al and X = Cl (B) A = B and X = X = H
(C) A = I and X = Cl (D) A = Al and X = OH
Q.64 The structure of diborane (B2H6) contains

(A) Four (2C–2e–) bonds and two (2C–3e–) bonds
(B) Two (2C–2e–) bonds and two (3C–2e–) bonds
(C) Four (2C–2e–) bonds and four (3C– 2e–) bonds
(D) None of these
SILICATE SILICONE
Q.65 In which of the following silicates, only two corners per tetrahedron are shared :
(i) Pyrosilicate (ii) Cyclic silicate
(iii) Double chain silicate (iv) Single chain silicate
(v) 3 D silicate (vi) Sheet silicate
(A) (i), (ii) and (v) (B) (iv) and (vi) only (C) (i) and (vi) only (D) (ii) and (iv) only
Q.66 The silicate anion in the mineral kinoite is a chain of three SiO4 terahedra, that share corners with
adjacent tetrahedra. The charge of the silicate anion is
(A) –4 (B) –8 (C) –6 (D) –2
Q.67 In which of the following structure, the number of shared O-atom per tetrahedron is two and half.
(A) Pyroxene chain silicate (B)Amphibole chain silicate
(C) Cyclic silicate (D) Sheet silicate
Q.68 Amphibole silicate structure has ‘x’ number of corner shared per tetrahedron. The value of ‘x’ is:
(A) 2 (B) 2½ (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.69 In which of the following silicate structure, the number of corner shared is minimum.
(A) Pyrosilicate (B)Amphibole chain silicate
(C) 3D-silicate (D) Six membered cyclic silicate
Q.70 A cyclic silicate anion is represented as [Si3O9]n–

The value of 'n' is
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
Q.71 In which of following silicate structure, the number of corner shared per tetrahedron is '2'.
(A) Four membered cyclic silicate (B) Pyrosilicate
(C) Orthosilicate (D) 2D-Silicate

Q.72 If 25 [SiO4]4– units are arranged in chain form then what will be the formula of that chain.
(A) [Si25O75]50– (B) [Si25O76]52– (C) [Si25O100]100– (D) None
Q.73 Which of the following is an example of sheet silicate.

(A) Zn4(Si2O7) (OH)2 (B) BaTi(Si3O9)
(C) Mg3(Si2O5)2(OH)2 (D) Na2Fe3Fe2(Si8O22)(OH)2
Q.74 In silicate mineral : Mg5Ca2(Si4O11)x(OH)y, the values of x and y are respectively:

(A) x = 2, y = 2 (B) x = 3, y = 1 (C) x =1, y = 1 (D) x = 2, y = 1
Q.75 Select correct match

(A) Beryl Be3Al2Si6O18, cyclic silicate (B) Zeolite Na·AlO2·SiO2 ,Alumino silicate
(C) (CH3)12Si6O6, cyclic silicone (D) All are correct
Q.76 Which of the following general formula represent to pyroxenes:

(A) (Si2O5)n2n– (B) (SiO3)n2n– (C) SiO44– (D) Si2O76–
Q.77 Incorrect statement for a silicate having formula Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4 is :

(A) Each Si-atom is bonded to one monovalent oxygen.
(B) It has slippery nature
(C) Some Si-atoms are substituted byAl
(D)Al3+ cation neutralizes charge of monovalent oxygen
Q.78 Incorrect match is:

(A) Ca2Mg5Si8O22(OH)2 : Single chain silicate
(B) Zeolites :Alumino Silicate
(C) Ca3Si3O9 : Cyclic structure
(D) Al2(Si2O5)(OH)4 : 2-D Silicate
MOLECULAR ORBITALTHEORY(MOT)
Q.79 N2 and O2 are converted to monocations N 2 and O 2 respectively, which is wrong statement
(A) In N 2 , the N–N bond weakens (B) In O 2 , the O–O bond order increases
(C) In O 2 , the paramagnetism decreases (D) N 2 becomes diamagnetic

Q.80 Which is incorrect according to MOT.

(A) H 2 and He2 have same stability
(B) H2 is stabler than H 2
(C) He 2 may exist while He2 cannot
(D) same bond order of two species do not mean they have same bond energy
Q.81 Pick out the incorrect statement

(A) N2 has greater dissociation energy than N2+
(B) O2 has lower dissociation energy than O2+
(C) Bond length of N2+ is less than N2
(D) Bond length of NO+ is less than in NO.
Q.82 Which of the following is true for O2 and C2 molecules according to M.O.T.
(A) both are having 1 and 1 bond (B) both are of same bond length
(C) both are having same bond order (D) both are having two  bonds
Q.83 According to MOT (Molecular Orbital Theory), the molecular orbitals are formed by mixing of atomic
orbitals through LCAO (linear combination of atomic orbitals). The correct statement(s) about molecular
orbitals is/are
Statement (a) : bonding molecular orbitals are formed by addition of wave-functions of atomic
orbitals
Statement (b) : anti-bonding molecular orbitals are formed by subtraction of wave-functions of atomic
orbitals
Statement (c) : non-bonding molecular orbitals do not take part in bond formation because they
belong to inner shells
Statement (d) : anti-bonding molecular orbitals provide stability to molecules while bonding molecular
orbitals make the molecules unstable.
(A) Statement a, d (B) Statement a, b, c (C) Statement a, b, d (D) Statement a, b
Q.84 In which of the following ionization processes, the bond order has increased and the magnetic behaviour
has changed?
(A) C2  C 2 (B) NO  NO+ (C) O2  O 2 (D) N2  N 2
Q.85 Which of the following species exhibits the diamagnetic behaviour?

(A) O 22 (B) O 2 (C) O2 (D) NO

Q.86 In which of the following processes magnetic moment and Bond order, both are changed.
(A) NO  NO+ (B) O 2  O2 (C) N2  N 2 (D) All of the above
Q.87 Which of following species will have highest bond length.

(A) O 2 (B) O 22 (C) F2 (D) O 2
Q.88 Which is incorrect in the following :

(A) Ionisation energy of F2 molecule is more that of F-atom.
(B) Ionisation energy of F-atom is more them that of Cl-atom
(C) Electron gain enthalpy of F-atom is less (–)ve than that of Cl-atom
(D) Ionic mobility of fluoride ion is less than chloride ion in water.
Q.89 When O2+ is formed from O2 then electron is removed from

(A) B.M.O (B) A.B.M.O (C) N.B.M.O (D) None of these
Q.90 The common features among the species CN– , CO and NO+ are
(A) Bond order three (B) Isoelectronic
(C) All are -donor and -acceptor (D)All of these
Q.91 Choose the correct statement regarding the given molecular orbital.
+
+
(A) It is formed by constructive overlap. (B) It represents anti-bonding molecular orbital
(C) It has only one nodal plane (D)All of these
Q.92 Select the species having bond order equal to one

(A) Li2 (B) B2 (C) F2 (D)All of these
Q.93 Paramagnetic nature is exhibited by

(A) N2 and O2 (B) O2 and C2 (C) NO2 and N2 (D) NO2 and O2
Q.94 Which of the following pair of species are paramagnetic as well as fractional bond order?
(A) N2+ & N2– (B) H2 & H2+ (C) NO+ & CO+ (D) O2 & O2+
Q.95 In which of the following conversion bond length increases?

(I) NO  NO+ (II) N2+  N2–
(III) O2  O2+ (IV) H2  H2+
(A) I & II (B) II & III (C) II & IV (D) I, II & III
Q.96 Which of the following would have same magnetic nature whether sp mixing is operative or not?
(A) C2 (B) B2 (C) O2 (D)All of these
Q.97 In which of the following option magnetic behaviour is change:

(A) O2  O2¯ (B) O2  O2+ (C) He2  HeH (D) NO  NO¯
Q.98 In molecular orbital diagram of CO the HOMO is called as -

(A) (sp) (B) * (sp) (C) 2py (D) NBMO
Q.99 Select the correct order of (O – O) bond length in following ion / molecule.
(A) Superoxide ion > Peroxide ion > Oxygen molecule
(B) Peroxide ion > Superoxide ion > Oxygen molecule
(C) Oxygen ion > Superoxide ion > Peroxide ion
(D) Superoxide ion = Peroxide ion > Oxygen molecule
Q.100 The O – O bond length is maximum in :

(A) O2 (B) O2[AsF4] (C) O2F2 (D) H2O2
Q.101 The correct order of X – X bond length in Cl2+, Cl2 and Cl2¯ follows the order?
(A) Cl2+ < Cl2 < Cl2¯ (B) Cl2 < Cl2+ < Cl2¯
(C) Cl2¯ < Cl2 < Cl2+ (D) Cl2¯ < Cl2+ < Cl2
Q.102 Which of the following has fractional bond order?

(A) He2+ (B) H2+ (C) Li2+ (D)All of these
Q.103 Which of the following species have bond order of 2 as well as diamagnetic?
(A) CN (B) BN (C) SiF+ (D) I2+
Q.104 In which the following interaction form nonbonding molecular orbital, when z-axis is the bonding axis.
(A) d yz  d z 2 (B) d yz  d xy (C) d x 2  y 2  d xy (D) All are form N.B.M.O.
Q.105 Select the correct order of bond length.

(A) Li2 > B2 > F2 > H2 (B) Li2 > F2 > B2 > H2
(C) Li2 > F2 > H2 > B2 (D) F2 > Li2 > B2 > H2

Q.106 The correct statement for NO[BF4] molecule is

(A) It contains 5 and 1 bond
(B) ‘N–O’ bond length is greater in nitric oxide than in NO[BF4]
(C) It is a paramagnetic species
(D) ‘B-F’ bond length is greater in BF3 than NO[BF4]
Q.107 Among KO2, AlO2– , BaO2 and NO2+ unpaired electron is present in:
(A) KO2 only (B) NO2+ and BaO2
(C) KO2 and AlO2– (D) BaO2 only
Q.108 Pick out the incorrect statement?

(A) N2 has greater dissociation energy than N2+
(B) O2 has lower dissociation energy than O2+
(C) Bond length in N2+ is less than N2
(D) Bond length in NO+ is less than in NO
Q.109 A simplified application of MO theory on the hypothetical 'molecule' OF would give its bond order as :
(A) 2 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.5
Q.110 Which of the following species is paramagnetic?

(A) NO– (B) O22– (C) CN– (D) CO
Q.111 Bond order of Be2 is:

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
Q.112 The bond order depends on the number of electrons in the bonding and antibonding orbitals. Which of
the following statements is/are correct about bond order?
(A) Bond order cannot have a negative value.
(B) It always has an integral value.
(C) It is a nonzero quantity.
(D) It can assume any value-positive or integral or fractional. including zero upto four
Q.113 In the formation of N2+ from N2, the electron is removed from
(A) -orbital (B) -orbital (C) s * -orbital (D) p * -orbital

Q.114 Which of the following is true?

1
(A). Bond order   bond energy
bond length
1
(B) Bond energy  bond length  bond energy
1 1
(C) Bond order   bond energy
bond length
(D) Bond order  bond length  bond energy
Q.115 In which of the following processes magnetic moment and Bond order, both are changed?
(A) NO  NO+ (B) O2+  O2 (C) N2  N2– (D) All of the above
Q.116 Which of the following has fractional bond order ?

(A) O22+ (B) O22– (C) F2 (D) H2–
Q.117 How many unpaired electrons are present in N2+ ?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D)4
Q.118 Using MO theory predict which of the following species has the shortest bond length?
(A) O22+ (B) O2+ (C) O2– (D) O22–
Q.119 The molecule having one unpaired electron, is

(A) NO (C) CO (C) CN– (D) O2
Q.120 Which of the following pair of molecular species has same bond order?
(A) N2+ and O2+ (B) F2 and Ne2 (C) O2 and B2 (D) C2 and N2
Q.121 The correct order of increasing N -N bond stability of N22–, N2,N2+, N2– is :
(A) N22– > N2 > N2– > N2+ (B) N2 > N2+ > N2– > N22–
(C) N22– > N2– = N2+ > N2 (D) N22– > N2 = N2– > N2+
Q.122 RbO2 is :
(A) Peroxide and paramagnetic (B) Peroxide and diamagnetic
(C) Superoxide and paramagnetic (D) Superoxide and diamagnetic

ODD ELECTRONS
Q.123 Which is not correct regarding NO2 molecule
(A) It's paramagnetic behaviour decreases when it undergoes in dimerisation.
(B) It is coloured in its dimeric form
(C) It's colour is due to presence of unpaired electron
(D) It's free electron is present in the one sp2 hybrid orbital
Q.124 Which of the following molecule has least tendency for dimerization.
(A) CH 3 (B) ClO2 (C) NO2 (D) NO
Q.125 Which of the following set of species are paramagnetic?

(A) ClO2, O3, NO2 (B) ClO2, O2, NO2 (C) O3, O2, P4 (D) N2, B2, C2
Q.126 Which of the following option is correct about NO2 & ClO2?
(i) Both are paramagnetic species (ii) Both compounds dimerised readily
(iii) Both have sp2 hybridisation (iv) Both have Bent shape.
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) only (i)
Q.127 Which of the following set of species, central atom has sp2 hybridisation?
(A) ClO2,  CH 3 , O3, I3+ (B) NO2, O3 , ClO2 ,  CF3
(C) NO2, O3, ClO2,  CH 3 (D) ClO3, NO2, O3, ClO2
Q.128 Choose the incorrect statement regarding ClO2 molecule :

(A) It is paramagnetic in nature.
(B) Odd electron is present in pure d-orbital.
(C) Completion of octet is the driving force for formation of dimer.
(D) It has one p-p and one p-d bonds.
Q.129 Incorrect order of bond angle is :

(A) NO2+ > NO2 > NO2– (B) ClO3 > ClO3¯
(C) ClO2+ > ClO2 > ClO2– (D) PF3 > PCl3 > PBr3
Q.130 Hybridization of central atom changes for which of the following molecule when undergoes dimerization.
(A) CF3 (B) ClO3 (C) NO2 (D) CH3
Q.131 Correct order of bond angle is :

  
(A) C H 3 > C F3 (B) CH3– > CH3+ (C) CH4 > CF4 (D) CH4 > C H 3

Q.132 The correct order of bond angle is :
(A) ClO 2  ClO 2  ClO 2 (B) ClO 2  ClO 2  ClO 2
(C) ClO 2  ClO 2  ClO 2 (D) ClO 2  ClO 2  ClO 2
Q.133 Cl–O bond length in ClO 2 , Cl2O , ClO2+ and ClO2 follows the order..
(A) ClO 2 < Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO2+ (B) ClO2+ < ClO2 < ClO 2 < Cl2O
(C) ClO2+ < ClO 2 < ClO2 < Cl2O (D) ClO2+ < Cl2O < ClO2 < ClO 2
Q.134 Match list I with list II and select the correct answer:
List I List II
I. NO 2 1. 180°
II. NO2 2. 132°
III. NO 2 3. 120°
IV. NO3 4. 115°

5. 109°
I II III IV I II III IV
(A) 5 4 3 2 (B) 5 2 4 3
(C) 1 2 4 3 (D) 1 4 3 2
Q.135 Dimer of which of the following molecule is non-planar?

(A) NO2 (B) OF (C) BeCl2 (D) ICl3
Q.136 Which oxide of nitrogen is coloured gas

(A) N2O (B) NO (C) N2O5 (D) NO2
Q.137 Which one of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour
(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) ClO2 (D) SiO2
Q.138 Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is paramagnetic

(A) N2O3 (B) N2O (C) NO2 (D) N2O5
Q.139 Which one of the following coloured oxides of nitrogen dimerises into a colourless solid/liquid on cooling
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) N2O3 (D) NO2

Q.140 Which blue liquid is obtained on reacting equimolar amounts of two gases at –23°C ?
(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
Q.141 Which statement is wrong for NO ?

(A) It is anhydride of nitrous acid (B) Its dipole moment is 0.22 D
(C) It forms dimer at very low temp. (D) It is paramagnetic
IONIC BOND
Q.142 Select the correct order of mobility in aqueous medium.
(A) [Li(H2O)x]+ > [Be(H2O)y]+2 (B) [Li(H2O)x]+ < [Be(H2O)y]+2
(C) [Li(H2O)x]+ = [Be(H2O)y]+2 (D) Informations are not sufficient to predict the mobility
Q.143 Choose the correct statement :

(A) Na+(g) > Mg2+(g) >Al3+(g) (Hydration energy)
(B) Li+(aq) < Na+(aq) < K+(aq) (Ionic Mobility)
(C) F–(aq) < Cl–(aq) < Br–(aq) (Hydrated radius)
(D) CaF2 > CaO (Lattice energy)
Q.144 Which of the following has maximum hydration energy?

(A) NH4Cl (B) (CH3)4N+Cl– (C) NH4Br (D) NH4I
Q.145 Which of the following order is correct of the given property.

(A) NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl : melting point order
(B) BeF2 < MgF2 < CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2 : solubilityorder
(C) NO2– > NO— > NO = NO2+ > NO+ : bond length order
(D) BaO > SrO > CaO > BeO > MgO : basic character order
Q.146 "Solubility of Alkali metal fluorides increases down the group" Select correct explanation for given
statement.
(A) Hydration energy increases and lattice energy decreases down the group
(B) Both energy decrease down the group but decrease in hydration energy is rapid
(C) Both energy decrease down the group but decrease in lattice energy is rapid
(D) Both energy increase down the group but increase in hydration energy is rapid
Q.147 The correct solubility order is / are

(I) CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3 (II) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3
(III) K 2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < Cs2CO3 (IV) Na2CO3 > K2CO3 > Rb2CO3
(A) II, IV (B) I, IV (C) II, III, IV (D) I, II, III
Q.148 Which of following statement is incorrect ?

(A) AgCl is less soluble thanAgF in water
(B) KCl is less soluble than KI in acetone.
(C) BeC2O4 is less soluble than BaC2O4 in water
(D) CaCrO4 is more soluble than BaCrO4 in water
Q.149 Among the following fluorides, which is least soluble in water?

(A) BeF2 (B) MgF2 (C) CaF2 (D) SrF2
Q.150 The correct order of thermal stability is

(A) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
(B) BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3
(C) MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3 < BeCO3
(D) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
Q.151 The compound(s) which does/ do not exist is / are :

(A) BiCl5 (B) PbI4 (C) SCl6 (D)All of these
Q.152 Select the pair of compound in which first compound has more lattice energy as compare to second
compound but solubilityis less.
(A) BeCl2 , BaCl2 (B) LiF , CsF
(C) KHCO3, NaHCO3 (D) BeSO4, BaSO4
Q.153 Bicarbonate of which of the following cation can exist in solid state at room temperature.
(A) Cs+ (B) Li+ (C) Ca2+ (D) Be2+
Q.154 Select the incorrect order of solubility

(A) CaCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3 (B) CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4
(C) Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 (D) CaF2 < SrF2 < BaF2
Q.155 In which of the following set of compounds, the basic strength of 1st species is more than 2nd species.
(A) CrO3, Cr2O3 (B) Li2O, Na2O (C) BeO, Al2O3 (D) MgO, Al2O3
Q.156 Which of the following bicarbonates does not exist in solid state?
(A) NaHCO3 (B) KHCO3 (C) RbHCO3 (D) Ca(HCO3)2

Q.157 Which is incorrect order ?

(A) LiOH < NaOH < KOH : Basic character
(B) LiOH < NaOH < KOH : Thermal stability
(C) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 : Thermal stability
(D) KHCO3 < NaHCO3 < CaCO3 : Solubilityin water
Q.158 Which compound does not give paramagnetic gas on heating?

(A) KClO4 (B) NaNO3 (C) LiNO3 (D) H3PO4
Q.159 Nitrogen dioxide can not be obtained by heating.

(A) KNO3 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) Cu(NO3)2 (D) AgNO3
Q.160 Which is correct order :

(1) CaCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3 : Order of solubility
(2) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 : Order of solubility
(3) Zn(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < NaOH < KOH : Order of basic character
(4) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 : Order of ionic character
Correct code is :
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2 (D) Only 3
Q.161 Which of the following compound is most acidic?

(A) Cl2O7 (B) P4O10 (C) SO3 (D) B2O3
Q.162 The order of increasing lattice energy of the following salt is :

(A) NaCl < CaO < NaBr < BaO (B) NaBr < NaCl < BaO < CaO
(C) NaCl < NaBr < BaO < CaO (D) NaBr < NaCl < CaO < BaO
Q.163 Which is correct order regarding alkaline earth metals?

(1) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 : Order of thermal stability
(2) BaSO4 < CaSO4 < MgSO4 : Order of solubility
(3) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 : Order of solubility
(4) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 : Order of thermal stability
Correct code is :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 1, 3, (C) 1, 4 (D) 1, 2
Q.164 Incorrect order of basic character :

(A) Ag2O > PbO (B) HgO > ZnO (C) Fe2O3 > Al2O3 (D) Ag2O > Cu2O

Q.165 Which is incorrect order of thermal stability ?

(A) CaCO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 (B) CsO2 < RbO2 < KO2
(C) Mg3N2 > Ca3N2 > Sr3N2 > Ba2N2 (D) LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH
Q.166 Which of the following compound does not liberate oxygen on its thermal decomposition
(A) HgC2O4 (B) Cu(OH)2 (C) Mg(NO3)2 (D) CaSO4
Q.167 Basic gas is evolved on heating

(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) FeCl3.6H2O (C) NaH2PO2 (D) NH4NO3
Q.168 Which of the following leaves amphoteric oxide on heating?

(A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) LiNO2 (C) Cu(NO3)2 (D) NaNO3
Q.169 Which of the following order is incorrect :

(A) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 : Order of thermal stability
(B) CaCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3 : Order of solubility
(C) LiCl > CsCl >RbCl >NaCl : Order of solubility
(D) MgS2O3 < CaS2O3 : Order of solubility
Q.170 Which of the following combination of ions does not bring redox reaction at room temperature
(A) Pb2+ (aq) + 2I¯ (aq) (B) Sn2+ (aq) + Hg2+ (aq)
(C) Fe3+ (aq) + 3I¯ (aq) (D) Cu2+ (aq) + 2CN¯ (aq)
Q.171 Increasing order of stability of the +2 oxidation state of ions ?

(A) Ca2+ < Ba2+ < Sr2+ (B) Pb2+ < Ge2+ < Sn2+
(C) Ge2+ < Sn2+ < Pb2+ (D) Cu2+ < Au2+ < Ag2+
Q.172 Which of the following compound has maximum covalent character

(A) PbI2 (B)AgI (C) HgI2 (D) CsI
Q.173 Which of the following is most covalent.

(A) CuCl (B) NaCl (C) AgCl (D)AuCl
Q.174 Which of the following does not exist?

(A) Tl(I3) (B) PbF4 (C) FeCl3 (D) SCl6
Q.175 The most stable compound is

(A) PbF4 (B) PbCl4 (C) PbBr4 (D) BiCl5
Q.176 Compound with maximum ionic character is formed from:

(A) Na and Cl (B) Cs and F (C) Cs and I (D) Na and F
Q.177 Water insoluble salt is

(A) KCl (B) NaCl (C) NH4Cl (D) BaSO4
WEAK FORCES
Q.178 Which of molecule is steam volatile
(A) o-nitrophenol (B) m-nitrophenol
(C) o-dichlorobenzene (D) para-hydroxybenzaldehyde
Q.179 Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is found in

(A) Salicyldehyde (B) Water (C) Phenol (D)Acetaldehyde
Q.180 Choose the correct code for the following statement.

(I) Inter layer spacings is more than C – C bond length within the layer.
(II) Graphite is more reactive compared to diamond.
(III) Graphite is more stable compared to diamond.
(IV) Graphite is sufficientlyinert compared to other element.
(A) TTFT (B) TFTF (C) TTTT (D) TTFF
Q.181 Intra molecular H-bonding present in which of the following molecule.

(A) chloral (B) p-chlorotoluene (C) Salicyaldehyde (D) Acetic acid in benzene
Q.182 Choose the incorrect statement among the following.

(A) HF is the most volatile acid among HX.
(B) Na2O2 is having ionic and covalent type of bonds.
(C) CH3CO2Na is having identical C–O bond lengths while it is not true for CH3CO2H.
(D) p-p overlap is more stronger compared to s-s overlap in axial type of bond formation
Q.183 In which of following molecule the intramolecular hydrogen bonding does not exist.
(A) chloral hydrate (B) o-chlorophenol (C) chloral (D) salicylic acid
Q.184 Which of the following forces does not contribute to the vanderwaal’s forces of attraction.
(A) Dipole-dipole interaction
(B) Dipole-induced dipole interaction
(C) Instantaneous dipole induced dipole interaction
(D) Electrostatic forces of attraction releasing the energy 72 kJ/mole.
Q.185 Which of the following is the correct order of strength of H-bonding in the given compound.
(A) HF < NH3 (B) H2O > H2O2 (C) H2O2 > H2O (D) NH3 > H2O
Q.186 The correct order of strength of H-bonding is

(A) AH ........ A < A1H ....... A1 < BH ....... B < B1H ...... B1
(B) A1H ........ A1 > AH ....... A < B1H ....... B1 < BH ...... B
(C) AH ........ A > BH ....... B > A1H ....... A1 > B1H ...... B1
(D) A1H ........ A1 > B1H ....... B1 > BH ....... B > AH ...... A
Where B = First element of group 15
B1 = First element of group 16
A1 = First element of group 17
A = Second element of group 17
Q.187 Two ice cubes are pressed over each other and unite to form one cube, which force is responsible for
holding them together?
(A) Vander Waal's forces (B) Covalent attraction
(C) Hydrogen bond formation (D) Ion - Dipole attraction
Q.188 Which of the following allotrope of carbon is thermodynamically more stable

(A) Diamond (B) Graphite
(C) Both are equally stable (D) Can’t be compared
Q.189 Which of the following molecule has intramolecular H-bonding.

(A) Ortho-nitrophenol (B) Ortho-boric acid
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Q.190 Which of the following statement is incorrect.

(A) Boiling point of H2O2 is greater than that of H2O.
(B) Ethylene glycol is less viscous than glycerol.
(C) Orthonitrophenol can be separated from its meta and para isomer using its steam volatile property.
(D) In ice each oxygen atom is tetrahedrallysurrounded byfour hydrogen atoms, which are all equidistant
from oxygen.
Q.191 Which of the following does not have hydrogen bond?

(A) o–nitrophenol (B) Liquid HF
(C) Ice (D) CH3Cl

Q.192 The correct order of boiling point is :

(A) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (B) HF > HI > HCl > HBr
(C) HF > HBr > HI > HCl (D) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
Q.193 Which of the following compounds has highest boiling point?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
:
: :
: :
O S N B
H H
Q.194 The correct order of boiling point is

(A) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te (B) H2O > H2S > H2Te > H2S
(C) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te (D) H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
Q.195 The correct order of boiling point of H2O, NH3, HF is

(A) HF > H2O > NH3 (B) H2O > HF > NH3
(C) NH3 > HF > H2O (D) NH3 > H2O > HF
Q.196 Which of the following has minimum boiling point?
OH OH OH OH
NO2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NO2
NO2 COOH
Q.197 Which of the following pair of species exist in the solid state / liquid due to the presence of intermolecular
hydrogen bonding?
(A) H3BO3 & C2H5OH (B) C2H2 & NH3
(C) Maleic acid & Fumaric acid (D) CCl4 & CHCl3
Q.198 Incorrect orders of boiling point is

(A) o-nitrophenol < p-nitrophenol (B) NH3 >PH3
(C) H–F > HI (D) I–Cl < Br2

Q.199 Which of the following can form intermolecular H–bonding between its molecules?
(A) CH3OCH3 (B) CH3COCH3 (C) CH3Cl (D) N2H4
Q.200 The most volatile compound is
OH OH OH OH
NO2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NO2 HO OH
NO2
Q.201 Which of the following molecule exist in solid state due to H-bonding -
(A) I2 (B) Diamond (C) Boric acid (D) Black phosphorous
Q.202 Hydrogen bonding plays a central role in the following phenomena :

(A) Ice floats in water. (B) Borazone conduct electricity
(C) Boron trifluoride exist in liquid state (D) HBr has more boiling point as compare to HCl
Q.203 The strongest force among the following is

(A) London force (B) Ion-dipole interaction
(C) Dipole-induced dipole interaction (D) Dipole-dipole interaction
Q.204 Xe can be liquified due to "_________" with in molecules :

(A) ion-dipole interaction
(B) dipole - dipole interaction
(C) dipole - induced dipole interaction
(D) instantaneous dipole - induced dipole interaction
Q.205 Which of the following is correct regarding the melting point?

(A) SiO2 > NaCl > Dry ice (B) SiO2 < NaCl < Dry ice
(C) SiO2 < NaCl > Dry ice (D) SiO2 > NaCl < Dry ice
Q.206 Which of the following has maximum boiling point?

(A) CF4 (B) CCl4 (C) CH4 (D) SiCl4
Q.207 Which of the following is true about the hydrides of 15th group elements on moving down the group?
(A) H – M – H bond angle decreases (B) Lewis basic character increases
(C) Boiling point increases (D) Intermolecular force of attraction increases.

Q.208 Correct order of melting point

(A) Si > P4 > HI > H2 (B) HI > Si > P4 > H2
(C) Si > HI > P4 > H2 (D) P4 > Si > Hi > H2
Q.209 Which of the following is an example of covalent solid.

(A) Sulphur (B) CO2 (C) SiO2 (D) White phosphorus
Q.210 The incorrect order is

(A) Melting poing : SiO2 > ice > dry ice
(B) interaction between benzene and CCl4 : London dispersion forces
(C) Order of vapour pressure : H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
(D) Order of boiling point in amines : RNH2 > R2NH > R3N
Q.211 How many hydrogen atoms surround each water molecule?

(A) two (B) three (C) four (D) six
Q.212 Ortho-nitrophenol can be easily steam distilled, while para-nitrophenol cannot be, this is because of
(A) Strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ortho-nitrophenol.
(B) Strong intramolecular hydrogen bonding in ortho–nitrophenol.
(C) Strong intramolecular hydrogen bonding in para-nitrophenol.
(D) Dipole moment of para-nitrophenol is larger than that of ortho-nitrophenol.
Q.213 The correct order of b.p. in the following option.

(A) T2 < D2 < H2 (B) n-pentane < neo-pentane
(C) Xe < Ar < He (D) m-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol
Q.214 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
List–I List–II
(a) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te 1. Bond angle
(b) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te 2. melting and boiling point
(c) H2O >> H2S < H2Se < H2Te 3. acidic strength
(a) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c)
(A) 1 3 2 (B) 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 2 (D) 2 3 1

Q.215 Which is the correct order for different forces?

(A) ED (dipole-induced dipole interaction ) > EK(Dipole-dipole interaction) > EL (London force)
(B) EK(Dipole-dipole interaction) > ED (dipole-induced dipole interaction ) > EL (London force)
(C) ED (dipole-induced dipole interaction ) > EL (London force) > EK(Dipole-dipole interaction)
(D)All forces are equally strong.
Q.216 In which of the following case the strongest H-bonding is present.

(A) NaHCO3(s) (B) KHF2 (C) Dimer of phenol (D) HF (liq.)
Q.217 Certain derivatives of phenol, e.g. Kr (phenol)2, Xe(phenol)2, Rn(phenol)2 etc. may result due to
(A) dipole-dipole interaction
(B) dipole-induced dipole interaction
(C) ion-dipole interaction
(D) instantaneous dipole-induced dipole interaction
Q.218 Which of the following is the correct representation of H-bonding in HF?

(A) ----H – F----H – F----H – F----
F F
F
H H
(B) H H H
F F
F
H H
F F F F
(C) F
H H H
(D)All of these
Q.219 Which of the following compound does not have H-bonding?

(A) K2HPO4 (B) K2HPO3 (C) KHF2 (D) H2O
Q.220 Choose the correct order of boiling point.

(A) ICl < Br2 (B) BMe3 < BF3 (C) SiCl4 < CCl4 (D) H2 < He
Q.221 Which of the following molecules are expected to exhibit predominantly intermolecular
H-bonding?
(i)Acetic acid (ii) o-nitrophenol (iii) m-nitrophenol (iv) o-boric aicd
(A) i, ii, iii (B) i, ii, iv (C) i, iii, iv (D) ii, iii, iv

Q.222 Which of the following models best describes the bonding within a layer of the graphite structure?
(A) metallic bonding (B) ionic bonding
(C) non-metallic covalent bonding (D) vander Waals forces
Q.223 The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O2 because the H2O molecule has :
(A) fewer electrons than O2 (B) two covalents bonds
(C) V-shape (D) dipole moment
Q.224 The incorrect order of boiling point is

(A) H2O > CH3OH (B) N(CH3)H2< CH3OH
(C) H3PO4 > Me3PO4 (D) CH3N3 > HN3
Q.225 The correct order of melting point of given compounds is

(A) SiO2 > LiF > H2O > CCl4 > H2 (B) SiO2 > LiF > CCl > H2O > H2
(C) LiF > CCl4 > SiO2 > H2O > H2 (D) SiO2 > CCl4 > LiF > H2O > H2

EXERCISE-2
Q.1 In which of the following option(s) all species contains X — O — X bond(s) in structure ( X = central
atom)
(A) H2S2O5, S3O9, S2 O62 (B) P4O10, P4O6, H5P3O10
(C) N2O5, N2O, N2O4 (D) S3O9, P4O6, Si2 O67
Q.2 The compounds which on heating produce at least one polymeric product, are
(A) NaH2PO4 (B) Na(NH4) HPO4 · 4H2O
(C) Na2HPO4 (D) (NH4)2 HPO4
Q.3 Which of the following statement is/are correct for polythionic acid series.
(A) The average oxidation state of S-atom increases with decrease in number of S-atoms.
(B) The absolute oxidation states of S-atoms increases with decrease in number of S-atoms.
(C) The average oxidation state of S-atom decreases with increase in number of S-atoms.
(D) The absolute oxidation state of S-atoms remain same with increase or decrease in number of
S-atoms.
Q.4 Select correct order(s) for P4O10 and P4S10

(A) O–P–O bond angle in P4O10 > S–P–S bond angle in P4S10
(B) P–O–P bond angle in P4O10 > P–S–P bond angle in P4S10
(C) P–O bond length in P4O10 < P–S bond length in P4S10
(D) Same number of p – d bonds are present in both P4O10 and P4S10
Q.5 Rotation around the bond (between the underlined atoms) is restricted in
(A) N2F2 (B) H2O2 (C) O2F2 (D) S2F2
Q.6 Which of the following properties are same for N2H2, N2F2 and H2N2O2 compounds
(A)All are having two isomers
(B) All are having equal number of covalent bonds between both N-atoms
(C) All are having equal bond energy of N-N bond
(D) Oxidation state of N-atom is same for all compounds

Q.7 Which of the following statement is/are correct for CCl3 and CCl2
(A) Back bonding in both cases from Cl to C-atom

(B) Back bonding in both cases from C to Cl-atom
(C) Back bonding in CCl 3 from C to Cl but reverse in CCl
2
(D) Direction of back bonding is just opposite in two cases.
Q.8 Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding back bonding.

(A) Due to back bonding, bond angle always increases.
(B) Due to back bonding, bond length decreases.
(C) Due to back bonding, bond angle decreases.
(D) Due to back bonding hybridisation of central atom does not change always.
:
+
Q.9 H3Si — N = N = N¯ :
(I) (II) (III)
If hybridisation of N (I) and N (II) nitrogen atoms are sp (s + px) and nodal plane of -bond present
between N(I) and N(II) lies in "xy" plane then which of the following overlapping is present in above
compound.
(A) py – dxy sideways overlapping (B) py – py sideways overlapping
(C) pz – pz sideways overlapping (D) sp3 – sp (s + px) ovrelapping
Q.10 Due to back bonding observed dipole movement of whole molecule is found to be different than expected
dipole moment
(A) R3PO (B) BF3 (C) CO (D) POF3
Q.11 Which type of overlapping is / are present in H2Si NCNSiH3. (If skeleton of NCN group is present on
x-axis)
(A) py – py (B) pz – pz (C) pz – dxz (D) py – dxy
Q.12 In which of the following compound, observed bond angle is found to be greater than expected, but not
due to back bonding.
(A) N(SiH3)3 (B) N(CH3)3 (C) O(CH3)2 (D) O(SiH3)2

Q.13 Consider the following compound

H
H Si — N = C = S
H
If hybridisation of “C” is sp (s + px) and nodal plane of -bond present between C and S is “XY” plane
then which of the following statement(s) is / are correct regarding given information for above compound.
(A) -bond between N and C atom is formed by sideways overlapping of py orbitals
(B) (2p–3d) back bond between N and Si atom can be formed by (dxz–pz) orbital ovrelapping
(C) -bond between N and Si atom is formed by sp3 hybrid orbital of Si and spx hybrid orbital of N
atom.
(D) Six atoms of given compound are lying in same plane.
Q.14 Choose the correct statements:

(A) CH3NCS molecule is linear (B) SiH3NCS molecule is linear
(C) GeH3NCS molecule is bent (D) P(SIH3)3 molecule is pyramidal
Q.15 Correct statement(s) for B(OH)3 and B(OH)4¯ is/are

(A) Extent of back bonding : B(OH)3 > B(OH)4¯
(B) OBO: B(OH)3 > B(OH)4¯
(C) B(OH)4¯ does not form adduct with NH3
(D) Hybridization of O-atom in B(OH)4¯ : sp2
Q.16 In which if the following molecules exp. (observed dipole moment) is found to be greater than th.
(expected dipole moment)
CH3 OH
Cl F
(A) POCl3 (B) (C) HNC (D)
Q.17 Which of the following statement is correct regarding Be2H4 molecule.

(A) It is nonplanar structure (B) It is having 3c – 2e bond
(C) It is nonpolar molecule (D) Momentarily octet is achieved for each Be-atom.
Q.18 Bridge bonding (either 3c – 2e or coordinate bond ) is existing in which of the following molecules.
(A) Al2(CH3)6 (B) Si2H6 (C) I2Cl6 (D) B3N3H6

Q.19 Which of the following has only bridge bond?

(A) [BeCl2]n (B) [BeH2]n (C) [SnCl2]n (D) [BH3]2
Q.20 Which of the following as a whole molecule (s) has/have planar structure?
(A) I3¯ (B) N(SiH3)3 (C) Cl2O6 (D) Be2Cl4
Q.21 X – X bond does not exists in which of the following compounds having general form of X2H6 ?
(A) B2H6 (B) Ga2H6 (C) Al2H6 (D) Si2H6
Q.22 Three centre – two electron bonds exist in

(A) B2H6 (B) Al2(CH3)6 (C) BeH2(s) (D) BeCl2(s)
Q.23 Compounds are planar in its both monomer and dimer form.
(A) 2NO2 Dimer
 N2O4 (B) 2ICl3 Dimer
 I2Cl6
(C) 2BeCl2 Dimer

 Be2Cl4 (D) 2OF Dimer
 O2F2
Q.24 In which of the following compound(s) terminal (2C – 2e¯) bond and bridge bonds are lying in same
plane
(A) I2Cl6 (B) Fe2Cl4 (C) solid BeCl2 (D) Ga2H6
2H¯ 2(P)
R.T.
Q.25 B2H6(g)
2NH3
[Q] [R]
R.T.
Correct statement(s) about P, Q, R is/are

(A) Hybridisation of boron atom in P, Q, R is sp3
(B) B–H bond length in P and R is same in Isolated state
(C) B–H length in Q and R is not same
(D) N–H bond length in NH3 is greater than N–H bond length in Q
Q.26 In which of the following molecule six atoms are lying in a plane
(A) B2H6 (B) Be2Cl4 (C) I2Cl6 (D) Al2Br6

Q.27 In which of the following species terminal bonds are stronger than the bond present between central
atoms
(A) Ga2H6 (B) N2H4 (C) S2O52– (D) B2H4

Q.28 Which of the given molecule has same type of bond formation during dimerization as in C F3
(A) BH3 (B)AlCl3 (C) NO2 (D) ClO3
Q.29 Which of the following specie(s) is / are having only one corner shared per tetrahedron.
(A) Si 2 O67 (B) Cr2O 72 (C) S2O 72 (D) Si3O96
Q.30 The type of BACK BOND in compound (X) in following reaction is :

B2H6 + 2NH3  [BH2(NH3)2]+ [BH4]¯ 200
 ºC
 (X)
(A) (2 p – 2 p) symmetrical distribution of e¯ density
(B) (2 p – 2 p) unsymmetrical distribution of e¯ density
(C) (2 p – 3 p) unsymmetrical distribution of e¯ density
(D) (2 p – 3 p) symmetrical distribution of e¯density
Q.31 If dimer form of AX3 molecule is planar, then 'A' and 'X' should be
(A) A = Al & X = Cl (B) A = B & X =H (C) A = I & X = Cl (D) A =Al & X =OH
Q.32 Which of the following as a whole molecule (s) has/have planar structure?
(A) I3¯ (B) N(SiH3)3 (C) Cl2O6 (D) Be2Cl4
Q.33 No X -X bond exists in which of the following compounds having general form of X2H6 ?
(A) B2H6 (B) Ga2H6 (C) Al2H6 (D) Si2H6
Q.34 Three centre-two electron bonds exist in :

(A) B2H6 (B) Al2(CH3)6 (C) BeH2(S) (D) BeCl2(s)
Q.35 Compounds are planar in its both monomer and dimer form
(A) 2NO2 Dimer
 N2O4 (B) 2ICl3 Dimer
 I2Cl6
(C) 2BeCl2 Dimer

 Be2Cl4 (D) 2OF Dimer
 O2F2

Q.36 In which of the following compound(s) terminal (2C – 2e¯) bond and bridge bonds are lying in same
plane
(A) I2Cl6 (B) Fe2Cl4 (C) Solid BeCl2 (D) Ga2H6
Q.37 The CORRECT statement(s) regarding diborane (B2H6) is/are

(A) Maximum six hydrogen atoms can lie in a plane
(B) Maximum six atoms can lie in a plane
(C) Bridging Hb – Hb bond is stronger than terminal B – Ht bond
(D) Terminal Ht – B̂ – Ht bond angle is greater than bridging Hb – B̂ – Hb bond angle
Q.38 In the following Silicone, select the alkyl / aryl substituted silicon chlorides which are used in formation
of given Silicones:
R R R R
R – Si – O – Si – O – Si – O – Si – R
R R R R
(A) R SiCl3 (B) R2SiCl2 (C) R3SiCl (D) R4Si
Q.39 Si2O76– anion is obtained when

(A) no oxygen of a SiO44– tetrahedron is shared with another SiO44– tetrahedron
(B) one oxygen of a SiO44– tetrahedron is shared with another SiO44– tetrahedron
(C) two oxygen of a SiO44– tetrahedron are shared with another SiO44– tetrahedron
(D) Pyrolysis of two molecules of H4SiO4 followed by neutralization with strong base.
Q.40 Select the correct statements regarding Silica molecule.

(A) Silicon atom has sp3 hybridisation. (B) It has 3-d network structure.
(C) It has p–p bonds. (D) It is solid in nature.
Q.41 The raio of 'Si' to monovalent 'O' atom in amphibole silicates is :

(A) 2 : 3 (B) 4 : 5 (C) 4 : 11 (D) 1 : 3
Q.42 Which of the following is true for O2 and C2 molecules according to M.O.T.
(A) both are having 1 and 1 bond (B) both are of same bond length
(C) both are having same bond order (D) both are having two  overlapping

Q.43 Which of the following is paramagentic as well as it has fractional bond?

(A) O2+ (B) B2 (C) O2 (D) N2
Q.44 If sp mixing is not observed then which of the following species are paramagnetic and has bond order
equal to two or fractional bond order greater than two.
(A) O2+ (B) F2 (C) C2 (D) N2–
Q.45 In which of the following molecule(s) (s-p) mixing occur

(A) Li2 (B) B2 (C) C2 (D) H2
Q.46 Which property is / are common between H2+ and H2¯ molecular ion
(A) Magnetic behaviour (B) Bond length
(C) Bond order (D) Bond energy
Q.47 Which of the following characteristics are correct for order : F2 < O2
(A) Bond length (B) Bond energy
(C) HOMO has same symmetry (D)All molecular orbitals are not filled
Q.48 Which of the following species having bond order is equal to three?
(A) CO (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) S2
Q.49 If internuclear axis 'y', then which of the following statement is incorrect :
(A) In case of N2+ formation, electron removal is from "Gerade MO"
(B) In case of O2¯ formation, electron addition is into "Gerade MO"
(C) In case of C2+ formation, electron removal is from 2p MO
x
(D) In peroxide ion, all ungerade MOs are fully filled
Q.50 Which of the following species has center of symmetry (COS) in its HOMO
(A) B2 (B) C2 (C) F2 (D) O2
Q.51 INCORRECT statement about halogens is

(A) Colour in halogens is due to electronic transition from HOMO to LUMO
(B) Energy gap between HOMO and LUMO : F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(C) In F2 molecule energy gap between HOMO and LUMO is directly proportional to frequency of
violet colour
(D) In O2 molecule energy gap between HOMO & LUMO is directly proportional to wavelength
ofyellow colour

Q.52 In O2 molecule, which of the following molecular orbitals are lower in energy than 2pz orbital
(B)  2 pz
*
(A)  2 px (C)  2 s (D) *2 py
*
Q.53 Which of the following molecules are formed by the combination of orbitals having sp mixed character
(A) NO (B) O2¯ (C) N2+ (D) N2¯
Q.54 Correct order(s) for following structures is/are
O x1  x2 O
N—N  x3 N (where x1, x2, x3 are bond length)
O O  O
(A) x2 > x1 (B)  >  (C)  >  (D) x1 > x3
Q.55 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about NO2 and ClO2 molecules?
(A) Both are paramagnetic species.
(B) In both oxides, the central atom is sp2 hybridized.
(C) Both molecules have bent shape.
(D) Both molecules have odd electron in their structures.
Q.56 Choose the correct statement(s) from the following option(s).

(A) The free electron of ClO3 molecule is present in 3d-orbital of Cl-atom.

(B) The hybridisation of C-atom in CF3 is sp3

(C) CH 3 undergoes dimerisation readily..
(D) The dimer of ClO3 is diamagnetic.
Q.57 The species having planar shape are :

(A) CF3 (B) CH3 (C) XeF4 (D) XeF5–
Q.58 Which of the following are linear?

(A) (CN)2 (B) (SCN)2 (C) O3 (D) HgCl2

Q.59 Which of the following is/are incorrect about solubility trend in group I & II?
Least soluble in water Most soluble in water
(A) Hydroxides : LiOH CsOH
(B) Carbonates : Cs 2CO3 Li2CO3
(C) Fluoride : BaF2 BeF2
(D) Sulphates : BaSO4 BeSO4
Q.60 Which of following stability order is/are correct due to inert pair effect.
(A) Hg° > Hg2+ (B) Bi3+ < Bi5+ (C) Pb2+ > Pb4+ (D) Fe2+ < Fe3+
Q.61 Which statement is correct

(A) Higher is the polarisation, higher will be relative solubility in non-polar solvent
(B) Higher is the polarisation, higher will be the intensity of colour
(C) Diamagnetic substances some times become coloured due to HOMO-LUMO transition
(D) Higher is the polarisation in metal oxide, higher will be the basic character
Q.62 Choose the option(s) regarding correct order of acidic nature :

(A) MgO < ZnO < P2O5 < SO3 (B) MgO < ZnO < SO3 < P2O5
(C) Li2O < NO < CO2 < SO2 (D) Li2O < BeO < CO2 < NO
Q.63 Polarisation may be called as the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacent cation. Which of the
following statements is/are not correct?
(A) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius
(B) Alarge cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarisation
(C) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge
(D)Asmall anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarisation
Q.64 Correct order of solubility for following ionic compounds in water is/are
(A) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr (OH)2 < Ba(OH)2
(B) LiCl < NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl
(C) NaHCO3 > KHCO3 > RbHCO3 > CsHCO3
(D) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4
Q.65 Common properties of product obtained by heating of KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 is/are
(A) Paramagnetic gas (B)Amphoteric oxide
(C) Colourless gas (D) Salt does not exist in acidic medium

Q.66 Correct order(s) of thermal stability is/are

(A) BeF2 > BaF2 (B) BaCO3 > CaCO3
(C) Cs2O2 > BaO2 (D) Be(NO3)2 > NaNO3
Q.67 Which order is/are correct

(A) Thermal stability : Li2C2O4 < Na2C2O4 < K2C2O4 < Rb2C2O4 < Cs2C2O4
(B) Basic nature : ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO
(C) Solubility in water : Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < Cs2CO3
(D) Melting point : NaF < MgO < SiC
Q.68 Oxygen gas is liberated by thermal decomposition of which of the following compounds:
(A) CaSO4 (B) NaNO3 (C) Mg(OH)2 (D) K2CO3
Q.69 If monoatomic A+ ion is larger than monoatomic B2+ ion and monoatomic anion X2– is larger than
monoatomic Y¯ ion, then which of the following will be more covalent.
(A)AY (B) A2X (C) BY2 (D) BX
Q.70 Which of the following compound has lowest melting point

(A) AlF3 (B) AICl3 (C) AlBr3 (D) Black phosphorus
Q.71 Consider the order of following metal hydroxides:

Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2
Which of the given properties is following above order.
(A) Basic character (B) Thermal stability (C) Solubility in water (D)All
Q.72 Consider the order of following compounds:

BeF2 > BeCl2 > BeBr2 > BeI2
Which of the given properties is following above order.
(A) Thermal stability (B) melting point
(C) Lewis acid character (D) All
Q.73 Compound having lowest thermal stability is

(A) NaHCO3 (B) KHCO3 (C) RbHCO3 (D) CsHCO3
Q.74 Which of the following compound does not thermally decompose even at high temperature.
(A) AgNO3 (B) K3PO4 (C) FeSO4.7H2O (D) BaO2

Q.75 
(I) LiNO3  X (Solid) + gas + O2

(II) NaNO3  Y (Solid) + gas + O2
800º C
The INCORRECT statement regarding above reactions is

(A) X and Y are respective metal oxides (B) NO2 is formed in (II) reaction
(C) Both are redox reactions (D) NO2 is formed in (I) reaction
Q.76 Which of the following compound is/are predominantly ionic?

(A) KCl (B) Na2S (C) BeF2 (D) CaO
Q.77 On heating to 400-500° C, relativelyunstable hydrides and carbonates decompose. Which of the following
will decompose when heated to 400-500ºC ?
(A) LiH (B) NaH (C) Li2CO3 (D) BaCO3
Q.78 Which of the following statements is/are true for BaO and MgO ?
(A) BaO is more ionic than MgO (B) MgO is more ionic than BaO
(C) BaO is more basic than MgO (D) MgO is more basic than BaO
Q.79 Polarization may be called the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which
of the following statements is/are incorrect:
(A) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius
(B) Alarge cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarization
(C) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge
(D)Asmall anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarization
Q.80 A, B, C are three substances. A does not conduct electricity in the soild, molten state and aqueous
solution. B conducts electricityboth in the fused and aqueous states, while C conducts electricityonly in
the aqueous state. In solid state neither B nor C conducts electricity. Which of the following statements
is/are true regarding A, B and C?
(A)Ahas polar covalent linkage (B)Ahas nonpolar covalent linkage
(C) B is ionic in nature (D) Cation formed by Cis highy polarizing
Q.81 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding ionic compounds?
(A) They are good conductors of electricity at room temperature
(B) They are always more soluble in polar solvents than covalent compounds
(C) They consists of ions
(D) They generallyhave high melting and boling points

Q.82 Most ionic compounds have:

(A) high melting points and low boiling points
(B) high melting points and nondirectional bonds
(C) high solubilities in polar solvents and low solubilities in nonpolar solvents
(D) three-dimentional network structures, and are good conductors of electricity in the molten state
Q.83 Among the following, the element which show inert-pair effect are:
(A) Bi (B) Sn (C) Pb (D) Tl
Q.84 Which of the following has/have (18 + 2) electronic configuration( s) ?

(A) Pb2+ (B) Cd2+ (C) Bi3+ (D) Tl3+
Q.85 Consider the following reaction
MX n R

.T.
 MX n  2   X 2
which of the given compound does NOT dissociate according to above reaction at room temperature
(A) FeI3 (B) CuI2 (C) SnI4 (D) BiI5
Q.86 Which of the following can not be converted into anhydrous chloride only by heating?
(A) MgCl2.6H2O (B) FeCl3.6H2O (C) AlCl3.6H2O (D) CoCl2.6H2O
Q.87 The compounds which produce CO gas finally on heating are

(A) FeC2O4 (B) SnC2O4 (C) Ag2C2O4 (D) HgC2O4
Q.88 Select the compound which are not exist in nature.

(A) FeI3 (B) [CuI4]2– (C) SCl6 (D) PbI4
Q.89 Which of the following molecules have intramolecular H-bonding.

(A) CCl3CHO.H2O (B) ortho-C6H4(OH) CHO
(C) ortho-C6H4(OH)F (D) para-C6H4(OH)F
Q.90 Which of the following statement(s) is /are correct?

(A) o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol
(B) HOCH2 – CHOH – CH2 OH is more viscous than water.
(C) KHF2 exists but KHBr2 does not.
(D) CO < CO2 < CO32– (C–O bond length)

Q.91 Which of the following statement(s) is / are incorrect?

(A) Glucose is less viscous than ethanol due to hydrogen bonding.
(B) Diamond is more thermally stable than graphite.
(C) Benzene and Borazole both are isoelectronic but not iso-structural.
(D) Least reactive allotropes of phosphorus is white phosphorus.
Q.92 Select the correct option in following -

(A) Due to presence of H-bonding boric acid has slippery nature.
(B) Due to presence of Vander waal force in between two layer of graphite, it has slippery nature.
(C) In allotropes of phosphorous only white phosphorous conduct electricity.
(D) Due to presence of H-bonding sulphuric acid is highly viscous in nature
Q.93 Select incorrect reason for boiling point order :

(A) CH3OCH3 < CH3SCH3 : Vander waals forces
(B) HF > NH3 : Strength of H-bond
(C) CH3COOH > CH3CONH2 : Extent of H-bond
(D) p-dichloro benzene < o-dichlorobenzene : Molecular weight
Q.94 London force works in

(A) Gaseous state (B) Solid state (C) Liquid state (D) None of these
Q.95 Which of the following molecules does not consist intermolecular H-bonding?
(A) Chloral hydrate (B) Acetic acid (Vapour)
(C) Ortho chlorophenol (D) Para-hydroxy benzaldehyde
Q.96 Compounds which has / have H-bond is / are:

(A) CuSO4·5H2O (B) Chloral hydrate
(C) Ortho–nitrophenol (D) Chloral
Q.97 Hydrogen bonding plays a central role in the following phenomena :

(A) Boric acid has slippery nature. (B) Water has maximum density at 0°C
(C) Acetic acid form dimer in vapour state. (D)Alcohol is soluble in water.

Q.98 When NH3 gas and NH4Cl are separately dissolved into water, then which of the following interaction
will be mainlypresent in their respective solution
 
(A) H 3 N  H    O  H (B) O  H     N H 3
| | |
H H H
 
(C) O  H    NH 2 (D) H 3 N  H    N H 3
| | |
H H H
Q.99 Which of the following are true?

(A) Vander Waals forces are responsible for the formation of molecular crystals
(B) Branching lowers the boiling points of isomeric organic compounds due to decrease in vander Waals
forces of attraction
(C) In graphite, Vander Waals forces act between the carbon layers
(D) In diamond, Vander Waals forces act between the carbon layers
Q.100 Which of the following statement are correct ?

(A) The crystal lattice of ice contains covalent as well as hydrogen bonds
(B) The density of water increases when heated from 0° C to 4° C due to the change in the structure of
the cluster of water molecules
(C) Above 4° C the thermal agitation of water molecules increases. Therefore, intermolecular distance
increases and water starts expanding
(D) The density of water increases from 0ºC to a maximum at 4ºC and the entropy of the system
increases
Q.101 Intermolecular hydrogen bonding increases the enthalpy of vapourization of a liquid due to the:
(A) decrease in the attraction between molecules
(B) increase in the attraction between molecules
(C) decrease in the molar mass of unassociated liquid molecules'
(D) increase in the effective molar mass of hydrogen -bonded molecules
Q.102 Which of the following molecules have intermolecular hydrogen bonds?

(A) KH2PO4 (B) H3BO3 (C) C6H5CO2H (D) CH3OH
Q.103 Intramolecular hydrogen bonds occur in :

(A) 2-chlorophenol (B) salicylic acid
(C) the enol form of acetylacetone (D) paranitrophenol

Q.104 Select the correct statement about the compound NO[BF4]

(A) It has 5  and 2  bond
(B) Nitrogen-oxygen bond length is higher than nitric oxide (NO)
(C) It is a diamagnetic specie
(D) B–F bond length in this compound is lower than in BF3.
Q.105 Which of the respective orders are correct?

(A) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 : Thermal stabilityorder
(B) Liquid hydrogen < liquid helium : boiling point order
(C) BeCO3 > SrCO3 > BaCO3 : Kp value order during their thermal
dissociation in closed container
(D) O2 > KO2 > K2O2 : Magnetic mo®ment order
Q.106 Identify the compound which has cage like structure -

(A) P4O6 (B) ice (C) P4 (D) Dry ice
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
(X) is oxy acid of phosphorus having 5+ oxidation state. From one molecule of (X), following theoritical
transformations are given.
(X) – (One oxygen atom)  (Y)
(Y) – (One oxygen atom)  (Z)
(X) – (One water molecule)  (Z'')
Q.107 (X) is
(A) H3PO4 (B) H3PO3 (C) H3PO2 (D) None of these
Q.108 (Z") has the prefix

(A) Ortho- (B) Meta- (C) Pyro- (D) None of these
Q.109 How many H-atoms are attached directly to phosphorus in the compound (Z)?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 2


Polythionic acids have the general formula : HO3S – Sn – SO3H (n = 1,2,3....) and their basicity is two.
Each 'S' is sp3 hybridised and the oxidation state of individual 'S' is different. Salts of polythionic acids
are named polythionates.
Q.110 The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
Q.111 The total number of S–S linkages in polythionic acids, in general, would be equal to :
(A) n (B) n – 1 (C) n + 1 (D) n – 2

The most common electronegative atoms in organic molecules are oxygen and nitrogen. Organic mol-
ecules containing O – H and N – H grups show H-bond their physical properties are chiefly due to O –
H and – H groups. The nature of alkyl and aryl groups simply modify these properties. Select correct
order of solubility is water.
Q.112 Select correct order of solubility in water.
(A) (C2H5)3N < (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2
(B) (C2H5)2NH < (C2H5)3NH < C2H5NH2
(C) (C3H5)2NH < C2H52NH < (C2H5)3N
(D) (C2H5)3N < CH3CH2NHCH3 < (C2H5)2NH
Q.113 Select correct order(s) of boiling point which is/are explained by H-bonding.
(i) CH3OH < C2H5OH < C3H7OH
(ii) 1° > 2° > 3° : isomeric alcohols
(iii) CH3NH2 < C2H5NH2 < C3H2NH2
(iv) 1° > 2° > 3° : isomeric amines
(A) i, ii, iii, iv (B) onlyii, iii, iv (C) only ii, iv (D) onlyiv

Most of electron deficient molecules undergo stabilization by back bonding or dimerization provided
certain conditions are fulfilled. Dimerization can be achieved by formation of bridge bond and pairing of
unpaired electrons:
Q.114 Incorrect order of Lewis basic character is
(A) NCl3 > NF3 (B) PH3 > PF3 (C) OMe2<O(SiH3)2 (D) MeNCS > H3SiNCS
Q.115 Back bonding is present in dimer of

(A) BF3 (B) NO2 (C) AlF3 (D) BeCl2

Silicones are organo-silicon synthetic polymers. These are formed by the hydrolysis of alkyl or aryl
substituted chloro silanes and their subsequent polymerisation. The alkyl and aryl substitued chloro
silanes are prepared by the reaction of Grignard reagent and SiCl4. The lower silicones are oily liquids
but higher members containing long chains or ring structures are waxy and rubber like solids. They are
good electrical insulators and are used in making vaseline like greases which are used as lubricants in
aeroplanes.
Q.116 Find the value of n, for compound (CH3)nSi(Cl)4–n which on hydrolysis followed by polymerisation
gives cross linked silicone.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None
Q.117 Which of the following i correct about silicones?
(A) Silicones are organo silicon compounds containing Si–O–Si linkage.
(B) R3SiCl on hydrolysis followed bysubsequent polymerisation gives linear silicones.
(C) RSiCl3 on hydrolysis followed by subsequent polymerisation gives linear silicones.
(D) When water is eliminated from the terminal –OH groups of linear silicones, cross linked silicone is
formed.

According to molecular orbital theory atomic orbitals of nearly same energy of different atoms are
combined and form molecule in homodiatomic molecule two atomic orbitals which have wave function
 A and  B are combined in two ways ( A   B ) . They have two type of electron density, one is
bonding [( A   B ) 2 ] where e– density increase between nucleus and another is antibonding
[( A   B ) 2 ] where e– densitydecreases between nucleus. These molecular orbitals are filled according
to Hund, Pauli,Afbau princple.
Q.118 Correct trend about bond energy is :
(A) N2– > N2+ (B) N2+ > N2– (C) N2+ = N2– (D) Not comparable
Q.119 In which of the following molecular species s and p orbitals mixing does not occur?
(A) CN– (B) O22+ (C) N22– (D) B22–
Q.120 Which of the following paramagnetic species have highest bond order with maximum number of
antibonding electrons?
(A) N2+ (B) O2+ (C) F2 (D) C2+


Bent's rule is consistent withVSEPR theory.According to Bent's rule, the more electronegative substituent
attaches itself to hybrid orbital that contains more p-character or less s-character.
Q.121 Find the species which is not perfectly planar:
  
(A) CH 3 (B) CH F2 (C)  CH 2 (D) NO 2
Q.122 Select the correct order of percentage s-character in following molecules:

Given: cos 134 = –0.69 and cos 117 = –0.45
%s=x %s=y
N N
O 117° O O 134° O
(A) x < y (B) y < x (C) x = y (D) Can not be predicted

Ionic compounds are formed by complete transfer of electrons from one atom to the other atom. Their
crystal lattice are formed by electrostatic forces of attraction, but it is also true that no ionic compound is
100% ionic, partial covalent character is developed due to polarisation of ions as per Fajan’s Rule.
Q.123 Polarisation of the electron cloud of cation is less than anion because
(A) e/p ratio is less than one for anion.
(B) e/p ratio is greater than one for cation.
(C) e/p ratio is less than one for cation by which electrons are relatively loosely held compared to anion
(D) e/p ratio is less than one for cation while greater than one for anion by which electron cloud is
relativelylooselyheld for anion.
Q.124 What is incorrect related to polarisation?

(A) Covalent character will increase with increase in polarisation
(B) Melting point order will be always affected by the polarisation.
(C) Intensity of colour may increase with higher extent of polarisation.
(D)Acidic nature of metal oxide will increase with increase in polarisation.
Q.125 Choose the correct order for the given property.

(A) NaX > KX > RbX > CsX > LiX ; (X = F, Cl, Br) : melting point order
(B) BeF2 > MgF2 > CaF2 > SrF2 > BaF2 : Lattice energy order
(C) BeF2 > MgF2 > CaF2 > SrF2 > BaF2 : Solubility order
(D) MgO > BeO > CaO > SrO > BaO : Covalent charecter order


The rule governing the transition from ionic to covalent bonding are called Fajan's rules. They are based
on the deformation of the interacting ions in the bondA+B (Polarization of ions)
(A) Solubility of hydroxides of group I A increases down the group while for group II A, it decreases
down the group.
(B) Solubility of hydroxides of s-block metal cations increases down the group.
(C) Solubility of carbonates of s-block metal cation decreases down the group.
(D) All are correct.

(A) Solubility of bicarbonates of Na+, K+, Rb+, Cs+ decreases down the group
(B) Thermal stability of nitrates of group I Acations decreases down the group
(C) Solubility of chromates of group II Acation increases down the group
(D) Melting point of fluorides of Na+, K+, Rb+, Cs+ decreases down the group
Q.128 In which of the following compound has highest thermal stability.

(A) NaCl (B) CsCl (C) KCl (D) LiCl

"No ionic compound is 100 % ionic 'as well as' no covalent compound is 100% covalent."
Q.129 Correct solubility order is
(A) CaCrO4 > BaCrO4 (B) BeCO3 < BaCO3
(C) LiNO3 < CsNO3 (D) NaClO4 < KClO4
Q.130 Choose the incorrect order of the given properties:

(A) BeCl2 < LiCl : Electrical conductivity
(B) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 : Covalent character order
(C) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 : Thermal stabilityorder
(D) HgCl2 < HgBr2 < HgI2 : Solubility order in water
Q.131 Which of the following option gives incorrect melting point order.
(A) H2 < T2 (B) He > T2 (C) D2 > He (D) T2 > D2


The nature of bond betweenA+ and B– depends on the effect, one ion has on the other. The positive ion
attracts the electrons on the negative ion and at the same time it repels the nucleus, thus distorting the
negative ion, called polarization also, electrons are drawn from the negative ion towards the positive ion,
resulting in high concentration of electrons between the two nuclei, and a large degree of covalent character
results.
(I) Small positive ions (II) Large negative ions.
(III) Large charge on either ion. (IV) Polarisation is favoured if the positive ion doesn't
have a noble gas configuration.
Q.132 Which of the following molecule is having highest melting point?

(A) NaF (B) NaI (C) NaCl (D) NaBr
Q.133 I– is one of the bigger anionic species, which of the following cationic species produces maximum
polarisation on I– ?
(A) Li+ (B) Na+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Be2+
Q.134 Which of the following is the correct order of polarisation.

(A) PbF2 > PbCl2 > PbBr2 > PbI2 (B) PbF2 = PbCl2 < PbBr2 > PbI2
(C) PbF2 < PbCl2 < PbBr2 < PbI2 (D) PbF2 < PbCl2 < PbBr2 > PbI2

The intermolecular forces of attraction (i.e. H-bonding and Vander Waals forces) exist among polar and
non-polar species which affect melting point, boiling point, solubilityand viscosityof covalent compounds.
Q.135 Melting and boiling point of halogen increase down the group due to
(A) increase in London dispersion forces (B) increase in extent of polarity
(C) increase in molecular mass (D) Both (A) and (C)
Q.136 The type of molecular force of attraction present in the following compound is
OH
OH
OH
(A) intermolecular H-bonding (B) Intramolecular H-bonding
(C) Vander waals force (D)All
Q.137 Select the incorrect order of boiling point between the following compounds:
(A) N3H < CH3N3 (B) Me2SO4 < H2SO4
(C) Me3BO3 < B(OH)3 (D) BF3 < BI3


Hydrogen bonding originates fromthe dipole-dipole interaction between H-atomand anyof the otheratom
like F, O, N and in somecases with Cl atom. There are two types of H-bonding like intermole.cular and
intramolecular H-bonding.
Q.138 Which of the following molecule does not consist of intramolecular H-bonding.
(A) chloral (B) chloral hydrate
(C) ortho hydroxy benzaldehyde (D) ortho chlorophenol
Q.139 Which of the following plot for  (density) v/s T (temperature) for liquid H2O is correct:
 
(A) (B)
4°C 4°C
0°C T 0°C T
 
(C) (D)
4°C 4°C
0°C T 0°C T
Q.140 Which of following statement is incorrect.

(A) Boiling point of H2O2 is greater than that of H2O
(B) Ethylene glycol is less viscous than glycerol
(C) o-nitrophenol can be separated from its meta and para isomer using its steam volatile property
(D) in ice each 'O' atom is tetrahedrally arranged by four H-atoms which are all equidistant

[MATCH LIST TYPE]

Q.141 Which of the following options represent correctly matched List I and List II.
List I List II
(P) P4 O10 (1) 4 -bond and 1 -bond in center atom
(Q) P4O6 (2) 3 -bond and 1 l.p. e– in center atom
(R) S3O9 (3) 4 -bond and 2 -bond are in center atom
(S) SF6 (4) 6 -bond only
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 1 2 3 4
Q.142 Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the description given in List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I List-II
P. 1. p – d  antibonding
Q. 2. s – p  bonding
R. 3. d – d  bonding
S. 4. p – p  antibonding
Code:
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2


(P) XeO3 (1) Planar and lone pair is present on central atom.
(Q) CF4 (2) Planar and lone pair is not present on central atom.
(R) XeF2 (3) Non-planar and lone pair is not present on central atoms.
(S) CO 2 (4) Non-planar and lone pair is present on central atoms.
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4

(P) SiH3OH > CH3OH (1) Lewis acidic character
(Q) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (2) Lewis basic character
(R) SiF4 > SiCl4 > SiBr4 (3) Thermal stability
(S) PH3 > AsH3 (4) Arrhenius acidic character
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Q.145 Match the ionization processes in List-I with the changes observed in List - II. For this, use the codes
given below:
List-I List-II
(P) N2  N2+ (1) bond order increases and magnetic property is changed
(Q) O2+  O22+ (2) bond order decreases and magnetic property remains same.
(R) B2  B2+ (3) bond order increases and magnetic property remains same.
(S) NO–  NO (4) bond order decreases and magnetic property is changed.
Code:
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 4 2

Q.146 List I List II

(Compound pair) (Most dominating force of interaction)
(P) NH3 and Kr (1) London forces
(Q) H2O and NaCl (2) Keesom forces
(R) CH4 and Cl2 (3) Debey forces
(S) I–Cl and Br–F (4) Ion dipole forces
Code:
P Q R S
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
[MATCH THE COLUMN]

(Number of electron pair (Probable geometry)
around the central atom)
(A) 2 (P) Bent
(B) 3 (Q) Linear
(C) 4 (R) Sea Saw
(D) 5 (S) Trigonal Pyramidal

(A) Ammoniumsulphate (P) Central atom of cationic and anionic part
has same hybridisation.
(B) N2O5 (Solid) (Q) All bond length are equal in anionic part
(C) Calcium carbonate (R) Co-ordinate bond is present
(S) Anionic part has only -bond according to
Lewis dot structure.

(Molecules) (Orbitals involved in overlapping)
(A) (CN)2 (P) sp – sp
(B) C2(CN)2 (Q) sp – p
(C) C2(CN)4 (R) p–p
(S) sp2 – sp2

Q.150 Column I Column II (Solid State)

(A) N2O 5 (P) Cation has sp3d2 hybridisation of central atom.
(B) I(CN) (Q) Anion has linear shape
(C) PBr5 (R) Anion has trigonal planar shape
(D) XeF6 (S) Cation is linear
(T) Cation has tetrahedral shape

(A) Aromatic (P) C3N3Cl3
(B) Compound having sp-hybridized N-atom (Q) B 3 N3 H6
(C) whole molecule is planar (R) C3N3(N3)3
(D) l.p. of N-atom present in hybrid orbital (S) C3N3(NH2)3

(A) PF3Cl2 (P) All ‘P-F’ bonds are identical (when P-F bonds are > 1)
(B) PF2Cl3 (Q) All ‘P-Cl’ bonds are identical (when P-Cl bonds are > 1)
(C) PFCl4 (R) dP–Cl(axial) > dp–Cl(equatorial)
(D) PF4Cl (S) dP–Cl(equatorial) > dP–F(axial)
(T) dP–F(axial) > dP–F(equatorial)

(A) H3PO4 (P) Lewis structure has at least one -bond
(B) H2SO4 (Q) Pyro-acid exists.
(C) HNO3 (R) Central atom (under lined) is sp3 hybridised.
(S) Planar shape around the under lined atom.

(A) Sodium dihydrogen tripolyphosphate (P) Compound has P–O–P linkage
(B) Sodium dihydrogen hypophosphate (Q) Phosphorous atom has only odd
number oxidation state.
(C) Sodium hydrogen pyrophosphite (R) It has not p–p bond.
(S) Central atom involve 'd' orbital in
bonding


(Compound) (Properties)
(A) S2O 72– (P) sp3 hybridised center atom
(B) S2O 52– (Q) S – O – S bond is present
(C) S2O 82– (R) S – S bond is present
(S) Oxidation state of 'S' is 6+

(A) B(OH)3 (P) Most acidic
(B) Al(OH)3 (Q) Most basic
(C) BaO (R) Amphoteric
(D) H2SO4 (S) Monoprotic acid in aqueous medium
(T) Diprotic acid

(A) B2H6 (P) (3C – 2e¯) bond
(B) Be2Cl4 (Q) Co-ordinate bond
(C) Al2Cl6 (R) (2C – 2e¯) bond
(D) Be2H4 (S) Non-Polar
(T) Nonplanar

(Molecules given) (Correct properties)
(A) B3O63– (P) Molecule / species is planar
(B) Al2(CH3)6 (Q) Molecule / specie is associated with back bonding or

bridge bonding.
(C) I2Cl6 (R) Molecule / specie is non polar
(D) C3N3Cl3 (S) Molecule / specie is non planar
(T) All central atom(s) is / are sp3 hybridised.


(A) Having general formula (P) Pyroxene chain silicate
of (SiO3)n2n–
(B) At least two corners are shared (Q) Amphibole chain silicate
per tetrahedron
(C) Overall structure is nonplanar (R) Cyclic silicate
(S) 2D-Silicate
Q.160 Column - I Column - II
(A) d x 2  y 2 atomic orbital (P) One nodal plane
(B) py atomic orbital (Q) Two nodal planes
(C)  p x molecular orbital (R) Y (g) [gerade]
(D) *p y molecular orbital (S) Y(u) [Ungerade]

Ionic compounds Observation on thermal decomposition
(A) HgCO3 (P) Acidic gas evolves
(B) FeSO4 (Q) Metallic residue is obtained as final product
(C) BeC2O4 (R) Metal cation of salt undergoes redox reaction
(D) AgNO3 (S) Metallic oxide can be obtained
(T) Neutral gas is evolved
Q.162 Column - I Column -II

(A) NH4Cl (P) Hydrogen bond
(B) CuSO4.5H2O (Q) Co-ordinate bond
(C) HNC (R) Ionic bond
(D) Liquid. H2O2 (S) Covalent bond


(Compound) (Intermolecular force)
(A) H–F (P) Keesom force
(B) H3C – F (Q) London force
H
(C) C=O (R) Debye force
H
(D) CCl4 (S) H-Bonding

(T) Ion-dipole interaction
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.164 Find the number of P–O bonds of identical length in hypophosphate ion.
Q.165 Calculate the total number of -bond in the S3O9.

Q.166 Find the number of compounds having peroxy linkages.

H2SO5, HIO4, H3PO5, N2O4, N2O5, H4P2O8, CrO5, H4P2O6, H2S2O6
Q.167 Find the number of S – S linkages in H2S4O6.
Q.168 Find the number of acid which has tetrahedral shape w.r.t. central atom.
H3PO4, H2SO4, H3PO3, H3PO2, H3BO3, HClO4, HClO3, H2CO3
Q.169 Find the number of acid(s) from the following in which X – H bond is/are present. Given X is central
atom
H3PO2 , H 4 P 2 O7 , H 4 P 2 O5 , H 2 S 2 O6 , H3PO3
H3BO3, H2SO4
Q.170 In borax Na2[B4(OH)4(O)5].8H2O how many boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
Q.171 How many of the following will exhibit back bonding?

(a) SiH3NCS (b) OCl2 (c) BF3 (d) B(OC2H5)3
(e) B(CH3)3 (f) PCl3 (g) O(CH3)2 (h) O(SiH3)2
(i) PF3 (j) BF4– (k) CO
Q.172 Find total number of linkage having  character in F2BN(SiH3)2

Q.173 The maximum number of halogen atoms are present in one plane for dimer of ICl3.
Q.174 In which of the following compounds bridging bonds and terminal bonds are lying in same plane
Be2H4, Be2Cl4, I2Cl6, Al2Cl6, Fe2Cl4, Al2H6, Al2(NH2)6, Al2(OH)6
Q.175 Length of chain silicone can be controlled by adding RnS(OH)4–n unit, then find out correct value of n.
Q.176 How many total number of molecular orbitals which are known as gerade(g).
1s, 2py, 3s, *2py, *2pz, 2px, *2s, *2px
Q.177 How many nodal plane(s) is / are present in * 2 p y antibonding molecular orbital.
Q.178 Which of the following are paramagnetic?

O2, O2+, N2, N2+, Cl2, F2, B2, C2, O22+, O22–, O2¯, N2¯
Q.179 Which of the following is paramagnetic and has fractional bond order?
O2, O2+, O2–, C2+, B2+, H2+, He2+, N2 , N22+, NO+
Q.180 How many species of the following would involve sp mixing ?

B2, O2, F2, N2, O2+, F2– , C2 , O2–
[If your answer is 6 write the answer as 0006.]
Q.181 How many of the following are paramagnetic having µspin (Magnetic moment) 2.8 BM ?
N2 , O2 , B2 , C2 , C22+ , N22– , F2 , O2– , Li2+, B2–
Q.182 Find out the total number of species where the central atom is sp2 hybridised.
ClO2, NO2, SO2, ClO3,  CF3 ,  CH 3 , C3O2, (CN)2, N2H4
Q.183 Which of following substance is having higher lattice energy than NaBr.
CaCl2, NaI , CsBr, LiF, MgO, Al2O3, TiO2
Q.184 Which of the following compound(s) is/are white and water insoluble.
BaCO3, Fe2O3, AgBr, PbCrO4, CaC2O4, BaCl2, KMnO4, Na2CrO4, Pb(CH3COO)2,

Q.185 Find the number of species which would undergo disproportionation on heating?
H2CO3, H2SO3, NaH2PO2, HOCl, H3PO4, HNO2,H3PO2
Q.186 Which of the following is tetrahedral and paramagnetic?

MnO4– , CrO4– – , Cr2O72– , MnO4– – , ClO4– , ClO3–, NO2, N2O4

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 B Q.4 B Q.5 A
Q.6 D Q.7 B Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 D
Q.11 B Q.12 A Q.13 D Q.14 C Q.15 D
Q.16 A Q.17 B Q.18 A Q.19 D Q.20 D
Q.21 B Q.22 A Q.23 D Q.24 D Q.25 A
Q.26 B Q.27 A Q.28 C Q.29 C Q.30 D
Q.31 C Q.32 A Q.33 C Q.34 C Q.35 B
Q.36 C Q.37 B Q.38 C Q.39 D Q.40 D
Q.41 D Q.42 C Q.43 C Q.44 A Q.45 D
Q.46 D Q.47 B Q.48 A Q.49 C Q.50 B
Q.51 A Q.52 D Q.53 B Q.54 D Q.55 D
Q.56 C Q.57 C Q.58 D Q.59 B Q.60 C
Q.61 D Q.62 B Q.63 C Q.64 D Q.65 D
Q.66 B Q.67 B Q.68 B Q.69 A Q.70 C
Q.71 A Q.72 B Q.73 C Q.74 A Q.75 D
Q.76 B Q.77 C Q.78 A Q.79 D Q.80 A
Q.81 C Q.82 C Q.83 D Q.84 B Q.85 A
Q.86 D Q.87 B Q.88 A Q.89 B Q.90 D
Q.91 B Q.92 D Q.93 D Q.94 A Q.95 C
Q.96 C Q.97 C Q.98 D Q.99 B Q.100 D
Q.101 A Q.102 D Q.103 B Q.104 D Q.105 A
Q.106 B Q.107 A Q.108 C Q.109 B Q.110 A
Q.111 D Q.112 D Q.113 A Q.114 A Q.115 D
Q.116 D Q.117 A Q.118 A Q.119 A Q.120 A
Q.121 B Q.122 C Q.123 B Q.124 B Q.125 B
Q.126 B Q.127 C Q.128 C Q.129 D Q.130 D
Q.131 A Q.132 C Q.133 B Q.134 C Q.135 B
Q.136 D Q.137 C Q.138 C Q.139 D Q.140 B
Q.141 A Q.142 A Q.143 B Q.144 A Q.145 A
Q.146 C Q.147 D Q.148 C Q.149 B Q.150 A
Q.151 D Q.152 B Q.153 A Q.154 B Q.155 D
Q.156 D Q.157 D Q.158 D Q.159 A Q.160 B
Q.161 A Q.162 B Q.163 A Q.164 D Q.165 B
Q.166 A Q.167 C Q.168 A Q.169 D Q.170 A
Q.171 C Q.172 C Q.173 D Q.174 D Q.175 A
Q.176 B Q.177 D Q.178 A Q.179 A Q.180 C

Q.181 C Q.182 A Q.183 C Q.184 D Q.185 B
Q.186 D Q.187 C Q.188 B Q.189 A Q.190 D
Q.191 D Q.192 D Q.193 C Q.194 D Q.195 B
Q.196 A Q.197 A Q.198 D Q.199 D Q.200 A
Q.201 C Q.202 A Q.203 B Q.204 D Q.205 A
Q.206 B Q.207 A Q.208 A Q.209 C Q.210 C
Q.211 C Q.212 B Q.213 D Q.214 C Q.215 B
Q.216 B Q.217 B Q.218 B Q.219 B Q.220 C
Q.221 C Q.222 C Q.223 D Q.224 D Q.225 A
EXERCISE-2
Q.1 BD Q.2 ABD Q.3 ACD Q.4 BCD Q.5 ABCD
Q.6 AB Q.7 CD Q.8 AC Q.9 ABCD Q.10 ACD
Q.11 ABCD Q.12 BC Q.13 ABC Q.14 CD Q.15 ABC
Q.16 ABC Q.17 BC Q.18 AC Q.19 AB Q.20 AD
Q.21 ABC Q.22 ABC Q.23 ABC Q.24 AB Q.25 ABCD
Q.26 ABD Q.27 BD Q.28 CD Q.29 ABC Q.30 B
Q.31 C Q.32 AD Q.33 ABC Q.34 ABC Q.35 ABC
Q.36 AB Q.37 BCD Q.38 BC Q.39 BD Q.40 ABD
Q.41 AB Q.42 CD Q.43 ABC Q.44 ACD Q.45 ABC
Q.46 AC Q.47 BCD Q.48 AB Q.49 B Q.50 CD
Q.51 D Q.52 C Q.53 ACD Q.54 ABC Q.55 ABCD
Q.56 BCD Q.57 BCD Q.58 AD Q.59 BC Q.60 AC
Q.61 ABC Q.62 AC Q.63 ABD Q.64 AD Q.65 ABCD
Q.66 ABC Q.67 ACD Q.68 AB Q.69 D Q.70 C
Q.71 D Q.72 A Q.73 A Q.74 B Q.75 B
Q.76 ABD Q.77 BC Q.78 AC Q.49 ABD Q.80 BCD
Q.81 CD Q.82 BCD Q.83 ACD Q.84 AC Q.85 ABC
Q.86 ABC Q.87 AB Q.88 ABCD Q.89 ABC Q.90 ABCD
Q.91 ABCD Q.92 ABD Q.93 CD Q.94 ABC Q.95 AC
Q.96 ABC Q.97 CD Q.98 AC Q.99 ABC Q.100ABCD
Q.101 BD Q.102 ABCD Q.103 ABC Q.104 AC Q.105 CD
Q.106 ABC Q.107 A Q.108 B Q.109 D Q.110 A
Q.111 C Q.112 A Q.113 D Q.114 C Q.115 D
Q.116 A Q.117 A Q.118 B Q.119 B Q.120 B
Q.121 B Q.122 B Q.123 D Q.124 B Q.125 B
Q.126 B Q.127 D Q.128 D Q.129 A Q.130 D
Q.131 B Q.132 A Q.133 D Q.134 C Q.135 D

Q.136 D Q.137 A Q.138 A Q.139 A Q.140 D
Q.141 D Q.142 B Q.143 B Q.144 B Q.145 B
Q.146 D
Q.147 (A) Q (B) P, Q (C) P,Q,S (D) P,Q,R Q.148 (A) PQRS, (B) QR, (C) Q
Q.149 (A) PQR (B) PQR (C) QRS Q.150 (A) RS , (B) Q, (C) T , (D) P
Q.151 (A) P,Q,R,S; (B) R ; (C) P,Q,R,S; (D) P,R,S Q.152 (A) QST; (B) PQS; (C) RS; (D) S,T;
Q.153 (A) Q,R (B) Q,R (C) P,S Q.154 (A) PQRS (B) RS (C) PQRS
Q.155 (A) PQS, (B) PR (C) PS Q.156 (A) S (B) R (C) Q (D) P,T
Q.157 (A) P, R, S, T; (B) Q,R,S; (C) Q, R, S, T; (D) P, R, S
Q.158 (A) P,Q,R (B) Q,R,S,T (C) P,Q,R (D) P,R Q.159 (A) P,R (B) P,Q,R,S (C) P,Q,R,S
Q.160 (A) Q, R, (B) P, S , (C) R , (D) Q, R
Q.161 (A) PQRST; (B)PRST; (C)PST, (D)PQRST
Q.162 (A) Q,R,S, (B) P,Q,R,S, (C) Q,S, (D) P,S
Q.163 (A) PQRS (B) PQR (C) PQR (D) Q Q.164 6 Q.165 0006
Q.166 4 Q.167 3 Q.168 5 Q.169 3 Q.170 2
Q.171 0007 Q.172 5 Q.173 8 Q.174 4 Q.175 3
Q.176 4 Q.177 2 Q.178 0006 Q.179 0006 Q.180 0003
Q.181 0004 Q.182 4 Q.183 5 Q.184 2 Q.185 5
Q.186 0001

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY COORDINATION COMPOUND
5
CHAPTER
COORDINATION COMPOUND
EXERCISE-1

Introduction
Q.1 Which of the following complex will give white precipitate with barium chloride solution –
(A) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]SO4 (B) [Cr(NH3)5SO4]Cl
(C) [Co(NH3)6]Br3 (D) [Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl
Q.2 Aqueous solution of FeSO4 gives tests for both Fe2+ and SO42– but after addition of excess of KCN,
solution ceases to give test for Fe2+. This is due to the formation of
(A) the double salt FeSO4.2KCN.6H2O (B) Fe(CN)3
(C) the complex ion [Fe(CN)6]4– (D) the complex ion [Fe(CN)6]3–
Q.3 Potassium ferrocyanide is a

(A) Normal salt (B) Mixed salt (C) Double salt (D) Complex salt
Q.4 Aq. solution of carnallite, shows the properties of

(A) K+, Mg2+, Cl¯ (B) K+, Mg++, SO42– (C) K+, Mg2+, CO32– (D) K+, Mg2+, Cl¯, Br¯
Q.5 An aqueous solution of potash alum gives

(A) Two types of ions (B) Only one type of ion
(C) Four types of ions (D) Three types of ions
Classification of ligands
Q.6 Which of the following represents the monodentate monoanion ligand ?
(A) Carbonato (B)Ammonia (C) Nitrito (D) Oxalato
Q.7 The donor atoms in EDTA are –

(A) Two N and Two O (B) Two N and four O
(C) Four N and Two O (D) Three N and three O

Q.8 Which of the following ligands is not a chelating agent –

(A) EDTA (B) ethylenediamine (C) Oxalate (D) Pyridine
Q.9 All ligands are –

(A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base (C) Neutral (D) Reducing agent
Q.10 In SCN ligand if N is attached to central metal atom or ion, the name of ligand is –
(A) Thiocyanato-N (B) Cyanato-N (C) Thiocyanato-S (D) Cyanato-S
Q.11 Which of the following species cannot be a ligand –

••
(i) NH4+ (ii) NO+ (iii) C5H5 N
(A) i only (B) i & ii only (C) i & iii only (D) i, ii & iii only
Q.12 Glycinato ligand is –
(A) a Chelating ligand (B) Bidentate ligand
(C) Having two donor sites N and O– (D) All of these
Q.13 Triphenyl phosphine is –

(A) Neutral and monodentate ligand (B) Neutral and tridentate ligand
(C) Uninegative and unidentate ligand (D) Trinegative and tridentate ligand
Q.14 The total number of Ligands attached to the central metal ion through coordinate bond is called –
(A) Valency of the metal ion (B) Oxidation state of the metal ion
(C) Coordination number of metal ion (D) Ionisable valency of metal
Q.15 Diethylene triamine is

(A) Chelating agent (B) Symmetrical ligand (C) Tridentate ligand (D)All of these
Q.16 Which of the following is not chelating agent?

(A) Hydrazine (B) Oxalato (C) Glycinato (D) Ethylene diamine
Q.17 Which of the following species is not expected to be a ligand

(A) NO+ (B) NH4+ (C) NH2–NH3+ (D) NO2+
Q.18 The number of donor sites in dimethyl glyoximate, glycinato, diethylene triamine and EDTAare respectively
(A) 2, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 2, 3 and 6 (C) 2, 2, 2 and 6 (D) 2, 3, 3 and 6

Q.19 [EDTA]4– is a
(A) Monodentate ligand (B) Bidentate ligand
(C) Tetra dentate ligand (D) Hexadentate ligand
Q.20 Bidentate ligand is

(A) pyridine (B) acetylacetonate (C) SCN¯ (D) Triethylenetetraamine
Q.21 According to Lewis theory the ligands are

(A)Acidic in nature (B) Basic in nature
(C) Neither acidic nor basic (D) Some are acidic and others are basic
Q.22 Denticity of [HEDTA]3–

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.23 The ion or molecule which forms a complex compound with transition metal ion is called
(A) Acid (B) Ligand (C) Complex ion (D) No special name
Q.24 Among the following which are ambidentate ligands

(i) NO2¯ (ii) NO3¯ (iii) EDTA4–
(iv) SCN¯ (v) H2NCH2CH2NH2
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (iii) and (vi)
Q.25 The ligand N(CH2CH2NH2)3 is

(A) Tridentate (B) Pentadentate (C) Tetradentate (D) Bidentate
Q.26 Statement-1 : Charge on the complex of ferric ion with EDTA4– is minus one.
Statement-2 : EDTAis a hexadentate ligand.
(A) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(D) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Q.27 Statement-1 : NH2–NH2 is not a chelating ligand.

Statement-2 : Achelating ligand must posses two or more lone pair at such a distance that it may form
strain free ring with metal ion.
Statement-1

Oxidation State and Co-ordination Number

Q.28 The co-ordination number and oxidation number of ‘x‘ in the following compound [x (SO4)(NH3)5 ] Cl
willbe:
(A) 10 & 3 (B) 2 & 6 (C) 6 & 3 (D) 6 & 4
Q.29 The oxidation state of Fe in brown ring complex [ Fe (H2O)5 NO] SO4 is :
(A) + 1 (B) + 2 (C) + 3 (D) + 4
Q.30 Consider :
Complex Coordination number
(A) [CuCl2]– (i) 6
(B) Ni(CO)4 (ii) 5
(C) [PtCl6]4– (iii) 4
(D) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (iv) 2
Proper matching is :
(A) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) (B) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(iv)
(C) A(iv), B(iii), C(i), D(i) (D) A(i), B(iii), C(ii), D(iv)
Q.31 How many EDTA4– ligands are required to make an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion ?
(A) Six (B) Three (C) One (D) Two
Q.32 The oxidation number and coordination number of chromium in the following complex is
[Cr(C2O4)2(NH3)2]–1
(A) O.N. = + 4, C.N. = 4 (B) O.N. = +3, C.N. = 4
(C) O.N. = – 1, C.N. = 4 (D) O.N. = + 3, C.N. = 6
Q.33 In which of the following complexes the nickel metal is in highest oxidation state:
(A) Ni(CO)4 (B) [Cr(NH3)6]2[NiF6]3
(C) [Ni(NH3)6(BF4)2 (D) K4[Ni(CN)6]
Q.34 The co-ordination number of cobalt in the complex [Co(en)2Br2]Cl2 is

(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4
Q.35 Which of the following complexes show six coordination number

(A) [Zn(CN)4]2– (B) [Cr(en)3]3+ (C) [Cu(trien)]++ (D) [Ni(dmg)2]

Q.36 The coordination number of central metal atom/ion in a complex is determined by

(A) number of ligands around metal ion bonded by sigma bonds
(B) number of ligands around metal ion bonded by pi-bonds
(C) Number of co-ordinate bonds metal atom/ion has accepted from ligands
(D) The number of only anionic ligands bonded to the metal ion
Q.37 In complexes of d-block cations the highest possible coordination number is

(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 8
Q.38 Complex compound having central metal atom in zero oxidation state.
(A) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (C) K4[Ni(CN)4] (D) K3[Fe(CN)6]
Q.39 The oxidation state of Mo in its oxo-complex species [Mo2O4(C2H4)2(H2O)2]2– is :

(A) + 2 (B) + 3 (C) + 4 (D) + 5
Q.40 The oxidation state of cobalt in
NH2
(NH3)2Co Co(NH3)4 (NO3)4
NH2
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
Effective Atomic Number (E.A.N)

Q.41 Which of the following metal carbonyl does not exist as monomer ?
(A) Cr(CO)6 (B) Mn(CO)5 (C) Ni(CO)4 (D) Fe(CO)5
Q.42 According to EAN rule, how many CO groups should be attached to Fe ?

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 8
Q.43 In [Cr(CO)6] how many CO groups can be replaced by NO:

(A) all the 6 CO groups are replaced by 6 NO groups
(B) all the 4 CO groups are replaced by 6 NO groups
(C) all the 2 CO groups are replaced by 3 NO groups
(D) all the 6 CO groups are replaced by 4 NO groups

Q.44 In the complex Fe(CO)x, the value of x is, if it follows sidwick EAN rule :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.45 Effective atomic number of Fe in [Fe(CO)4]– is :

(A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 36 (D) 37
Q.46 The effective atomic number of Cr (atomic number 24) in [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is

(A) 35 (B) 27 (C) 33 (D) 36
Q.47 The complex compound in which central metal ion obeys EAN rule
(A) K4[Fe(CN)6] (B) K3[Fe(CN)6] (C) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (D) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
Q.48 E.A.N of metal ion in following complex is found to be equal to atomic number of krypton:
(A) [Pd(NH3)]6Cl4 (B) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]SO4 (C) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (D) [Mn(CO)2(NO)2]
Q.49 Which complex compound does not obey 18-electron rule or Sidgwick Rule
(A) [V(CO)6] (B) [Fe(-C5H5)2] (C) [Mn(CO)5]¯ (D) [Cr(-C6H6)2]
Q.50 [Co(CO)4] attains stability by its

(A) Oxidizing character (B) Reduction (C) Dimerization (D)All of these
Q.51 The value of x in [Fe(CO)2(NO)x], is:

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1
Q.52 EAN of the central metal in the complexes K2[Ni(CN)4], [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 and K2[PtCl6] are respectively.
(A) 36, 35, 86 (B) 34, 35, 84 (C) 34, 35, 86 (D) 34, 36, 86
Q.53 Which of the following pair of complexes have the same EAN of the central metal atoms/ions?
(A) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 and K3[Fe(CN)6]
(B) K4[Fe(CN)6] and [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(C) K3[Cr(C2O4)3] and [Cr(NH3)6]Cl(NO2)2
(D) All
Q.54 The values of 'x' in complexes Hx[Co(CO)4], [Fe(CO)x . (-C5H5)]+ are respectively
(A) 1, 1 (B) 2, 3 (C) 3, 1 (D) 1, 3

Q.55 The EAN of metal atoms in Fe(CO)2 (NO)2 and Co2(CO)8 respectively are
(A) 34, 35 (B) 34, 36 (C) 36, 36 (D) 36, 35
Q.56 Following Sidgwick's rule of EAN, correct formula of Co2(CO)x will be

(A) Co2(CO)4 (B) Co2(CO)3 (C) CO2(CO)8 (D) CO2(CO)10
Q.57 Statement–1: [V(CO)6] can not act as oxidising agent.

Statement–2: It can be reduced by reducing agent.
Statement-1
Q.58 Statement–1: In Mn2(CO)10 molecule, there are total 70 electrons in both Mn atoms.
Statement–2: Mn2(CO)10 molecule acts as oxidising agent.
(B) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is true and Statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
Statement-1
IUPAC Nomenclature
Q.59 The number of ions formed, when bis (ethane-1,2-diamine) copper (II) sulphate is dissolved in water
will be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.60 A complex cation is formed by Pt (in some oxidation state) with ligands (in proper number so that
coordination number of Pt becomes six). Which of the following can be its correct IUPAC name :
(A) Diammineethylenediaminedithiocyanato-S-platinum (II) ion
(B) Diammineethylenediaminedithiocyanato-S-platinate (IV) ion
(C) Diammineethylenediaminedithiocyanato-S-platinum (IV) ion
(D) Diamminebis (ethylenediamine) dithiocyanate-S- platinum (IV) ion
Q.61 Trioxalatoaluminate(III) and tetrafluoro-borate(III) ions are:

(A) [Al(C2O4)3] , [BF4]3– (B) [Al(C2O4)3]3+ , [BF4]3+
(C) [Al(C2O4)3]3– , [BF4]– (D) [Al(C2O4)3]2– , [BF4]2–

Q.62 The correct IUPAC name of the complex Fe(C5H5)2 is –

(A) Cyclopentadienyl iron (II) (B) Bis (cyclopentadienyl) iron (II)
(C) Dicyclopentadien ferrate (II) (D) Ferrocene
Q.63 The IUPAC name of Fe(CO)5 is –

(A) Pentacarbonyl ferrate (0) (B) Pentacarbonyl Ferrate (III)
(C) Pentacarbonyl Iron (0) (D) Pentacarbonyl Iron (II)
Q.64 K3[Fe(CN)6] is –
(i) Potassium hexacynoferrous (III) (ii) Potassium hexacynoferrate (III)
(iii) Potassium ferricyanide (iv) Hexa cyno ferrate (III) potassium
Correct answer is –
(A) Only (i) and (ii) (B) Only (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i) and (iii) (D) Only (ii) and (iv)
Q.65 IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)Cl]Cl is –

(A) Triamminechloridobromidonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
(B) Triamminebromidonitrochloroplatinum (IV) chloride
(C) Triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
(D) Triamminenitrochloridobromoplatinum (IV) chloride
Q.66 The correct name of [Pt(NH3)4Cl2] [PtCl4] is –

(A) Tetraammine dichloro platinum (IV) tetrachloroplatinate (II)
(B) Dichloro tetra ammine platinium (IV) tetrachloro platinate (II)
(C) Tetrachloro platinum (II) tetraammine platinate (IV)
(D) Tetrachloro platinum (II) dichloro tetraamine platinate (IV)
Q.67 The chloro-bis (ethylenediamine) nitro cobalt (III) ion is –

(A) [Co (NO2)2 (en)2 Cl2]+ (B) [CoCl (NO2)2 (en)2 ]+
(C) [Co (NO2) Cl (en)2]+ (D) [Co (en)Cl2 (NO2)2 ]–
Q.68 The formula of the complex hydridotrimethoxoborate (III) ion is :

(A) [BH(OCH3)3]2– (B) [BH2(OCH3)3]2– (C) [BH(OCH3)3]¯ (D) [BH(OCH3)]+
Q.69 The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(C2O4)3] is

(A) Hexaamminecobalt(III) tris(oxalato)chromate(III)
(B) Hexaamminecobalt(II) tris(oxalato)chromium(II)
(C) Hexaamminecobalt(II) tris(oxalato)chromium(III)
(D) Hexaamminecobalt(II) trioxalatechromium(III)

Q.70 IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3(Br)(NO2)Cl]Cl is

(A) Triamminechlorobromonitroplatinum(IV) chloride.
(B) Triamminebromonitrochloroplatinum(IV) chloride.
(C) Triamminebromochloronitroplatinum(IV) chloride.
(D) Triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum(IV) chloride.
Q.71 The IUPAC name of [Ni(NH3)4] [NiCl4] is

(A) Tetrachloronickel(II) tetraamminenickel(II)
(B) Tetraamminenickel(II) tetrachloronickel(II)
(C) Tetraamminenickel(II) tetrachloronickelate(II)
(D) Tetraaminenickel(II) tetrachloridonickelate(IV)
Q.72 The formula of sodium nitroprusside is

(A) Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)] (B) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)]
(C) [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4 (D) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
Q.73 The oxidation number of chromium in Triamminechloridooxalatochromate ion is

(A) II (B) IV (C) V (D) III
Q.74 IUPAC nomenclature of sodium nitroprusside is

(A) Sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (III)
(B) Sodium pentacyanidonitrosylliumferrate (II)
(C) Sodium petacyanidonitrosylliumferrate (III)
(D) Sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)
Q.75 The formula of potassium dicyanobis(oxalato)nickelate(II) is

(A) K4[Ni(CN)2(Ox)2] (B) K[Ni(CN)2(Ox)2]
(C) K3[Ni(CN)2(Ox)2] (D) K2[Ni(CN)2(Ox)2]
Q.76 The IUPAC name of K2[Cr(NH3)(CN)2(O)2(O2)] is

(A) Potassium amminedicyanodioxidoperoxochromate(VI)
(B) Potassium amminedicyanoperoxooxidochromium(VI)
(C) Potassium amminedicyanoperoxooxochromium(VI)
(D) Potassium amminedicyanodiperoxodioxochromate(IV)

Q.77 The IUPAC name of the red coloured complex [Fe(C4H7O2N2)2] obtained from the reaction of Fe2+
and dimethyl glyoxime
(A) bis(dimethylglyoxime) ferrate (II) (B) bis(dimethylglyoximato) iron (II)
(C) bis(2, 3-butanedioldioximato) iron (II) (D) bis(2, 3-butanedionedioximato) iron (I)
Q.78 The IUPAC name for the coordination compound Ba[BrF4]2 is

(A) Barium tetrafluorobromate (V) (B) Barium tetrafluorobromate (III)
(C) Barium bis(tetrafluorobromate(III)) (D) none of these
Q.79 IUPAC name of
(C6H5)3P Cl Cl
Pd Pd
Cl Cl P(C6H5)3
(A) Chlorotriphenylphosphinepalladium(II) di--chloridochlorotriphenylphosphinepalladium(II)

(B) Chlorotriphenylphosphinepalladium(III) di--chloridochlorotriphenylphosphinepalladium(II)
(C) Triphenylphosphinechloropalladium(II) di--chloridotriphenylphosphinechloropalladium(III)
(D) Triphenylphosphinechloropalladium(III) di--chloridotriphenylposphinechloropalladium(III)
Q.80 The hypothetical complex chloro diaquatriammine cobalt (III) chloride can be represented as :
(A) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2 (B) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)Cl3]
(C) [Co(NH2)3(H2O)2Cl] (D) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
Werner's Theory
Q.81 In a complex, the correct statement is :
(A) primary valency is ionisable (B) primary valency is non-ionisable
(C) secondary valency is ionisable (D) All of these
Q.82 The molecular formula of various hexacoordinate complexes are given as below.
(1) CrCl3.6NH3 (2) CrCl3.5NH3 (3) CrCl3.4NH3
If the number of NH3 ligands attached to central metal ion respectively are 6, 5 and 4, then the primary
valencies in (1), (2) and (3) respectively are :
(A) 3, 3, 3 (B) 0, 1, 2 (C) 3, 2, 1 (D) 6, 5, 4
Q.83 Which of the following has minimum molar electrical conductivity?

(A) CoCl3.6NH3 (B) CoCl3.5NH3 (C) CoCl3.4NH3 (D) CoCl3.3NH3

Q.84 When AgNO3 is added to a solution of Co(NH3)5Cl3, the precipitate of AgCl shows two ionisable
chloride ions. This means –
(A) Two chlorine atom satisfy primary valency and one chlorine atom satisfies primary valency as well
as secondary valency.
(B) One chlorine atom satisfies primary valency.
(C) Two chlorine atoms satisfy secondary valency.
(D) Three chlorine atoms satisfy secondary valency.
Q.85 Which isomer of CrCl3.6H2O is dark green in colour and forms one mole of AgCl with excess of
AgNO3 solution –
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (B) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
(C) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O (D) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O
Q.86 Give the correct increasing order of electrical conductivity of aqueous solutions of following complex
entities –
I. [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 II. [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 III. [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl IV. K2[PtCl6]
(A) III < IV < II < I (B) IV < II < III < I (C) II < I < IV < III (D) I < II < IV < III
1
Q.87 Which of the following is most likely formula of platinum complex, if of total chlorine of the com-
4
pound is precipitated by adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution –

(A) PtCl4.6H2O (B) PtCl4.5H2O (C) PtCl4.2H2O (D) PtCl4.3H2O
Q.88 The fraction of chlorine precipitated byAgNO3 solution from [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 is –

(A) 1/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/3 (D) 1/4
Q.89 The number of ions formed when Tetraamminecopper(II) sulphate is dissolved in water is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) Zero
Q.90 For complexes: (I) CoC13.6NH3(II) CoCl3.5NH3 (III) CoCl3.4NH3 primary valency in I, II & III are
respectively:
(A) 6, 5,4 (B) 3, 2, 1 (C) 0, 1, 2 (D) 3, 3, 3
Q.91 Which one of the following has highest molar conductivity

(A) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II) (B) Tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) chloride
(C) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II) (D) Hexaaquachromium(III) bromide

Q.92 Which of the following will not give precipitate withAgNO3?

(A) CoCl3.3NH3 (B) CoCl3.4NH3 (C) CoC13.5NH3 (D) CoCl3.6NH3
Q.93 How many moles of AgCl would be obtained, when 100 ml of 0.1 M CoCl3(NH3)5 is treated with
excess of AgNO3?
(A) 0.01 (B) 0.02 (C) 0.03 (D) none of these
Q.94 0.001 mol of Co(NH3)5(NO3)(SO4) was passed through a cation exchanger and the acid coming out of
it required 20 ml of 0.1 M NaOH for neutralisation. Hence, the complex is
(A) [CoSO4(NH3)5]NO3 (B) [CoNO3(NH3)5]SO4
(C) [Co(NH3)5]SO4NO3 (D) None of these
Q.95 Consider the following statements:

According to Werner's theory.
(1) Ligands are connected to the metal ion by covalent bonds.
(2) Secondary valencies are directional
(3) Secondary valencies are non-ionisable
(4) Secondary valencies are satisfied by either neutral or negative ions
Of these statements:
(A) 2, 3 & 4 are correct (B) 2 & 3 are correct
(C) 1 & 3 are correct (D) 1, 2 & 4 are correct
Q.96 Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral ecomplexes with ammonia. Which of the following will
not give test for chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25ºC ?
(A) CoCl3.4NH3 (B) CoCl3.5NH3 (C) CoCl3.6NH3 (D) CoCl3.3NH3
Valence Bond Theory (V.B.T.)

Q.97 Hexafluorocobaltate(III) ion is found to be high spin complex, the hybridisation state of
cobalt is –
(A) d2sp3 (B) sp3 (C) sp3d (D) sp3d2
Q.98 The number of unpaired electrons calculated in [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [CoF6]3– are :
Q.99 The complex ions [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(CN)6]4–

(A) Are both octahedral and paramagnetic
(B) Are both octahedral and diamagnetic
(C) Have same structure but different magnetic character
(D) Have different structures but same magnetic character

Q.100 A complex of certain metal has the magnetic moment of 4.91 BM whereas another complex of the same
metal with same oxidation state has zero magnetic moment. The metal ion could be
(A) Co2+ (B) Mn2+ (C) Fe2+ (D) Fe3+
Q.101 Point out the correct statements amongst the following

(A) [Cu(CN)4]3– has tetrahedral geometry and dsp2 hybridization
(B) [Ni(CN)6]4– is octahedral and Ni has d2sp3 hybridization
(C) [ZnBr4]2– is tetrahedral and diamagnetic
(D) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ has octahedral geometry and sp3d2 hybridization
Q.102 Which complex has square planar structure ?

(A) Ni(CO)4 (B) [NiCl4]2– (C) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
Q.103 Complexes with CN– ligands are :

(A) High spin complexes
(B) Usually low spin complexes
(C) High spin complex with diamagnetic behaviour
(D) Always diamagnetic in nature
Q.104 Which order is correct in spectrochemical series of ligands –

(A) Cl– < F– < C2O42– < NO2– < CN– (B) CN– < C2O42– < Cl– > NO2– < F–
(C) C2O42– < F– < Cl– > NO2– < CN– (D) F– < Cl– < NO2– < CN– < C2O42–
Q.105 Cu++ and Au3+ resemble in formation of co-ordination compound

(A) C.N. = 2, linear (B) C.N. = 4, tetrahedron
(C) C.N. = 4, square planar (D) None of these
Q.106 Which of the following complexes doesn't have d2sp3 hybridisation?

(A) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (B) [Fe(CN)6]3– (C) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (D) [Co(H2O)6]2+
Q.107 Hybridization of metal ion in [Ni(H2O)6]2+ complex is

(A) d3sp2 (B) sp3d2 (C) sp3 (D) dsp2
Q.108 Which of the following complex has a square planar geometry ?

(A) [Ag(NH3)2]+ (B) [Cu(en)2]2+ (C) [MnCl4]2– (D) Ni(CO)4
Q.109 Among the following, the species having square planar geometry/shape
(i) XeF4 (ii) SF4 (iii) [NiCl4]2– (iv) [PdCl4]2–
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
Q.110 Hybridization of Cr in chromium hexacarbonyl is

(A) sp3d2 (B) dsp2 (C) d2sp3 (D) d3sp2
Q.111 The species having tetrahedral shape is

(A) [Cu(en)2]2+ (B) [Ni(CN)4]2– (C) [AgF4]¯ (D) [Cu(CN)4]3–
Q.112 Which of the following molecules is not tetrahedral

(A) [Ni(en)2]2+ (B) [Ni(CO)4] (C) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (D) [NiCl4]2–
Q.113 In Fe(CO)5, sigma bond between Fe and CO results by the overlap between filled sp hybrid orbital of
C -atom of CO molecule and which hybrid orbitals of Fe :
(A) d2sp3 (B) sp3 (C) d 2 2 sp3 (D) d 2 sp 3

x y z
Q.114 For the correct assignment of electronic configuration of a complex, the valence bond theory often
requires the measurement of
(A) molar conductance (B) optical activity
(C) magnetic moment (D) dipole moment
Q.115 The hybridisation and unpaired electrons in [Fe(H2O)6]2+ ion are:

(A) sp3d2; 4 (B) d2sp3, 3 (C) d2sp3, 4 (D) sp3d2, 2
Q.116 The hybridisation of Co in [Co(H2O)6]3+ is

(A) d2sp3 (B) dsp2 (C) sp3 (D) sp3d2
Q.117 Which of the following statements about Fe(CO)5 is correct?

(A) It is paramagnetic and high spin complex (B) It is diamagnetic and high spin complex
(C) It is diamagnetic and low spin complex (D) It is paramagnetic and low spin complex
Q.118 Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) [MnCl4]2– ion has tetrahedral geometry and is paramagnetic
(B) [Mn(CN)6]2– ion has octahedral geometry and is paramagnetic
(C) [CuCl4]2– has square planar geometry and is paramagnetic
(D) [NiBr2(Ph3P)3] has trigonal bipyramidal geometry and two unpaired electron
Q.119 Which of the following is not expected to show paramagnetism?

(A) [Fe(NH3)6]2+ (B) Ni(CO)4 (C) [Cr(en)3]2+ (D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+

Q.120 Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the number of unpaired electrons in [Mn(H2O)6]2+ will be :
(Atomic no. of Mn = 25)
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 4
Q.121 The d-electron configuration of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+ and Ni2+ are 3d4, 3d5, 3d6 and 3d8 respectively, which
one of the following aqua-complex will exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour ?
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Mn(H2O)6]+2 (C) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
Q.122 A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among the following :
(A) [Ni(CN)4]2– (B) TiCl4 (C) [CoCl6]4– (D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
Q.123 CN– is strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that
(A) it carries negative charge
(B) it is a pseudohalide
(C) it can accept electrons from metal species
(D) it forms high spin complexes with metal species
Q.124 Which pair of ion form homoleptic octahedral complex with H2O having low spin and high spin
respectively?
(A) Fe2+, Fe3+ (B) Co2+, Co3+
(C) Fe3+, Fe2+ (D) Co3+, Co2+
Q.125 Statement–1 : [Ni(CN)4]2– is a diamagnetic complex

Statement–2 : Compound is low spin complex.
(B) Statement-1 is true, Statement·2 is true and Statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
Statement-1
Q.126 Statement–1 : K3[Fe(CN)6] is a low spin complex.

Statement–2 : Fe3+ ion in this complex undergoes sp3d2 hybridization.
Statement-1

Crystal Field Theory (C.F.T.)

Q.127 The strongest field ligand in the following is
(A) CN¯ (B) NH3 (C) OH¯ (D) SCN¯
Q.128 Among the following, which one has higher CFSE?

(A) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (B) [Zn(OH)4]2– (C) [Zn(CN)4]2– (D) [Zn(H2O)4]2+
Q.129 The purple colour of [Ti(H2O)6]3+ in aqueous solution is due to :

(A) d-d transition of unpaired d-electron (B) charge transfer spectrum
(C) intermolecular vibration (D) polarisation of cation.
Q.130 Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the crystal field theory ?
(A) It considers only the metal ion d–orbitals and gives no consideration at all to other metal orbitals.
(B) It cannot account for the  bonding in complexes.
(C) The ligands are point charges which are either ions or neutral molecules.
(D)All of these
Q.131 All the following complex ions are found to be paramagnetic :

P : [FeF6]3– ; Q : [CoF6]3–
R : [V(H2O)6]3+ ; S : [Ti(H2O)6]3+
The correct order of their paramagnetic moment (spin only) is :
(A) P > Q > R > S (B) P < Q < R < S (C) P = Q = R = S (D) P > R > Q > S
Q.132 For the t 62g e g2 system, the value of magnetic moment () is –
(A) 2.83 B.M. (B) 1.73 B.M. (C) 3.87 B.M. (D) 4.92 B.M.
Q.133 Which of the following electronic arrangement gives the highest value of the magnetic moment in case of
octahedral complex ?
(A) d6, strong field (B) d7, high spin
(C) d4, weak field (D) d2, strong field
Q.134 In which of the following coordination entities, the magnitude of 0 will be maximum? :
(A) [Co(CN)6]3– (B) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (C) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (D) [Co(NH3)6]3+
Q.135 The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is the highest for
(A) [CoF4]2– (B) [Co(SCN)4]2– (C) [Co(dmg)2]3+ (D) [CoCl4]2–

Q.136 Crystal field stabilization energy for low spin d4 octahedral complex is
(A) – 0.6 0 (B) – 1.8 0 (C) – 1.6 0 + P (D) –1.2 0
Q.137 The most stable ion is

(A) [Fe(py)6]3+ (B) [FeF6]3– (C) [Fe(CN)6]3– (D) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
Q.138 Which of the following factors tends to increase the stability of metal ion complexes
(A) Higher ionic radius of the metal ion
(B) Higher charge/size ratio of the metal ion
(C) Lower ionisation potential of the metal ion
(D) Lower basicity of the ligand
Q.139 Which one of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) Greater the formation constant (Kf) of a complex ion, greater is its stability.
(B) Greater the positive charge on the central metal ion, greater is the stability of the complex
(C) Greater is electron pair donating ability of the ligand, lesser is the stability of the complex.
(D) Chelate complexes have high stability constants.
Q.140 Select the correct statement about brown ring complex ion [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+.
(A) Colour change is due to charge transfer
(B) It has iron in +1 oxidation state and nitrosyl as NO+
(C) It has magnetic moment of 3.87 BM confirming three unpaired electrons in Fe
(D) All the above are correct statements.
Q.141 The value of 0 for complex ion [CoCl6]4– is 18000 cm–1. Then the value of t for [CoCl4]2– complex
ion will be
(A) 18000 cm–1 (B) 16000 cm–1 (C) 8000 cm–1 (D) 2000 cm–1
Q.142 The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr magneton units) of Cr(CO)6 is
(A) 0 (B) 2.84 (C) 4.90 (D) 5.92
Q.143 The correct distribution of 3d electrons in chromium for the complex [Cr(CN)6]3–
(A) 3d1xy , 3d1yz , 3d1xz (B) 3d   0

xy , 3d yz , 3d zx
(C) 3d1x 2  y2 , 3d1z 2 , 3d1xz (D) 3d1xy , 3d1 2 2 , 3d1yz

x y
Q.144 Among the following complexes, which has magnetic moment of 5.9 BM
(A) Ni(CO)4 (B) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (C) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (D) [MnBr4]2–

Q.145 Which of the following complex ion absorb visible light

(A) [Sc(H2O)3 (NH3)3]3+ (B) [Ti(en)2 (NH3)2]4+
(C) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (D) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
Q.146 Which of the following is diamagnetic in nature

(A) Co3+ octahedral complex with weak field ligands
(B) Co3+ octahedral complex with strong field ligands
(C) Co2+ in tetrahedral complex
(D) Co2+ in square planar complex
Q.147 Among the following, the compound that is both paramagnetic and coloured is
(A) K2 Cr2 O7 (B) (NH4)2 [TiCl6] (C) VOSO4 (D) K3[Cu(CN)4]
Q.148 Prussian blue is formed when

(A) Ferrous sulphate cambines with K4[Fe(CN)6]
(B) Ferric sulphate combines with K4[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Ferrous ammonium sulphate combines with K3[Fe(CN)6]
(D) FeCl3 combines with K3 [Fe(CN)6]
Q.149 Octahedral complex of Ni(II) will be always

(A) inner orbital
(B) outer orbital
(C) inner or outer orbital depending upon the strong or weak field ligand
(D) none of these
Q.150 Mn2+ forms a complex with Br¯ ion. The magnetic moment of the complex is 5.92 B.M. What could not
be the probable formula and geometry of the complex?
(A) [MnBr6]4–, octahedral (B) [MnBr4]2–, square planar
(C) [MnBr4]2–, tetrahedral (D) [MnBr5]3–, trigonal bipyramidal
Q.151 A complex of certain metal has the magnetic moment of 4.91 BM whereas another complex of the same
metal with same oxidation state has zero magnetic moment. The metal ion could be
(A) Co2+ (B) Mn2+ (C) Fe2+ (D) Fe3+
Q.152 The complex having highest  value

(A) [Ni(en)3]2+ (B) [Ni(CN)4]2– (C) [NiCl4]2– (D) [Ni(NH3)6]2+

Q.153 The colour of light absorbed by an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is

(A) Red (B) blue-green (C) yellow (D) violet
Q.154 d-orbital configuration of complex [FeF6]3–
(A) t 32g e g2 (B) t 52g (C) t 22g e3g (D) e 5g
Q.155 An ion M2+, forms the complexes [M(H2O)6]2+, [M(en)3]2+ and [MBr6]4–, match the complex with the
appropriate colour.
(A) Green, Blue and Red (B) Blue, Red and Green
(C) Green, Red and Blue (D) Red, Blue and Green
Q.156 Colourless complex is :

(A) [TiF6]2– (B) [CoF6]3– (C) [NiCl4]2– (D) [Fe(CO)5]
Q.157 The correct order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region is
(A) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(B) [Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+
(C) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4–
(D) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ < [Ni(H2O)6]2+ < [Ni(NO2)6]4–
Q.158 Which of the following coordination entities should be expected to absorb light of lowest frequency ?
(A) [Cr(en)3]3+ (B) [CrCl6]3– (C) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (D) [Cr(CN)6]3–
Q.159 Correct increasing order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co3+
is:
(A) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
(B) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+
(C) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+
(D) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
Q.160 Statement-1: Complex compound [Ni(en)3]Cl2 has lower stability than [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
Statement-2 : In [Ni(en)3]Cl2, geometry around Ni2+ is octahedral.
Statement-1

Q.161 Statement-1 : 0 increases in the order of [Cr(Cl6)]3– < [Cr(CN)6]3– < [Cr(C2O4)3]3–
Statement-2 : Stronger the ligand field, higher will be 0 value.
Statement-1
Q.162 Statement–1 : Potassium ferrocyanide is diamagnetic where as potassium ferricyanide is paramagnetic.

Statement–2 : Crystal field splitting in ferrocyanide ion is lesser than that of ferricyanide ion.
Statement-1
Q.163 Statement–1 : In octahedral geometry of ligands d-orbitals of a metal cation split into two sets of
orbitals t2g and eg.
Statement–2 : Splitting of d-orbitals occurs only in the case of strong field ligands.
Statement-1
Q.164 Statement–1 : [Ti(H2O6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless

Statement–2 : d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)3+ due to having no d-electron, while possible
for Ti3+ having d1 configuration.
Statement-1

Structural Isomerism
Q.165 In coordination compounds, the hydrate isomers differ –
(A)Inthenumberofwatermoleculesofhydration only
(B) In the number of water molecules only present as ligands
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) In their coordination number of the metal atom
Q.166 Which of the following is pair of ionization isomers ?

(A) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
(B) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O and [Cr(H2O)4.Cl2]Cl.2H2O
(C) [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]
(D) cis-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and trans-[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
Q.167 Which would exhibit co-ordination isomerism –

(A) [Cr(NH3)6][Co (CN)6] (B) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(C) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (D) [Cr(en)2Cl2]+
Q.168 [Pd(C6H5)2 (SCN)2] and [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] are:

(A) Linkage isomers (B) Co-ordination isomers
(C) Ionisation isomers (D) Geometrical isomers
Q.169 Which will exhibit co-ordination isomerism

(A) [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] (B) [Co(en)2 Cl2]Br
3+
H
N
(C) (NH3)4Co Co(H2O)4 (D) [Ir(NO2)3(H2O)3]
Cl
Q.170 Coordination isomerism is caused by the interchange of ligands between the

(A) Cis and Trans configuration
(B) Complex cation and complex anion in a complex salt
(C) Co-ordination sphere and simple counter ion
(D) Low oxidation and higher oxidation state of metal cation

Q.171 The pair of complex compounds [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2·H2O are

(A) Linkage isomers (B) Ionisation isomers
(C) Coordination isomers (D) Hydrate isomers
Q.172 The ionization isomer of [Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl is

(A) [Cr(H2O)4 (NO2)]Cl2 (B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]NO2
(C) [Cr(H2O)4 Cl(ONO)]Cl (D) [Cr(H2O)3Cl2(NO2)]H2O
Q.173 The total number of possible structural isomers for the complex compound [Cu(NH3)4] [PtCl4] are
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Q.174 Type of isomerism exhibited by [Cr(NCS)(NH3)5] [ZnCl4]

(A) Coordination isomerism (B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Ionization isomerism (D) Both coordination and linkage isomerism
Q.175 Type of isomerism exhibited by [Ir(OCN)3(H2O)3]

(A) Hydrate isomerism (B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Polymerization isomerism (D) Both (B) and (C)
Q.176 Other than the X-ray diffractions, how could be the following pairs of isomers be distinguished from one
another by
[Cr(NH3)6] [Cr(NO2)6] and [Cr(NO2)2 (NH3)4] [Cr(NO2)4(NH3)2]
(A) electrolysis of an aqueous solution (B) measurement of molar conductance
(C) measuring magnetic moments (D) measurement of optical activity
Q.177 How the isomerism complexes [Co(NH3)6][Cr(NO2)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(NO2)6] can be
distinguished from one another by
(A) measurement of molar conductance (B) measurement magnetic moments
(C) electrolysis of their aqueous solutions (D) measurement of optical activity
Q.178 Which of the following cannot show linkage isomerism?

(A) SO32– (B) SCN¯ (C) S2O32– (D) SO42–
Q.179 The complexes [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(C2O4)3] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(C2O4)3] will have which type of
isomerism
(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Geometrical isomerism
(C) Coordination isomerism (D) Ionisation isomerism

Q.180 Which of the following will give maximum number of structural isomers ?
(A) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (B) [Ni (en)(NH3)4]2+
(C) [Ni(C2O4)(en)2]2– (D) [Cr(SCN)2(NH3)4]+
Q.181 The complexes [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of
isomerism?
(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Ionization isomerism
(C) Coordination isomerism (D) Geometrical isomerism
Q.182 Complexes [Co (SO4)(NH3)5]Br and [CoBr(NH3)5]SO4 can be distinguished by

(A) conductance measurement (B) using BaCl2
(C) using AgNO3 (D) all
Q.183 Statement-1 : The complex [Cr(SCN)(NH3)5]Cl2 is linkage isomer of [Cr(NCS)(NH3)5)]Cl2.

Statement-2 : SCN¯ is an ambident ligand.
Statement-1
Q.184 Statement-1 : Coordination isomerism can occur when both cation and anion are complex ions.
Statement-2 : Co-ordination isomers may exhibit geometrical isomerism.
Statement-1

Stereo Isomerism
Q.185 A square planar complex represented as it will show which isomerism –
NH2 NH2
CH2 CH2
CH2 CH2
H2N H2N
(A) Geometrical isomerism (B) Optical isomerism

(C) Linkage isomerism (D) None of these
Q.186 Geometrical isomerism in coordination compounds is exhibited by –

(A) Square planar and tetrahedral complexes
(B) Square planar and octahedral complexes
(C) Tetrahedral and octahedral complexes
(D) Square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral complexes
Q.187 [Co(en)3]3+ ion is expected to show

(A) two optically active isomers: d and l forms
(B) three optically active isomers: d, l and meso forms
(C) four optically active isomers: cis, d and l isomers and trans d and l isomers
(D) No optical isomerism but can show cis-trans isomerism
Q.188 Cis-trans-isomerism is found in square planar complexes of the molecular formula (a and b are
monodentate ligands) –
(A) Ma4 (B) Ma3b (C) Ma2b2 (D) Mab3
Q.189 The complexes given below are –

A en
A
en M en M
A
A en
(A) Geometrical isomers (B) Position isomers
(C) Optical isomers (D) Identical

Q.190 Theoritically the No. of geometrical isomers expected for octahedral complex [Mabcdef]
is –
(A) Zero (B) 30 (C) 15 (D) 9
Q.191 [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2]Cl exhibits

(A) Linkage isomerism, ionisation isomerism and optical isomerism
(B) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism
(C) Linkage isomerism, ionisation isomerism and geometrical isomerism
(D) Ionisation isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism
Q.192 On treatment of [Ni(NH3)4]2+ with concentrated HCl, two compounds I and II having the same formula,
[NiCl2(NH3)2] are obtained, I can be converted into II by boiling with dilute HCl.Asolution of I reacts
with oxalic acid to form [Ni(C2O4)(NH3)2] wheras II does not react. Point out the correct statement of
the following
(A) I cis II trans; both tetrahedral (B) I cis II trans; both square planar
(C) I trans, II cis; both tetrahedral (D) I trans, II cis; both square planar
Q.193 The difference in colour is not due to

(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Geometrical isomerism
(C) Optical isomerism (D) Hydrate isomerism
Q.194 The number of possible isomers of square planar complex [M(abcd)] are :
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 1
Q.195 [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ exhibits

(A) Geometrical isomerism (B) Optical isomerism
(C) Ionisation isomerism (D) No isomerism
Q.196 Which one of the following will not show geometrical isomerism
(A) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (B) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(C) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2 (D) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
Q.197 Total number of optical isomers in [Co(en)2Cl2]+ is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

Q.198 Which of the following complex will show geometrical as well as optical isomerism
(A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
(C) [Pt(en)3]4+ (D) [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+
Q.199 Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical activity
(A) trans-dicyanobis (ethylenediamine) chromium (III) chloride
(B) tris-(ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) bromide
(C) pentaamminenitrocobalt (III) chloride
(D) diamminedichloroplatinum (II)
Q.200 Which of the following does not have optical isomer

(A) [Co(NH3)3Cl3 (B) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (C) [Co(en)2Cl2] Cl (D) [Co(en) (NH3)2Cl2]Cl
Q.201 Which of the following has only one pair of enantiomers

(A) [CoBr(SCN)2(H2O)3] (B) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
(C) [CrCl2(NH3)2(H2O)2]+ (D) [IrBr2(CN)(NO2)(H2O)(py)]¯
Q.202 The number of possible isomers of an octahedral complex [Co(C2O4)2(NH3)2]¯ is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.203 Which of the following complex does not show geometrical isomerism
(A) [IrCl2(NH3)4]+ (B) [Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]¯ (C) [Cr(Ox)3]3– (D) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
Q.204 For the given complex [CoCl2(en) (NH3)2]+, the number of geometrical isomers, the number of optically
active isomers and total number of stereoisomers are
(A) 3, 2 and 4 (B) 2, 2 and 4 (C) 3, 1 and 4 (D) 3, 2 and 3
Q.205 The existence of two different coloured complexes with the composition of [Co(NH3)4Cl2]¯ is due to
(A) Ionization isomerism (B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Geometrical isomerism (D) Coordination isomerism
Q.206 Which one of the following complexes is not expected to exhibit isomerism
(A) [Ni(NH3)4 (H2O)2]2+ (B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(C) [Ni(en)Cl2] (D) [Ni(en)3]2+
Q.207 The number of geometrical isomers of the complex [Co(NO2)3(NH3)3] is

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 0

Q.208 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Geometrical isomerism is not exhibited by complexes having tetrahedral geometry
(B) Square planar complexes may show optical isomerism with ligands having chiral centre
(C) Octahedral complexes having two chelating ligands in perpendicular plane always exhibit optical
isomerism
(D) Complex [Pt(Gly)2] does not show geometrical isomerism
Q.209 Which of the following complexes will show geometrical as well as optical isomerism?
(A) [Zn(bcac)2] (B) [Pt(gly)3]+ (C) [CrBr4(en)]¯ (D) [Ir(acac)3]
Q.210 A square planar complex can exhibit optical isomerism with ligand:
(A) gly (B) bcac (C) bn (D) dmg
Q.211 Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomerism? (en = ethylenediamine)
(A) cis–[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (B) trans–[Co(en)2Cl2]+
(C) trans–[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (D) cis–[Co(en)2Cl2]+
Q.212 Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomers ?

(A) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6] (B) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
(C) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] (D) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
Q.213 The complex, [Pt(Py)(NH3)BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 0 (D) 2
Q.214 Statement-1 : The geometrical isomer of the complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] are optically inactive.
Statement-2 : Both geometrical isomers of the complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] possess axis of symmetry.
Statement-1
Q.215 Statement-1: Complexes of type [MA6]n± and [MA5B]n± do not show geometrical isomerism.
Statement-2: Geometrical isomerism is not exhibited by complexes of coordination number 6.
Statement-1
Q.216 Statement-1 : Cis-isomer of [Co(en)2Cl2]+ shows optical activity.

Statement-2: Cis-isomer of [Co(en)2Cl2]+ is a symmetric molecule.
Statement-1
Q.217 Statement-1: Complex compounds containing three symmetrical bidentate ligands exhibit optical activity.
Statement-2: Such octahedral complex have plane of symmetry.
Statement-1
Synergic bonding
Q.218 In which compound synergic bonding is present
(A) [Ni(CO)4] (B) [Ni(NH3)4]2+ (C) [Zn(OH)4]2– (D) [FeF6]3–
Q.219 Which of the following is not true for metal carbonyls ?

(A) The oxidation state of central metal in the carbonyls can be zero, negative or low positive
(B) d–p back bonding from M  CO is present
(C) d–*MO back bonding is present from M  CO

(D) bond order of CO decreases during M 
 CO
Q.220 Which of the following is  -acid ligand

(A) NH3 (B) CO (C) F¯ (D) Ethylene diamine
Q.221 In the isoelectronic series of metal carbonyl, the CO bond strength is expected to increase in the order.
(A) [Mn(CO)6]+ < [Cr(CO)6] < [V(CO)6]¯ (B) [V(CO)6]¯ < [Cr(CO)6]+ < [Mn(CO)6]+
(C) [V(CO)6]¯< [Mn(CO)6]+ < [Cr(CO)6] (D) [Cr(CO)6] < [Mn(CO)6]+ < [V(CO)6]¯

Q.222 In which complex, CO Bond order is minimum

(A) Cr(CO)6 (B) [Ni(CO)4] (C) [Fe(CO)4]2– (D) [Co(CO)4]¯
Q.223 The metal which does not form polynuclear carbonyl is

(A) Mn (B) Co (C) Zn (D) Fe
Q.224 Which of the following has longest C–O bond length ? (Free C–O bond length in CO is 1.128Å)
–
(A) [Mn(CO)6]+ (B) Ni(CO)4 (C) [Co(CO)4] (D) [Fe(CO)4]2–
Q.225 Assertion : CO and CN¯ are referred as  acid acid ligands.

Reason : In CO and CN¯ vacant  * type orbitals are present.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(D) If both Assertion and Reason are False.
Organometallic compounds
Q.226 Which amongst the following are organometallic compounds ?
1. Al2(CH3)6 2. K[PtCl3C2H2] 3. N(CH3)3
(A) 1 only (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Q.227 CH3MgI is an organometallic compound due to presence of

(A) Mg – I bond (B) C – I bond (C) C – Mg bond (D) C – H bond
Q.228 Which of the following is not considered as an organometallic compound

(A) Cis-platin (B) Ferrocene (C) Zeise's salt (D) Grignard reagent
Q.229 Which one is organometallic compound

(A) Lithiummethoxide (B) tetracyanidonicklate (II) ion
(C) Lithium acetate (D) Methyl lithium
Q.230 Formula of ferrocene is:

(A) [Fe(CN)6]4– (B) [Fe(CN)6]3+ (C) [Fe(CO)5] (D) [Fe(C5H5)2]

Q.231 Ferrocene is an example of

(A) Sandwich complex
(B) -bonded complex
(C) Acomplex in which all the five carbon atoms of cyclopentadienyl anion are in contact to the metal
(D) All of the above
Q.232 Which of the following is –complex?

(A) Trimethyl aluminium (B) Ferrocene
(C) Diethyl zinc (D) Nickel carbonyl
Q.233 Among the following which is not the -bonded organometallic compound?
(A) K[PtCl3(2 – C2H4)] (B) Fe(5 – C5H5)2
(C) Cr(6 – C6H6)2 (D) (CH3)4Sn
Applications
Q.234 Which metal is found in vitamin B12 ?
(A) Co (B) Pt (C) Fe (D) Mg
Q.235 Wilkionson's catalyst is used as a homogeneous catalyst in the hydrogenation of alkenes it contains
(A) Iron (B)Aluminium (C) Rhodium (D)Titanium
Q.236 Solution of TiCl4 and trialkylaluminium used as a catalyst in polymerisation of olefins is called :
(A) Wilkinson's catalyst (B) Zeigler Natta catalyst
(C) Homogeneous catalyst (D) Grignard reagent
Q.237 Ligands used in anti-cancer drug called Cisplatin :

(A) NH3, Cl¯ (B) NH3, H2O (C) Cl¯, H2O (D) NO2¯, Cl¯
Q.238 Which reagent is used to estimate Ni++ ions gravimetrically:

(A) ethylene diamine (B) Dimethyl glyoxime [DMG] in basic medium
(C) NH3 solution (D) Potassium ferrocyanide

Q.239 The disodium salt of ethylene diamine tetracetic acid can be used to estimate the following ion(s) in the
aqueous solution
(A) Mg2+ ion (B) Ca2+ ion (C) Na+ ion (D) both Mg2+ and Ca2+
Q.240 Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is the antidote for lead poisoning. It is administered in the form
of
(A) free acid (B) sodium dihydrogen salt
(C) calcium dihydrogen salt (D) none of these
Q.241 Which of the following has magnesium ?

(A) Chlorophyll (B) Haemocyanin
(C) Carbonic anhydrase (D) Vitamin B12
Q.242 In the silver palting of copper, K[Ag(CN)2] is used instead of AgNO3. The reason is :
(A) a thin layer of Ag is formed on copper.
(B) more voltage is required.
(C) Ag+ ions are completely removed from the solution.
(D) less availability of Ag+ ions as Cu cannot displace Ag from [Ag(CN)2]¯ ion.
Q.243 Among the following complexes the one which shows Zero crystal field stabilizations energy (CFSE)
(A) [Mn(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (C) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Co(H2O)6]3+
Q.244 The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is

(A) CN¯ > Br¯ > C6H5¯ > NH3 (B) NH3 > CN¯ > Br¯ > C6H5¯
(C) CN¯ > C6H5¯ > Br¯ > NH3 (D) Br¯ > CN¯ > NH3 > C6H5¯
Q.245 Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes of

(A) d9 (B) d7 (C) d8 (D) d4
Q.246 Dimethyl glyoxime forms a coloured water insoluble complex with

(A) Fe2+ (B) Ni++ (C) Co3+ (D) None of these
Q.247 Which of the following cation forms complex of coordination number two with excess of CN¯
(A) Cu2+ (B)Ag+ (C) Ni2+ (D) Fe2+

Q.248 On addition of excess of aqueous KCN pale blue colour of CuSO4 solution disappears it is due to
formation of:
(A) [Cu(CN)4]2– (B) [Cu(CN)4]3– (C) Cu(CN)2 (D) CuCN
Q.249 Oxidation number of Fe in violet coloured complex Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)] sodium nitrosoprusside is:
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.250 Which has yellow colour

(A) Potassium hexanitrito-Ocobaltate(III) (B) Potassium hexanitrito-Ncobaltate(II)
(C) Fischer's salt (D) All the above

EXERCISE-2

Q.1 Which of the following complexes have tetrahedral shape?
(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (B) [Ni(CO)4] (C) [NiCl4]2– (D) [Zn(NH3)4]2+
Q.2 Which of the following is/are inner orbital complex(es) as well as diamagnetic in nature.
(A) [Ir(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (C) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (D) [Co(NH3)6]3+
Q.3 Which of the following is/are correct about [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

(A) It is a square planar complex.
(B) It is paramagnetic with one unpaired electron in the d-subshell
(C) It gives white ppt with BaCl2
(D) Its molar conductivity is approximately equal to that of [CrBr(NH3)5]SO4
Q.4 Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

(A) The oxidation state of iron in sodium nitro prusside Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)] is +2.
(B) [Ag(NH3)2]+ is linear in shape.
(C) In [Fe(H2O)6]+3, Fe is d2sp3 hybridized.
(D) In Ni(CO)4, the oxidiation state of Ni is zero.
Q.5 INCORRECT order of stability of complex compound is:

(A) [Fe(dmg)2] > [Fe(en)2]2+
(B) [Co(en)3]3+ > [Co(ox)3]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+
(C) [Co(ox)3]3– > [Co(acac)3]
(D) [IrF6]3– > [RhF6]3– > [CoF6]3–
Q.6 CFSE value of [Fe(H2O)5] (NO)] SO4 (Brown Ring Complex) is

(A) –0.8 0 (B) –0.4 0 (C) –1.8 0 (D) –2.4 0
Q.7 INCORRECT order of stability of complexes

(A) [Cu(trien)]++ [Cu(en)2]++ (B) [Ni(ox) (NH3)2] > [Ni(acac) (NH3)2]+
(C) [Ni(H2O)6]++ > [NiF6]4– (D) [CoF3(H2O)3] > [CoF6]3–
Q.8 The value of crystal field energy (0) for [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is 243 kJ mol–1. The crystal field stabilization
energy (CFSE) in this complex is: (in kJ mol–1)
3 2 2
(A) × 243 (B) × 243 (C) 3   243 (D) 243
5 5 5
Q.9 Wavelength of absorption is minimum in the visible region for the complex ion.
(A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (C) [Cr(NO2)6]3– (D) [Cr(ONO)6]3–
Q.10 In which of the following complex ion upaired electron is present in 4d orbital.
(A) [Cu(NO2)5]3– (B) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (C) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Fe(CO)4]2–
Q.11 Which of the following statement is incorrect for [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]SO4

(A) Oxidation state of iron is +1 (B) Coordination number of Fe is six
(C) Charge on NO ligand is +1 (D) It's brown colour is due to d-d-transition
Q.12 In which of the following complex ion, transference of electron occurs from 3d to 4p orbital
(A) [Cu(H2O4)]2+ (B) [Co(CN)6]4– (C) [Co(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Cu(py)4]2+
Q.13 Consider the following complex ions and 'C–O' stretching bands/frequencies.
Column-I Column-II
(Complex ions) CO (in cm–1)
(P) [Ti(CO)6]2– (i) 2204
(Q) [V(CO)6]¯ (ii) 2100
(R) [Mn(CO)6]+ (iii) 1859
(S) [Fe(CO)6]2+ (iv) 1748
Then according to the given information the correct match is :
(P) (Q) (R) (S) (P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Q.14 Which of the following are -bonded organometallic compounds?

(A) Ferrocene (B) [Ni( -C5H5)2]
(C) Ethylmagnesium iodide (D) Dibenzene chromium
Q.15 The IR stretching frequencies of free CO, and CO in [V(CO)6]¯, [Cr(CO)6] and [Mn(CO)6]+ are
2143 cm–1, 1859 cm–1, 2000 cm–1 and 2100 cm–1 respectively. Then INCORRECT statement(s)
about metal carbonyls is/are
(A) 'C–O' bond is strongest in the cation and weakest in the anion.
(B) 'C–O" bond order is less in the cation than in anion.
(C) 'C–O" bond is longer in the cation than in anion or neutral carbonyl.
(D) 'M–C' bond order is higher in the cation than in anionic or neutral carbonyl.

Q.16 Which of the following properties is/are same in between [Fe(CO)2 (NO)2] and [Fe(-C5H5)2]
complexes.
(A) Oxidation state of central metal atom/ion
(B) Effective atomic number
(C)All ligands exhibit synergic bonding
(D) Ligands show -donor--acceptor behaviour in both complexes.
Q.17 Find IUPAC name of the hydrate isomer of CrC13·6H2O, which is having lowest electrical conductivity.
(A) Hexaaquachromium(III) chloride
(B) Tetraaquadichloridochromium(III) chloridedihydrate
(C) Pentaaquachloridochromium(III) chloridemonohydrate
(D) Triaquatrichloridochromium(III) trihydrate
Q.18 Choose the correct IUPAC name(s) of the given compound
+4
OH
(en)2CO CO(en)2
OH
(A) Bis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(lII)di--hydroxidobis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III) ion.

(B) Di--hydroxidotetrakis(ethylenediamine)dicobalt(III) ion.
(C) Di--hydroxidobis{bis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III)}ion.
(D) Bis{-hydroxidobis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III)} ion.
Q.19 Which of the following names is/are correct for the compound Na[CoCl2(NO2)(-C3H5) (NH3)2]
(A) Sodium allyldiamminedichloronitrito-N-cobaltate (III)
(B) Sodium diamminedichloroallylnitrito-N-cobaltate (III)
(C) Sodium diamminedichlorocyclopropylnitrito-N-cobaltate (III)
(D) Sodium diamminecyclopropylnitrito-N-dichlorocobaltate (III)
Q.20 Consider the following two statements

(i) Complex compound gives white ppt with AgNO3 solution.
(ii) Complex compound exhibits geometrical isomerism.
Which complex compound is following both above given conditions.
(A) CoCl3. 5NH3.H2O (B) CoCl3.3NH3
(C) PtCl4. 5NH3 (D) PtCl4.4NH3

Q.21 Which of the following will produce a white precipitate upon reacting withAgNO3?
(A) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (B) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(C) K2[Pt(en)Cl4] (D) [Fe(en)3]Cl3
Q.22 Co-ordination number of Cr in CrC13.5H2O is six. The volume of 0.1 N AgNO3 needed to ppt. the
chlorine in outer sphere in 200 ml of 0.01 M solution of the complex is/are:
(A) 140 ml (B) 40 ml (C) 80 ml (D) 20 ml

Q.23 Select the correct graph between magnetic moment of complex compound and number of d-electrons
with weak field ligand and strong field ligands respectively
Magnetic moment ()

(A) and
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
No. of electrons in d-orbitals No. of electrons in d-orbitals
(B) and
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(C) and
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(D) and
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Q.24 Which of the following statement is/are incorrect

(A) [Pt(NO3)2(en)2]2+ complex ion can show linkage isomerism
(B) [Cr(CO3)(NH3)4]Br can show ionization isomerism
(C) FeCl2.6H2O can show hydrate isomerism
(D) [FeCl3(NH3)3] can exhibit structural isomerism
Q.25 The complex compound which can exhibit both structural and optical isomerism
(A) [IrBr2(en)2]Br (B) [Co(NO2)3(H2O)3]
(C) [Cr(NO2)(SCN) (H2O) (NH3)3]Br (D) [Pt(acac)3]Br
Q.26 Which type of isomerism(s) are exhibited by complex [CrCl2(H2O)2(NH3)2]Br

(I) Ionization isomerism (II) Hydrate isomerism
(III) Geometrical isomerism (IV) Optical isomerism
(A) I and II (B) II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) I, II, III & IV
Q.27 How many isomers exist for [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ and [Co(en)2Cl2]+ complex ions, respectively
Q.28 Possible isomerism in complexes [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] and [Co(NH3)5(NO2)] Cl2, respectively are
(A) Linkage and optical (B) Geometrical and linkage
(C) Optical and ionisation (D) Linkage and geometrical
Q.29 Consider the following configuration arrangement between central metal atom/ion and donor site(s) of
respective ligand:
n±
O
O O
M
N N
O
Which of the following IUPAC name of complex ion is not satisfied with the given arrangement
(A) Ethylenediaminetetraacetatonickelate(II)ion
(B) Ethylenediaminebis(oxalato)chromate(III)ion
(C) Tetraaquaethylenediaminecobalt(III)ion
(D) Trans-(glycinato)bisoxalatoferrate(III)ion

Q.30 The complex ion having only two stereoisomers, is

(A) [CoBr2(en)2]+ (B) [Pt(Br)(CN)(NO2)(NH3)]¯
(C) [Zn(en)2]++ (D) [Cr(ox)3]3–
Q.31 Which of the following exhibit geometrical but not exhibit optical isomerism (M stands for a metal, and a
and b are monodentate ligands)?
(A) Ma3b2c (B) M (AA)3 (C) Ma4(AA) (D) M(AB)2(AA)
Q.32 Both geometrical and optical isomerism are shown by

(A) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (B) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (D) [Cr(Ox)3]3–
Q.33 Three arrangements are shown for the complex [Co(en) (NH3)2Cl2]+. Pick up the wrong statement
Cl Cl Cl
Cl H3N NH3
Co en Co en en Co
H3N H3 N NH3
NH3 Cl Cl
(I) (II) (III)
(A) I and II are geometrical isomers (B) II and III are optical isomers
(C) I and III are optical isomers (D) II and III are geometrical isomers
Q.34 Which of the following compound(s) show(s) optical isomerism

(A) [Pt(bn)2]2+ (B) [CrCl2(en)2]+
(C) [Co(en)3][CoF6] (D) [Zn(gly)2]
Q.35 Which of the following statements is not true about the complex ion [CrCl(NO2)(en)2]+ (en = enthylene
diamine)
(A) It has two geometrical isomers-cis and trans
(B) cis and trans forms are not diastereomers to each other
(C) Only the cis isomer displays optical activity
(D) It has three optically active isomers : d, l and meso forms
Q.36 Which of the following will have two stereoisomeric forms?

(A) [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3] (B) K3[Fe(C2O4)3]
(C) [CoCl2(en)2]+ (D) [CoBrCl(Ox)2]3–

Q.37 Which of the following isomerisms is/are shown by the complex [CoCl2(OH)2(NH3)2]Br ?
(A) Ionization (B) Linkage (C) Geometrical (D) Optical
Q.38 Consider the following representation for "Bromidochloridoethylenediamineglycinato cobaltate(III)"

complex compound
1
5 2
Co
4 3
6
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding given information

(A) If both halogen present in (1) and (3) position then compound should be optically active
(B) If both halogen present in (5) and (3) position then compound should be optically active
(C) If position (2), (6) and (5) occupy with 'N' atoms as donating site then it is a trans isomer.
(D)All possible geometrical isomers are optically active
Q.39 ( NH 3 )5 Co  O  O  CoNH 3 5 4 

S2O8 2 
 ( NH 3 )5 Co  O  O  Co( NH 3 )5 5
Oxidise
Brown Green
The magnetic moment of green complex is 1.7 BM & for brown complexes magnetic moment is zero.
(O-O) is same in all respect in both the complexes.
The O.S. of Co in brown complex and green complex respectively are -
(A) III III & IV III (B) III II & III III
brown green brown green
(B) III III & III II (D) III IV & III III
brown green brown green
Q.40 The complex K2[Zn(CN)2(O2)2] is oxidised into [Zn(CN)2(O2)2], then which of the following is/are
correct?
(A) Zn(II) is oxidised into Zn(IV) (B) Magnetic moment decreases
(C) O – O bond length increase (D) Magnetic moment increases

Q.41 K6[(CN)5Co–O2–Co(CN)5] Oxidizes

  K5[(CN)5 Co–O2–Co (CN)5]
(X) (Y)
In both the complexes oxidation state of Co cation is same

The B.E. of (O–O) in X & Y is-
(A) B.E. of (O – O) in Y < B.E. of (O – O) in X
(B) B.E. of (O – O) in X < B.E. of (O – O) in Y
(C) B.E. of (O – O) in X = B.E. of (O – O) in Y
(D) can't be compared
Q.42 What is oxidation state, magnetic moment and type of hybridisation of central metal cation in following
complex. [Os(ONO) (O)2 (O2) (SCN) (H2O)]OH
(A) + 7, 3 B.M., d2sp3 hybridisation (B) + 8, 0 B.M., sp3d2 hybridisation

(C) + 8, 0 B.M., d2sp3 hybridisation (D) + 9, 0 B.M., d2sp3 hybridisation
Q.43 Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

(A) Hexacyanidoferrate (II) ion has four unpaired electrons in 3d-orbital
(B) tetracyanidonickelate (II) ion is square planar
(C) IUPAC name of [Zn(OH)4]–2 ion is tetrahydroxidozinc(II) ion
(D) The coordination number of Cr in [Cr(NH3)2 (en)2]+3 is 6
Q.44 Which of the following is/are paramagnetic

(A) [Ru(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Mn(CO)5]¯ (C) [Fe(NH3)6]2+ (D) Cr2O72–
Q.45 Correct statement is

(A) [Co(Ox)3]3– is more stable than [Co(H2O)6]3+
(B) In [Co(NH3)6]2+ and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ unpaired e– lies in valence d and p orbital respectively
(C) Colour due to charge transfer spectra is found to be more intense than d-d transition
(D) -bond is found between metals in polynuclear metal carbonyl compounds
Q.46 Select incorrect statement(s) for [Cu(CN)4]3–, [Cd(CN)4]2– and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ complex ion.
(A) Both [Cd(CN)4]2– and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ have square planar geometry
(B) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ and [Cd(CN)4]2– have equal no. of unpaired electron
(C) [Cu(CN)4]3– and [Cd(CN)4]2– can be separated from the mixture on passing H2S gas
(D) All the three complexes have magnetic moment equal to zero

Q.47 Select the correct statement(s)

(A) Co(III) is stabilised in presence of weak field ligands, while Co(II) is stabilised in presence of strong
fieldligand
(B) Four coordinated complexes of Pd(II) and Pt(II) are diamagnetic and square planar
(C) [Ni(CN)4]4– ion and [Ni(CO)4] are diamagnetic tetrahedral complexes
(D) Ni2+ ion does not form inner orbital octahedral complexes
Q.48 Both complex compound pentamminethiocyanatocobalt(III) bromide and pentaamminebromidocobalt(II)

thiocyanate represent
(A) Linkage isomerism (B) Ionization isomerism
(C) Coordination isomerism (D) NO isomerism
Q.49 Which of the following octahedral complex exhibits structural isomerism

(A) [CrCl(gly)(en) (NH3)] (B) [Co(SO4)(H2O)4]Br
(C) [Ir (O2N)(ox)2]2– (D) [RhBrH2O(en)2]SO4
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
Ni (NH3)4 (NO3)2.2H2O molecule may have two unpaired electrons or zero unpaired electron and
measurement of magnetic moment helps us to predict the geometry.
Q.50 If magnetic moment value is zero then the formula of the complex will be
(A) [Ni(NH3)4](NO3)2 · 2H2O
(B) [Ni(NH3)2(H2O)2](NO3)2· 2NH3
(C) [Ni (NH3)4(H2O)2](NO3)2
(D) [Ni (NO3)2(H2O)2] · 4NH3
Q.51 If the magnetic moment value is 2 2 and conducts electricity then the formula of the complex is
(A) [Ni (NH3)4] (NO3)2.2H2O
(B) [Ni (NH3)2(H2O)2] (NO3)2.2NH3
(C) [Ni (NH3)4 (H2O)2] (NO3)2
(D) [Ni (NH3)4 (NO3)2].2H2O
Q.52 The higher and lower value of magnetic moment of the given complex corresponds to the following
geometries respectively.
(A) Octahedron and Tetrahedron
(B) Octahedron and square planar
(C) Square planar and Octahedron
(D) Octahedron and Octahedron

No single theoryof bonding of complex compound is sufficient to describe the bonding, magnetic property,
colour, etc of a given complex.
Q.53 The tetrahedral complex which is diamagnetic but coloured-
(A) [NiCl4]2– (B) [CrO4]2– (C) [MnO4]2– (D) [Cd(CN)4]2–
Q.54 The incorrect statement about Ni(CO)4 is-

(A) The bond order of CO in the complex is less than bond order of CO molecule
(B) The complex is diamagnetic and dsp2 hybridised
(C) The bond order of Ni–C bond is greater than one
(D) The complex cannot act as oxidising or reducing agent according to sidgwick EAN rule

When a transition metal ion (usually) is involved in octahedral complex formation, the five degenerate
d-orbitals split into two set of degenerate orbitals (3 + 2). Three degenerate orbitals of lower energy
 
(dxy, dyz, dzx) and a set of degenerate orbitals of higher energy d 2 2 and d 2 . The orbitals with
x y z
lower energy are called t2g orbitals and those with higher energy are called eg orbitals.
In octahederal complexes, positive metal ion may be considered to be present at the centre and negative
ligand at the corner of a regular octahedron.As lobes d 2 2 and d 2 lie along the axes, i.e., along the
x y z
ligand the repulsions are more and so high is the energy. The lobes of the remaining three d-orbitals lie
between the axes i.e., between the ligands. The repulsion between them are less, so lesser the energy. In
the octahedral complexes, if metal ion has electrons more than 3 then for pairing them, the options are
(i) Pairing may start with 4th electron in t2g orbitals.
(ii) Pairing may start normally with 6th electrons when t2g and eg orbitals are singly filled.
Q.55 In which of the following configurations, hybridisation and magnetic moment of octahedral complexes
are independent of nature of ligands.
(I) d3 configuration of any metal cation
(II) d6 configuration of IIIrd transition series metal cation
(III) d8 configuration of Ist transition series metal cation
(IV) d7 configuration of any metal cation
Select the correct code :
(A) III, IV (B) I, III, IV (C) I, II, IV (D) I, II, III

Q.56 Which of the following electronic arrangement is/are possible for inner orbital octahedral complex.
(I) t 32g e g2 (II) t 62g e1g (III) t 32g e 0g (IV) t 42g e g2
Select the correct code :

(A) I, IV (B) II, III (C) III only (D) III, IV
Q.57 Select incorrect match for the following complexes.

(A) [IrF6]3– ( > P) (B) [Co(H2O)6]3+ ( < P)
(C) Fe(CO)5 ( > P) (D) [PdCl2(SCN)2]2– ( > P)

The necessary and sufficient condition to exhibit optical activity, the configuration of the given complex
should be assymmetric
Q.58 The complex that contains two space isomers is-
(A) [Zn(acac)2] (B) [Ca(EDTA)]2– (C) [Be(acac)(gly)] (D) [CoBrCl(en)2]+
Q.59 The complex which does not exhibit cis-trans isomerism but optically active-
(A) [Zn(gly)2] (B) [Pt(gly)2] (C) [Ni(gly)2] (D) [Pd(gly)2]
Q.60 The complex in which six pair of enantiomers available form is optically active -
(A) [CoBrCl(CN)(H2O)(NH3)2] (B) [Rh((CN)2(gly)(H2O)(NH3)]
(C) [FeF2(OH)2(en)]¯ (D) [CrBr2Cl(CN)(NH3)2]¯
Paragraph for question nos. 61 to Q.63

The splitting of five degenerated d-orbitals of the metal ion into sets of orbitals having different energies
is called crystal field splitting. The concept forms the basis of crystal field theory.
Q.61 The expected spin-only magnetic moments of K3[Co(CN)6] and K4[MnF6] respectively are
(A) 1.73 and 1.73 BM (B) 1.73 and 5.92 BM
(C) 0.0 and 1.73 BM (D) 0.0 and 5.92 BM
Q.62 Which of the following complex has its CFSE = – 4 Dq

(A) Cr(CO)6 (B) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (C) [FeF6]4– (D) [Ni(Py)6]2+
Q.63 The complex exhibits lowest energy absorption band is

(A) [NiCl]4]2– (B) Ni(CO)4 (C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [Ni(H2O)6]2+

[MATCH TYPE]
Q.64 Column-I (Complexes) Column-II (C.N.)
(A) [Co(en)3]2+ (P) 6
(B) [Ca(EDTA)]2– (Q) 4
(C) [Ni(CO)4] (R) 2
(D) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (S) 5
Q.65 Colum-I(Complexes) Column-II(E.A.N.)

(A) [Fe(CO)4 ]2– (P) 34
(B) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (Q) 35
(C) K2[Ni(CN)4] (R) 36
(D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (S) 37

(A) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (P) dsp2
(B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (Q) Octahedral
(C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (R) sp3d2
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 (S) square planar

(A) [Fe(NH3)6]2+ (P) d 2sp3
(B) [NiF6]2– (Q) sp3d2
(C) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (R) diamagnetic
(D) [Pt(Cl2)(NH3)4]Cl2 (S) paramagnetic
(T) outer orbital complex

(A) [MnCl6]2– (P) One unpaired electron
(B) [Fe(CN)6]3– (Q) d2sp3
(C) [CoF6]3– (R) sp3d2
(D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (S) Four unpaired electrons


(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (P) Low spin complex
(B) [CuCl4]2– (Q) Magnetic moment = 1.73 B.M.
(C) K2[Cr(CN)4(NH3)(NO+)] (R) Metal oxidation state +2
(D) K4[Co(NO2)6] (S) During hybridisation d-orbital electron is
transfered to higher energy orbital

(A) [Ma2 bcde]n± (P) Only 1 cis isomer w.r.t all ligands
(B) [Ma2b2c2]n± (Q) 4 geometrical isomers
(C) [M(AB)c2d2]n± (R) 5 stereo (space) isomers
(S) 3 trans isomers
(where AB  Unsym, bidentate ligands, a, b, c, d & e  monodentate ligands)

(A) [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (P) d2sp3 hybridisation
(B) [Co(CN)2(NH3)4]OC2H5 (Q) Ionisation isomerism
(C) [IrCl6]3– (R)  = 2.83 B.M.
(D) [PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 (S) 0 < P
Q.72 Column-I (Complexes) Column-II (Stereoproperties)

(A) [CoCl3(NH3)3] (P) Show facial isomer
(B) [Cr(ox)3]3– (Q) Cis form is optically active
(C) [CrCl2(ox)2] (R) Trans form is opticallyinactive
(D) [RhCl3(Py)3] (S) Show meridional form
(T) Two optically active isomer

(A) Only four stereoisomer (P) [M(AB)3]n±
(B) Four optically active isomer (Q) [M(AA)a2b2]n±
(C) Double the number of (R) [M a2b2cd]n±
geometrical isomer compared (S) [Ma3bcd]n±
to any other complex given in
column-II

[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.74 Total number of ligands which can act as didentate/polydentate ligands with same donor atoms/sites.
DMG, en, Phen, Gly, acac, SO42–, S2O32–, pyridine, PPh3
Q.75 If an octahedral complex ion [M(AA)xay]±n does not show optical isomerism, then find out value of
|x – y|2.
(WhereAAis symmetrical bidentate ligand and 'a' is neutral monodentate ligand and x and y are natural
number)
Q.76 Find the value of X  Y for complex [CoBr2(CN)(NO2) (H2O) (NH3)]

where : X = Number of compound when both Br– at cis position.
Y = Number of compound when both Br– are at trans position.
Q.77 Consider the following complexes.

(i) [Cr(EDTA)]¯ (ii) [Ru(en)3]2+
(iii) [Pt(gly)Cl2]¯ (iv) Cis-[Cr(Cl)2(ox)2]3–
(v) trans-[Pt(en)(NH3)2(py)2]4+
Then find out the value of expression |p × q|2.
p = Total number of optically active complexes
q = Total number of optically inactive complexes
Q.78 If CFSE value of complex ion [FeF6]4– in terms of Dq. is X, then find |X|.
Q.79 What are the values of m + n in the anionic species [ Ti(CO)m]n– , if it is following sidwick EAN rule and
having octahedral shape.
Q.80 Write the sum of Geometrical isomers of [Pt(H2N – CH(CH3) – COO–)2] complex and stereo isomers
of [Pt(gly)3]+ complex.
Q.81 From Meridional and facial isomer of [Ma 3b3 ]n  on replacement of only one 'a' by 'b', the number of
isomer of the product obtained are ______ and _______ respectively.

[If answer is 2 and 5 represent as 25]
Q.82 Predict the number of unpaired electrons in a tetrahedral d6 ion and in a square planar d7 ion.
Note : If answer is 1 and 2 represent as 12.

Q.83 The number of optically active isomer for [Pt(NH3)2(F)(Cl)(Br)(I)]° is ___________.
Q.84 Find the number of t2g and eg electrons in [NiF6]2–.

[If ans. is 4 & 2 then represent as 42]
Q.85 Total possible stereoisomer for the molecule [Ma2bcde]n± (where a,b,c,d,e are simple monodentate
ligand having no chiral centre). is-
Q.86 Number of pair of enantiomer of [Ma2b2cd] is __________.
Q.87 Find the number of unpaired electrons in t2g-set of d-orbitals in [Co(H2O)3F3] complex.
Q.88 How many pairs of enantiomers of [M(AA)(BC)de] are possible.
Q.89 Find the total number of isomer of [Be(gly)2].
Q.90 The total number of possible geometrical isomer for [Ma 3b3 ]n  is _________.
Q.91 How many geometrical isomer(s) is / are formed by [Ma2bcde]
Q.92 Find the E.A.N. value of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6].
Q.93 The number of geometrical isomer for [PdCl3Br(SCN)(NO2)]2– is '______'.
Q.94 Calculate E.A.N. value of K[PtCl3(C2H4)].
Q.95 The number of ions furnished per molecule of the complex [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is / are
Q.96 If Hund's rule violet then how many unpaired electrons are present in [Cr(H2O)6]3+
Q.97 When one 'a' is replaced by 'b' in [M(AA)a2bc]n± type of complex, then total number of geometrical
isomer is increased by _________.
Q.98 Find the number of unpaired electron in the t2g set of d-orbital in the [Mn(H2O)6]2+.
Q.99 How many unpaired electron(s) is / are present in t2g orbitals of [Mn(NH3)6]2+.

Q.100 Find out the total number of stereoisomer possible for [Cr(C2O4)(en)(NO2)Cl]¯.
Q.101 Find the Effective atomic number of [Fe(CO)2(–C5H5)Cl].
Q.102 Find the number of unpaired electrons in t2g-set of d-orbitals in K3[Co(ox)3] complex.

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 A Q.2 C Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 D
Q.6 C Q.7 B Q.8 D Q.9 B Q.10 A
Q.11 A Q.12 D Q.13 A Q.14 C Q.15 D
Q.16 A Q.17 B Q.18 B Q.19 D Q.20 B
Q.21 B Q.22 C Q.23 B Q.24 C Q.25 C
Q.26 B Q.27 A Q.28 C Q.29 A Q.30 C
Q.31 C Q.32 D Q.33 B Q.34 B Q.35 B
Q.36 C Q.37 D Q.38 C Q.39 B Q.40 B
Q.41 B Q.42 B Q.43 D Q.44 C Q.45 B
Q.46 C Q.47 A Q.48 C Q.49 A Q.50 D
Q.51 C Q.52 C Q.53 D Q.54 D Q.55 C
Q.56 C Q.57 D Q.58 C Q.59 B Q.60 C
Q.61 C Q.62 B Q.63 C Q.64 B Q.65 C
Q.66 A Q.67 C Q.68 C Q.69 A Q.70 C
Q.71 C Q.72 B Q.73 A Q.74 B Q.75 A
Q.76 A Q.77 B Q.78 B Q.79 A Q.80 A
Q.81 A Q.82 A Q.83 D Q.84 A Q.85 C
Q.86 A Q.87 D Q.88 B Q.89 B Q.90 D
Q.91 C Q.92 A Q.93 B Q.94 B Q.95 A
Q.96 D Q.97 D Q.98 D Q.99 C Q.100 C
Q.101 C Q.102 D Q.103 B Q.104 A Q.105 C
Q.106 D Q.107 B Q.108 B Q.109 A Q.110 C
Q.111 D Q.112 A Q.113 D Q.114 C Q.115 A
Q.116 A Q.117 C Q.118 C Q.119 B Q.120 B
Q.121 D Q.122 D Q.123 B Q.124 D Q.125 B
Q.126 C Q.127 A Q.128 C Q.129 A Q.130 D
Q.131 A Q.132 A Q.133 C Q.134 A Q.135 C
Q.136 C Q.137 C Q.138 B Q.139 C Q.140 D
Q.141 C Q.142 A Q.143 A Q.144 D Q.145 C
Q.146 B Q.147 C Q.148 B Q.149 B Q.150 B
Q.151 C Q.152 B Q.153 A Q.154 A Q.155 B
Q.156 A Q.157 A Q.158 B Q.159 A Q.160 D
Q.161 D Q.162 B Q.163 C Q.164 A Q.165 C
Q.166 A Q.167 A Q.168 A Q.169 A Q.170 B
Q.171 D Q.172 B Q.173 B Q.174 D Q.175 D

Q.176 B Q.177 C Q.178 D Q.179 C Q.180 D
Q.181 C Q.182 D Q.183 A Q.184 B Q.185 D
Q.186 B Q.187 A Q.188 C Q.189 D Q.190 C
Q.191 C Q.192 B Q.193 C Q.194 B Q.195 A
Q.196 C Q.197 B Q.198 D Q.199 B Q.200 A
Q.201 C Q.202 C Q.203 C Q.204 A Q.205 C
Q.206 C Q.207 A Q.208 D Q.209 B Q.210 C
Q.211 D Q.212 D Q.213 A Q.214 B Q.215 C
Q.216 C Q.217 C Q.218 A Q.219 B Q.220 B
Q.221 B Q.222 C Q.223 C Q.224 D Q.225 A
Q.226 C Q.227 C Q.228 A Q.229 D Q.230 D
Q.231 D Q.232 B Q.233 D Q.234 A Q.235 C
Q.236 B Q.237 A Q.238 B Q.239 D Q.240 C
Q.241 A Q.242 D Q.243 B Q.244 C Q.245 C
Q.246 B Q.247 B Q.248 B Q.249 B Q.250 C

EXERCISE-2
Q.1 BCD Q.2 AD Q.3 ACD Q.4 ABD Q.5 C
Q.6 A Q.7 B Q.8 B Q.9 C Q.10 A
Q.11 D Q.12 D Q.13 C Q.14 ABD Q.15 BCD
Q.16 BC Q.17 B Q.18 ABCD Q.19 AC Q.20 D
Q.21 AD Q.22 BD Q.23 A Q.24 ABD Q.25 C
Q.26 C Q.27 B Q.28 B Q.29 D Q.30 D
Q.31 A Q.32 A Q.33 BD Q.34 ABCD Q.35 BD
Q.36 AB Q.37 ACD Q.38 ABD Q.39 A Q.40 D
Q.41 B Q.42 C Q.43 BD Q.44 AC Q.45 ABCD
Q.46 A Q.47 BCD Q.48 D Q.49 D Q.50 A
Q.51 C Q.52 B Q.53 B Q.54 B Q.55 D
Q.56 B Q.57 B Q.58 B Q.59 A Q.60 A
Q.61 D Q.62 C Q.63 A
Q.64 A – P; B – P; C – Q; D – R Q.65 A – R; B – R; C – P; D – Q
Q.66 A – P,S; B – P,S; C – Q; D – Q,R Q.67 A – Q,S,T; B – P,R; C – P,R; D – P,R
Q.68 A – Q; B – P,Q; C – R,S; D – R,S Q.69 A – Q,R,S; B – Q,R; C – P,Q; D – P,Q,R,S
Q.70 A – S; B – P; C – Q; Q.71 A – R,S; B – P,Q; C – P; D – P,Q
Q.72 A – PRS; B – T ;C–QRT; D–PRS Q.73 A – P, Q; B – P, R; C – R,S
Q.74 6 Q.75 9
Q.76 4 Q.77 81 Q.78 4 Q.79 0008 Q.80 0008
Q.81 21 Q.82 0041 Q.83 12 Q.84 60 Q.85 0015
Q.86 0002 Q.87 0002 Q.88 5 Q.89 2 Q.90 0002
Q.91 9 Q.92 36 Q.93 4 Q.94 84 Q.95 4
Q.96 1 Q.97 0 Q.98 3 Q.99 3 Q.100 5
Q.101 36 Q.102 0

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY TYPES OF REACTIONS
6
CHAPTER
TYPES OF REACTIONS
EXERCISE
Complete the reaction and assign (A), (B), (C), (D) from given types of reactions.
(A) precipitate formation reaction
(B) precipitate dissolution reaction
(C) precipitate exchange reaction
(D) no reaction
Q.1 Pb(NO3)2 + 2NaOH — ______________________
Q.2 Zn(OH)2  + 2NaOH — ______________________
Q.3 2Na[Al(OH)4] + CO2 — ______________________
Q.4 CuSO4 + 2NaOH (excess) — ______________________
Q.5 Fe(OH)3  + NaOH (excess) — ______________________
Q.6 Mg(OH)2  + 2HCI — ______________________
Q.7 Mn(NO3)2 + 2NaOH — ______________________
Q.8 CH3COOAg  + HNO3 — ______________________
Q.9 Hg(NO3)2 + NH3 Soln. — ______________________
Q.10 Hg2(NO3)2 + NH3 Soln. — ______________________
Q.11 CaC2O4  + CH3COOH — ______________________
Q.12 BaC2O4  + 2AcOH — ______________________
Q.13 Fe(CN)2  + 4KCN — ______________________

Q.14 SrC2O4  + 2HCl — ______________________
Q.15 Fe(CN)3  + KCN — ______________________
Q.16 CaSO3  + SO2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.17 K4[Fe(CN)6] + ZnSO4 — ______________________
Q.18 3PbS  + 8HNO3 (dil.) — ______________________
Q.19 K4[Fe(CN)6] + 2CuSO4 — ______________________
Q.20 MnS  + 2HCl — ______________________
Q.21 AgCl  + 2KCN — ______________________
Q.22 HgS  + Na2S — ______________________
Q.23 CuSO4 + 2KCN — ______________________
Q.24 FeS  + 2HCl — ______________________
Q.25 Cd(CN)2  + 2KCN — ______________________
Q.26 2AgF + MgCl2 — ______________________
Q.27 Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI — ______________________
Q.28 PbCl2  + Hot water — ______________________
Q.29 HgI2  + KI — ______________________
Q.30 AgI  + 2Na2S2O3 — ______________________
Q.31 CuSO4 + 2KI — ______________________
Q.32 KNO2 + AgF — ______________________

Q.33 BaSO4  + Na2CO3 — ______________________
Q.34 FeCl3 + Na3PO4 — ______________________
Q.35 BaSO4  + dil. HCl (excess) — ______________________
Q.36 2AgNO3 + Na2C2O4 — ______________________
Q.37 2BaCrO4  + 4HCl — ______________________
Q.38 PbCrO4  + 4NaOH (excess) — ______________________
Q.39 BaCrO4  + CH3COOH (ex.) — ______________________
Q.40 PbCl2  + H2SO4 — ______________________
Q.41 Ba(NO3)2 + Na2SO4 — ______________________
Q.42 Pb(NO3)2 + H2SO4 — ______________________
Q.43 SrCrO4  + 2AcOH(ex) — ______________________
Q.44 PbCrO4  + AcOH — ______________________
Q.45 CaCl2 + Na2C2O4 — ______________________
Q.46 CaSO4 + Pb(NO3)2 — ______________________
Q.47 Cu(OH)2  + 4NH3 soln. — ______________________
Q.48 BaCO3  + 2HCl — ______________________
Q.49 AlCl3 + 3NaOH (limited) — ______________________
Q.50 BaCO3  + CO2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.51 ZnS  + 2HCl — ______________________

NH 4OH
Q.52 NiCl2 + 2dmg   ______________________
Q.53 CaCl2 + Na2SO4 — ______________________
Q.54 BaCO3  + 2AcOH — ______________________
Q.55 Na2S2O3 + BaCl2 — ______________________
Q.56 Ba(AcO)2 + K2CrO4 — ______________________
Q.57 3AgNO3 + Na3PO4 — ______________________
Q.58 Ag2CO3  + 2HCl — ______________________
Q.59 BaSO3  + H2SO4 — ______________________
Q.60 HgS  + conc. HNO3 — ______________________
Q.61 Sr(AcO)2 + Ag2SO4 — ______________________
Q.62 Ca(OH)2 + 2HF — ______________________
Q.63 Ca(OH)2 + CO2 — ______________________
Q.64 CaSO3  + H2SO4 — ______________________
Q.65 Ca(OH)2 + SO2 — ______________________
Q.66 Na2SO3 + BaCl2 — ______________________
Q.67 Pb(AcO)2 + H2S — ______________________
Q.68 NaCl + AgNO3 — ______________________
Q.69 PbI2  + 2KI — ______________________
Q.70 PbO2 + HNO3 (dil.) — ______________________
Q.71 PbO2 + HNO3 (conc.) — ______________________

Q.72 K2[Cd(CN)4] + H2S — ______________________
Q.73 Pb(AcO)2 + Na2CrO4 — ______________________
Q.74 NaBr + AgNO3 — ______________________
Complete the reaction and in the following reactions assign for underlined atom for product of complete
hydrolysis at R.T.
(A) If product is oxy acid with -ic suffix.
(B) If product is oxy acid with -ous suffix.
(C) If product are two oxy acids one with -ic suffix and otherone with -ous suffix.
(D) If product is not oxy acid, neither with -ic suffix nor with -ous suffix.
Q.75 B2O3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.76 SO2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.77 BF3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.78 TeF6 + H2O — ______________________
Q.79 H4P2O5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.80 CO + H2O — ______________________
Q.81 SO3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.82 H4P2O6 + H2O — ______________________
Q.83 BCl3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.84 IF7 + H2O — ______________________
Q.85 CO2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.86 Cl2O + H2O — ______________________
Q.87 H4P2O7 + H2O — ______________________

Q.88 CCl4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.89 ClF5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.90 N2O + H2O — ______________________
Q.91 ClO2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.92 H4P2O8 + H2O — ______________________
Q.93 NF3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.94 BrF5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.95 NO + H2O — ______________________
Q.96 ClO3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.97 HNO4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.98 NCl3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.99 IF5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.100 N2O3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.101 Cl2O7 + H2O — ______________________
Q.102 H3PO5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.103 SiF4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.104 ClF3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.105 N2O4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.106 I2O5 + H2O — ______________________

Q.107 H2SO5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.108 SiCl4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.109 CrO2Cl2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.110 N2O5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.111 PCl3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.112 ClF3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.113 SiO2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.114 H4B2O5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.115 H2S2O6 + H2O — ______________________
Q.116 PCl5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.117 ClF + H2O — ______________________
Q.118 P4O6 + H2O — ______________________
Q.119 H4B2O6 + H2O — ______________________
Q.120 H6Si2O7 + H2O — ______________________
Q.121 SF4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.122 BrF + H2O — ______________________
Q.123 H2S2O7 + H2O — ______________________
Q.124 H2S2O8 + H2O — ______________________
Q.125 SF6 + H2O — ______________________

Q.126 ICl + H2O — ______________________
Q.127 P4O8 + H2O — ______________________
Q.128 P4O10 + H2O — ______________________
Q.129 POCl3 + H2O — ______________________
Q.130 IOF5 + H2O — ______________________
Q.131 P4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.132 NaH + H2O — ______________________
Q.133 B2H6 + H2O — ______________________
Q.134 Cl2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.135 S8 + H2O — ______________________
Q.136 SOCl2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.137 SO2Cl2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.138 SiH4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.139 I2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.140 SOF4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.141 F2 + H2O — ______________________

Assign (A), (B), (C), (D) from given type of reactions.

(A) Disproportionation reaction
(B) Comproportionation reaction
(C) Either intermolecular redox reaction or displacement reaction.
(D) Either thermal combination redox reaction or thermal decomposition redox reaction.

Q.142 C(s) + O2(g)  ______________________
Q.143 3Mg(s) + N2(g) — ______________________
Q.144 NaH(s) + H2O — ______________________
Q.145 AgNO3(aq) + Cu(s) — ______________________
Q.146 NaH(s) + H2O (l)  ______________________

RT
Q.147 Na(S) + H2O (l)  ______________________

RT
Q.148 Mg(S) + H2O (l)  

 ______________________
warm
boil
Q.149 Fe(s) + H2O (l)  ______________________
Q.150 Zn(s) + 2HCl — ______________________
Q.151 Mg(s) + 2HCl — ______________________
Q.152 Fe(S) + 2HCl — ______________________
Q.153 Cl2(g) + KI (aq) — ______________________
Q.154 H2O2  ______________________

RT
Q.155 P4 + NaOH — ______________________
Q.156 S8 + NaOH — ______________________

Q.157 Cl2 + NaOH (cold) — ______________________
Q.158 I2 + NaOH (cold) — ______________________
Q.159 Pb3O4 + HCl (dil.)  

 ______________________
warm
Q.160 Pb3O4 + HNO3 — ______________________
Q.161 PbO2 + HCl (dil.)  

 ______________________
warm
Q.162 Cr2O72– + H+ + SO32– — ______________________
Q.163 MnO4– + H+ + Br– — ______________________
Q.164 Fe2+(aq) + Cr2O72– + H+ — ______________________
Q.165 I2 + S2O32– — ______________________
Q.166 Cu2+ (aq) + 2I– — ______________________
Q.167 CuO + H2 — ______________________
Q.168 H3PO2 + AgNO3 — ______________________
Q.169 H3PO2 + CuSO4 — ______________________

Q.170 NaNO3  ______________________
Q.171 N2O3  ______________________

RT
Q.172 Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 — ______________________
Q.173 XeF4 + H2O — ______________________
Q.174 CO + I2O5(S) — ______________________
Q.175 FeCr2O4 + Na2CO3 + O2 — ______________________

1
Q.176 MnO2 + 2KOH + O — ______________________
2 2
Q.177 K2MnO4 + H+ — ______________________

Q.178 KMnO4  ______________________

Q.179 K2Cr2O7  ______________________

Q.180 (NH4)2Cr2O7  ______________________

Q.181 NH4Cl + NaNO2  ______________________

Q.182 Ba(N3)2  ______________________
High temp.
Q.183 N2 + O2  ______________________
Q.184 N2 + 3H2 — ______________________

Q.185 NH4NO3  ______________________
Q.186 NaNO2 + FeSO4 + H2SO4 — ______________________
Q.187 NO + NO2 

–11°C
 ______________________

Q.188 Pb(NO3)2  ______________________

Q.189 P4 + 6Cl2  ______________________

Q.190 P4 + 10Cl2  ______________________

Q.191 Ag + PCl5  ______________________

Q.192 Sn + PCl5  ______________________


Q.193 PCl5  ______________________
Q.194 Red P + Alkali — ______________________

Q.195 H3PO3  ______________________

Q.196 Se2Cl2  ______________________
Q.197 Na2S + H2SO4 (conc.) — ______________________
Q.198 MnO2 + NaCl + H2SO4 (conc.) — ______________________
Q.199 NaBr + MnO2 + H2SO4 (conc.) — ______________________
Q.200 NaI + H2SO4 (conc.) — ______________________
Q.201 NaI + MnO2 + H2SO4 (conc.) — ______________________
Q.202 NaNO3 + H2SO4 (conc.) 

hot
 ______________________
Q.203 Na2C2O4 + H2SO4 (conc.) — ______________________
Q.204 3PbS + 8HNO3 (dil.) — ______________________
Q.205 S + HNO3 (hot and dil.) — ______________________
Q.206 CuSO4 + Zn(s) — ______________________

Assign (A), (B), (C), (D) from given type of reactions.

(A) coloured ppt/black ppt
(B) coloured solution
(C) clear/colour less solution
(D) white ppt.
Q.207 2NaOH + Zn(OH)2  — ______________________
Q.208 Mn(OH)2 + H2SO4 — ______________________
Q.209 2AgNO3 + 2NaOH — ______________________
Q.210 Cr(OH)3  + NH3 (excess) — ______________________
Q.211 CuSO4 + NH3 (excess) — ______________________
Q.212 NiCl2 + NH3 (excess) — ______________________
Q.213 FeCl3 + NH3 (excess) — ______________________
Q.214 Na2[Zn(OH)4] + 4HCl — ______________________
Q.215 [Cr(NH3)6]3+ + 6HCl — ______________________
Q.216 2KCN + Pb(NO3)2 — ______________________
Q.217 4KCN + Fe(CN)3  — ______________________
Q.218 3KCN + Fe(CN)3  — ______________________
Q.219 CuSO4 + KCN (excess) — ______________________
Q.220 K3[Fe(CN)6] + FeCl3 — ______________________
Q.221 K3[Fe(CN)6] + FeCl2 — ______________________
Q.222 KI + BiI3  — ______________________
Q.223 2KI + HgI2  — ______________________
Q.224 KI + AgNO3 — ______________________
Q.225 2KI + FeCl2 — ______________________
Q.226 2KI + CuSO4 — ______________________

Q.227 BaCO3  + CO2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.228 Ba(OH)2 + CO2 — ______________________
Q.229 BaSO3  + SO2 + H2O — ______________________
Q.230 Ba(OH)2 + SO2 — ______________________
Q.231 Na2CO3 + PbSO4 — ______________________
Q.232 Na2CO3 + Pb(NO3)2 — ______________________
Q.233 Na2CO3 + KNO3 — ______________________
Q.234 Na2CO3 + AgNO3 — ______________________
Q.235 Na3PO4 + Fe2(SO4)3 — ______________________
Q.236 NiCl2 soln. + NaNO3 soln. — ______________________
Q.237 CuSO4 soln. + ZnCl2 soln. — ______________________
Q.238 FeSO4 + Na2S — ______________________
Q.239 FeCl3 + Na3PO4 — ______________________
Q.240 AlCl3 + Na3PO4 — ______________________
Q.241 CrCl3 soln. + ZnSO4 soln. — ______________________
Q.242 Na2CrO4 + H2SO4 — ______________________
Q.243 K2Cr2O7 + KOH — ______________________
Q.244 Na2CrO4 + AgF — ______________________
Q.245 KMnO4 + NaNO3 — ______________________
Q.246 MnSO4 + Sr(NO3)2 — ______________________
Q.247 ZnSO4 soln. + MgCl2 soln. — ______________________
Q.248 AgNO3 soln. + NaF soln. — ______________________
Q.249 (NH4)2 SO4 + Ba(OH)2 — ______________________
Q.250 (PH4)2SO4 + Sr(OH)2 — ______________________

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE
Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 A Q.4 A Q.5 D
Q.6 B Q.7 A Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 A
Q.11 D Q.12 B Q.13 B Q.14 B Q.15 B
Q.16 B Q.17 A Q.18 B Q.19 A Q.20 B
Q.21 B Q.22 B Q.23 A Q.24 B Q.25 B
Q.26 A Q.27 A Q.28 B Q.29 B Q.30 B
Q.31 A Q.32 A Q.33 C Q.34 A Q.35 D
Q.36 A Q.37 B Q.38 B Q.39 D Q.40 C
Q.41 A Q.42 A Q.43 B Q.44 D Q.45 A
Q.46 A Q.47 B Q.48 B Q.49 A Q.50 B
Q.51 B Q.52 A Q.53 D Q.54 B Q.55 A
Q.56 A Q.57 A Q.58 C Q.59 C Q.60 D
Q.61 A Q.62 A Q.63 A Q.64 B Q.65 A
Q.66 A Q.67 A Q.68 A Q.69 B Q.70 D
Q.71 B Q.72 A Q.73 A Q.74 A Q.75 A
Q.76 B Q.77 A Q.78 A Q.79 B Q.80 D
Q.81 A Q.82 C Q.83 A Q.84 A Q.85 A
Q.86 B Q.87 A Q.88 D Q.89 A Q.90 D
Q.91 C Q.92 A Q.93 D Q.94 A Q.95 D
Q.96 A Q.97 A Q.98 D Q.99 A Q.100 B
Q.101 A Q.102 A Q.103 A Q.104 B Q.105 C
Q.106 A Q.107 A Q.108 A Q.109 A Q.110 A
Q.111 B Q.112 B Q.113 D Q.114 A Q.115 C
Q.116 A Q.117 B Q.118 B Q.119 A Q.120 A

Q.121 B Q.122 B Q.123 A Q.124 A Q.125 D
Q.126 B Q.127 C Q.128 A Q.129 A Q.130 A
Q.131 D Q.132 D Q.133 A Q.134 B Q.135 D
Q.136 B Q.137 A Q.138 A Q.139 D Q.140 A
Q.141 D Q.142 D Q.143 D Q.144 BC Q.145 C
Q.146 C Q.147 C Q.148 C Q.149 C Q.150 C
Q.151 C Q.152 C Q.153 C Q.154 A Q.155 A
Q.156 A Q.157 A Q.158 A Q.159 C Q.160 C
Q.161 C Q.162 C Q.163 C Q.164 C Q.165 C
Q.166 C Q.167 C Q.168 C Q.169 C Q.170 D
Q.171 A Q.172 A Q.173 A Q.174 C Q.175 C
Q.176 C Q.177 A Q.178 D Q.179 D Q.180 D
Q.181 B Q.182 D Q.183 CD Q.184 D Q.185 BD
Q.186 C Q.187 B Q.188 D Q.189 CD Q.190 CD
Q.191 C Q.192 C Q.193 D Q.194 A Q.195 AD
Q.196 AD Q.197 C Q.198 C Q.199 C Q.200 C
Q.201 C Q.202 D Q.203 A Q.204 C Q.205 C
Q.206 C Q.207 C Q.208 B Q.209 A Q.210 B
Q.211 B Q.212 B Q.213 A Q.214 C Q.215 B
Q.216 D Q.217 B Q.218 B Q.219 C Q.220 B
Q.221 A Q.222 B Q.223 C Q.224 A Q.225 B
Q.226 D Q.227 C Q.228 D Q.229 C Q.230 D
Q.231 D Q.232 D Q.233 C Q.234 D Q.235 A
Q.236 B Q.237 B Q.238 A Q.239 B Q.240 D
Q.241 B Q.242 B Q.243 B Q.244 A Q.245 B
Q.246 D Q.247 C Q.248 C Q.249 D Q.250 D

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY HYDROGEN & S-BLOCK ELEMENTS
HYDROGEN &
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS
CHAPTER
EXERCISE-1
HYDROGEN AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Hydrogen
Q.1 Which is true about different forms of hydrogen :
(A) ortho hydrogen has same spins of two nuclei clockwise or anticlockwise
(B) para hydrogen has different spins of two nuclei
(C) at absolute zero, there is 100% para form and at high temperature, there is 75% ortho form
(D) all are correct
Q.2 Out of the following metals which will give H2 on reaction with NaOH :
I : Zn, II : Mg, III : Al, IV : Be
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, III, IV (C) II, IV (D) I, III
Q.3 The gas used in the hydrogenation of oils in presence of nickel as a catalyst is :
(A) methane (B) ethane (C) ozone (D) hydrogen
Q.4 Atoms in hydrogen have abundance of :

(A) 1H1 atoms (B) 1D2 atoms
(C) 1T3 atoms (D) All three are in equal proportions
Q.5 Weakest reducing agent :

(A)Atomic hydrogen (B) Nascent hydrogen
(C) Molecular hydrogen (D) Occluded hydrogen
Q.6 In large amount dihydrogen is prepared by

(A) Zinc + HCl (B) Zinc + NaOH
(C) petroleum (C) coal

Q.7 Which of the following statement is not true for 1H1, 1H2, 1H3 respectively –
(A) They are isotopes of each other
(B) Theyhave similar electronic configuration
(C) They exist in the nature in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3
(D) Their atomic masses are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3
Q.8 Hydrogen has three isotops, the number of possible molecule will be –
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12
Q.9 Dihydrogen has :

(A) Two isotopes and no isomers (B) Three isotopes and two nuclear isomers
(C) Three isotopes and two optical isomers (D) Two isotopes and two geometrical isomers
Q.10 Hydrogen is :
(A) Electropositive
(B) Electronegative
(C) Both electropositive as well as electronegative
(D) Neither electropositive nor electronegative
Q.11 In which property listed below hydrogen does not resemble alkali metals ?
(A) Tendency to form cation (B) Nature of oxide
(C) Combination with halogens (D) Reducing character
Q.12 In which of the following reactions does dihydrogen act as oxidising agent ?
(A) Ca + H2  (B) H2 + O2  (C) H2 + F2  (D) CuO + H2 
Q.13 Which of the following is an nuclear isomer of hydrogen ?

(A) Ortho-H (B) Para-H (C) both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Q.14 The correct order of reactivity among

I (atomic hydrogen); II (Dihydrogen) and III (Nascent hydrogen) is
(A) I > II > III (B) I > III > II (C) II > III > I (D) III > II > I.
Q.15 Which combination cannot be used for the preparation of hydrogen gas in the laboratory ?
I. zinc/conc. H2SO4 ; II zinc/dil. HNO3 III. zinc/dil. H2SO4
(A) I and II (B) I, II, III (C) III only (D) I and III

Q.16 By which reaction. best yield of H2 gas forms :

A B C
Li + Ca + Cu +
H2O H2O H2O
(A) By C only (B) ByA, B only (C) By A, B, C only (D) None of these
Q.17 H2 gas can not be prepared by :

(A) Be + NaOH (B) Na + NaOH (C) Mg + NaOH (D) By (B & C) method
Q.18 H2 gas is liberated at cathode and anode both by electrolysis of the following aq. solution except in :
(A) NaH (B) HCOONa (C) NaCl (D) LiH
Q.19 Under what conditions of termperature and pressure, the formation of molecular hydrogen from atomic
hydrogen will be favoured most :
(A) High temperature and high pressure (B) Low temperature and low pressure
(C) High temperature and low pressure (D) Low temperature and high pressure
Q.20 Which set of properties has same value for D2 & H2

(I) Bond length (II) Bond energy (III) Boiling point
(A) Only I (B) Only I & II (C) Only II & III (D) Only II
Water
Q.21 When bismuth chloride is poured into a large volume of water the white precipitate produced is
(A) Bi(OH)3 (B) Bi2O3 (C) BiOCl (D) Bi2OCl3
Q.22 Select correct order of boiling point

(A) H2O > D2O (B) H2 > T2 > D2
(C) H2O2 > H2O (D) (CH3)2O > H2O
Q.23 Which of the following carbide gives methane gas on reaction with water?
(A) Be2C (B) CaC2 (C) Li2C2 (D) Mg2C3
Q.24 Gas that can not be collected over water is

(A) N2 (B) O2 (C) SO2 (D) PH3

Q.25 A + H2O B + HCl

B + H2O  C + HCl
Compound (A), (B) and (C) will be respectively.
(A) PCl5, POCl3, H3PO3 (B) PCl5, POCl3, H3PO4
(C) SOCl2, POCl3, H3PO3 (D) PCl3, POCl3, H3PO4
Q.26 When borax is dissolved in water

(A) Only B(OH)3 is formed (B) Only B(OH)4– is formed
(C) Both B(OH)3 and B2O3 are formed (D) Both B(OH)3 and [B(OH)4]– are formed
Q.27 Select correct statement about hydrolysis of BCl3 and NCl3

(A) NCl3 is hydrolysed and gives HOCl but BCl3 is not hydrolysed.
(B) Both NCl3 and BCl3 on hydrolysis gives HCl
(C) NCl3 on hydrolysis gives HOCl but BCl3 gives HCl.
(D) Both NCl3 and BCl3 on hydrolysis gives HOCl.
Q.28 Which of the following acid is not formed during the step wise hydrolysis of P4O10?
(A) Tetrameta phosphoric acid (B) Hypophosphoric acid
(C) Pyrophosphoric acid (D) Tetra polyphosphoric acid
Q.29 Anhydrous AlCl3 is covalent however when it is dissolved in water hydrated ionic species are formed.
This transformation is owing to :
(A) The trivalent state ofAl. (B) The large hydration energy of Al3+
(C) The low hydration energy of Al3+ (D) The Polar nature of water
Q.30 In which of the following cases hydrolysis takes place through SN2 and SN1 mechanism respectively.
(A) P4O10, SiCl4 (B) NCl3, NF3 (C) SiCl4, SiF4 (D) SF4, TeF6
Q.31 Which of the following metal carbides is a methanide carbide?

(A) CaC2 (B) Mg2C3 (C) Al4C3 (D) BaC2
Q.32 Which of the following carbides yields carbon containing compound having sp hybridisation on hydrolysis.
(A) Be2C (B) Al4C3 (C) Mg2C3 (D) None of these
Q.33 What is the hydrolysis product of hypo phosphoric acid.

(A) H2PO3 ,H4P2O7 (B) H3PO4 (C) H3PO3 (D) H3PO3 , H3PO4

Q.34 In the hydrolysis of ICl, the products are -

(A) HI + HCl (B) HI + HOCl (C) HCl + HOI (D) HOCl + HOI
Q.35 Which of the following compounds are the common product/s obtained in the hydrolysis of XeF6 and
XeF4.
(A) XeO2F2 (B) HF (C) XeO3 (D) Both (B) & (C)
Q.36 Select the compound in which HCl is NOT the product of Hydrolysis
(A) NCl3 (B) PCl3 (C) AsCl3 (D) BiCl3
Q.37 Nitrogen dioxide is dissolved in water to produce

(A) HNO3 and HNO2 (B) only HNO3
(C) only HNO2 (D) HNO2 and N2
Q.38 One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water gives
(A) one mole of phosphine (B) two moles of phosphoric acid
(C) two moles of phosphine (D) one mole of phosphorus penta-oxide
Q.39 When NF3 undergoes in hydrolysis at room temperature then product will be-
(A) HNO2 (B) N2O3 (C) NO + NO2 (D) None of these
Q.40 Which of the following molecule does not produce HCl as one of the hydrolysed product?
(A) NCl3 (B) PCl3 (C) AsCl3 (D) SbCl3
Q.41 Which of the following combination does not liberate NH3 gas.
(A) Heating of NH4ClO4 (B) Heating of NH4Cl
(C) (NH4)2CO3 +NaOH (D) Li3N + H2O
Q.42 In which of following case the hybridisation of transition state in the hydrolysis reaction is sp3d.
(A) SF4 (B) SiF4 (C) BF3 (D) BeCl2
Q.43 Which of the following is final hydrolysed product of P4O6.

(A) H3PO4 (B) H3PO3 (C) H4P2O7 (D) None of these
Q.44 Hydrolysis of which of the following compound liberates acidic gas:

(A) Li2NH (B) Al2S3 (C) Al4C3 (D) CaNCN

Q.45 Which halogen oxidizes water at room temperature but does not undergo disproportionation into it?
(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) I2
Q.46 Which of the following compound liberates acidic gas during its hydrolysis.
(A) Ca3P2 (B)AlN (C) Al2S3 (D) CaH2
Q.47 One of the hydrolysed product of the following compound does not react with silica of glass vessel
(A) BF3 (B) ClF5 (C) XeF2 (D) SF4
Q.48 Which of the following Xenon compound does not produce explosive XeO3 on its complete hydrolysis:
(A) XeO2F2 (B) XeF2 (C) XeF4 (D) XeF6
Q.49 In following reaction 'X' is


X  Y H
2O
X
(A) H3PO3 (B) H3PO4 (C) HClO2 (D) HClO3
Q.50 Which of the following hydrolysis product is not common in hydrolysis of XeF2 and XeF4 respectively?
(A) XeO3 (B) HF (C) Xe (D) O2
Q.51 CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give

(A) Cr2O72– (B) CrO42– (C) Cr(OH)3 (D) Cr(OH)2
Q.52 Density of H2O is maximum at :

(A) 0°C (B) 100°C (C) –273°C (D) 4°C
Q.53 Which is true statement about H2O:

(A) hardness can be removed by passing through ion exchenge resin
(B) its presence can be detected by anhydrous CuSO4
(C) it is amphoprotic
(D) all are correct
Q.54 Which is true statement about D2O and H2O :

(A) D2O has lower dielectric constant than H2O
(B) NaCl is more soluble in D2O than in H2O
(C) both are correct
(D) none is correct

Q.55 The reactions of heavywater are slow. The reason is

(A) Heavy water is associated (B) Heavy water is dissociated
(C) Heavy water is of higher mass (D) Heavy water is of lower mass
Q.56 4D2O + 3Fe 

Re d hot
 FeO + gas. The gas produced in the above reaction is :
(A) O2 (B) H2 (C) D2 (D) None
Q.57 Hard water when passed through ion exchange resin containing RCOOH group, becomes free from
(A) Cl– (B) SO4–2 (C) H3O+ (D) Ca+2
Q.58 When zeolite is treated with hard water the sodium ion are exchange with –
(A) H+ (B) Ca+2 (C) OH (D) SO42–
Q.59 Permutit is a technical name given to :

(A) Aluminates of Ca and Na (B) Hydrated silicates of Al and Na
(C) Silicates of Ca and Na (D) Silicates of Ca and Mg
Q.60 Permanent hardness in water due to presence of :

(A) Ca+, Mg+ (B) CaCl2, MgCl2 (C) CaCO3, MgCO3 (D)All
Q.61 Temporary unstable hardness of water due to presence of :

(A) CaCl2, MgSO4 (B) Ca+2, Mg+2
(C) K, CaCO3 (D) Ca(HCO3)2, Mg(HCO3)2
Hydrogen Peroxide (H2O2)
Q.62 Acidified chromic acid + H2O2 Org

  X + Y , X and Y are
. solvent
(blue colour)
(A) CrO5 and H2O (B) Cr2O3 and H2O (C) CrO2 and H2O (D) CrO and H2O
(x) (y)
Q.63 MnO4– Mn2+ Mn4+
(z)
MnO2
For above reaction x, y, z are respectively

(A) H2O2 / H+ , H2O2 / OH– , H2O2 / OH– (B) H2O2 / OH– , H2O2 / OH– , H2O2 / H+
(C) H2O2 / OH– , H2O2 / H+ , H2O2 / OH– (D) H2O2 / H+, H2O2 / H+ , H2O2 / OH–

Q.64 H2O2 can be obtained when following reacts with H2SO4 except with :
(A) PbO2 (B) BaO2 (C) Na2O2 (D) KO2
Q.65 A mixture of hydrazine and H2O2 is :

(A) antiseptic (B) rocket fuel
(C) fire extinguisher (D) insecticide
Q.66 In the reaction 2H2O2 2H2O + O2 oxidation state of oxygen changes as :

(A) Only – 1 to –2 (B) Only – 1 to zero (C) Both of the above (D) –1 to –3
Q.67 Hydrogen peroxides cannot be concentrated easily because

(A) It is highlyvolatile in nature (B) It is not dissolve in H2O
(C) It decompose at its boiling point (D) It has a very high b.p.
Q.68 An aqueous solution of H2O2

(A)Alkaline (B) Neutral (C) Strongly acidic (D) weekly acidic
Q.69 Bleaching action of H2O2 is due to its :

(A) Oxidising nature (B) Reducing nature (C) Acidic nature (D) Thermal instability
Q.70 Correct order of BP is :-

(A) H2 > H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2 (B) H2O2 > H2 > D2O > H2O > D2
(C) H2O2 > D2O > H2O > D2 > H2 (D) H2O2 > D2O > H2O > H2 > D2
s-BLOCK
Alkali
Q.71 Na and Li are placed in dry air, we get
(A) NaOH, Na2O, Li2O (B) Na2O, Li2O
(C)Na2O, Li2O, Li3N, NH3 (D) Na2O, Li3N, Li2O
Q.72 Which of the following alkali metal chloride exist in hydrated form.
(A) LiCl (B) CsCl (C) NaCl (D)KCl
Q.73 Which one of the following electrolyte is used in Down's process used for extracting sodium metal?
(A) NaCl (B) NaCl + CaCl2+ KF
(C) NaOH + KCl + KF (D) NaCl + NaOH

Q.74 Which one of the following reaction is not associated with the Solvay's process for manufacturing of
sodium carbonate?
(A) NH3 + H2O + CO2  NH4HCO3
(B) 2NaOH + CO2  Na2CO3 + H2O

(C) 2NaHCO3  Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(D) NaCl + NH4HCO3  NaHCO3 + NH4Cl
Q.75 Which of the following statement about LiCl and NaCl is wrong?
(A) LiCl has lower melting point than NaCl.
(B) LiCl is more soluble in organic solvents than NaCl
(C) LiCl form hydrate LiCl.2H2O but NaCl does not
(D) Fused LiCl would be more conducting than fused NaCl.
Q.76 The least soluble compounds among fluorides and iodides of alkali metals are respectively.
(A) LiF and CsI (B) CsF and LiI (C) LiF and LiI (D) CsF and CsI
Q.77 On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid ammonia, which of following does not occur:
(A) Blue coloured Solution is obtained
(B) Na+ ions are formed in solution
(C) Liquid ammonia becomes good conductor of electricity
(D) The liquid ammonia remains diamagnetic
Q.78 In synthesis of sodium carbonate by Solvay's process, the recovery of ammonia is done by treating
NH4Cl with Ca(OH)2. The by-product obtained in this process is
(A) CaCl2 (B) NaCl (C) NaOH (D) NaHCO3
Q.79 Which among the following is maximum thermal stable compound ?

(A) LiH (B) NaH (C) KH (D) CsH
Q.80 Which one of the following statement is true for all the alkali metals?
(A) Their nitrates decompose on heating to give NO2 and O2 gas
(B) Their carbonates decompose on heating to give CO2 and normal oxide
(C) Oxide (M2O) & peroxide (M2O2) of alkali metals are diamagnetic
(D)All alkali metals bicarbonates exist in solid state

Q.81 For reaction : NH3(liq) + Na warm

 P + Q
Incorrect statement is :
(A) Hydrolysis of 'P' produces NH3 gas.
(B) Gas 'Q' reacts with heated alkali metals.
(C) Anionic part of 'P' is weaker base than NH3.
(D) Gas Q is also produced, when Li metal is heated with NH3 gas.
Q.82 Incorrect statement for s-block metal solution in liquid NH3.

(A) Highly pure dilute solution of Na and Cs has same colour.
(B) Solution of Be and Mg in liquid NH3 is paramagnetic.
(C) On adding impurity of transition metal cation H2 gas is released.
(D) Solution of alkali metal in liquid NH3 is powerful and selective reducing agents.
Q.83 Which group elements exhibit regular increment of melting point as atomic number decreases
(A) alkali metals (B) alkaline earth metals
(C) boron family (D) carbon family
Q.84 In which of the following combination product is paramagnetic species.

(A) Na(s) + NH3 (l) (B) Hot Na(s) + NH3 (g)
(C) Zn + excess NaOH (aq.) (D) AlCl3 (aq.) + excess NaOH
Q.85 Correct order of monoxide formation tendency among alkali metal is

(A) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs (B) Li < Na <K < Rb < Cs
(C) Li > Na > K < Rb < Cs (D) None
Q.86 Which of the following statement about the carbonates of alkali metals is true :
(A) Except Li2CO3 all alkali metal carbonate are insoluble in water.
(B) Thermal stability decreases as we move down in a group.
(C) The solubility in water increases down the group.
(D) Na2CO3 cant be prepared by solvey process.
Q.87 Which salt is NOT deliquescent

(A) NaCl (B) CaCl2 (C) MgCl2 (D) None of these

Q.88 Which of following statement is not true about solution of alkali metal in liquid NH3 ?
(A) Blue colour is due to ammoniated electrons.
(B) Blue colour changes to bronze on dilution due to formation of metal ion clusters.
(C) Paramagnetic nature of solution decreases due to electron-electron pairing with increase in
concentration of alkali metal.
(D) On warming blue colour becomes colourless due to formation of metal amide and H2 gas.
Q.89 During hydration of alkali metal cations the signs of G , H and S respectively are:
(A) –ve, –ve, –ve (B) –ve, –ve, +ve (C) +ve, +ve, +ve (D) –ve, +ve, –ve
Q.90 Sodium Metal + NH3(liq) warm

 P + Q (g)
Incorrect statement for P & Q is
(A) Q is hydrogen gas
(B) P is Na2NH
(C) Hydrolysis of P produces NH3 gas
(D) Anionic part of P acts as lewis base
Q.91 X + H2O  NaOH;

C
 Y 
  NaOH + O2
H O
X + O2 400 2
25C
Which of the following statement is false regarding Y.

(A) Y turns green chromium salt solution to yellow
(B) Y can be used to purify the air in submarines.
(C) Y can be used as an reducing agent
(D) Y is also named as oxone
Q.92 Which of the following is not common property of all alkali metals
(A) Exhibit characteristic flame colour (B) Basic nature of oxide
(C) Reaction with liquid NH3 (D) Formation of hydrated chloride
Q.93 Which of the following bicarbonates does not exist in solid state?
(A) NaHCO3 (B) KHCO3 (C) RbHCO3 (D) Ca(HCO3)2
Q.94 The principle products obtained on heating iodine with concentrated caustic soda solution:
(A) NaIO3 + NaI (B) NaIO + NaIO3 (C) NaIO + NaI (D) NaIO4 + NaI

Q.95 The correct statement is

(A) Na2CO3. 10H2O is known as soda ash (B) Na2CO3. H2O is known as soda ash
(C) Na2CO3 is known as soda ash (D) NaHCO3 is known as soda ash
Q.96 The alkali metals which form normal oxide, peroxide as well as super oxides are
(A) Na, Li (B) K, Li (C) Li, Cs (D) K, Rb
Q.97 The pair of compounds, which cannot exist together in a solution is

(A) NaHCO3 and NaOH (B) Na2CO3 and NaOH
(C) NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 (D) NaHCO3 and H2O
Q.98 Solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is a strong reducing agent due to presence of
(A) solvated sodium ions (B) solvated hydrogen ions
(C) sodium atoms or sodium hydroxide (D) solvated electrons
Q.99 The order of solubilityof lithium halides in non-polar solvents follows the order
(A) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF (B) LiF > LiI > LiBr > LiCl
(C) LiCl > LiF > LiI > LiBr (D) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI
Q.100 Fire extinguishers contain

(A) conc. H2SO4 solution (B) H2SO4 and NaHCO3 solutions
(C) NaHCO3 solution (D) CaCO3 solution
Q.101 Na + Al2O3 High temperature  O

     2  X 2  Y; compound Y is :
CO in water
(A) NaAlO2 (B) NaHCO3 (C) Na2CO3 (D) Na2O2
Q.102 When K2O is added to water, the solution becomes basic in nature because it contains a significant
concentration of
(A) K+ (B) O2– (C) OH– (D) O22–
Q.103 The non-metal which does not react with water but reacts with alkali
(A) Boron (B) Bromine (C) P4 (D) Fluorine
Q.104 An aqueous solution of an halogen salt of potassium reacts with same halogen X2 to give a brown
coloured solution, in which halogen exists as X3– ion, then halogen X is
(A) chlorine (B) bromine (C) iodine (D) fluorine

Q.105 The aqueous solutions of lithium salts are poor conductor of electricity rather than other alkali metals
because of
(A) high ionisation energy.
(B) high electronegativity.
(C) lower ability of Li+ ions to polarize water molecules.
(D) higher degree of hydration of Li+ ions.
Q.106 Sodium metal is highly reactive and cannot be stored under

(A) toluene (B) kerosene oil (C) alcohol (D) benzene
Q.107 The compound formed on heating sodium metal in a current of dry ammonia gas, is
(A) sodium imide (B) sodium nitrite (C) sodium amide (D) sodium azide
Q.108 Crown ethers and cryptands form

(A) complexes with alkali metals
(B) salts of alkali metals
(C) hydroxides of alkali metals used for inorganic quantitative analysis
(D) organic salts of alkali metals
Q.109 Which of the following is not a property of lithium?

(A) Hydrated lithium ion is the largest among alkali metals
(B) The melting and boiling points of lithium are comparatively higher than other alkali metals
(C) Lithium is softer than that of other alkali metals
(D) The ionisation potential and electronegativity of lithium are higher than those of other alkali metals
Q.110 The commercial method of preparation of potassium by reduction of molten KCl with metallic sodium at
850°C is based on the fact that
(A) potassium is solid and sodium distills off at 850°C
(B) potassium being more volatile and distills off thus shifting the reaction forward
(C) sodium is more reactive than potassium at 850 ºC
(D) sodium has less affinity to chloride ions in the presence of potassium ion
Q.111 Which of the following groups of elements have chemical properties that are most similar
(A) Na, K, Ca (B) Mg, Sr, Ba (C) Be, Al, Ca (D) Be, Ra, Cs
Q.112 Which of the alkali metal is having least melting point?

(A) Na (B) K (C) Rb (D)Cs

Q.113 Sodium bicarbonate is less soluble in water than potassium bicarbonate, it is due to
(A) low molecular weight of NaHCO3 as compared to KHCO3
(B) Due to hydrogen bonding, sodium bicarbonate contains a dimeric anionic structure while in potassium
bicarbonate, anions form an infinite chain
(C) Due to hydrogen bonding, potassium bicarbonate contains a dimeric anionic structure while in sodium
bicarbonate, anions form an infinite chain.
(D) KHCO3 is thermally less stable than NaHCO3.
Q.114 The correct representation of 'X' and 'Y' will be.

M + (x + y)NH3  X + Y
(M = Na, K)
(A) X = [M (NH2)x]+, Y = [e(NH2)y]–
(B) X = [M2(NH3)x]+, Y = [e(NH3)y]–
(C) X = [Mx (NH3)]+, T =[ey(NH3)]–
(D) X = [M(NH3)x]+, Y = [e (NH3)y]–
Q.115 Correct order of density is –

(A) Li > Na (B) K > Na (C) Mg > Ca (D) Cs < Rb
Q.116 Weak reductant among alkali metal is –

Q.117 The metal used in photoelectric cell is –

(A) Na (B) K (C) Mg (D) Ca
Q.118 Lithium chloride is highlysoluble in –

(A) C6H6 (B) H2O (C) D2O (D)All
Q.119 Alkali metals salts are –

(A) Diamagnetic and coloured (B) Diamagnetic and colourless
(C) Paramagnetic and coloured (D) Paramagnetic and colourless
Q.120 Which of the following halides has the highest melting point –
(A) NaCl (B) KCl (C) NaBr (D) NaF
Q.121 On heating sodium metal in the current of dry ammonia leads to the formation of which gas–
(A) NaNH2 (B) NaN3 (C) NH3 (D) H2

Q.122 Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium because it –
(A) Has higher atomic weight (B) Is more electronegative
(C) Is more electropositve (D) Is a metal
Q.123 Dissolving metallic zinc in NaOH produces

(A) Zn(OH)2 (B) Na2ZnO2 (C) ZnO (D) Zn(OH)2 + Na2ZnO2
Q.124 NaHCO3 can be used to –

(A) Decrease acidity of stomach (B) Prepare CO2 used as fire extinguisher
(C) Produce sponge in bread (D)All of these
Q.125 In K, Rb and Cs, the decreasing order of reducing power in gaseous state is:-
(A) K > Cs > Rb (B) Cs > Rb > K (C) K < Cs < Rb (D) Rb > Cs > K
Q.126 On addition of metal ions, colour of liquid NH3 solutions converts into bronze, the reason is :-
(A)Ammoniated electrones (B) Metal amide formation
(C) Liberation of NH3 gas (D) Cluster formation of metal ions
Q.127 Nitrate of an element of alkali metal group, decomposes on heating, gives brown colour gas. Nitrate and
brown colour gas are respectively:-
(A) NaNO3 and NO (B) LiNO3 and NO2 (C) KNO3 and NH3 (D) NaNO3 and NO2
Q.128 If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution of Zn+2 ions, a white precipitate appears and on adding excess
NaOH, the precipitate dissolves. In this solution zinc exists in the
(A) Cationic part (B)Anionic part
(C) Both in cationic and anionic part (D) There is no zinc left in the solution
Q.129 Potassium is kept :-

(A) Under cold water (B) InAmmonia (C) In Alcohol (D) In Kerosene

Alkaline Earth Metals

Q.130 Ametal X on heating in nitrogen gas givesY.Yon treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas which when
passed through CuSO4 solution gives a blue colour Y is:
(A) Mg(NO3)2 (B) Mg3N2 (C) NH3 (D) MgO
Q.131 Anhydrous MgCl2 can be prepared by :

(A) heating MgCl2.6H2O(s)
(B) heating MgCl2.6H2O(s) in dry HCl atmosphere at 175°C.
(C) heating KCl.MgCl2.6H2O
(D) All of these.
Q.132 A metal is brunt in air and the ash on moistening smells of ammonia. The metal is
(A) Na (B) Fe (C) Mg (D)Al
Q.133 All decomposition product(s) of which salt can react with NaOH solution
(A) BeCO3 (B) MgCO3 (C) CaCO3 (D) BaCO3
Q.134 Which of the following on heating produces CO2 as the only gaseous product?
(A) BeC2O4 (B) (CH3COO)2Ca (C) HCOONa (D) Ag2C2O4
Q.135 Which of the following metal on burning in moist air does not give smell of ammonia
(A) Mg (B) Ca (C) K (D) Li
Q.136 The 'milk of magnesia' used as an antacid is chemically

(A) Mg(OH)2 (B) MgO (C) MgCl2 (D) MgO + MgCl2
Q.137 EDTAis used in the estimation of

(A) Mg2+ ions (B) Ca2+ ions
(C) both Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions (D) Mg2+ ions but not Ca2+ ions
Q.138 The complex formation tendency of alkaline earth metals decreases down the group because
(A) atomic size increases
(B) availability of empty d and f-orbitals increases
(C) positive charge to volume ratio of cation increases
(D) all the above
Q.139 The alkaline earth metals, which do not impart any colour to Bunsen flame are
(A) Be and Mg (B) Mg and Ca (C) Be and Ca (D) Be and Ba
 , 205C
Q.140 Y   ,120C
 CaSO4·2H2O    X, X and Y are respectively..
(A) plaster of paris, dead burnt plaster (B) dead burnt plaster, plaster of paris
(C) CaO and plaster of paris (D) plaster of paris, mixture of gases
Q.141 A metal M forms water soluble sulphate, and water insoluble hydroxide M(OH)2, Its oxide MO is
amphoteric, hard and has high melting point. The alkaline earth metal M must be
(A) Mg (B) Be (C) Ca (D) Sr
Q.142 (Milky cloud) C 

2 A + Na2CO3 
CO
 B + C
The chemical formulae of Aand B are
(A) NaOH and Ca(OH)2 (B) Ca(OH)2 and NaOH
(C) NaOH and CaO (D) Ca(OH)2 and CaCO3
Q.143 Which of the following metal is used in flash bulbs?

(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Ba
Q.144 Which of the property increases to bottom in a group?

(A) Solubility and thermal stabilityof alkaline earth metal sulphates.
(B) Solubility and covalent character of alkali metal fluoride
(C) Thermal stability and ionic character of alkali metal carbonates
(D) Solubility and ionic character of alkaline earth metal carbonates.
Q.145 If X and Y are the second ionisation potentials of alkali and alkaline earth metals of same period, then
(A) X > Y (B) X < Y (C) X = Y (D) X << Y
Q.146 Suspension of slaked lime in water is known as

(A) lime water (B) quick lime
(C) milk of lime (D) aqueous solution of slaked lime
Q.147 White heavyprecipitates are formed when BaCl2 is added to a clear solution of compoundA. Precipitates
are insoluble in dilute HCl. Then, the compound Ais
(A) a bicarbonate (B) a carbonate (C) a sulphate (D) a chloride
Q.148 X + C + Cl2     Y + CO ;

High temperature
of about 1000 K Y + 2H2O  Z + 2HCl
Compound 'Y' is found in polymeric chain structure, then 'Y' must be

(A) BeO (B) BeCl2 (C) BeH2 (D)AlCl3
Q.149 BeCl2 + LiAlH4 

 X + LiCl +AlCl3
(A) X is LiH (B) X is BeH2 (C) X is BeCl2·2H2O (D) None
Q.150 A pair of substances which give all same products on reaction with water is :
(A) Mg and MgO (B) Sr and SrO (C) Ca and CaH2 (D) Be and BeO
Q.151 The incorrect statement(s) is/are

(A) Mg2+ does not form complexes.
(B) Be2+ can form complexes due to a very small atomic size.
(C) the first ionisation potential of Be is higher than that of Mg.
(D) Mg forms an alkaline hydroxide while Be forms amphoteric oxides.
Q.152 MgBr2 and MgI2 are soluble in acetone because of

(A) Their ionic nature (B) Their coordinate nature
(C) Their metallic nature (D) Their covalent nature
Q.153 Which of the following is not the characteristic of Barium? .

(A) It emits electrons on exposure to light
(B) It is a silvery white metal
(C) It forms Ba(NO)2 which is used in preparation of green fire
(D) Its ionization potential is lower than radium.
Q.154 Which is correct statement:
(1) CaSO4 is known dead burnt plaster
(2) Gypsum contains more percentage of calcium than plaster of paris
(3) Plaster of paris is obtained by heating Gypsum
(4) Gypsum is obtained by hydration of plaster of paris
Correct code is :
(A) 1,2,3,4 (B) 1,3,4 (C) Only 2 (D) 2, 4
Q.155 The metal X is prepared by electrolysis of fused chloride. It reacts with hydrogen to form a colourless
solid from which hydrogen is released on treatment with water. The metal is
(A)Al (B) Ca (C) Cu (D) Zn
Q.156 Which is Incorrect statement:

(A) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are deliquiscent in nature.
(B) Both Li3N and Mg3N2 on hydrolysis give ammonia gas.
(C) Both LiHCO3 and Mg(H CO3)2 do not exist in solid state
(D) Both Li2CO3 and MgCO3 are thermally stable
Q.157 The element which has least tendency to form nitride is

(A) Li (B) Mg (C) Al (D) K
Q.158 Slaked lime and quick lime are respectively

(A) Ca(OH)2(s), CaO(s)
(B) Ca(OH)2(s), aqueous suspension of Ca(OH)2
(C) Aqueous suspension of Ca(OH)2 , aqueous solution of Ca(OH)2
(D) CaO(s), aqueous suspension of Ca(OH)2
Q.159 Which of the following categories of salts of alkali and alkaline earth metals show same solubility trend
in water.
(i) Carbonates (ii) Nitrates (iii) Hydroxides (iv) Chlorides
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) Only (ii)
Q.160 Which of them is pair of most insoluble white compound and most insoluble coloured compound among
BaSO4, SrSO4, BaCrO4, SrCrO4
(A) BaSO4,BaCrO4 (B) BaSO4,SrCrO4 (C) SrSO4, BaCrO4 (D) SrSO4, SrCrO4
Q.161 Incorrect statement(s) for reaction :

Ca(OH)2 + Cl2(g) 40 C
 Products.
is / are:
(A) Chlorine undergoes disproportionation. (B) Bleaching powder is obtained as product.
(C) Ca(OH)2 is called milk of lime. (D) Oxidation state of oxygen changes.
Q.162 Highly pure dilute ammonia solution of which of the following metal(s) is paramagnetic and blue colour.
(A) Be (B) Ca (C) Mg (D)All
Q.163 Which of the following alkaline earth metal chloride does not contain water of crystallization in solid
state :
(A) BeCl2 (B) CaCl2 (C) SrCl2 (D) BaCl2
Q.164 Magnesium metal burns in air to give :

(A) MgO (B) Mg3N2 (C)MgCO3 (D) MgO and Mg3N2both

Q.165 A  B+C
H2O
D +C A + H2O
IdentifyAfor above reaction.

(A) CaO (B)Ca(OH)2 (C) CaCO3 (D)Ca(HCO3)2
Q.166 Choose incorrect statement

(A) BeCO3 is kept in atmosphere of CO2 since it is least thermally stable.
(B) Be dissolves in alkali forming [Be(OH)4]2–.
(C) BeF2 forms complex ion with NaF in which Be goes with cation.
(D) BeF2 forms complex ion with NaF in which Be goes with anion.
Q.167 By adding gypsum to cement:

(A) Setting time of cement becomes less (B) Setting time of cement increases
(C) Colour of cement becomes light (D) Shining surface is obtained
Q.168 Which statement is correct regarding the diagonal relationship between Be and Al?
(I) Both carbides on hydrolysis produces CH4 gas
(II) Both Be and Al oxides are amphoteric in nature.
(III) In vapour state chlorides of both exist as chloro-bridge dimer having (3c – 4e) bonds
(IV) Both Be andAl nitrides on hydrolysis give NH3 gas.
(A) I, II are correct (B) I, II and IV are correct
(C) I, II, III, IV are correct (D) Only III is correct
Q.169 Which is having highest m.p. –

(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Sr
Q.170 Which of the following element have maximum tendency to form complex compound –
(A) Be (B) Ba (C) Ca (D) Mg
Q.171 Which one of the following is most soluble in ether

(A) BeCl2 (B) CaCl2 (C) SrCl2 (D) None of these
Q.172 The normal dehydrating agent, which used in a laboratories:-

(A) MgCO3 (B) CaF2 (C) MgF2 (D) CaCl2

Q.173 Which statement will be true for solution, when Ba is dissolved in ammonia:-
(A) Solution becomes blue (B) Solution becomes good conductor
(C) Solution remains colourless (D) Both (A) and (B) are correct
Q.174 Whenchlorine is passedslowover dryslakedlime Ca(OH)2 atroomtemperature, the product not obtained is
(A) CaCl2 (B) CaOCl2 (C) Ca(ClO2)2 (D) Ca(OCl)2
Q.175 Identify the correct statement -

(A) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of Ca than plaster of paris
(B) Gypsum is obtained by heating plaster of paris
(C) Plaster of paris can be obtained by hydration of gypsum
(D) Plaster of paris is obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum
Q.176 Alkali metals forms following compound

(A) All form amide, MNH2 (B)All form ionic salt like hydride MH
(C) All form superoxide like KO2 (D)All form nitrides
Q.177 Na2[Be(OH)4] is formed when :

(A) BeO reacts with NaOH solution (B) Be reacts with NaOH solution
(C) both correct (D) none is correct
Q.178 Which of the following hydride is covalent and polymeric :-

(A) CaH2 (B) BeH2 (C) NaH (D) BaH2

EXERCISE-2

Q.1 Correct order(s) is/are
(A) Melting point: H2O < D2O (B) Vapour pressure at 25°C: H2O > D2O
(C) Dielectric constant: H2O < D2O (D) Thermal stability: H2O < D2O
Q.2 Which of the following species is/are not liberating oxygen gas on reaction with water at 25°C.
(A) Na2O2 (B) Cl2 (C) P4 (D) KO2
Q.3 Select the correct order of property mentioned is brackets :

(A) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 (Solubility)
(B) BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 (Thermal stability)
(C) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs (Reducing property in aquous medium)
(D) LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH (Basic strength)
Q.4 Correct statement( s) about sodium carbonate is / are :

(A) Crystalline Na2CO3·10H2O is called washing soda
(B) Crystalline Na2CO3·H2O is called soda ash
(C) NaOH can be prepared by its reaction with milk of lime
(D) It is used in water softening and laundering
Q.5 Which products are obtained on electrolysis of Brine ?

(A) H2 (B) Cl2 (C) NaOH (D) O2
Q.6 Correct statement(s) for solution of potassium in liquid ammonia is/are :

(A) dilute solution shows blue colour in presence of impurity
(B) exhibits paramagnetic character at all concentration
(C) produces metal amide on warming
(D) Blue colour fades on adding transion metal cation
Q.7 Which of the following are common products of Hydrolysis of Na2O2 and KO2 at 0°C ?
(A) OH– (aq) (B) H2O2 (C) O2 (D)All
Q.8 Select correct set of species which can't react with water but react with NaOH
(A) NO2 (B) P4 (C) Al (D) I2

Q.9 Which of the following compounds is/are consumed in solvay process of preperation of NaHCO3?
(A) NH3 (B) H2O (C) CO2 (D) NaCl
Q.10 The compounds formed upon cumbustion of Na-metal in excess dry air is/are
(A) Na2O2 (B) Na2O (C) NaO2 (D) NaOH
Q.11 The golden yellow colour associated with NaCl to Bunsen flame can be explained on the basis of
(A) low ionisation potential of sodium ion (B) emission spectrum
(C) photosensitivityof sodium. (D) sublimation of metallic sodium of yellow vapours
Q.12 The correct statement is/are :

(A) BeCl2 is a covalent compound
(B) Be2Cl4 is an electron deficient molecule
(C) Co-ordination no. of Be in BeCl2(s) is equal to four
(D) the hybrid state of Be in BeCl2(s) is sp2
Q.13 KO2 finds use in oxygen cylinders used for space and submarines. The fact(s) related to such use of
KO2 is/are -
(A) it produces O2 (B) it produces O3
(C) it absorbs CO2 (D) it absorbs both CO and CO2
Q.14 Hydrogen gas is not evolved by :

(A) Mg + NH3(liq.) (B) B2H6 + H2O (C) NaNH2 + H2O (D) Be + H2O
Q.15 Which of the following will not give any colour to flame?
(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Na (D) Li
Q.16 Which of the following compounds are paramagnetic in nature?

(A) KO2 (B) K2O2 (C) Na2O2 (D) RbO2
Q.17 H2O2 can act as reductant with :

(A)Acidified KMnO4 (B) Ag2O (C) H2S gas (D) O3
Q.18 The hydration energy of Mg2+ is

(A) more than that of Ca2+ ion (B) more than that of Na+ ion
(C) more than that of Al3+ ion (D) more than that of Be2+ ion

Q.19 Highlypure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia

(A) shows blue colouration due to solvated electrons.
(B) shows electrical conductivity due to both solvated electrons as well as Solvated sodium ions.
(C) shows red colouration due to solvated electrons but a bad conductor of electricity.
(D) produces hydrogen gas.
Q.20 Which of the following combination(s) of reactants produce hydrogen gas.

(A) B2H6 + H2O (B) CO(g) + H2O (g) (C) Fe + NaOH (D) Sn + NaOH
Q.21 The compound(s) which have –O–O– bond(s) is/are

(A) BaO2 (B) Na2O2 (C) CrO5 (D) Fe2O3
Q.22 Which of the following statement(s) for H2O2, is/are correct ?

(A) In pure state H2O2 is very pale blue or almost colourless liquid
(B) It is concentrated by distillation under reduced pressure
(C) In solid state dihedral angle of H2O2 molecule is different from its gaseous state
(D) Its boiling point is determined by extrapolation
Q.23 Which of the following substance(s) is/are used in laboratory for drying purposes?
(A) Anhydrous P2O5 (B) CaCl2·6H2O
(C) Anhydrous CaCl2 (D) Silica gel
Q.24 Incorrect statement(s) about use of polyphosphates as water softening agents is/are
(A) They form soluble complexes with anionic species
(B) They precipitate anionic species
(C) They form soluble complexes with cationic species
(D) They precipitate cationic species
Q.25 When Zeolite is treated with hard water, the sodium ions are exchanged with which of the following
ion(s)?
(A) Li+(aq.) (B) Mg2+(aq.) (C) Ca2+(aq.) (D) K+ (aq.)
Q.26 Select correct order(s)

(A) Temperature of maximum density : H2O < D2O
(B) Boiling Point : 1° > 2° > 3° for isomeric amines.
(C) Ionization constant [H+] [OH–] : H2O > D2O
(D) Vapour pressure at R.T. : NH3 < HF < H2O < H2O2

Q.27 Which of the following hydrids are ionic

(A) CaH2 (B) BaH2 (C) SrH2 (D) BeH2
Q.28 Which of the following statement is/are true for H2

(A) It is lighter than air and soluble in water
(B) H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is the highest for a single bond between two atoms of any element
(C) It is used in fuel cells
(D) It can reduce heavy metal oxides into their respective metals
Q.29 Which of the following pair of compound gives different volatile product when heated seperately:
(A) Na2CO3 and CaCO3 (B) NaHCO3, CsHCO3
(C) Na2O2 , BaO2 (D) Na2SO4·10H2O and CuSO4·5H2O
Q.30 Which of the following statements are false?

(A) BeCl2 can exist as linear molecule in the vapour state but it is polymeric in the solid state
(B) Calcium hydride is called hydrolith.
(C) Carbides of both Be and Ca react with water to form acetylene.
(D) Oxides of both Be and Ca are amphoteric.
Q.31 H2O2 can be prepared by

(A)Auto-oxidation of 2-ethylanthraquinol (B) BaO2 + H3PO4
(C) Hydrolysis of peroxodisulphates (D) Hydrolysis of superoxides
Q.32 Which of the following are ionic carbides?

(A) CaC2 (B) Al4C3 (C) Fe3C (D) Be2C
Q.33 The correct statement is -

(A) Be2+ cation has largest hydration enthalpy among the alkaline earth metals.
(B) The second ionisation enthalpies of the alkaline earth metals are smaller than those of the corresponding
alkali metals.
(C) Li is most reducing agent among all the metals.
(D) Be does not impart any colour to the flame.
Q.34 In which of the following combination of reactants H2O2 acts as oxidizing agent
(A) HOCl + H2O2 (B) I2 + H2O2+ OH–(aq)
(C) Fe2+(aq) + H2O2 (D) Mn2+(aq) + H2O2 + NH4OH

Q.35 Which of the following combination of reactants produce Hydrogen gas.

(A) CaH2 + H2O RT
 (B) Na + NH3(liquid) Warm

(C) Be + H2O RT

 (D) Zn + NaOH RT

Q.36 Which of the following reagents are used to remove hardness present in water either temporary or
permanent.
(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) Sodium zeolite (C) Na2CO3 (D) MgCO3
Q.37 Sodium metal reacts with

(A) Phenol (B) Water
(C) HC  CH (D) Wax
Q.38 Na2CO3 is prepared by Solvay process but K2CO3 can not be prepared by the same process because
(A) K2CO3 is highly water soluble (B) KHCO3 is highly water soluble.
(C) KHCO3 is sparingly water soluble. (D) KHCO3 never exists in solid state.
Q.39 Select correct order of given property

(A) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 (Covalent character)
(B) CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4 (Order of solubility)
(C) BeO < MgO < CaO (Basic nature)
(D) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < SrCO3< BaCO3(Order of thermal stability)
Q.40 Which metal(s) gives blue colour when react with liquid ammonia
(A) Na (B) Be (C) Mg (D) Li
Q.41 Which of the following metal(s) does/do not impart characteristic colour to flame:
(A) Li (B) Sr (C) Be (D) Mg
Q.42 Na2SO4 is water soluble but BaSO4 is insoluble because

(A) the hydration energy of Na2SO4 is higher than that of its lattice energy.
(B) the hydration energy of Na2SO4 is less than that of its lattice energy.
(C) the hydration energy of BaSO4 is less than that of its lattice energy.
(D) the hydration energy of BaSO4 is higher than that of its lattice energy.

Q.43 Select the correct statements regarding Na6P6O18 compound:

(A) It is water softening agent.
(B) The name is sodium hexa metaphosphite.
(C) It contain total number of 24 sigma bond.
(D) In this compound P–O–P linkage is in Bent form.
[REASONING TYPE]
Questions given below consist of two statements each printed as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R); while answering these questions you are required to choose anyone of the following
four responses:
(A) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) if (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) if (A) is false and (R) is true
Q.44 Assertion : Beryllium does not impart any characteristic colour to the bunsen flame.
Reason : Due to its veryhigh ionization energy, beryllium requires a large amount of energyfor excitation
of the electrons
Q.45 Assertion : Anhyd. calcium chloride cannot be used to dry alcohol or NH3
Reason : Anhyd. CaCl2 is not a good desiccant.
Q.46 Assertion : Diagonal relationship is shown between Be and Al.

Reason : Polorising power () of Be2+ is almost the same as that of Al3+.
Q.47 Assertion : Beryllium halides dissolve in organic solvents.

Reason : Beryllium halides are ionic in character.
Q.48 Assertion : BeCl2 fumes in moist air.

Reason : BeCl2 reacts with moisture to form HCl gas.
Q.49 Assertion : Calcium carbide on hydrolysis gives methane.

Reason : Calcium carbide contains C22– anion.
Q.50 Assertion : When CO2 is passed through lime water, it first turns milky and then the solution becomes
clear when the passage of CO2 is continued.
Reason : The milkiness is due to the formation of insoluble CaCO3 which then changes to soluble
Ca(HCO3)2 when excess of CO2 is present.
Q.51 Assertion : MgCO3 is soluble in water when a current of CO2 is passed.

Reason : The solubility of MgCO3 is due to the formation of Mg(HCO3)2.
Q.52 Assertion : The carbonate of lithium decomposes easily on heating to form lithium oxide and CO2.
Reason : Lithium being very small in size polarises large carbonate ion leading to the formation of more
stable Li2O and CO2.
Q.53 Assertion : Beryllium carbonate is kept in the atmosphere of carbon dioxide

Reason : Beryllium carbonate is unstable and decomposes to give beryllium oxide and carbon dioxide.
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
 Y excess
 2  Z CO
Ca + O2  W   X H

H 2O CO 2
(limited ) 2O
Q.54 The compound X is

(A) CaO (B) Slaked lime (C) milk of lime (D) lime water
Q.55 The incorrect statement is :

(A) Yis almost insoluble in water (B) Z is soluble in water
(C) Formation of X known as slaking of lime (D) Y is Ca(HCO3)2
1200 K
W + Gas(P)
HCl Q + H2O + Gas(P)
Y
Q.56
H2SO4
R + H2O + Gas(P)
W P Q R
(A) CaO SO 3 CaCl2 Ca(HSO4)2
(B) CaO SO 2 CaCl2 CaSO4
(C) CaO CO 2 CaCl2 CaSO4
(D) Ca(OH)2 CO 2 CaCl2 Ca(HSO4)2
Q.57 The compound 'Y' is

(A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3
(C) CaSO4 (D) Ca(HSO4)2


The s-Block of the periodic table constitutes Group-1 (alkali metals) and Group-2 (alkaline earth metals).
They are so called because their oxides and hydroxides are alkaline in nature.
The alkali metals are silvery white, soft and low melting. They are highly reactive. The compounds of
alkali metals are predominantly ionic. Their oxides and hydroxides are soluble in water forming strong
alkalies.
The chemistryof alkaline earth metals is verymuch like that of the alkali metals. However, some differences
arise because of reduced atomic and ionic sizes and increased cationic charges in case of alkaline earth
metals. Their oxides and hydroxides are less basic than the alkali metal oxides and hydroxides.
Q.58 Select the incorrect order of basic strength of oxides
(A) Li2O > Na2O > K2O (B) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(C) K2O > MgO > BeO (D) BaO > SrO > CaO
Q.59 Select the correct order:

(A) Na3N > Mg3N2 >AlN (Lattice energy)
(B) Na+(g) < Mg2+(g) < Al3+(g) (Ionic radius)
(C) Li+(aq) > Na+(aq) > K+(aq) (Hydrated radius)
(D) F–(aq) > Cl–(aq) > Br–(aq) > I–(aq) (Ionic mobility)
Q.60 Identify the species which has maximum second ionisation energy
(A) Beryllium (B) Boron (C) Magnesium (D)Aluminium

Lithium & Beryllium both are abnormallysmall in their respective groups. Theyshow different properties
with their respective group elements.Atomic size of lithium is almost equal to Mg & polarising power of
Be2+ cation is almost equal to Al3+ cation so they show similar properties which is called diagonal
relationship
Q.61 Be andAl are dissimilar in
(A) nature of their oxide (B) reaction with acids
(C) bonding in their chlorides (D) Maximum co-ordination number of metal cation
Q.62 Which is correct transformation ?
5

(A) LiHCO3(aq)  LiHCO3(s) 
(B) 2LiNO3  Li2O(s) + N2(g) + O2(g)
2

(C) Li2CO3(s)  Li2O(s) + CO2(g) (D) None of these
Q.63 Which is incorrect order of given property :

(A) Li+ > Mg2+ Ionic radius (B) Li > Mg Atomic radius
(C) Be < Al Atomic radius (D) Be2+ <Al3+ Ionic radius


All elements of 1st and 2nd group of periodic table are called s-block metals. These metals are generally
characterized bylow melting point, high electropositive, highly reactive.
Q.64 M + NH3(liq)  Deep blue colour solution.
Which of the following metal does not follow above reaction:
(A) Na (B) Be (C) Ca (D) Cs
Q.65  Y 
X + NaOH solution warm
If gas 'Y' has basic properties, then which of the following substance does not follow above reaction.
(A) P4 (B) NH4Cl (C) PH4I (D) Zn
Q.66 Hydrolysis of which of the following carbide liberate propyne.

(A) Al4C3 (B) Mg2C3 (C) CaC2 (D) Be2C
[MATCHING TYPE]
Q.67 List- I List - II
On exposure to Air Metal
(P) Li(s) (1) Nitride + Oxide
(Q) Na(s) (2) Nitride + Oxide + Peroxide
(R) K(s) (3) Oxide + Peroxide
(S) Mg(powder) (4) Peroxide + Superoxide
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 2 3 4

Q.68 List-I List-II (Metals)


(P) Metal + N2  Metal Nitride (1) Na

(Q) Metal + O2(Excess)  Metal peroxide (2) Li

(R) Metal + H2  Metal hydride (3) Mg

(S) Metal + C  Methanide Carbide (4) Be
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 3 1 4 2
Q.69 List-I (s-block metal) List-II (Stable compound)

(P) Na (1) Nitride
(Q) Li (2) Carbide
(R) K (3) Peroxide
(8) Mg (4) superoxide
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 2 3

Q.70 List-I List-II

Reaction(s) (Characteristics of product(s))
(P) Mg3N2+ H2O R
 ..... + ....
.T. (1) Evolution of basic gas
(Q) Al3+(aq} + excess NaOH soln. R

 ....
.T. (2) Colourless solution
(R) Ca3P2 + H2O R

 .... + ......
.T. (3) Form ppt with (NH4)2C2O4
(S) NaNH2+ H2O R

 .... + .....
.T. (4) White precipitate
Codes:
P Q R S
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.71 Consider the following chemical reaction

Na + O2(excess)  (P)

K + O2(excess}  (Q)
Determine the value of expression (x + 2y) (where x and y are the bond order of oxygen -oxygen linkage
in compound (P) and (Q) respectively).
Q.72 Read the following statements regarding Na6P6O18 compound.

(I) It is used as a water softner.
(II) It is called as calgone.

(III) It's structure has 5,bond ratio.

(IV) All Phosphorous has sp3 hybridisation.
(V) It's IUPAC name is sodium hexa-meta phosphate
How many total number of above statements are correct?
Q.73 Calculate the total no. of Peroxy linkage in the following compounds H2S2O8, CrO5, H2TiO4
Q.74 Find total number of metal which gives hydrogen gas reacting with HCl.
Zn , Na, K, Cu, Ag, Au
Q.75 How many of the following will form a coloured precipitate with Na2CO3 (except white)?
CaCl2, BaCl2, MgCl2, AgNO3, CuSO4, ZnCl2,HgCl2, Pb(CH3COO)2, Hg2(NO3)2.

Q.76 With how many of the following KI will react to liberate iodine?
CaSO4, K2Cr2O7, AgNO3, HNO3, Pb(CH3COO)2, H2O2, KMnO4 and CuSO4.
Q.77 Portland cement contains how many of the following compounds?

MgO, MgCO3, MgCl2, CaO, SiO2, Fe2O3, CaSO4, FeSO4, SO3, Al2O3 and CaCl2.
Q.78 Which of following substance is having higher lattice energy than NaBr.
CaCl2, NaI , CsBr, LiF, MgO, Al2O3, TiO2
Q.79 How many X–O–X linkages are present in the structure of calgon (NaPO3)6
Q.80 Total number of reagents which are used to remove hardness either temporary or permanent.
Ca(OH)2 Sodium zeolite Na 2 CO3 Ba(OH)2
BaCO3 MgCO3 Sr(OH)2

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 D Q.2 B Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 C
Q.6 C Q.7 C Q.8 B Q.9 B Q.10 C
Q.11 B Q.12 A Q.13 C Q.14 B Q.15 A
Q.16 B Q.17 D Q.18 C Q.19 D Q.20 A
Q.21 C Q.22 C Q.23 A Q.24 C Q.25 B
Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 B Q.29 B Q.30 B
Q.31 C Q.32 C Q.33 D Q.34 C Q.35 D
Q.36 A Q.37 A Q.38 C Q.39 D Q.40 A
Q.41 A Q.42 B Q.43 B Q.44 B Q.45 A
Q.46 C Q.47 A Q.48 B Q.49 B Q.50 A
Q.51 B Q.52 D Q.53 D Q.54 A Q.55 C
Q.56 C Q.57 D Q.58 B Q.59 B Q.60 B
Q.61 D Q.62 A Q.63 A Q.64 A Q.65 B
Q.66 C Q.67 C Q.68 D Q.69 A Q.70 C
Q.71 D Q.72 A Q.73 B Q.74 B Q.75 D
Q.76 A Q.77 D Q.78 A Q.79 A Q.80 C
Q.81 C Q.82 B Q.83 A Q.84 A Q.85 A
Q.86 C Q.87 A Q.88 B Q.89 A Q.90 B
Q.91 D Q.92 D Q.93 D Q.94 A Q.95 C
Q.96 D Q.97 A Q.98 D Q.99 A Q.100 B
Q.101 C Q.102 C Q.103 C Q.104 C Q.105 D
Q.106 C Q.107 C Q.108 A Q.109 C Q.110 B
Q.111 B Q.112 D Q.113 C Q.114 D Q.115 C
Q.116 B Q.117 B Q.118 A Q.119 B Q.120 D
Q.121 D Q.122 C Q.123 B Q.124 D Q.125 B
Q.126 D Q.127 B Q.128 B Q.129 D Q.130 B
Q.131 B Q.132 C Q.133 A Q.134 D Q.135 C
Q.136 A Q.137 C Q.138 A Q.139 A Q.140 A
Q.141 B Q.142 B Q.143 B Q.144 C Q.145 A
Q.146 C Q.147 C Q.148 B Q.149 B Q.150 C
Q.151 A Q.152 D Q.153 A Q.154 B Q.155 B
Q.156 D Q.157 D Q.158 A Q.159 C Q.160 A
Q.161 D Q.162 B Q.163 A Q.164 D Q.165 C
Q.166 C Q.167 B Q.168 B Q.169 A Q.170 A
Q.171 A Q.172 D Q.173 D Q.174 C Q.175 A
Q.176 B Q.177 C Q.178 B

EXERCISE-2
Q.1 ABD Q.2 BC Q.3 ABD Q.4 ACD Q.5 ABC
Q.6 CD Q.7 AB Q.8 BCD Q.9 BCD Q.10 AB
Q.11 AB Q.12 ABC Q.13 AC Q.14 ACD Q.15 AB
Q.16 AD Q.17 ABD Q.18 AB Q.19 AB Q.20 ABD
Q.21 ABC Q.22 ABCD Q.23 ACD Q.24 ABD Q.25 BC
Q.26 ABC Q.27 ABC Q.28 BCD Q.29 AD Q.30 CD
Q.31 ACD Q.32 ABD Q.33 ABCD Q.34 CD Q.35 ABD
Q.36 ABC Q.37 ABC Q.38 B Q.39 CD Q.40 AD
Q.41 CD Q.42 AC Q.43 ACD Q.44 A Q.45 C
Q.46 A Q.47 C Q.48 A Q.49 D Q.50 A
Q.51 A Q.52 A Q.53 A Q.54 B Q.55 D
Q.56 C Q.57 B Q.58 A Q.59 C Q.60 B
Q.61 D Q.62 C Q.63 B Q.64 B Q.65 D
Q.66 B Q.67 C Q.68 B Q.69 B Q.70 D
Q.71 4 Q.72 4 Q.73 4 Q.74 3 Q.75 4
Q.76 5 Q.77 6 Q.78 5 Q.79 6 Q.80 3

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
P-BLOCK ELEMENTS
CHAPTER
EXERCISE-1
Boron Family
Q.1 In the following reaction, compound (X) is
B2H6 + 2X  2BH3X,
(A) NH3 (B) R3N (C) RNH2 (D) R2NH
Q.2 Incorrect statement for compound TlI3, is :

(A) Oxidation state of Tl is +1. (B) Hybridization of central iodine atom is sp3d.
(C) All iodine atoms are not neutral. (D) Ionic interactions exists between Tl3+ and I– ions.
Q.3 Which statement regarding benzene and borazine is incorrect ?

(A) Both are isostructural and isoelectronic (B) Both have same no. of sp2 hybridised atoms
(C) Reactivityof both towards HCl is same (D) Both have 12 and 3 bonds in them
Q.4 Which statement is correct regarding the diagonal relationship between Be and Al?
(I) Both carbides on hydrolysis produces CH4 gas
(II) Both Be and Al oxides are amphoteric in nature.
(III) In vapour state chlorides of both exist as chloro-bridge dimer having (3c – 4e) bonds
(IV) Both Be andAl nitrides on hydrolysis give NH3 gas.
(A) I, II are correct (B) I, III are correct
(C) I, II, III, IV are correct (D) Only III is correct
Q.5 Borax on heating strongly above its melting point melts to a liquid. which then solidifies to a transparent
mass commonly known as borax bead. The transparent glassy mass consists of
(A) Sodium pyroborate (B) Boric anhydride
(C) Sodium metaborate (D) Mixture of sodium metaborate and boric anhydride

Q.6 The incorrect statement regarding 'X' in given reaction is :
BF3 + LiAlH4 ether

 (X) + LiF + AlF3
(A) 'X' is a toxic gas
(B) On hydrolysis 'X' produces boric acid
(C) 'X' is electron deficient and behaves as lewis acid
(D) Structure of 'X' In similar to C2H6
Q.7 Select correct statement:

(A) F – N – F in NF3 > Cl – N – Cl in NCl3
(B) AlCl3.6H2O is an electron deficient compound
(C) Order of stability: BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(D) B – O bond strength: B(OH)3 > B(OH)2Me
Q.8 Which of the following molecular species does not act Lewis acid.
(A) B2H6 (B) BeF2 (C) AlCl3 (D) BF4–
For reaction BF3 + NaH  P + Q

450 K
Q.9
If Q is sodium salt, then incorrect statement is :
(A) P is an electron deficient compound
(B) P forms adduct with PH3
(C) Acidified MnO2 oxidizes Q into a coloured gas
(D) Q forms white precipitate with CaCl2 solution
Q.10 Which of the following statement regarding boric acid (H3BO3) is false?
(A) It acts as weak monobasic Lewis Acid (B)All atoms are lying in same plane
(C) It contains H-bonding in solid state (D) It acts as tribasic acid
Q.11 When borax is dissolved in water

(A) Only B(OH)3 is formed (B) Only B(OH)4– is formed
(C) Both B(OH)3 and B2O3 are formed (D) Both B(OH)3 and [B(OH)4]– are formed
Q.12 Which statement is correct?

(A) Tl3+ salts act as good oxidising agents
(B) In borax bead test the coloured ions give characteristic coloured bead due to formation of metal
phosphates
(C) BCl3 and AlCl3 both are lewis acids butAlCl3 is stronger lewis acid than BCl3
(D) Boric acid is a protonic acid
Q.13 Select incorrect statement for Al

(A) Conc. HNO3 can be stored in aluminium container
(B)Aluminium wire is used to make transmission cables
(C) Mixture of Al & NaOH is used to open drain
(D)Aluminium utensils are used to kept water over night
Q.14 Anhydrous AlCl3 is covalent however when it is dissolved in water hydrated ionic species are formed.
This transformation is owing to :
(A) The trivalent state ofAl. (B) The large hydration energy of Al3+
(C) The low hydration energy of Al3+ (D) The Polar nature of water
H3BO3  X  Y red

  B2O3, if T1 < T2 then X and Y respectively are
1 T 2 T
hot
Q.15
(A) X = Metaboric acid and Y = Tetraboric acid
(B) X = Tetraboric acid and Y = Metaboric acid
(C) X = Borax and Y = Metaboric acid
(D) X = Tetraboric acid and Y = Borax
Q.16 Borax is actually made of two tetrahedra and two triangular units joined together and should be written
as:
Na2[B4O5(OH)4]·8H2O
Consider the following statements about borax :
a. Each boron atom has four B–O bonds
b. Each boron atom has three B–O bonds
c. Two boron atoms have four B–O bonds while other two have three B–O bonds
d. Each boron atom has one –OH groups
Select correct statement(s):
(A) a, b (B) b, c (C) c, d (D) a, c
Q.17 Select correct statement about B2H6

(A) Bridging groups are electron-deficient with 12 valence electrons
(B) It has 2c - 2e B–H bonds
(C) It has 3c - 2e B–H–B bonds
(D) All of above are correct statements

Q.18 Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda because -
(A) Washing soda is expensive
(B) Washing soda is easily decomposed
(C) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
(D) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide.
N2 C
Q.19 (a) Al  A, (b)Al   B, Product A and B on hydrolysis yields respectively..
(A) Ammonia and acetylene (B) Ammonia and methane
(C) Nitric oxide and acetylene (D) None
1 mole
+
–nH2O –H 2O –2H 10H2O
Q.20 n mole 'X' if n=4 'Y' 'Z' + Salt of 'P'
ic acid (Acid)n Compound Compound +2Na Compound Compound
'Z' (It is used as a Antiseptic
of Boron in medicinal soap's
preparation)
Choose the incorrect option regarding above paragraph.

(A) In both compound 'Y' and 'P' Boron has same hybridisation.
(B) In both compound 'Y' and 'P' B–O–B linkage is in Bent form
(C) Compound 'P' has more B–O–B linkage as compare to compound 'Y'.
(D) In compound 'P' two Boron are in triangular form and two Boron are in tetrahedral from but in
compound 'Y' all Boron are in triangular form.
Q.21 Borax is converted into amorphous Boron by following steps


Borax 
X
H 3BO3  B2O3 
Y
B

X and Y are respectively

(A) HCl, Mg (B) HCl, C (C) , Al (D) HCl, Al
Q.22 The isolation of 'B' from B2O3 can be done by the following steps.
B2O3 + M  Metal oxide + B    B(s) as Residue

dil.H 2SO 4
& filtered
Which of the following metal is not suitable for the above process.
(A) Na (B) K (C) Ca (D) Mg
Q.23 Boron dissolves in (under suitable condition)

(A) HBr (B) H2CO3 (C) conc. H2SO4 (D) H3PO4

Q.24 Which of the following undergoes partial hydrolysis?

(A) B2H6 (B) BCl3 (C) H2SO4 (D) BF3
Q.25 Which of the following exists as polymeric (covalent) solid at roomtemperature with coordination number
'6' for the central atom?
(A) AlF3 (B)AlCl3 (C) AlBr3 (D) AlI3
Q.26 B2H6 + NaH  ?

The correct statement(s) is / are
(A) Symmetrical cleavage takes place (B) NaBH4 is produced
(C) H2 is produced (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.27 Which of the following has the least tendency to dimerise?

(A) Al(CH3)3 (B)AlBr3
(C) Al (D) GaCl3

3
Q.28 B3N3H6 upon hydrolysis yields

(A) H3BO3 (B) NH3 (C) H2 (D)All of these
Q.29 In B3N3H6 compound, the correct option is (State 'T' for True and 'F' for False):
(I) '3' p–p bond is present
(II) It can show back bonding.
(III) It is non-polar compound with non polar bonds.
(IV) Lumphy nodes are present at Boron atom.
(A) TTFF (B) TTTT (C) TTTF (D) FTTF
Q.30 Consider the structure given below :

CH3 CH3
H3C yÅ

Al Al 
H3C x Å CH3 CH3
Select the correct option(s):
(A) x < y
(B)  < 
(C) Bridge bond is formed by sp3 – sp3 – sp3 overlap
(D)All of these

Q.31 Boric acid is an acid because :

(A) It contains replaceable H+ ion
(B) It gives up a proton
(C) It accepts OH– from water releasing H+
(D) It combines with proton to form water molecule
Q.32  'X'
Boron + air —
H2O
'Y' + 'Z'
CuSO4 (aq)
'V'
(deep blue colour)
The hybridisation of compound 'V' is :

(A) dsp2 (B) sp3 (C) d2sp3 (D) sp2
Q.33 Find the ratio of sp2 and sp3 hybridised atom in Na2B4O7·10H2O.
(A) 2 : 19 (B) 2 : 2 (C) 2 : 11 (D) 1 : 19
Q.34 Number of  bonds in borax is

(A) Zero (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
Q.35 Mg3B2 + HCl  [P] + MgCl2

then choose incorrect statement.
(A) [P] is electron deficient (B) [P] is non polar
(C) One of the atom in [P] is sp3 hybridised (D) [P] is planar
Q.36 The total number of oxo linkage (X – O – X) in Borax molecule is :

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

H H H
p
y B x x B y
Q.37
q
H H H
Select the incorrect option regarding above structure.

(A) p > q
(B) y > x
H Me H
(C) Given structure + 2 MeCl  B B + 2HCl
H Me H
(D) Bond strength of B H B >B–H
Q.38 B2H6 is symmetrically cleaved by :

(A) NH3 (B) CH3NH2 (C) (CH3)2 NH (D) None of these
Q.39 One of the hydrolysed product of the following compound does not react with silica of glass vessel
(A) BF3 (B) ClF5 (C) XeF2 (D) SF4
Carbon Family
Q.40 An inorganic compound (A) made of two most occuring elements into the earth crust, having a polymeric
tetra-headral network structure. With carbon, compound (A) produces a poisonous gas (B) which is the
most stable diatomic molecule. Compounds (A) and (B) will be
(A) SiO2, CO2 (B) SiO2, CO (C) SiC,CO (D) SiO2, N2
Q.41 The incorrect statement is :

(A) SnCl4 is more covalent then SnCl2 (B) PbI4 commonly does to exist
(C) GeX4 is more stable than GeX2 (D*) PbX4 is more stable than PbX2
Q.42 
RCl cu  R2SiCl2 H

powder
2O
 R2Si(OH)2 condensati
   on
A
Si
Compound (A) is
(A) a linear silicone (B) a chlorosilane (C) a linear silane (D) a network silane

Q.43 Which of the following organo silicon chloride can produce cross linked 3D silicone polymer .
(A) R3SiCl (B) R4Si (C) RSiCl3 (D) R2SiCl2
Q.44 Graphite is soft while diamond is hard because

(A) Graphite is in powder form
(B) Graphite have sp2 while diamond has sp Hybridized 'C' atom
(C) Graphite is planar layered solid while diamond is 3-D giant network solid
(D) Graphite is covalent while diamond is ionic
Q.45 SnO is prepared in pure form by thermal decomposition of

(A) Sn(NO3)2 (B) SnSO4 (C) SnC2O4 (D)All
Q.46 Correct order of melting point is

(A) Diamond > Graphite > C60 (B) Graphite > Diamond > C60
(C) C60 > Graphite > Diamond (D) Diamond > C60 > Graphite
Q.47 PbI4 does not exist because

(A) Iodine is not reactive (B) Pb(IV) is oxidising and I– is a strong reducing agent
(C) Pb(IV) is less stable than Pb(II) (D) Pb4+ is not easily formed
Q.48 Plague of tin is

(A) Conversion of white tin to grey tin (B) Emission of sound while bending a tin rod
(C) Conversion of stannous to stannic form (D)Atmospheric oxidation of tin
Q.49 Which metal bicarbonates do not exist in Solid state?

(i) LiHCO3 (ii) Ca(HCO3)2 (iii) Zn(HCO3)2 (iv)AgHCO3
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iii) (C) (i), (ii), (iv) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q.50 Oxalic acid reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give a mixture of two gases. When this mixture is passed
through caustic potash, one of the gases is absorbed. Which is the product formed by the absorbed gas
with caustic potash ?
(A) K2SO4 (B) KHCO3 (C) K2CO3 (D) KOH
Q.51 Which is incorrect order for group 14 elements?

(A) CX2 < SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 : Order of stability
(B) CO2 > SiO2 > GeO2 : Order of acidic character
(C) C > Si > Ge  Sn > Pb : Tendency for catenation
(D) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb : Order of I.E
Q.52 Which of the following statements are correct?

(I) SnCl4 is more easily hydrolysed than SnCl2 (II) SnCl2 is good reductant while PbCl4 is oxidant
(III) SnCl4 is more volatile than SnCl2 (IV) PbI4 do not exist
(A) I, II, IV (B) II, IV (C) I, II, III, IV (D) Only IV
Q.53 If Hf° of graphite is taken as zero then Hf° of diamond and fullerene is respectively in kJ/mole
(A) 1.90, 38.1 (B) 1.90, –38.1 (C) –1.90, 38.1 (D) –1.90, –38.1
Q.54 Which of the following silicate is identified by general formula (Si2O5)n2n–

(A) Cyclic silicate (B) Pyro silicate (C)Amphiboles (D) Sheet silicates
Q.55 Which of the following metal carbides is a methanide carbide?

(A) CaC2 (B) Mg2C3 (C) Al4C3 (D) BaC2
Q.56 Which of the following carbides yields carbon containing compound having sp hybridisation on hydrolysis.
(A) Be2C (B) Al4C3 (C) Mg2C3 (D) None of these
Q.57 An aqueous solution of SnCl2 does not reduce which of the following metal cation into its respective
metallic form.
(A) Bi3+(aq) (B) Hg2+(aq) (C)Au3+(aq) (D) Fe3+(aq)
Q.58 (COOH)2 conc

  P + Q + H2O
. H 2SO 4
P can be estimated by using I2O5 then incorrect statement about Q is

(A) Q reacts with NH3 to form urea
(B) Q is linear and neutral oxide
(C) Gives white turbidity with Ba(OH)2 solution
(D) In solid form Q is a sublimate compound
Q.59 Suppose you have to determine the percentage of carbon dioxide in a sample of a gas available
in a container. Which is the best absorbed material for the carbon dioxide :
(A) Heated copper oxide (B) Cold, solid calcium chloride
(C) Cold, solid calcium hydroxide (D) Heated charcoal
Q.60 Bucky ball or buck minister fullerene is :

(A) An allotrope of carbon
(B) It is referred as C-60
(C) It has sp2-hybridised nature and resembles with soccer ball
(D) all of these
Q.61 When CO is heated with NaOH under pressure, we get :

(A) Sodium benzoate (B) Sodium acetate (C) Sodium formate (D) Sodium oxalate
Q.62 Artificial gem used for cutting glass is :

(A) Graphite (B) Diamond (C) SiC (D) CaCN2
Q.63 Which of the following properties describes the diagonal relationship between boron and silicon?
(A) BCl3 is not hydrolysed while SiCl4 can be hydrolysed
(B) Both form oxides; B2O3 is amphoteric; SiO2 is acidic
(C) Both metals dissolve in cold and dilute nitric acid
(D) Borides and silicides are hydrolysed by water
Q.64 The silicate anion in the mineral kinoite is a chain of three SiO4 tetrahedral, that share corners with
adjacent tetrahedral. The charge of the silicate anion is
(A) –4 (B) –8 (C) –6 (D) –2
Q.65 
H2C2O4  gas (A) + gas(B) + liquid (C). Gas (A) burns with a blue flame and is oxidised to gas (B).
NH , 
Gas (A) + Cl2  D  3
 E
A, B, C and E are
(A) CO2, CO, H2O, HCONH2 (B) CO, CO2, COCl2, HCONH2
(C) CO, CO2, H2O, NH2CONH2 (D) CO, CO2, H2O, COCl2
Q.66 The correct order of ionization enthalpy is :

(A) C > Si > Ge> Sn > Pb (B) C > Ge > Si> Pb > Sn
(C) C > Ge > Si > Pb > Sn (D) C > Si > Ge > Pb > Sn
Q.67 The incorrect statement regarding carbon dioxide

(A) Solid CO2 is known as Dry ice.
(B) It is responsible for Green house effect
(C) Solid CO2 has high mp than solid PbO2
(D) It contains two sigma and two pπ-pπ bonds

Q.68 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I (Compound) List-II
(a) B4C (1) Propyne preparation
(b) Al4C3 (2) Abrasive
(c) Mg2C3 (3) Methane preparation
(d) WC (4) Interstitial carbides
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 4 3 2 1
Q.69 Correct order of bond angle in CH2F2

     
(A) H C H > H C F > F C F (B) F C F > H C F > H C H
     
(C) H C H > F C F > H C F (D) H C F > F C F> H C H
Q.70 In which of the following silicates, only two corners per tetrahedron are shared :
(i) Pyrosilicate (ii) Cyclic silicate
(iii) Double chain silicate (iv) Single chain silicate
(v) 3 D silicate (vi) Sheet silicate
(A) (i), (ii) and (v) (B) (iv) and (vi) only (C) (i) and (vi) only (D) (ii) and (iv) only
Q.71 The number of -bond and -bond in HCP are respectively

(A) 2 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 1 (D) None
Q.72 Amphibole silicate structure has ‘x’ number of corner shared per tetrahedron. The value of ‘x’ is:
(A) 2 (B) 2½ (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.73 Number of corner oxygen atoms shared per tetrahedron in pyroxene and sheet silicate
(A) 2.5, 3 (B) 2, 3 (C) 3, 2 (D) 2, 2
Q.74 Ammonolysis of SiCl4 followed by heating produces a compound of Silicon (X). X is

(A) Covalent nitride (B) Ionic nitride
(C) Interstitial nitride (D) it is not a nitride
Q.75 In which of the following options CO is not the constituent.

(A) Carbogen (B) Water gas (C) Producer gas (D) None of these

Q.76 Select the correct statement(s) regarding Sc 2Si 2O7 ?

(A) It is an example of orthosilicate
(B) Anion is made of two tetrahedra units, sharing one corner.
(C) It has cyclic structure
(D)All of these
Q.77 Which of the following is most acidic?

(A) PbO2 (B) SiO2 (C) SnO2 (D) SnO
Q.78 Which of following is true presentation of unit of slicate 9/4 oxygen shared per tetrahedra in double chain
silicate?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.79 HOOC – CH2 – COOH P  ?

4O10
The number of sp - hybridised 'C' in one molecule of the product is :

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) zero
Q.80 Silicon has a strong tendency to form polymers like silicones. The chain length of silicone polymers can
be controlled by adding.
(A) CH3SiCl3 (B) (CH3)3 SiCl (C) (CH3)2SiCl2 (D) (CH3)4Si
Q.81 Which of the following gases is not a green house gas?

(A) CO (B) O3 (C) CH4 (D) water vaporous
Q.82 Which among the following are ionic carbide?

(A) CaC2 (B) Al4C3 (C) Be2C (D)All of these

CaC2 + N2 1100°
Q.83 CaCN2 + C
(A) (B)
Nitrollium
(used as fertilizer)
The ratio of  bonds in A to B is :

(A) 1 (B) 0.5 (C) 2 (D) 0
Q.84 If the number of Silicon atoms is restricted to 23 only, what would be the number of oxygen atoms and
magnitude of negative charges respectively in the structure of Pyroxene (single chain Silicate)?
(A) 70,48 (B) 70, 46 (C) 23, 48 (D) 23, 46
Q.85 Which of the following is correct order of boiling point?

(A) CCl4 > SiCl4 (B) SiCl4 > CCl4 (C) SiCl4 = CCl4 (D) None of these
Q.86 Comment on the C–C bond length for C2H6 and C2F6 compounds.
(A) d C–C (C2H6) > d C–C (C2F6) (B) d C–C (C2F6) > d C–C (C2H6)
(C) d C–C (C2F6) = d C–C (C2H6) (D) Can’t be predicted
Q.87 Tin dissolves in boiling caustic soda solution because of the formation of soluble
(A) Sn(OH)2 (B) Sn(OH)4 (C) Na2SnO3 (D) SnO2
Q.88 CF3–I + OH–  ?

The products are
(A) CF3OH + I– (B) CF3O– + I– + H2O
(C) CHF3 + OI– (D) No reaction due to repulsion from l.p. of F-atoms
Q.89 In which of following silicate two oxygen atoms are shared per tetrahedron.
(A) Ortho silicate (B) Pyro silicate
(C) Double chain silicate (D) 4-membered cyclic silicate
Q.90 Which is not a ortho silicate?

(A) Be2[SiO4] (B) Zn2[SiO4] (C) ZrSiO4 (D) Sc2[Si2O7]

Nitrogen Family
220ºC
H3PO4 (X)
60 320ºC
0º
Q.91 C
(Y)
(A) (X) = Pyrophosphoric acid (liquid), (Y) = Metaphosphoric acid (liquid)

(B) (X) = Pyrophosphoric acid (liquid), (Y) = Metaphosphoric acid (solid)
(C) (X) = Pyrophosphoric acid (solid), (Y) = Metaphosphoric acid (solid)
(D) (X) = Pyrophosphoric acid (solid), (Y) = Metaphosphoric acid (liquid)
Q.92 Select the compound in which HCl is NOT the product of Hydrolysis
(A) NCl3 (B) PCl3 (C) AsCl3 (D) BiCl3

Q.93 H3PO2  (X) + PH3; is
(A) Dehydration reaction (B) Oxidation reaction
(C) Disproportionation reaction (D) Dephosphorelation reaction
Q.94 Conc. HNO3 is yellow coloured liquid due to

(A) Presence of NO in conc. HNO3 (B) Presence of NO2 in conc. HNO3
(C) Presence of N2O in conc. HNO3 (D) Presence of N2O3 in conc. HNO3
140C 250C 316C

Q.95 H3PO2  A  B  C; compound (C) is
(A) H2PO3 (B) H2PO3 (C) HPO3 (D) H4P2O7
Q.96 An explosive compound (A) reacts with water to produce NH4OH and HOCl. Then, the compound
(A), is
(A) TNG (B) NCl3 (C) PCl3 (D) HNO3
Q.97 A tetra-atomic molecule (A) on reaction with nitrogen(l)oxide, produces two substances (B) and (C).
(B) is a dehydrating agent in its monomeric form while substance (C) is a diatomic gas which shows
almost inert behaviour. The substances (A) and (B) and (C) respectively will be
(A) P4, P4O10, N2 (B) P4, N2O5, N2 (C) P4, P2O3, Ar (D) P4, P2O3, H2
Q.98 The correct order of acidic strength of oxides of nitrogen is

(A) NO < NO2 < N2O < N2O3 < N2O5 (B) N2O < NO < N2O3 < N2O4 < N2O5
(C) NO < N2O < N2O3 < N2O5 < N2O4 (D) NO < N2O < N2O5 < N2O3 < N2O4
Q.99 Nitrogen dioxide is dissolved in water to produce

(A) HNO3 and HNO2 (B) only HNO3
(C) only HNO2 (D) HNO2 and N2
Q.100 Which one of the following compounds on strong heating evolves ammonia gas?
(A) (NH4)2SO4 (B) HNO3 (C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) NH4NO3
Q.101 The compound (SiH3)3N is

(A) pyramidal and more basic than (CH3)3N (B) planar and less basic than (CH3)3N
(C) pyramidal and less basic than (CH3)3N (D) planar and more basic than (CH3)3N
Q.102 Concentrated HNO3 reacts with iodine to give

(A) HI (B) HOI (C) HOIO2 (D) HOIO3
COOH P4O10 , 150C

Q.103 CH2    X
COOH
Compound (X) is
(A) malonic acid (B) carbon suboxide (C) tartaric acid (D) acetic acid
Q.104 When AgNO3 is heated strongly, the products formed are

(A) NO and NO2 (B) NO2 and O2 (C) NO2 and N2O (D) NO and O2
Q.105 HNO3 + P4O10  HPO3 + A; the product A is

(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) NO2 (D) N2O5

Q.106 Ca + C  CaC2 N
2
A
Compound (A) is used as a/an
(A) fertilizer (B) dehydrating agent (C) oxidising agent (D) reducing agent
Q.107 One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water gives
(A) one mole of phosphine (B) two moles of phosphoric acid
(C) two moles of phosphine (D) one mole of phosphorus penta-oxide

Q.108 Three allotropes (A), (B) and (C) of Phosphorous in the following change are respectively
470 K
A 1200 atm
B
570 K
CO2–atm
C
(A) white, black, red (B) black, white, red (C) red, black, white (D) red, violet, black
Q.109 Which oxide of the nitrogen exist in two different forms, which can be interconverted by irradiation with
light of the appropriate wavelength
(A) NO2 (B) N2O3 (C) N2O5 (D) N2O
Q.110 As molecular weight increases in 15th group hydrides then which of the following property increases
regularly
(A) Boiling point (B) Melting point (C) Thermal stability (D) Reducing nature

(A) Each P4O10 molecule contains 16 bonds and 6 P–O–P bonds.
(B) CaO is used to dry ammonia, while other dehydrating agents conc. H2SO4, P4O10, CaCl2 react
with NH3.
(C) In Holme signal mixture of Ca3P2 and CaC2 are used.
(D) Thermodynamical stability of allotropes of phosphorus: white < black < red.
Q.112 PH3 produces smoky rings when it comes in contact with air. This is because :
(A) It is inflammable. (B) It combines with water vapour.
(C) It combines with nitrogen. (D) burning of PH3 by P2H4.
Q.113 Ammonium compound which on heating does not give NH3 is

(A) (NH4)2 SO4 (B) (NH4)2CO3 (C) NH4NO2 (D) NH4Cl
Q.114 Which statement regarding phosphine is not correct ?

(A) It possess of rotten fish smell
(B) It is obtained in Holme's signal by hydrolysis of Ca3P2
(C) It is combustile in nature due to presence of impurity of P2H4 along with it.
(D) It is more soluble in water than ammonia
Q.115 Which of the following pairs on heating give same gas?

(A) AgNO3, (NH4)2 Cr2O7 (B) Pb(NO3)2, NH4NO3
(C) NH4NO2, NH4NO3 (D) NH4NO2, (NH4)2Cr2O7

Q.116 Which statement is incorrect?

(A) Pyrophosphoric acid is tetrabasic acid
(B) NCl3 on hydrolysis give NH3 and HClO
(C) Cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid is H3P3O9 and contains 15 bonds.
(D) PCl5 on hydrolysis gives H3PO3 and HCl
Q.117 Consider the following statements about the reaction between copper metal and dilute HNO3 ?
(I) In this reaction NO gas will be released
(II) Cu metal is oxidised to Cu(NO3)2
(III) NO is paramagnetic and has one unpaired electron in antibonding molecular orbital
(IV) NO reacts with O2 to produce NO2 which is bent in shape.
Choose the correct statement:
(A) I, II, III (B) I, III (C) II, IV (D) All are correct
Q.118 Which of the following statement regarding H3PO3 is incorrect.

(A) Its Ka value is less than H3PO2.
(B) On heating it gives PH3 and H3PO4.
(C) It can be prepared by hydrolysis of both PCl3 and P4O6.
(D) It is formed during reaction of white phosphorous with alkali.
Q.119 Which of the following compound is not directly used as fertilizer because of its explosive nature?
(A) Ca(H2PO4)2 (B) NH4NO3 (C) [CaNCN + C] (D) (NH4)2SO4
Q.120 Which of the following does not contain PX4+ type cation in solid phase? (X = halogen)
(A) PF5 (B) PCl5 (C) PBr5 (D) None of these
Q.121 Consider the following reaction and select INCORRECT statement about gas (Y) :

P4 + HNO3(dil.)  X + Y(gas)
(A) Gas is paramagnetic in nature (B) Gives neutral solution in water
(C) Forms Brown ring with FeSO4 solution (D) Disproportionates with water
Q.122 Select the CORRECT order :

(A) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 : Melting point
(B) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 : Lewis basicity
(C) NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 : Boiling point
(D) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 : Bond Angle

Q.123 Phosphine gas is not prepared by

(A) Ca3P2 + dil. HCl (B) PH4I + KOH soln.
 
(C) Red phosphorus + NaOH soln.  (D) P4 + NaOH soln. 
Q.124 Which of the following reaction does not have atleast one common product
(A) P4 + KOH (aq.)  (B) Ca3P2 + H2O 

(C) H3PO3  (D) P4O10 + H2O 
Q.125 Select INCORRECT match

NO
Cu / H+
O2 H2 O
NO P R+S
Zn / H+
T
(A) P : Paramgnetic gas (B) S : Colourless species
(C) R : Oxidising agent (D) T : sp2 Hybridize central atom
Q.126 Diamagnetic gas neutral towards water is

(A) N2O (B) NO2 (C) NO (D) N2O3
Q.127 When PbO2 reacts with conc. HNO3 then evolved gas is
(A) NO2 (B) O2 (C) N2 (D) N2O
Q.128 Which of the following chloride does not react with PCl5 on heating?
(A) Hg2Cl2 (B) FeCl2 (C) S2Cl2 (D) BCl3
Q.129 Which of the following property is common among white phosphorous and red phosphorous
(A) Insolubilityin water (B) Solubility in CS2
(C) Reaction with NaOH (D) Phosphorescence
Q.130 Select the incorrect statement regarding nitrous acid and nitric acid compound.
(A) Nitric acid is more acidic as compare to Nitrous acid.
(B) O – N – O Bond angle in nitrous acid is less as compare to O – N – O bond angle in Nitric acid.
(C) Both (Nitrous and Nitric) acid has coordinate bond.
(D) Both (Nitrous and Nitric) acid shows H-bonding.

Q.131 When PH3 absorbed in HgCl2 solution the corresponding phosphide is obtained
(A) Hg2P3 (B) Hg3P2 (C) Hg3(PO4)2 (D) None of these
Q.132 Calcium phosphide react with water or di. HCl and gives a compound X. Pure X is non inflammable
but becomes inflammable owing to the presence of P2H4 or P4 vapours X is absorbed in HI to form
compound Y, Y on treating with KOH gives X compound X and Y respectively.
(A) X = PH3 and Y = PH4I (B) X = NaH2PO2 and Y = H4PO2
(C) X = PH4+ and Y = PH4I (D) X = PH3 and Y = H4PO2
Q.133 3HNO2 ’! HNO2 + H2O + 2NO

The incorrect statements regarding this reaction is :
(A) It is an example of disproportionation reation.
(B) +3 oxidation state of N is more stable than +5
(C) HNO3 is an example of oxoacids
(D) +3 oxidation state of changed into +5 and +2 oxidation state.

Q.134 H3PO3  [X] + [Y]
on heating
(gas)
Choose the correct option regarding above reaction.
(A) [Y] has smell of ammonia. (B) Basicity of [X] is 2
(C) [X] and [Y] are non-planar (D) [Y] is sp3 hybridised
Q.135 Which of the following species will not give partial hydrolysed product?
(A) BiCl3 (B) PCl3 (C) BF3 (D) SiF4
Q.136 Which is the correct sequence in the following properties. For the correct order, mark (T), and for the
incorrect order mark (F) :
(a) Acidity order : SiF4 < SiCl4 < SiBr4 < SiI4
(b) Melting point : NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(c) Boiling point : NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(d) Dipole moment order : NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(A) FTFT (B) TFTF (C) FFTT (D) FFTF

Q.137 Phosphine is not obtained, when

(A) Red phosphorous is heated with NaOH (B) White phosphorous is heated with NaOH
(C) Ca3P2 reacts with water (D) Phosphorous trioxide is boiled with water
Q.138 Which pair of oxides give metallic residue on heating?

(A) Ag2O, PbO (B) Ag2O, HgO (C) HgO, PbO2 (D) PbO, CuO
Q.139 Match the following mixtures with the respective solution used for their separation:
(a) N2 & CO (i) water
(b) N2 & O2 (ii) H2SO4
(c) N2 & NH3 (iii)Ammonical CuCl
(d) PH3 & NH3 (iv) Pyrogallol
(A) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) (B) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(C) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) (D) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)
Q.140 (X) KOH Zn KOH

 (Y) (gas turns red litmus blue) +(Z)   (Y) (gas)

(X)  gas (supports in combustion)
Identify (X) to (Z).
(A) X = NH4NO2 Y = NH3 Z = KNO2
(B) X = (NH4)2Cr2O7 Y = NH3 Z = Cr2O3
(C) X = (NH4)2SO4 Y = NH3 Z = K2SO4
(D) X = NH4NO3 Y = NH3 Z = KNO3
Q.141 When NaN3 solution is treated with H2S.

(A) Deposit of sulphur takes place & medium becomes acidic
(B) Colourless gas is evolved & solution becomes alkaline
(C) The gas evolved which causes unconsciousness on inhalation for long time.
(D) The gas evolved which makes K2Cr2O7 paper green.

Q.142 When a sample of NO2 is placed in a container, this equilibrium is rapidly established.
2NO2(g)  N2O4 (g)
If this equilibrium mixture is a darker colour at high temperatures and at low pressures, which of these
statements about the reaction is true?
(A) The reaction is exothermic and NO2 is darker in colour than N2O4
(B) The reaction is exothermic and N2O4 is darker in colour than NO2
(C) The reaction is endothermic and NO2 is darker in colour than N2O4
(D) The reaction is endothermic and N2O4 is darker in colour than NO2
Q.143 Calcium imide on hydrolysis will give gas (B) which on oxidation by bleaching powder gives gas (C) gas
(C) on reaction with magnesium give compound (D). (D) on hydrolysis gives again gas (B). (B), (C) and
(D) are
(A) NH3, N2, Mg3N2 (B) N2, NH3, MgNH
(C) N2 , N2O5 , Mg(NO3)2 (D) NH3, NO2 , Mg(NO2)2
Q.144 Which of the following is true for N2O?

(I) It has linear structure.
(II) Symmetric N–O–N is a favourable skeleton as compare to N–N–O skeleton.
(III) Bonds orders are fractional for N–N and N–O bonds
(IV) It is ionic in solid state and exists as ion pair.
Choose correct code
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II, III, IV (C) I, III (D) I, III, IV
Q.145 When ammonia gas is passed over hot CuO, a gas is evolved. The same gas is evolved by heating
(A) NH4NO3 (B) NH4Cl (C) NH4NO2 (D) CH3COONH4
Q.146 Which of the following on hydrolysis will give dibasic acid?

(A) PCl5 (B) PCl3 (C) BCl3 (D) SiCl4
Q.147 Nitrogen can be prepared by :

(A) By decomposition of sodium azide (B) By decomposition ofAmmonium dichromate
(C) By decomposition ofAmmonium nitrite (D) All the above
Q.148 Ammonia can not be prepared by :

(A) Reduction of nitrite (B) Reduction of nitrate
(C) Reduction of nitride (D) Hydrolysis of amides

Q.149 Which metal will give nitrous oxide by cold and dil HNO3?
(A) Zn (B) Cu (C) Pb (D)Ag
Q.150 In a Ostwald process


NH3 + O2  x + H2O
Pt
x + O2  y
y + H2O (excess)  x + z
The incorrect option is :
(A) 'x' shows paramagnetic behaviour (B) 'x' & 'y' are acidic oxide
(C) 'z' can acts as oxidising agent (D) 'y' & 'z' are acidic in nature
Q.151 Very purest form of N2 is prepared by thermal decomposition of

(A) NH4NO3 (B) NH4NO2 (C) Ba(N3)2 (D) (NH4)2Cr2O7
Q.152 POCl3 prepared by the reaction of :

(I) P4 + SO2Cl2  (II) P4 + SOCl2 
(III) PCl5 + SO2  (IV) PCl5 + C2H5OH 
(A) I & III (B) II & III (C) I & IV (D) III & IV
Q.153 Which of the following will give H2 gas with dilute HNO3 ?
(A) Mg (B) Zn (C) Cu (D) Hg
Q.154 The catalyst used in Haber's process of production of NH3 now days is –
(A) Fe + MO (B) Iron oxide with K2O and Al2O3
(C) Iron oxide with Mo as promoter (D) Al2O3 + FeCl3
Q.155 Phosphine is not obtained, when

(A) Red phosphorous is heated with NaOH
(B) White phosphorous is heated with NaOH
(C) Ca3P2 reacts with water
(D) Phosphorous trioxide is boiled with water

Q.156 P2O5 + H2O  X

2X – H2O  Y
Y + O  Z
X + O  E
X – O  F
Find the sum of  bond in X,Y,Z,E and F ?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) 8
Q.157 Choose the correct statement regarding Allotropes of phosphorous:

(A) White phosphorous exist as a discrete P4 molecules
(B) Order of reactivity, white phosphorous > Red Phosphorous > Black Phosphorous
(C) Black phosphorous is a conductor of electricity because it exist in the form of hexagonal layers like
graphite.
(D) All above information regarding allotropes of phosphorous are correct.
Q.158 Which of the following compounds when treated with PCl5 does not produce POCl3?
(A) SO3 (B) H2O (C) P4O10 (D) CO2
Q.159 Ammonia can be dried by using

(A) CaCl2 (B) H2SO4 (C) CaO (D) P4O10
Q.160 2P + 10 HNO 3 ‘X’ + 10 NO 2 + 2H 2O

Hot and
concentrated –H2O
Compound ‘Y’
Identified the hybridisation of phosphorous in compound 'Y'.

(A) sp2 (B) sp3d (C) sp3 (D) sp3d2
Q.161 P4 + SOCl2  X + Y + Z
P4 + SO2Cl2  M + Y
Compound 'Y' is :
(A) PCl3 (B) PCl5 (C) SO2 (D) S2Cl2

Q.162 NH3 + O2 Pt/Rh gauge [X]gas + [Y]gas + Heat

700-800°C
neutral,
3
O2 sp hybridised
[Z] gas
Choose correct option :

(A) [Z] is sp hybridised (B) [Z] is diamagnetic
(C) [Z] is planar (D) [Z] is colourless gas
Q.163 Select the nitrogen oxide which shows disproportionation in alkaline medium:
(A) N2O3 (B) N2O4 (C) N2O5 (D)All of these

Q.164 HNO2  X + Y (gas)
In above reaction Y (gas) can also be obtained by which of the following reaction:
(A) Zn + dil. HNO3  (B) Ag + very dil. HNO3 
(C) Ag + conc. HNO3  (D) Ag + dil. HNO3 
Q.165 Red phosphorus is less reactive than yellow phosphorus because

(A) Its colour is red (B) It is highly polymerised
(C) It is tetratomic (D) It is hard
Q.166 Cl2 + [X]  [Y] + HCl

low conc.
H 2O
[X]
[X] is :
(A) N2 (B) N2O (C) NCl3 (D) NH3

Oxygen Family
Q.167 A sulphate of a metal (A) on heating evolves two gases (B) and (C) and an oxide (D). Gas (B) turns
K2Cr2O7 paper green while gas (C) forms a trimer in which there is no S–S bond. Compound (D) with
HCl, forms a Lewis acid (E) which exists as a dimer. Compounds (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) are
respectively
(A) FeSO4, SO2, SO3, Fe2O3, FeCl3 (B)Al2(SO4)3, SO2, SO3, Al2O3, FeCl3
(C) FeS, SO2, SO3, FeSO4, FeCl3 (D) FeS, SO2, SO3, Fe2(PO4)3, FeCl2
Q.168 The structures of O3 and N3– are

(A) linear and bent respectively (B) both linear
(C) both bent (D) bent and linear, respectively
Q.169 Which of the following compound does not liberate oxygen gas on warming with conc. H2SO4?
(A) SO3 (B) PbO2 (C) MnO2 (D) CrO5
Q.170 A gas which exists in three allotropic forms ,  and  is

(A) SO2 (B) SO3 (C) CO2 (D) NH3
Q.171 There is no S-S bond in

(A) S2O42– (B) S2O52– (C) S2O32– (D) S2O72–
Q.172 When an inorganic compound reacts with SO2 in aqueous medium, produces (A). (A) on reaction with
Na2CO3, gives compound (B) which with sulphur, gives a substance (C) used in photography. Compound
(C) is
(A) Na2S (B) Na2S2O7 (C) Na2SO4 (D) Na2S2O3
Q.173 When H2S is passed through dilute nitric acid solution. the product formed is :
(A) SO3 (B) Colloidal sulphur (C) SO2 (D) Plastic sulphur
Q.174 A pale yellow crystalline solid insoluble in water but soluble in CS2 is allowed to react with nitric oxide to
give X and Y. X is a colourless gas with pungent odour. X is further allowed to react in aqueous medium
with nitric oxide to yield Z and T. Compounds X. Z and T are
(A) SO3, H2SO3, N2O (B) SO2, H2SO4, N2O
(C) SiO2, H2SO4, N2 (D) SO3, H2SO3, N2

Excess Na 2CO 3 soln. Q

P(aq) Boil R
Q.175 SO2
H2S
Q
Incorrect statement about 'R' is

(A)Antichlor agent (B) Fixing agent in photography
(C) Forms ppt with CaCl2 soln. (D) Reduces Cu++ (aq) cation
Q.176 Which of the following statement is incorrect for ozone?

(A) It is thermodynamically less stable than oxygen.
(B) It causes headache
(C) It is diamagnetic in nature.
(D) It oxidises KMnO4.
Q.177 For hydrides of 16th group elements, select the property which does not follow the order:
H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(A) Bond length (B) Reducing character (C) Bond angle (D)Arrhenius acidic character
Q.178 Which order is incorrect :

(A) SF6 > SeF6 > TeF6 : Order of stability
(B) PCl5 > SiCl4 > AlCl3 : Order of hydrolysis
(C) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te : Order of thermal stability
(D) SF6 > SeF6 > TeF6 : Order of hydrolysis
Q.179 Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) Sulphur molecule in vapour state exist as S2 and is paramagnetic in nature.
(B) Sulphur and selenium occur as S8 and Se8 molecules at room temperature and have puckered ring
structure.
(C) Ozone oxidises KMnO4.
(D) SO2 can act both as oxidising as well as reducing agent.
Q.180 Which statement regarding sulphuric acid is incorrect?

(A) It is responsible for charring of sugar due to its dehydrating property.
(B) It is obtained in contact process by hydrolysis of oleum.
(C) The value of Ka2 for H2SO4 is greater than its Ka1 value.
(D) It consists of two d-p bonds and sulphur atom is sp3 hybridised in it.

Q.181 Which statement regarding ozone is incorrect?

(A) Ozone is powerful oxidising agent as compared to O2
(B) Formation of ozone from O2 is endothermic
(C) Ozone molecule is paramagnetic like oxygen molecule
(D) O3 is estimated by KI in presence of Borate buffer followed by titration with hypo
Q.182 Which gas can be dried by conc. H2SO4

(A) NH3 (B) PH3 (C) H2S (D) SO2
Q.183 SO2 is not produced when

(A) P4 reacts with SOCl2 (B) S8 reacts with conc. H2SO4
(C) P4 reacts with SO2Cl2 (D) S8 reacts with conc. HNO3
Q.184 Which of the following fluoride does not convert SF4 into SF6
(A) ClF5 (B) XeF4 (C) O2F2 (D) CsF
Q.185 Oxygen gas is not evolved when

(A) Potassium permangnate is heated (B) Sodium peroxide reacts with water at R.T.
(C)Ammonium nitrate is heated (D) Pottasium nitrate is heated
Q.186 When ozone reacts with an excess of potassium iodide solution buffered with a borate buffer
(pH = 9.2) iodine is liberated which can be titrated against a standard solution of sodium thiosulphate.
this is a quantitative method for estimating O3 gas. When liberated I2 and sodium thiosulphate will react.
then product is/are
(A) S4O62– (B) SO42– (C) S2O42– (D) S°
Q.187 In which of the following reaction SO2 gas is not produced
(A) S8 + conc. H2SO4 warm

 (B) S8 + conc. HNO3 warm

 
(C) PbS + O2  (D) FeS2 + O2 
Q.188 When conc. H2SO4 was treated with K4[Fe(CN)6], CO gas was evolved. By mistake, somebody used
dilute H2SO4 instead of conc. H2SO4 then the gas evolved was
(A) CO (B) HCN (C) N2 (D) CO2
Q.189 Which gas is responsible for green house effect :

(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) CO (D) SO3

Q.190 O2 + PtF6  O2 [PtF6]

Choose the correct option:
(A) Oxygen is O2¯ and paramagnetic (B) Oxygen is O22– and diamagnetic
(C) Oxygen is O2+ and diamagnetic (D) Oxygen is O2+ and paramagnetic
Q.191 K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + 4H2O2  K2SO4 + X + 5H2O

What is the oxidation state of chromium in product 'X'?
(A) +10 (B) +6 (C) +7 (D) +5
Q.192 The dipole moment of H2O2 is more than that of H2O but H2O2 is not a good solvent because
(A) it has a very high dielectric constant so that ionic compounds cannot be dissolved in it
(B) it does not act as an oxidising agent
(C) it acts as a reducing agent
(D) it dissociates easily and acts as an oxidising agent in chemical reactions
Q.193 K4[Fe(CN)6] reacts with ozone to give

(A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe(OH)2 (C) K3[Fe(CN)6] (D) KNO3
Q.194 SO32– + S*  SS*O32–

SS*O32– + 2H+  H2SO3 + S*
The above reaction sequence proves
(A) Two sulphur atoms of thiosulphate are not equivalent
(B) Both are equivalent
(C) Both of the above are correct
(D) None of these
Q.195 In most of the reactions of ozone, oxygen is one of the product and it is considered as
(A) Reduction product (B) Oxidation product
(C) Thermal decomposition product (D) Disproportionated product
Q.196 Select the correct statements regarding the products obtained when Na2S2O3. 5H2O is subjected to
strong heating.
(I) Disproportionation reaction takes place
(II) Na2SO3 and Na2S5 are produced.
(III) Na2SO4 and Na2S5 are produced.
(IV) One of the products has zig-zag open chain structure.
(A) I, II, IV (B) I, III, IV (C) II, III, IV (D) I, II, III, IV

Q.197 The correct order of relative rate of hydrolysis is :

(A) SF6 < SeF6 < TeF6 (B) SF6 < TeF6 < SeF6
(C) TeF6 < SeF6 < SF6 (D) TeF6 < SF6 < SeF6
Q.198 Sewage containing organic waste should not be disposed in water bodies because it causes major water
pollution. Fishes in such a polluted water die because of :
(A) large number of mosquito
(B) increase in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water
(C) decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in water.
(D) clogging of gills bymud.
Q.199 The temporary bleaching property is shown by

(A) SO2 (B) H2O2 (C) HOCl (D) CaOCl2
Q.200 2 × sulphuric acid – H2O + O  X

2 × sulphurous acid – H2O = Y
Which option is correct for above information?
(A) X has S–O–S bond (B) Y has S–O–S bond
(C) Y has S–S bond (D) X has S–S bond
Q.201 Select the metal sulphide which is yellow in colour -

(A) ZnS (B) Ag2S (C) As2S3 (D) CoS
Q.202 Tom Says : Among 16th group elements tendency of catenation is maximum for sulphur.
Jerry Says : S–S bond is stronger than O–O single bond.
(A) Tom is true & Jerry is also true and Jerry give the correct explanation for Tom statement.
(B) Tom is true & Jerry is also true and Jerry does not give the correct explanation for Tom statement.
(C) Tom is false & Jerry is true.
(D) Tom is true & Jerry is false.
Q.203 Which ion can not be oxidised by ozone?
(A) I  (B) AsO33– (C) [Fe(CN)6]3– (D) MnO42–

Q.204 Na 2S H 2SO 4 

 Soluble Compound Gas
dil. 'X' 'Y'
Select the correct statement regarding products 'X' and 'Y'

(A) Hybridisation of sulphur in 'X' can not predict.
(B) Geometry of 'Y' is bent.
(C) Hybridisation of sulphur in 'Y' is sp3
(D) Both compound 'X' and 'Y' react with moist Pb(OAc)2 solution to form white precipitate.
Q.205 Gas 'X' + CuSO4 Compound + Solution

(Having 'Y' 'Z'
Rotten (Black ppt.)
fish smell)
on hydrolysis
Black precipitate 'Y' is :

(A) Cu2O (B) ZnS (C) Cu3P2 (D) Cu2S
Halogen Family
Q.206 Which halogen oxidizes water at room temperature but does not undergo disproportionation into it?
(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) I2
Q.207 Chlorine gas is not produced by heating

(A) SOCl2 (B) PbCl4 (C) FeCl3 (D) Hg2Cl2
Q.208 Bromine is commercially prepared from sea water by displacement reaction

Cl2 + 2Br– (aq)  2Cl– (aq) + Br2
Br2 gas thus formed is dissolved into solution of Na2CO3 and then pure Br2 is obtained by treatment of
the solution with
(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) NaOH (C) H2SO4 (D) HI
Q.209 Which of the following combination doesnot evolve Cl2 gas

(A) HCl (aq) + KMnO4 (B) HCl + MnO2
(C) HCl + Br2 (D) HCl + F2
Q.210 Which reaction has positive value of G°
1
(A) F2 + H2O R

.T.
 2HF + O (B) Cl2 + H2O R

.T.
 HCl + HOCl
2 2
(C) Br2 + H2O R


.T.
 HBr + HOBr (D) I2 + H2O R

.T.
 HI + HOI

Q.211 Vander Waal forces of attraction is the correct reason for which of the following statement.
(A) I2 is solid, Br2 is liquid while F2 and Cl2 are gases
(B) Acidic nature: HF < HCl < HBr < HI
(C) H2O2 is more viscous than H2O
(D) CH3OH is more soluble in water than higher molecular weight alcohols
Q.212 Which products are expected from disproportionation of hypochlorous acid?

(A) HClO3 and Cl2O (B) HClO2 and HClO4
(C) HCl and Cl2O (D) HCl and HClO3
Q.213 Correct order of boiling point

(A) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 (B) F2 > Br2 > Cl2 (C) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 (D) Br2 > Cl2 > F2
Q.214 For which of the following reaction, blue colouration is not observed in presence of starch
(A) I– (aq) + H+ (aq) atm

 air
 (B) I– (aq) + dil H2SO4 
(C) I– (aq) + Fe3+ (aq)  (D) I– (aq) + Cu++ (aq) 
Q.215 Which of the property follow given order; F2 > Cl2

(A) Oxidising property (B) Bond length
(C) Bond energy (D)Absorbed wavelength
Q.216 NaOCl on heating gives

(A) Sodium chlorides and sodium chlorate (B) Sodium chlorite and sodium chlorate
(C) sodium chlorite and sodium chlorides (D) Sodium chlorite and sodium perchlorate
Q.217 Cl2 + F2(excess) 573  (P) (Inter halogen compound with bent-T-Shape)
K
Select the incorrect statement regarding (P)

(A) Polar molecule (B) Conducts electricity in liquid state
(C) Diamagnetic substance (D) Non planar molecule
Q.218 Which set of properties follow given order: HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(i)Acidic nature (ii) Oxidising nature (iii) Thermal stability (iv) Cl–O single bond length
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (i) & (iii) (C) Only (i), (ii) & (iii) (D)All of these

Q.219 Which pair of species can’t be prepare by conc. H2SO4

(A) HCl, HBr (B) HCl, H3PO4 (C) H3PO4, HNO3 (D) HBr, HNO3
Q.220 Which of the following species is not a pseudohalide?

(A) CNO– (B) RCOO– (C) OCN– (D) N3–
Q.221 When chlorine gas is passed through an aqueous solution of a potassium halide in the presence
ofchloroform, avoilet colouration is obtained. On passing more of chlorinewater, the voilet colour is
disappeared and solution becomes colourless. This test confirms the presence of which of the following
halide in aqueous solution.
(A) chloride (B) fluoride (C) bromide (D) iodide
Q.222 Conc. H2SO4 cannot be used to prepare HBr from NaBr because it
(A) reacts slowly with NaBr (B) oxidises HBr
(C) reduces HBr (D) disproportionates HBr
Q.223 Halogens are coloured, this is due to

(A)Absorption of radiations in visible region.
(B)Absorption of radiations in Infra red region
(C)Absorption of radiations in Ultra-violet region.
(D) None of these
Q.224 In the following reaction.

C
2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 40
 products.
Oxidation states of chlorine in products is :
(A) –1, +1 (B) –1, +3 (C) –1, +5 (D) 0, +1
Q.225 Which of the following halogen oxide is used for estimation of carbon monoxide in automobile exhaust
gases?
(A) Cl2O7 (B) I2O5 (C) ClO2 (D) BrO3
Q.226 Concentrated HNO3 reacts with iodine to give

(A) HI (B) HOI (C) HOIO2 (D) HOIO3

Q.227 Reaction which is feasible at room temperature is :

(A) Cl2 - water + Br¯  (B) Br2 - water + I¯ 
(C) I2 - water + Cl¯  (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.228 NH3 + Cl2(excess)  Explosive substance (X) HCl

  (Y)
( aq )
+ (Z)
NiCl2
Blue
The products (Y) and (Z) are respectively:

(A) NH3 & Cl2 (B) N2 & Cl2 (C) NH2 – NH2 & Cl2 (D) HN = NH & Cl2
Q.229 The correct order of thermal stability is :

(A) HOCl < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO4 (B) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(C) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (D) HClO4 < HClO < HClO2 < HClO3
Q.230 In the hydrolysis of ICl, the products are -

(A) HI + HCl (B) HI + HOCl (C) HCl + HOI (D) HOCl + HOI
Q.231 A reddish pink substance on heating gives off a vapour which condenses on the sides of the test tube and
the substance turns blue. On cooling, if water is added to the residue, it turns to its original colour. The
substance is
(A) Iodine crystals (B) Copper sulphate crystals
(C) Cobalt chloride crystals (D) Zinc oxide
Q.232 Which of the following reaction is feasible

(A) 2HBr + I2  2HI + Br2 (B) H2SO4 + 2HCl  SO2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
(C) 2HI + F2  2HF + I2 (D) NH3 + HF  NH4F
Q.233 Onlyiodine forms hepta-fluoride IF7, but chlorine and bromine give penta-fluorides. The reason for this is
(A) low electron affinityof iodine
(B) unusual pentagonal bipyramidal structure of IF7
(C) that the larger iodine atom can accommodate more number of smaller fluorine atom around it
(D) low chemical reactivity of IF7
Q.234 Thermally most stable compound is

(A) HOClO3 (B) HOClO2 (C) HOCl (D) HOClO

Q.235 The interhalogen compound that exist is

(A) IBr3 (B) ICl7 (C) IF5 (D) BrF4
Q.236 Cl2 disproportionate in :

(A) H2O, NaOH (B) H2O, dil. H2SO4
(C) NaOH, dil. H2SO4 (D) dil. H2SO4, conc. H2SO4
Q.237 What is the oxidation state of oxygen in X , where X is most stable compound of oxygen and fluorine?
(A) +2 (B) –1 (C) +1 (D) -2
Q.238 Which compound is most powerful bleaching agent?

(A) Cl2 (B) CaOCl2 (C) O3 (D) H2O2
Q.239 Cl2(g) + Ba(OH)2  X (aq) + BaCl2 + H2O

X + H2SO4  Y + BaSO4

Y  Z + H2O + O2
 365 K
Y and Z are respectively

(A) HClO4, ClO2 (B) HClO3, ClO2 (C) HClO3, ClO6 (D) HClO4, Cl2O7
Q.240 The reaction which is consistent with the fact that Cl2O6(s) exists as [ClO2+][ClO4–], would be
(A) Cl2O6 + NaOH  NaClO3 + NaClO4 + H2O
(B) Cl2O6 + HF  ClO2F + HClO4
(C) 2HClO4 + P2O5  2HPO3 + Cl2O7
0C
(D) 2ClO2 + 2O3  Cl2O6 + 2O2
Q.241 Which of the following does not conduct electricity in the fused state?
(A) NaCl (B) CaF2 (C) MgCl2 (D)AlCl3
Q.242 A black powder (A) when heated with NaCl and conc. H2SO4 gives off a greenish yellow gas (B).
Gas'B' on passing through boiling KOH yields compounds, one of which when heated with the black
powder evolves oxygen. (A) and (B) respectively are
(A) MnO2, Cl2 (B) Pb3O4, Br2 (C) MnO2, Br2 (D) Pb3O4, Cl2

Q.243 Violet colour of iodine is decolourised by :

(A) Hot and Concentrated NaOH (B) Na2S2O3
(C) Concentrated HNO3 (D)All of these
Q.244 The bleaching property of chlorine water is due to-

(A) Formation of nascent oxygen (B) Formation of nascent chlorine
(C) Formation of O3 (D) Reducing property of Cl2
Q.245 Chlorine can be obtained by which of the following process.
(B) NaCl + NaOCl 

Acidic
(A) Electrolysis of molten NaCl
(C) 4HCl + O2 2 

CuCl
(D)All of these
Q.246 The principal products obtained on heating iodine with concentrated caustic soda solution are
(A) NaOI + NaI (B) NaIO3 + NaI
(C) NaOI + NaIO3 + NaI (D) NaIO4 + NaI
Q.247 F2 + NaOH conc.  X + Y + Z (gas)

In above reaction Z (gas) is:
(A) H2 (B) O2 (C) F2 (D) Na2 (vapour)
Q.248 Cl2 + NH 3  [X] + HCl

Concentration lowered
down beyond the limit
Choose incorrect option :

(A) [X] is sp3 hybridised (B) [X] is explosive in nature
(C) [X] is pyramidal (D) [X] is NH4Cl
Inert Gases
Q..249 First compound of inert gases was prepared by scientist Neil Barthlete in 1962. This compound is
(A) XePtF6 (B) XeO3 (C) XeF6 (D) XeOF4
Q.250 Which of the following Xenon compound does not produce explosive XeO3 on its complete hydrolysis:
(A) XeO2F2 (B) XeF2 (C) XeF4 (D) XeF6

Q.251 Which of the following diagrams is correct related to Xe ?

F2 F2
Xe(g) (1:20 ratio)
XeF6 Xe(g) (2:1 ratio)
XeF2
(A) (B)
Hydrolysis Hydrolysis
F2 F2
Xe(g) (1:20 ratio)
XeF6 XeF4 (1:20 ratio)
XeF6
(C) (D)
SiO 2 Hydrolysis
Q.252 Solubility of inert gases increases as atomic number increases due to increase in
(A) Dipole-dipole intraction
(B) Dipole-induced dipole intrection
(C) Induced dipole-intantaneous dipole intraction
(D) Hydrogen bonding
Q.253 Select the property which does not follow given order: He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe
(A) Solubilityin water (B) Boiling point (C) Liquefaction (D) Ionization energy
Q.254 In which of the following reaction XeF6 acts as fluoride acceptor

(A) XeF6 + AsF5  [XeF5]+ [AsF6]– (B) XeF6 + SbF5  [XeF5]+ [SbF6]–
(C) XeF6 + CsF  Cs+ [XeF7]– (D) XeF6 + PF5  [XeF5]+ [PF6]–
Q.255 Which order regarding xenon fluorides is incorrect:

(A) XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 are colourless crystalline solids
(B)All xenon fluorides are readily hydrolysed
(C) XeO3 is obtained by complete hydrolysis of both XeF4 and XeF6
(D) XeOF4 and XeO2F2 are obtained by complete hydrolysis of XeF6
Q.256 Which statement regarding XeF6 is incorrect?

(A) It gives XeO3 on complete hydrolysis which is a explosive solid
(B) It is not kept in glass vessels as it decomposes silica of glass.
(C)XeF6 reacts with RbF to form Rb+[XeF7]–
(D) It is reducing in nature

Q.257 Which order regarding inert gases is incorrect?

(A) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe : Order of M.P and B.P
(B) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe : Order of adsorption on coconut charcoal
(C) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe : Order of polarisability
(D) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe : Order of Ionization energy
Q.258 XeF4 molecule is:

(A) Tetrahedral and acts as fluoride donor with SbF5
(B) Square planar and acts as fluoride donor with PF5
(C) Square planar and acts as fluoride donor with NaF
(D) See Saw shape and acts as a fluoride donor with AsF5
Q.259 XeF6 undergoes partially and completely Hydrolysis and gives different Xenon compounds, select the
CORRECT statement regarding Xenon compounds formed on Hydrolysis.
(A) All have planer geometry.
(B) All are oxo-flouro xenon compounds.
(C) All are non planer and polar.
(D)All have different hybridisation and different number of lone pairs on central atom.
Q.260 The decreasing order Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He, is correct for
(1) boiling point (2) solubilityin water (3) polarisability (4) Ease of liquification
(A) only 1 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 4 (D) 2, 4
Q.261 Which of the following is not the correct characteristic property of noble gases.
(A) Higher degree of diffusibility.
(B) Producing inert atmosphere.
(C) All can easily be stored by clathrate formation.
(D) Their fluorides hydrolyse at room temperature.
Q.262 Which of the following noble gases does not form clathrates?
(A) He (B) Br2 (C) Ar (D) Xe

EXERCISE-2

Q.1 Which of the following reaction will give H3BO3 (BoricAcid)?
(A) B2O3 + H2O  (B) BCl3 + H2O 
(C) Na2B4O7 + H2O + HCl  (D) B2H6 + H2O 
Q.2 BF3 + LiAlH4 Dry

  'X' + LiF + AlF3
ether
One molecule of compound 'X' reacts with two molecules of

(A) ROR (B) PH3 (C) CO (D) Pyridine
Q.3 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding B2H6?

(A) banana bonds are longer but stronger than terminal B–H bonds
(B) B2H6 is also known as 3c–2e compound
(C) hybridisation of B in B2H6 is sp3
(D) it cannot be prepared by reacting BF3 with LiAlH4 in the presence of dry ether
Q.4 When an inorganic compound (X) having 3c-2e as well as 2c-2e bonds reacts with ammonia gas at a
certain temperature, gives a compound (Y) which is iso-structural with benzene. Compound (X) with
ammonia at a high temperature, produces a hard substance (Z). Then
(A) (X) is B2H6 (B) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite
(C) (Z) having structure similar to graphite (D) (Z) having structure similar to (X)
Q.5 Al2(SO4)3 + NH4OH  X, then

(A) X is a white coloured compound (B) X is insoluble in excess of NH4OH
(C) X is soluble in NaOH (D) X can not be used as an antacid
Q.6 Select correct statement about B2H6

(A) Bridging groups are electron-deficient with 12 valence electrons
(B) It has 2c - 2e B–H bonds
(C) It has 3c - 2e B–H–B bonds
(D) All of above are correct statements
Q.7 Which of the following compound(s) give precipitate with solution of chrome alum:
(A) BaCl2 (B) Na2CO3 (C) (NH4)2S (D) excess KOH

Q.8 Which of the following option is / are correct?


Ca2B6O11 + Na2CO3  CaCO3 + A + B
A + CO2  B
(A) B contains 5 B–O–B linkage
(B) Awill be obtained by thermal decomposition of B
(C) Aqueous solution of B used as a acidic buffer in titration
(D)Aexist in a polymeric form.
Q.9 Aqueous solution of boric acid is treated with Salicylic acid. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect for the product formed in the above reaction
(A) No product will be formed because both are acid.
(B) Product is 4-coordinated complex and optically resolvable.
(C) Product is 4-coordinated complex and optically non resolvable
(D) There are two ring only which are five membered.
Q.10 Which of the following option is/are incorrect the most acidic halide among Boron halides?
(A) It is volatile halide. (B) It is most thermal stable halide.
(C) It form strong p–p back bond. (D) It can form [BX4–]
Q.11 Choose the correct statements:

(A) In B2H6 molecule bond strength of bridge bond is greater than terminal B–H bond.
(B) In trisilyl amine maximum seven atoms are present in one plane and nitrogen has sp3 hybridisation.
(C) Borax give blue bead with CuSO4 salt.
(D) Borate salt on react with methanol in presence of concentrated H2SO4 to form a compound which
give green edge flame.
Q.12 The correct statement(s) related to allotropes of carbon is/are

(A) graphite is the most stable allotropes of carbon and having a two dimensional sheet like structure of
hexagonal rings of carbon (sp2)
(B) diamond is the hardest allotrope of carbon and having a three dimensional network structure of C(sp3)
(C) fullerene (C60) is recentlydiscovered non-crystalline allotrope of carbon having a football-like structure.
(D) Vander Waal's force of attraction acts between the layers of graphite.
Q.13 Which of the following is / are correct for group 14 elements?

(A) The stability of dihalides are in the order CX2 < SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2
(B) The ability to form p–p multiple bonds among themselves increases down the group
(C) The tendency for catenation decreases down the group
(D) They all form oxides with the formula MO2
Q.14 Which is/are correct options?

(A) In diamond each C-atom is tetrahedrally surrounded by 4-equidistant neighbour.
(B) Diamond has the highest thermal conductivity of any known substance.
(C) Diamond shows less electrical conductivity as compare to graphite.
(D) Graphite is harder than diamond.
Q.15 Silane is more reactive than CH4 due to

(A) larger size of Si compared to C which facililates the attack by nucleophile.
(B) Polarity of Si–H bond is opposite to that of C–H bond.
(C)Availability of vacant 3d orbitals in case of Si to form the reaction intermediate easily.
(D) Si–H bond energy is lower than that of C–H bond.
Q.16 In the following Silicone, select the alkyl / aryl substituted silicon chlorides which are used in formation
of given Silicones:
R R R R
R – Si – O – Si – O – Si – O – Si – R
R R R R
(A) R SiCl3 (B) R2SiCl2 (C) R3SiCl (D) R4Si
Q.17 Which of the following is not true?

(A) In SiF4 , Si – F bond length is greater than the sum of the radius of Si and F.
(B) In SiF4 , Si – F bond length is small than the sum of the radius of Si and F.
(C) In SiF4 , Si – F bond length is equal than the sum of the radius of Si and F.
(D) None of these
Q.18 Nitric oxide gas is evolved by

(A) Zn + dil HNO3 (B) FeSO4(aq) + dil HNO3
(C) Pb + Hot dil HNO3 (D) Air oxidation of NH3
Q.19 Phosphine gas is prepared by

(A) Ca3P2 + dil. HCl (B) PH4I + KOH soln.
 
(C) Red phosphorus + NaOH soln.  (D) P4 + NaOH soln. 

Q.20 PCl5(g) + Ag  x+y
Where product 'x' is water insoluble but 'y' reacts with water, then product 'x' is soluble in solution of:
(A) KCN (B) Na2S2O3 (C) dil. HNO3 (D) NH3

Q.21 Which of the following reaction is/are correct?

(A) PCl3 + 3H2O  H3PO3 + 3HCl (B) NCl3 + 3H2O  NH3 + 3HOCl
(C) SbCl3 + 3H2O  H3SbO3 + 3HCl (D) BiCl3 + H2O  BiOCl + 2HCl
Q.22 CaCN2 + H2O  solid + gas, same gas can also be produced from
 
(A) (NH4)2S  (B) (NH4)2SO4 
 
(C) Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O  (D) (NH4)2Cr2O7 
Q.23 Which of the following is false for allotropes of phosphorus

(A) yellow phosphorus is soluble in CS2 while red phosphorus does not
(B) P – P – P bond angle is 60° in red phosphorus
(C) On heating in air white phosphorus changes to red
(D) white phosphorus changes to black phosphorus at ordinary temperature
Q.24 Which of the following equation is/are correctly written?


(A) P4 + 20HNO3  4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O

(B) I2 + 10HNO3  2HIO4 + 10NO2 + 4H2O

(C) S + 6HNO3  H2SO4 + 6NO2 + 2H2O

(D) Sn + 4HNO3  H2SnO3 + 4NO2 + 2H2O
Q.25 Which of the following compounds is/are directly used as fertilizer?

(A) Ca3(PO4)2 (B) Ca(H2PO4)2 (C) CaNCN (D) (NH4)2SO4
Q.26 Aqueous solution of NH3 gas is basic because.

(A) NH3 undergoes self dissociation in water
(B) NH3 acts as electrolyte in water
(C) NH4+ ion forms stronger hydrogen bond with water than NH3 molecule does with water
(D) NH3 molecules reduce concentration of H+ ions that are furnished from H2O.
Q.27 Which of the following reaction( s) liberate NH3 gas.

(A) Heating of NH4ClO4 (B) Heating of (NH4)2C2O4
(C) CaCN2 + H2O (D) Li3N + H2O
Q.28 Which combination gives H3PO4

(A) P4 + SOCl2 (B) H3PO3 + Br2 (C) P4 + SO2Cl2 (D) P4 + conc. H2SO4

Q.29 Ca3P2(s) + 6HCl(dil)  X(aq) + Y

gas 'Y' forms precipitate with
(A) CuSO4 soln. (B) AgNO3 soln. (C) Hg(NO3)2 soln. (D) HBr acid
Q.30 Correct statement(s) for N2O gas is/are:

(A) It is acid anhydride of H2N2O2.
(B) On heating with sodium metal it does not produce metal nitride.
(C) N2O can be separated from NO by passing the gaseous mixture into aqueous FeSO4 solution.
(D) Bond order of N – N bond in N2O > 2.0
Q.31 In which of the following reactions NH3 gas evolution occurs.


(A) NO3– + Zn + dil H2SO4 warm
 (B) NH4+ salt + NaOH 

(C) AlN + steam  (D) CH3COONH4 
Q.32 Choose the correct options

(A) Conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is N3–.
(B) dN–N bond length in N2H4 is more as compare to dN–N in N2F4
(C) In triazene (N3H3) all nitrogen atoms are sp2 hybridised
(D) In cyclotriazene (N3H) all N–N bond length are equal
Q.33 Which of the following reactions would evolve nitrogen gas under suitable condition?

(A) NH4IO3  (B) Ca(OCl)Cl + NH3 
?  ?
(C) NH3 + CuO  
 ? (D) Ba(N3)2  ?
Q.34 The reactions which produce N2 gas are :

(A) H2N–SO3H + HNO2  (B) CO(NH2) + HNO2 
(C) CS(NH2)2 + HNO2  (D) NO2– + N3– + 2H+ 
Q.35 Cu + dil HNO3  [X] + [Y]

Products are :
(A) Cu(NO3)2 (B) N2O (C) NO (D) NO2
Q.36 The ozone layer forms natural in stratosphere by

(A) the interaction of CFC with oxygen (B) the interaction of UV radiation with oxygen
(C) the interaction of IR radiation with oxygen (D) the interaction of oxygen and water vapour

Q.37 SO2(g) + Cl2(g)  x 

P4
y+Z
Then X, Y and Z can be.
(A) SOCl2 (B) SO2Cl2 (C) SO2 (D) PCl5
Q.38 When a compound X reacts with ozone in aqueous medium, a compound Y is produced, Ozone also
reacts with Y and produces compound Z. Z acts as an oxidising agent, then X, Y and Z will be
(A) X = HI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO3 (B) X = acidified KI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO3
(C) X = KI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO4 (D) X = HI, Y= I2 and Z = HIO4
Q.39 Which of the following characteristics is/are shown by sulphur dioxide?

(A) coloured gas
(B)Ability to turn acidified dichromate paper green
(C)Ability to decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution
(D) D: acts lewis acid
Q.40 Which propertie(s) is/are following given order

H2S2O4 < H2S2O5 < H2S2O6 < H2S2O7
(A)Acidic strength (B) Number of (p – d) bond
(C) Oxidation state of sulphur (D) Number of acidic hydrogen
Q.41 Which substance(s) can show oxidative bleaching action.

(A) CaOCl2 (B) SO2 (C) MgO2 (D) Na2S2O3
Q.42 SO2(gas) + Cl2(gas)   (X)

Charcoal Catalyst
CORRECT statement(s) about compound (X) is/are

(A) It is a dehydrating agent
(B) It undergoes hydrolysis via SNAE reaction
(C) Its aqueous solution gives white ppt with BaCl2 solution
(D) It contains one (d – p) bond

Q.43 Na2CO3 solution SO

2  (A) NaIO
   (B) (final product).
3 solution
excess
Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding 'B'.

(A) It has no electrical conductivity in solid state but conducts electricity in liquid state.
(B) It is highlysoluble in water.
(C) It produces blue solution with starch.
(D) It produces the same oxidation state on reaction with excess Cl 2 water as that of 2nd reagent used
above.
Q.44 If ozone absorb red light then emitted colour of ozone is

(A) Orange (B) Blue (C) Indigo (D)Yellow
Q.45 Which of the following property is correctly match for halogens

(A) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 : Boiling point
(B) F > Cl > Br > I: Ionisation energy
(C) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 : bond dissociation energy
(D) F–(aq) > Cl–(aq) > Br–(aq) > I–(aq) : electrical conductance
Q.46 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding inter-halogen compounds ofABx types?
(A) x may be 1, 3, 5 and 7 (B) Ais a more electronegative halogen than B
(C) FBr3 cannot exit (D) Only IF7 is non polar inter halogen compound
Q.47 Acidic character of HF increases appreciably on mixing it with :

(A) XeF2 (B) BF3 (C) PF5 (D) SiF4
Q.48 When a compound X reacts with ozone in aqueous medium, a compound Y is produced. Ozone also
reacts with Y and produces compound Z. Z acts as an oxidising agent, then X, Y and Z will be
(A) X = HI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO3 (B) X = KI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO3
(C) X = KI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO4 (D) X = HI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO4
Q.49 Identify the correct statements:

(A) Fluorine is a super halogen (B) Iodine shows basic nature
(C) AgF is insoluble in water (D) SCN– is a pseudohalide
Q.50 Which of the following fumes is moist air?

(A) TiCl4 (B)AlCl3 (C) BeCl2 (D) BCl3

Q.51 The decreasing order Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He, is correct for
(A) boiling point (B) solubilityin water (C) polarisability (D) Ease of liquification
Q.52 Which of the following Combination of reactants produce chemical change

(A) ClF5 + NaF (B) ClF3 + XeF2 (C) SF6 + XeF4 (D) B(OH)3 + HF
Q.53 Xe + F2 1
 X 
: 20
 Y 
H 2O
 Z 
H 2O
 XeO3
H 2O
Select correct option(s) for X, Y, Z and given chemical change

(A) X, Y and Z are in same oxidation state
(B) All have equal number of lone pair on central atom
(C) All are non-planar
(D)All have equal number of covalent bonds
Q.54 Which of the following reaction(s) of xenon compounds is/are feasible?

(A) XeF2 + HF  [XeF]+ [HF2]–
(B) XeF4 + RbF  Rb+ [XeF5]–
(C) XeF4 + PF5  [XeF3]+ [PF6]–
(D) 2XeF6 + 3SiO2 R


.T.
 2XeO3 + 3 SiF4
Q.55 Which substance(s) is/are acting as refrigerant?
(A) Solid CO2 (B) liquid nitrogen (C) liquid NH3 (D) liquid helium
Q.56 Correct statement(s) for hydrolysis of XeF4 is/are:

(A) It is disproportionation reaction.
(B) It is dangerous to store XeF4 in moist glass vessel.
(C) 1.5 moles of oxygen is liberated for three moles of XeF4.
(D) Hybridization of xenon atom changes.
[REASONING TYPE]
Q.57 Statement-I : NaBO3/OH– can be used for oxidation of Cr3+ to Cr6+
Statement-II : In alkaline medium NaBO3 produces H2O2
(A) If both Statmemt-I & Statmemt-II are True & the Statmemt-II is a correct explanation of the
Statmemt-I.
(B) If both Statmemt-I & Statmemt-II are True but Statmemt-II is not a correct explanation of the
Statmemt-I.
(C) If Statmemt-I is True but the Statmemt-II is False.
(D) If Statmemt-I is False but the Statmemt-II is True.

Q.58 Statement-I : SiCl4 undergoes hydrolysis whereas CCl4 does not.

Statement-II : Silicon has vacant d-orbitals in its valance shell whereas carbon does not.
Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.
Q.59 Statement - I : Hydrated calcium silicate in mild basic medium contains the discrete unit of Si(OH)62 .
Statement - II : Calcium silicate undergoes hydrolysis to produce silisic acid which under mild alkaline
condition produces Si(OH)62 complex.

Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.
Q.60 Statement-I : Carbonates and silicates are isostructural

Statement-II : Carbon and silicon atoms have same number of valence shell electrons
Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.
Q.61 Statement-1 : Rate of conversion of GeCl2 , SnCl2 and PbCl2 by Cl2 into GeCl4 , SnCl4 and
PbCl4 respectively decreases from GeCl2 to PbCl2.
Statement-2 : From Ge to Pb, M–Cl bond energy decreases and promotion energy for M2+ to
M4+ is not compensated due to inert pair effect.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

4+ 2+
Q.62 Statement-1 : Pb has higher electronegativity as compared to Pb .
Statement-2: Pb4+ is less stable than Pb2+.
(B) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2is true and Statement-2 is NOTthe correct explanation for Statement-1
Q.63 Statement-I : There is a very little difference in acidic-strengths of H3PO4, H3PO3 and H3PO2.
Statement-II : Number of unprotonated oxygen responsible for increase of acidic-strength due to
inductive effect remains the same.
Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.
Q.64 Statement-I : PCl5 and PbCl4 are thermally unstable

Statement-II : They produce same gas on thermal decomposition
Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.
Q.65 Statement-I : Red phosphorus is less volatile then white phosphorus.

Statement-II: Red phosphorus has a discrete tetrahedral structure.
(A) If both Statmemt-I & Statmemt-II are True & the Statmemt-II isacorrectexplanationofthe Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.

Q.66 Statement -1 : White phosphorus & Sulphur both disproportionated with NaOH producing their
respective hydrides as one of the product. But Phosphorus does not come back on
acidification of disproportionated products.
Statement -2 : PH3 is gaseous substance.
(C) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
Q.67 Statement-I : Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur, yet H2S is acidic, while H2O is neutral.
Statement-II : H–S bond is weaker than O–H bond.
Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.
Q.68 Statement-1: In Caro's acid sulphur atom is sp3 hybridized state.

Statement-2: Caro's acid contains one peroxy O 22 linkage.
Q.69 Statement-I : Conc. H2SO4 can not be used to prepare pure HBr from NaBr
Statement-II : It reacts slowly with NaBr.
Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.

Q.70 Statement -I : Bleaching action of chlorine is permanent while that of SO2 is temporary.
Statement -II : Chlorine bleaches by reduction and SO2 by oxidation.
Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.
Q.71 Statement-I : Cl2 gas undergoes disproportionation in hot and concentrated caustic soda (NaOH)
solution.
Statement-II : NaCl and NaOCl are the products formed.
Statmemt-I.
Statmemt-I.
Q.72 Statement-1: HF is not stored in glass bottles.

Statement-2: HF is only the liquid halogen acid.
Q.73 Statement-1: He and Ne do not form clathrate compound.

Statement-2: Down the group of inert gases, induction by the dipole increases.

[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
The chemical nature of boron is influenced primarilybyits small size and high ionization energy, and these
factors, coupled with the similarity in electronegativity of B, C and H, lead to an extensive and unusual
type of covalent molecular species. The availability of only 3 electrons contribute to covalent bonding
involving the four orbitals s, px, py and pz confers a further range of properties of Boron leading to
electron pair acceptor behaviour (Lewis acidity) and multicentre bonding.
Q.74 Which compound does not form when B2H6 reacts with NH3 at room temperature or higher temperature.
(A) BH3  NH3 (B) [BH2(NH3)2] [BH4]
(C) B3N3H6 (D) inorganic graphite
Q.75 Which of the following compound gives H3BO3/ H[B(OH)4] on hydrolysis.

(I) B2H6 (II) Na2B4O7 (III) BCl3 (IV) B2O3
(A) Only I (B) Only I, III (C) I, III, IV (D)All of these

F Cl Br
B Monomer Monomer X
Al Ionic Polymer ( W ) Y
Ga Ionic Dimer Z
Q.76 The compound (X) exists as
(A) Monomer (B) Dimer (C) Polymer (D) Trimer
Q.77 Select the correct statement(s) regarding the compounds (W) and (Z).
(A) Coordination number of Al in the compound (W) is 6
(B) Coordination number of Ga in the compound (Z) is 4.
(C) The compound (Z) exists as dimer.
(D)All of these
Q.78 Which of the following statements is correct for the compound (Y)?
(A) It exists as polymer and the coordination number of Al is 6.
(B) It exists as dimer and the coordination number of Al is 4.
(C) It exists as monomer.
(D) None of these


It is clear that [BH3] is a fugitive reaction species it exit only at exceedingly low concentration but can be
isolated and studied using matrix isolation techniques. Thus it can be generated bythermal dissociation of
looselly bound 1:1 ligand, H– is a species case since it gives the symmetrical tetrahedral ion BH4–
isoelectronic with CH4 and NH4+. Many other complexes of BH3 with N, PAs, O, S etc. doner atoms
are also known and theyreadilyformed by symmetrical homolytic cleavage of the bridge bonds in B2H6.
  H  [Z] + HCl

Electric discharge
Q.79 [X] + Cl2 — [ Y]
Element Electron Deficient 2
[Z] + [L] — [M]

Adduct
The most stable adduct formed by [Z] with [L] then L is :

(A) PF3 (B) CO (C) Me2S (D) Py
Q.80 Choose correct option w.r.t. B2H6

(A) CO gives unsymmetrical cleavage.
(B) NH3, MeNH2 and Me2NH gives unsymmetrical cleavage.
(C) H– form less stable adduct as compare to Me3N.
(D) Bond length of bridge bond is less than terminal bond length in B2H6

Silicones are organo-silicon synthetic polymers. These are formed by the hydrolysis of alkyl or aryl
substituted chloro silanes and their subsequent Polymerisation. The alkyl and aryl substituted chloro
silanes are prepared by the reaction of Grignard reagent and SiCl4. The lower silicones are oily liquids
but higher members containing long chains or ring structures are waxy and rubber like solids. They are
good electrical insulators and are used in making vaseline like greases which are used as lubricants in
aeroplanes.
Q.81 Find the value of n, for which compound (CH3)n Si(Cl)4–n on hydrolysis followed by polymerisation
gives cross linked silicone
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None
Q.82 Which of the following is correct about silicones?

(A) Silicones are organo silicon compounds containing Si–O–Si linkage
(B) R3SiCl on hydrolysis followed bysubsequent polymerisation gives liner silicones
(C) RSiCl3 on hydrolysis followed by subsequent polymerisation gives linear silicones
(D) When water is eliminated from the terminal –OH groups of linear silicones, cross linked silicones are
formed


The term carbide is generally applied to compounds in which carbon is bonded to the elements of lower
or approximatelysame electronegativity.This definition excludes the compounds in which oxygen, sulphur,
phosphorus nitrogen and halogens are united with carbon. Reactive metals (i.e. of group 1 and 2) form
ionic carbides. They hydrolyse to liberate hydrocarbons. Most of them resembles with NaCl in crystal
structure. Transition metals forms interstitial carbides.
Q.83 Read the following statement regarding metal carbide.

(I) All metal carbides are ionic
(II) CaC2 has one sigma and two pi bonds
(III) Be2C on hydrolysis forms amphoteric hydroxide
(IV) SiC is 3-D covalent solid compound having sp2 hybridised Si atoms
Choose the correct options :
(A) Only II (B) II and III (C) II, III and IV (D) II and IV
Q.84 Select the correct order of hydrolysis:

(I) SnCl2 < SnCl4 (II) FeCl2 < FeCl3 (III) AgF > AgI (IV) PbF2 > PbI2
(A) I only (B) I and IV (C) I and II (D) I, II, III and IV

The following flow diagram represents the industrial preparation of nitric acid from ammonia:
(A) (B)
NH3 + O2 900°C
NO air
(C) water
HNO3 + NO
Answer the questions given below:

Q.85 Which line of entry describes the undefined reagents, products and reaction conditions?
A B C
(A) catalyst R.T. (25°C) NO 2
(B) catalyst R.T. (25°C) N2O
(C) catalyst high pressure NO 2
(D) catalyst high pressure N 2O 3
Q.86 Formation of HNO3 when (C) is dissolved in H2O takes place through various reactions. Select the
reaction not observed in this step.
(A) NO2 + H2O  HNO3 + HNO2 (B) HNO2  H2O + NO + NO2
(C) NO2 + H2O  HNO3 + NO (D) none of these


In laboratory dinitrogen is prepared by treating an aqueous solution of NH4Cl & NaNO2.
NH4Cl + NaNO2  N2 + NaCl + H2O
Small amount of gas 'X' and compound 'Y' is also formed in this reaction.
Q.87 Gas 'X' can be prepared by
(A) Heating of Pb(NO3)2 (B) by treating Zn with conc. HNO3
(C) by treating Fe with dil. HNO3 (D) by treating FeS with dil. HNO3
Q.88 Compound 'Y' is

(I) oxidising agent (II) reducing agent (III) strong acid (IV) dehydrating agent
(A) Only I &II (B) Only I & III (C) Only I & IV (D) Only I & III, IV
dry hydrolysis
P4 Cl2 (T) (X) + HCl
O2 (–Y) 
hydrolysis
(W) (Z) Ca3P2
PCl5
(V)
P4 
(U) –2H2O NH4NO3
Q.89 The compound (W) can also be obtained by the reaction(s).

(A) PCl5 + H2SO4  ? (B) PCl5 + SO2  ?
(C) PCl5 + H2O  ? (D) PCl5 + O2  ?
(Equimolar ratio)
Q.90 Select the correct statement(s)?

(A) Heating of (X) involves disproportionation.
(B) Heating of NH4NO3 to get (U) involves disproportionation
(C) The compound (U) supports combustion.
(D) Formation of (Z) by treating P4 with caustic soda involves disproportionation.
Q.91 The gas (U) is

(A) neutral oxide (B) oxidising agent
(C) also obtained by treating zinc with dilute HNO3 (D) linear in shape.


Nitric acid reacts with most of the metal (Except Noble metals like gold and platinum) and non metals.
Towards its reaction with metals HNO3 acts as an acid as well as an oxidising agent like other acids
HNO3 liberate Nascent hydrogen from metals which further reduces the nitric acid into number of
products like NO, NO2, N2O, N2, NH2OH or NH3 according to the following reactions:
Metal + HNO3  Nitrate + H
2HNO3 + 2H  2NO + 2H2O
2HNO3 + 5H  2NO + 5H2O
2HNO3 + 10H  N2 + 6H2O
2HNO3 + 16H  2NH3 + 6H2O
Q.92 Which reaction can be used to prepare laughing gas?
(A) Reaction of Sn with very dil. HNO3 (B) Reaction of Hg with dil. HNO3
(C) Reaction of Zn with dil. HNO3 (D) Reaction of Cl with HNO3
Q.93 Metal (M) + very dil. HNO3  No reaction

Excess of
+ Gas (B)   
 Solution (C) 
NaOH ( aq.)
Metal (M) + conc. HNO3  Light Zn
Gas (D)
Blue
Solution
Select correct statement:
(A) Solution (C) is only NaNO2
(B) Gas (B) is diamagnetic
(C) Gas (C) has sp3 hybridisation in their transition state
(D) Gas (B) has sp2 hybridisation.

Among Halogens, F2 is most reactive Halogen and under controlled conditions when it reacts with other
Halogens like Cl2, Br2 and I2 then tetra-atomic, Hexa-atomic and an octa-atomic interhalogen compounds
are formed respectively.
Q.94 Non-polar interhalogen molecule is
(A) Tetra-atomic (B) Hexa-atomic (C) Octa-atomic (D) None of these
Q.95 Planar interhalogen molecule is

(A) Tetra-atomic (B) Hexa-atomic (C) Octa-atomic (D) None of these
Q.96 Which of the following species does not exist?

(A) ClI3 (B) IF5 (C) ICl2– (D) BrF4

[MATCH THE COLUMN]

Q.97 B2H6 + H2O  W + H2
  
W  X  Y  Z
Column–I Columnt–II
(P) W (1) B2O3
(Q) X (2) HBO2
(R) Y (3) H2B4O7
(S) Z (4) H3BO3
Q.98 Match the column-

Column–I (Reactions) Column–II (Product)

(A) Borax  (p) BN
(B) B2H6 + H2O  (q) B2H6

(C) B2H6 NH3 (Excess)  (r) H3BO3
(D) BCl3 + LiAlH4  (s) NaBO2 + B2O3
Q.99 Match the following

Column–I Column–II
(A) BBr3 + H2  B (p) Borax bead test
(B) Na2B4O7.10 H2O + CuSO4  Cu(BO2)2 (q) Reduction
(C) AlCl3 + H2O  HCl (r) White fumes
(D) Cr2O3 + Al  Cr (s) Hydrolysis


(A) Si 4O10
13 (P) Negative charge on the anion is
equal to the number of terminal
oxygen atoms.
(B) SiO 44 (Q) Three shared corners and ten
unshared corners
8
(C) Si 4O12 (R) Silicon atom(s) is/are present at
the center of geometry and every
oxygen atom is present at each corner
of the geometry.
(D) Si 2O 67 (S) Non-planar geometry
(T) Total number of oxygen atoms shared in
between two tetrahedral unit in whole structure
is in even number.

(Reactions) (Products and type of reaction)
(A) P4O6 + H2O 
 (P) H3PO3
(B) 
P4 + NaOH + H2O  (Q) H3PO4

(C) H3PO3  (R) PH3
(S) disproportionation.

[Hydrolysed products at any condition]
(A) NF 3 (P) One of the product is anhydride of nitrous acid
(B) NCl3 (Q) One of the product is sp3 hybridised.
(C) PCl3 (R) One of the product is ionic with white turbidity.
(D) SbCl3 (S) One of the product is acidic in nature.
(T) Tautomerism is observed.
Q.103 Match List-I with List-II

List-I Chemical reaction List-II Name of process
 C / Pt
I. 4NH3 + 5O2 800
  4NO + 6H2O (a) Contact process
C / CuCl 2
II. 4HCl + O2 3230
   2Cl2 + 2H2O (b) Ostwald's process
500 / V2O5
III. 2SO2 + O2 450
  2SO3 (c) Deacon's process
IV. 
2N2 + 3H2 Fe  2NH3
Mo
(d) Haber's process
[INTEGER / SUBJECTIVE TYPE]

C
Q.104 2BF3(g) + 6NaH 180
 P(g) + Q(solid). Find out maximum number of atom(s) that can lie in a
plane of covalent molecule 'P'.
Q.105 Find the number of reagents which would lead to unsymmetrical cleavage of diborane.
CH3NH2, NH3, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N, ,NaH

O
Q.106 Find the total number of -bonds in hydrated borax.

Q.107
(a) Consider thermal decomposition given below:

Pb(NO3)2  A(s) + B(gas) + C(gas)
When gas (B) is allowed to cool down below – 11°C, then it is solidified and exists as ion pair. What is
bond order of anion?
(b) Consider the following equation
H2S2O7 + H2O  (A)
When compound (A) is allowed to react with P2O5 , compound (C) is formed. How many d– p bonds
are present in compound (C).
Note : There are two separate parts in this question i.e. part (a) & part (b). Suppose answer for
part (a) is P and for part (b) is Q, then final answer of this question will be the form of P + Q
in OMR Sheet.
Q.108 3 moles of SiF4 are reacted with water, then calculate how many total number of moles of Hexa fluoride
silicic acid are formed in product.
Q.109 How many of the following silicates have two O-atoms shared per tetrahedron?
Be2(SiO4), Ca2Mg5[(Si4O11)2](OH)2 , Sc2(Si2O7), Ca3(Si3O9), Be3Al2(Si6O18),
Mg2[(SiO3)2], Al2(OH)4 [Si2O5]
Q.110 4HNO3 + P4O10 

10C
 2N2O5 + (HPO3)4
Find out the value of expression | x – y | for above reaction
where, x = Maximum number of equal N – O bond length in N2O5.
y = Difference of oxy linkages (P – O – P) between P4O10 and (HPO3)4.
Q.111 How many number of metals will produced NO gas with 20% dil HNO3
Cu, Fe, Sn, Zn, Hg, Pb, Ag, Au

Q.112 How many of the following reactions would produce phosphine gas?

(a) PH4Cl + NaOH 
 (b) P4 + NaOH 

(c) Ca3P2 + H2O 
 (d) H3PO3 

(e) PCl5 + H2SO4 
 (f) H3PO2 
(g) P2Cl4 + H2O 

 (h) AlP + H2SO4 

(i) P4O10 + H2O 


Q.113 How many compounds or elements with PCl5 give POCl3 as a minor, major or intermediate product?
Ag, Sn, H2O, C2H5OH, CH3COOH
Q.114 How many statements are correct for the complex entity?
N N
II
Ni
N N
(a) it is square planar (b) It is diamagnetic

(c) It has 4 chelates. (d) It has two unpaired electrons.
(e) It exhibits geometrical isomerism (f) d x 2  y 2 orbital of Ni2+ ion is involved in its formation.
Q.115 The product formed in the reactions

2NO + Cl2  2NOCl
6NO + 8BrF3  6NO [BrF4] + Br2
have the following characteristics.
NOCl gas boiling point : –7°C
NO[BrF4] crystalline melting point 255°C conductor in liquid state in which of these compounds is the
NO group bonded by a covalent bond & in which it is in the form of NO+ ion.
Q.116 Which of the following oxides are amphoteric?

MgO, CaO, FeO, Cu2O, Ag2O, Al2O3, PbO, SnO, ZnO, BeO, Na2O, Cs2O
[If your answer is 2 then write the answer as 0002.]

Q.117 Two molecules of oil of vitriol (ic-acid of sulphur ) –H2O + O  (X).

How many sp3 hybridised atoms are present in compound (X)?
[If your answer is 2 then write the answer as 0002.]
Q.118 How many S–O–S, S–S bonds and total number of lone pair are present respectively in the trimer of
SO3.
[If your answers are 2,4 and 10 respectively, write the answer as 2410.]
Q.119 Consider the following reaction:

H3C – C  CH + O2 
 (X) (gas) + (Y)
When gas (X) reacts with NaOH, then compound (Z) is formed at room temperature, calculate the
bond order of covalent bond present in anionic part of compound (Z).
Q.120 S2O32 + I2  I + X (ion)

What is the average oxidation state of central atom of X ion.
[Multiply your answer by 100]
Q.121 Find the number of moles of sodium hydroxide which would exactly neutralise all the acids produced by
complete hydrolysis of one mole of SO2Cl2 . Assume 100% efficiency of all the reactions involved.
Q.122 How many number of species give white turbidity with H2S?
KMnO4/H, K2Cr2O7/H, KIO3/H, FeCl3, Br2-water, conc. HNO3, conc. H2SO4, H2O2
Q.123 For reaction:

IO3–(aq) + I–(aq) + H+(aq)  X + H2O
Find out value of expression P – Q.
where; P = Number of lone pairs in a molecule of 'X',
Q = Number of covalent bond(s) in a molecule of X.
Q.124 Which of the following species are pseudohalides ?

 
CN  , SCN  , OCN  , acac, SO32–, S2O32–, en, NC , TeCN , N 3 , CO32–

Q.125 How many total number of following order are correct according to their given property -
BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3  Order of Polarity
BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3  Order of Bond angle
BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 < BI3  Order of M–X bond length
F– > Cl–  Order of Lewis base character
F– > Cl–  Order of Ionisation potential
F– < Cl–  Order of Stability
Cl > F  Order of Electron affinity
Cl2 > F2  Order of Bond Energy
HOF > HOCl  Order of Acidic character
HF > HCl  Order of Acidic character
Q.126 Iodine dissolves in cyclohexane to give a violet solution when benzene, dioxan or pyridine are added to
this solution, its color changes & the apparent dipole moment of this iodine in solution increases. The
moments of dipolar species formed in presence of above 3 solvents are 1.8, 3 & 4.5 D respectively with
the cyclohexane solution as reference zero. Explain.

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 C Q.4 C Q.5 D
Q.6 D Q.7 C Q.8 D Q.9 C Q.10 D
Q.11 D Q.12 A Q.13 D Q.14 B Q.15 A
Q.16 C Q.17 D Q.18 C Q.19 B Q.20 A
Q.21 A Q.22 C Q.23 C Q.24 D Q.25 B
Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 D Q.29 A Q.30 D
Q.31 C Q.32 A Q.33 A Q.34 A Q.35 D
Q.36 C Q.37 C Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 B
Q.41 D Q.42 A Q.43 C Q.44 C Q.45 C
Q.46 A Q.47 B Q.48 A Q.49 A Q.50 C
Q.51 D Q.52 C Q.53 A Q.54 D Q.55 C
Q.56 C Q.57 D Q.58 B Q.59 C Q.60 D
Q.61 C Q.62 C Q.63 D Q.64 B Q.65 C
Q.66 D Q.67 C Q.68 C Q.69 A Q.70 D
Q.71 A Q.72 B Q.73 B Q.74 A Q.75 A
Q.76 B Q.77 B Q.78 B Q.79 C Q.80 B
Q.81 A Q.82 D Q.83 A Q.84 A Q.85 A
Q.86 A Q.87 C Q.88 C Q.89 D Q.90 D
Q.91 B Q.92 A Q.93 C Q.94 B Q.95 C
Q.96 B Q.97 A Q.98 B Q.99 A Q.100 A
Q.101 B Q.102 C Q.103 B Q.104 B Q.105 D
Q.106 A Q.107 C Q.108 A Q.109 A Q.110 D
Q.111 D Q.112 D Q.113 C Q.114 D Q.115 D
Q.116 D Q.117 D Q.118 D Q.119 B Q.120 A
Q.121 D Q.122 B Q.123 C Q.124 D Q.125 D
Q.126 A Q.127 B Q.128 D Q.129 A Q.130 C
Q.131 B Q.132 A Q.133 B Q.134 C Q.135 B
Q.136 A Q.137 A Q.138 B Q.139 B Q.140 D
Q.141 B Q.142 A Q.143 A Q.144 C Q.145 C
Q.146 B Q.147 D Q.148 C Q.149 A Q.150 B
Q.151 C Q.152 D Q.153 A Q.154 B Q.155 A
Q.156 B Q.157 D Q.158 D Q.159 C Q.160 C
Q.161 C Q.162 C Q.163 B Q.164 D Q.165 B
Q.166 D Q.167 A Q.168 D Q.169 A Q.170 B

Q.171 D Q.172 D Q.173 B Q.174 B Q.175 C

Q.176 D Q.177 C Q.178 D Q.179 C Q.180 C
Q.181 C Q.182 D Q.183 D Q.184 D Q.185 C
Q.186 A Q.187 B Q.188 B Q.189 A Q.190 D
Q.191 B Q.192 D Q.193 C Q.194 A Q.195 C
Q.196 B Q.197 A Q.198 C Q.199 A Q.200 C
Q.201 C Q.202 A Q.203 C Q.204 B Q.205 C
Q.206 A Q.207 D Q.208 C Q.209 C Q.210 D
Q.211 A,D Q.212 D Q.213 D Q.214 B Q.215 A
Q.216 A Q.217 D Q.218 B Q.219 D Q.220 B
Q.221 D Q.222 B Q.223 A Q.224 A Q.225 B
Q.226 C Q.227 D Q.228 A Q.229 C Q.230 C
Q.231 C Q.232 C Q.233 C Q.234 A Q.235 C
Q.236 A Q.237 A Q.238 C Q.239 B Q.240 B
Q.241 D Q.242 A Q.243 D Q.244 A Q.245 D
Q.246 B Q.247 B Q.248 D Q.249 A Q.250 B
Q.251 B Q.252 B Q.253 D Q.254 C Q.255 D
Q.256 D Q.257 D Q.258 B Q.259 C Q.260 B
Q.261 C Q.262 A

EXERCISE-2
Q.1 ABCD Q.2 ABCD Q.3 ABC Q.4 ABC Q.5 ABC
Q.6 BC Q.7 ABC Q.8 ABCD Q.9 ACD Q.10 BCD
Q.11 ACD Q.12 ABD Q.13 ACD Q.14 ABC Q.15 ABCD
Q.16 BC Q.17 AC Q.18 BCD Q.19 ABD Q.20 ABD
Q.21 ABD Q.22 ABC Q.23 BCD Q.24 ACD Q.25 BCD
Q.26 BCD Q.27 BCD Q.28 BD Q.29 ABC Q.30 BCD
Q.31 BCD Q.32 AB Q.33 ABCD Q.34 ABCD Q.35 AC
Q.36 B Q.37 BCD Q.38 AB Q.39 BCD Q.40 AC
Q.41 AC Q.42 ABC Q.43 ACD Q.44 B Q.45 ABC
Q.46 ACD Q.47 BCD Q.48 AB Q.49 ABD Q.50 ABC
Q.51 ABCD Q.52 ABD Q.53 ABCD Q.54 ABCD Q.55 ABCD
Q.56 ABCD Q.57 A Q.58 A Q.59 B Q.60 D
Q.61 A Q.62 B Q.63 A Q.64 B Q.65 C
Q.66 B Q.67 A Q.68 B Q.69 C Q.70 C
Q.71 C Q.72 B Q.73 A Q.74 A Q.75 D
Q.76 A Q.77 D Q.78 B Q.79 D Q.80 B
Q.81 A Q.82 A Q.83 B Q.84 C Q.85 A
Q.86 D Q.87 D Q.88 B Q.89 ABC Q.90 ACD
Q.91 ABCD Q.92 C Q.93 D Q.94 C Q.95 A
Q.96 A
Q.97 (P) 4 ; (Q) 2; (R) 3; (S) 1 Q.98 (A) s (B) r (C) p (D) q
Q.99 (A) q (B) p (C) r, s (D) q Q.100 (A) PQRS (B) PRS (C) PRST (D) PRS
Q.101 (A) P, (B) RS, (C) QRS Q.102 (A) PS (B) QS (C) QST (D) RS
Q.103 I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d Q.104 6 Q.105 0003
Q.106 0034 Q.107 3.33 Q.108 2 Q.109 3 Q.110 2
Q.111 4 Q.112 0006 Q.113 3 Q.114 0004
Q.115 In NOCl, NO group bonded by a covalent bond which reflects its boiling point and in NO[BrF4] it is in
the form of NO+ ion which reflects its melting point and conductivity.
Q.116 0005 Q.117 0006 Q.118 3018 Q.119 1.33 Q.120 250
Q.121 4 Q.122 8 Q.123 5 Q.124 6 Q.125 6
Q.126 Donar strength increases in the order benzene < dioxan < py. Greater interation implies greater electron
transfer and hence a higher dipole moment

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY d & f-Block Elements
D & F-BLOCK ELEMENTS

CHAPTER
EXERCISE-1
d-BLOCK COMPOUNDS
Salt
 'P' few drops of  AgNO 3
T
warm NaOH
Warm NaOH +   Excess
conc. H 2SO 4 
Q.1 + compound 'Q' (solid) R S NH 3 Soln. 
X
deep red Coloured red Coloured
Z(g) vapours Solution dil. HCl solution
Identify (P) to (Z) Y

white
(A) P = HCl, Q = KMnO4, R = C12, Y = AgCl
(B) P = NH4Cl, Q = K2Cr2O7, R = CrO2Cl2, X = [Ag(NHa3)2]+, Y =AgCl, Z = NH3
(C) P = KCl, Q = K2CrO4, R = CrO2Cl2, X = Na2CrO4, Z = HCl
(D) P= NaCl, Q = K2MnO4, R = MnO2, Y = AgCl
Q.2 The number of moles of acidified KMnO4 required to convert one mole of sulphite ion into sulphate ion is
(A) 2/5 (B) 3/5 (C) 4/5 (D) 1
Q.3 In Haber's process of manufacture of ammonia, Mo is used as

(A) a catalyst (B) a catalytic promoter
(C) an oxidising agent (D) as a catalytic poison
Q.4 Cr2O 72 2CrO 24 , X and Y are respectively
(A) X = NaOH, Y = H2SO4 (B) X=H+, Y= OH–

(C) X = NaOH, Y = HI (C) X = H3BO3, Y = NaOH
Q.5 CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give

(A) Cr2O72– (B) CrO42– (C) Cr(OH)3 (D) Cr(OH)2
Q.6 Potassiumsulphite solution was mixed with potassiumhydroxide and the potassiumpermanganate solution
was added into it, then final colour of the solution is
(A) Blue (B) colourless (C) light pink (D) Green

Q.7 An ornamental of gold having 75% of gold, it is of .............. carat.

(A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 20
Q.8 Purple-coloured of KMnO4 is due to

(A) d-d-transition
(B) charge transfer from O to Mn
(C) due to both d-d-transition and charge transfer
(D) none of these
Q.9 During estimation of oxalic acid by KMnO4, self indicator is

(A) KMnO4 (B) oxalic acid (C) K2SO4 (D) MnSO4
Q.10 Mercurous ion is represented as

(A) Hg22+ (B) Hg2+ (C) Hg + Hg2+ (D) Hg2+
Q.11 Acompound of mercuryused in cosmetics, inAyurvedic and Yunani medicines and known as Vermilon is
(A) HgCl2 (B) HgS (C) Hg2Cl2 (D) HgI
Q.12 Acidified chromic acid + H2O2 Org

  X + Y , X and Y are
. solvent
(blue colour)
(A) CrO5 and H2O (B) Cr2O3 and H2O (C) CrO2 and H2O (D) CrO and H2O
dil H SO
Q.13  Y(g ) 
KI
CuSO4  
2
4  X(Blue colour) , X and Y are
(A) X = I2, Y = [Cu(H2O)4]2+ (B) X = [Cu(H2O)4]2+, Y = I2

(C) X = [Cu(H2O)4]+, Y = I2 (D) X = [Cu(H2O)5]2+, Y = I2
Q.14 Transition elements are usually characterised by variable oxidation states but Zn does not show this
property because of
(A) completion of np-orbitals (B) completion of (n–1)d orbitals
(C) completion of ns-orbitals (D) inert pair effect
Q.15 (NH4)2Cr2O7 (Ammonium dichromate) is used in fire works. The green coloured powder blown in air is
(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO2 (C) Cr2O2 (D) CrO3
Q.16 The d-block metal which is liquid at room temperature and its iodide changes colour on sublimation.
(A) Cu (B) Hg (C) Zn (D)Au

Q.17 Coinage metals show the properties of

(A) typical elements (B) normal elements
(C) inner-transition elements (D) transition element
Q.18 Iron becomes passive by ..................... due to formation of .....................

(A) dil. HCl, Fe2O3 (B) 80% conc. HNO3, Fe3O4
(C) conc. H2SO4, Fe3O4 (D) conc. HCl, Fe3O4
Q.19 Bayer’s reagent used to detect olifinic double bond is

(A) acidified KMnO4 (B) aqueous KMnO4
(C) 1% alkaline KMnO4 solution (D) KMnO4 in benzene
Q.20 The transition metal used in X-rays tube is

(A) Mo (B) Ta (C) Tc (D) Pm
Q.21 Cu + conc.HNO3  Cu(NO3)2 + X (oxide of nitrogen); then X is

(hot)
(A) N2O (B) NO2 (C) NO (D) N2O3
Q.22 When KMnO4 solution is added to hot oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is slow in the beginning
but becomes instantaneous after some time. This is because
(A) Mn2+ acts as auto catalyst (B) CO2 is formed
(C) Reaction is exothermic (D) MnO4– catalyses the reaction.
Q.23 CuSO4 solution reacts with excess KCN to give

(A) Cu(CN)2 (B) CuCN (C) K2[Cu(CN)2] (D) K3[Cu(CN)4]
Q.24 The higher oxidation states of transition elements are found to be in the combination withAand B, which
are
(A) F, O (B) O, N (C) O, Cl (D) F, Cl
Q.25 Pick out the incorrect statement:

(A) MnO2 dissolves in conc. HCl, but does not form Mn4+ ions
(B) MnO2 oxidizes hot concentrated H2SO4 liberating oxygen
(C) K2MnO4 is formed when MnO2 in fused KOH is oxidised by air, KNO3 , PbO2 or NaBiO3
(D) Decomposition of acidic KMnO4 is not catalysed by sunlight.

Q.26 1 mole of Fe2+ ions are oxidised to Fe3+ ions with the help of (in acidic medium)
(A) 1/5 moles of KMnO4 (B) 5/3 moles of KMnO4
(C) 2/5 moles of KMnO4 (D) 5/2 moles of KMnO4
Q.27 The metals present in insulin and haemoglobin are respectively

(A) Zn, Hg (B) Zn, Fe (C) Co, Fe (D) Mg, Fe
Q.28 Metre scales are made-up of alloy

(A) invar (B) stainless steel (C) electron (D) magnalium
Q.29 Which of the following metal does not react with conc. HNO3
(A)Ag (B) Pb (C) Au (D) Hg
Q.30 A metal M which is not affected by strong acids like conc. HNO3, conc. H2SO4 and conc. solution of
alkalies like NaOH, KOH forms MCl3 which finds use for toning in photography. The metal M is
(A)Ag (B) Hg (C) Au (D) Cu
Q.31 Solid CuSO4·5H2O having covalent, ionic as well as co-ordinate bonds. Copper atom/ion forms
................. co-ordinate bonds with water.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Q.32 KMnO4 + HCl  H2O + X(g), X is a

(acidified)
(A) red liquid (B) violet gas

(C) greenish yellow gas (D) yellow-brown gas
Q.33 Purple of cassius is:
(A) Pure gold (B) Colliodal solution of gold
(C) Gold (I) hydroxide (D) Gold (III) chloride
Q.34 Amongst the following species, maximum covalent character is exhibited by

(A) FeCl2 (B) ZnCl2 (C) HgCl2 (D) CdCl2
Q.35 Number of moles of SnCl2 required for the reduction of 1 mole of K2Cr2O7 into Cr2O3 is (in acidic medium)
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 1/3

Q.36 Pick out the incorrect statement:
(A) MnO 24 is quite strongly oxidizing and stable only in very strong alkalies. In dilute alkali, neutral
solutions, it disproportionates.
(B) In acidic solutions, MnO 4 is reduced to Mn2+ and thus, KMnO4 is widely used as oxidising agent
(C) KMnO4 does not acts as oxidising agent in alkaline medium.

(D) KMnO4 is manufactured by the fusion of pyrolusite ore with KOH in presence of air or KNO3,
followed byelectrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution.
Q.37 The aqueous solution of CuCrO4 is green because it contains

(A) green Cu2+ ions (B) green CrO42– ions
(C) blue Cu2+ ions and green CrO42– ions (D) blue Cu2+ ions and yellow CrO42– ions
Q.38 Concentrated acid obtained from reaction between solid NaNO3 and conc. H2SO4 does not react with
(A) P4 (B) H2S (C) Au (D) Hg
Q.39 In nitroprusside ion, the iron exists as Fe2+ and NO as NO+ rather than Fe3+ and NO respectively.
These forms of ions are established with the help of
(A) magnetic moment in solid state (B) thermal decomposition method
(C) by reaction with KCN (D) by action with K2SO4
Q.40 Transition elements in lower oxidation states act as Lewis acid because
(A) they form complexes (B) they are oxidising agents
(C) they donate electrons (D) they do not show catalytic properties
Q.41 The Ziegler-Natta catalyst used for polymerisation of ethene and styrene is TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al, the
catalysing species (active species) involved in the polymerisation is
(A) TiCl4 (B) TiCl3 (C) TiCl2 (D) TiCl
Q.42 The electrons which take part in order to exhibit variable oxidation states by transition metals are
(A) ns only (B) (n–1)d only
(C) ns and (n–1)d only but not np (D) (n–1)d and np only but not ns
Q.43 ‘Bordeaux mixture’ is used as a fungicide. It is a mixture of

(A) CaSO4 + Cu(OH)2 (B) CuSO4 + Ca(OH)2
(C) CuSO4 + CaO (D) CuO + CaO

Q.44 Which of the following reaction is possible at anode?
(A) 2Cr3+ + 7H2O  Cr2O 72 + 14 H+ (B) F2  2 F–
1
(C) 2 O 2 + 2H+  H2O (D) None of these
Q.45 “925 fine silver” means an alloyof:

(A) 7.5 % Ag and 92.5% Cu (B) 92.5 % Ag and 7.5 % Cu
(C) 80% Ag and 20 % Cu (D) 90 % Ag and 10% Cu
Q.46 Iron salt used in blue prints is:

(A) FeC2O4 (B) Fe2(C2O4)3 (C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (D) K3[Fe(CN)6]
Q.47 Product obtained on strong heating FeCl3· 6H2O is

(A) FeCl3 (B) FeO (C) Fe2O3 (D) FeCl2
Q.48 What is the correct set of co-efficients for the reactants in following reaction:
Mn2+(aq) + PbO2(s) + H+(aq) _____ + Pb2+(aq) + _____
(A) 1 : 2 : 0 (B) 3 : 1 : 9 (C) 2 : 5 : 4 (D) 4 : 6 : 3
Q.49 In the elements of 3d-series, the element with highest melting point is
(A) Mn (B) Fe (C) Cr (D) Cu
Q.50 Heating of a blue coloured salt produces a black residue. Which of the following cations will be present
in the salt?
(A) Fe2+ (B) Fe3+ (C) Cu2+ (D) Zn2+
Q.51 Which one of the following is least covalent and least acidic?
(A) VCl2 (B) VCl3 (C) VCl4 (D)VOCl3
Q.52 Select correct order of acidic strength of their aq. solution

(A) FeCl3 > AlCl3 > MgCl2 (B) FeCl3 > MgCl2 > AlCl3
(C) AlCl3 > FeCl3 > MgCl2 (D) MgCl2 > AlCl3 > FeCl3
Q.53 When KMnO4 separatelyreacts with H2O2 in weaklyalkaline medium and acidic medium, then products
of KMnO4 are respectively.
(A) K2MnO4 and Mn2+(aq) (B) MnO2 and MnO2
(C) MnO2 and Mn2+(aq) (D) Mn2+ (aq) and MnO2
Q.54 Which oxide exhibits strongest oxidizing character among given oxides.
(A) CrO3 (B) MoO3 (C) WO3 (D) Mn2O7
Q.55 Which of the following ionic/molecular species does not disproportionate in water at room temperature.
(A) NO2 (B) Cu+ (C) MnO42– (D) Ca(OCl)Cl
Q.56 Fe (Finely powdered) + HCl(dil)  P + Q

compound 'P' does not precipitate with
(A) AgNO3 (B) K3[Fe(CN)6] (C) (NH4)2S (D) NH4Cl + NH4OH
Q.57 Colour of acidified K2Cr2O7 is not changed by

(A) H2O2 (B) Sn++(aq) (C) HF (D) HBr
Q.58 Select the salt whose aqueous solution is not green

(A) FeSO4 (C) CrCl3 (C) NiCl2 (D) MnCl2
Q.59 Which of the following compound undergoes disproportionation in presence of SO3 gas
(A) K2MnO4 (B) K2CrO4 (C) I2 (D) Hg(NO3)2
Q.60 Colour of CrO42– (aq) is not changed by

(A) dil. HCl (B) NH3 solution (C) CH3COOH (D) NO2 gas
Q.61 Which does not undergo comproportionation reaction

(A) H2S + SO2  (B) I– (aq) + IO3– (aq) + H+ (aq) 
(C) K2MnO4 + H+(aq)  (D) MnO4– + Mn2+ (aq) 

Q.62 I– (aq.) + MnO4– (aq) H X + Mn++ (aq)
I– (aq.) + MnO4– (aq)  

neutral or

Y + MnO2
weakly OH
MnO4– (aq) + Mn++ (aq) ZnSO

 4  Z + 4H+
Products X, Y and Z are respectively
(A) I2, IO3–, MnO2 (B) IO3–, I2, MnO2
(C) I2, IO3–, MnO42– (D) IO3–, I2, MnO42–
Q.63 Which property remains same in metal and in its interstatial compound?
(A) Hardness (B) Ductility
(C) Electrical conductivity (D) Density
Q.64 The oxidation number is changed in which of following cases

(A) SO2 gas is passed into Cr2O72– / H+ soln.
(B) Aqueous solution of CrO42– is acidified
(C) CrO2Cl2 is dissolved in NaOH soln.
(D) Cr2O72– solution is made alkaline
Q.65 In a transition series, as atomic number increases, paramagnetism

(A) Increases gradually
(B) Decreases gradually
(C) First increases to a maximum and then decreases
(D) First decreases to a maximum and then increases
Q.66 In the reaction. 2CuCl2 + 2H2O + SO2  A + H2SO4 + 2HCl ; A is

(A) CuSO4 (B) CuS (C) Cu2Cl2 (D) Cu
Q.67 Many transition metals form interstitial compounds. The characteristics of these interstitial compounds
are:
(I) They have high melting points as compared to pure metals.
(II) They are very hard.
(III) Theyretain metallic conductivity.
(IV) They are chemically more reactive than pure metals.
Then correct option(s) is/are
(A) I, II, III (B) I, III (C) II, IV (D) IV only
Q.68 Incorrect statement is

(A) Cr2+ (aq) has strong reducing character
(B) Mn3+ (aq) has strong oxidizing character
(C) CO2+ (aq) is stable but it is easily oxidized in presence of complexing reagent.
(D) CuCl undergoes disproportionation in excess of water
Q.69 Each of the following ion contains vanadium in + 5 oxidation state except
(A) VO2+ (B) V(OH)4+ (C) VO2+ (D) [VO3.OH]2–
Q.70 The oxoanion in which the oxidation state of central atom is same as its group number in the periodic
table is
(A) SO42– (B) VO2– (C) MnO42– (D) Cr2O72–

Q.71 Choose correct statement(s) regarding the following reaction

Cr2O72– (aq) + 3 SO32– (aq.) + 8H+  2Cr3+ (aq) + 3 SO42– (aq) + 4H2O
1. Cr2O72– is oxidising agent
2. SO32– is reducing agent
3. The oxidation number of per 'S' atom in SO32– is increase by two
4. The oxidation number of per 'Cr' atom in Cr2O72– is decrease by three
Correct code is
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 (B) 3, 4 (C) 1, 3 (D) only 4
Q.72 Which of the following is not arranged in CORRECT sequence?

(A) MO, M2O3, MO2, M2O5 : decreasing order of basic nature.
(B) Sc, V, Cr, Mn : increasing order of oxidation states.
(C) d5, d3, d1, d4: increasing order of magnetic moment.
(D) Sc > Ti > V > Cr ; Decreasing order of atomic size.
Q.73 The size of Fe2+, Fe3+ is affected by

(A) Nuclear charge (z)
(B) Valence principal quantam number
(C) Electron-electron interaction in the outer orbital
(D) None of the factor because their size is same
(x) (y)
Q.74 MnO4– Mn2+ Mn4+
(z)
MnO2
For above reaction x, y, z are respectively

(A) H2O2 / H+ , H2O2 / OH– , H2O2 / OH– (B) H2O2 / OH– , H2O2 / OH– , H2O2 / H+
(C) H2O2 / OH– , H2O2 / H+ , H2O2 / H+ (D) H2O2 / H+, H2O2 / H+ , H2O2 / OH–
Q.75 Which of them does not produce H2 gas when react with dil. HCl ?
(A) Ti2+ (B) V2+ (C) Cr2+ (D) Fe2+
Q.76 Colour of K2MnO4 does not change in the presence of

(A) O3 (B) CO2 gas (C) KOH solution (D) HCl acid
Q.77 Which of the following compound/acid does not reduce AgNO3 into Metallic Ag?
(A) H3PO4 (B) H3PO2 (C) N2H4 (D) H3PO3

Q.78 Fe (s) + Cl 2 (g ) warm

 M (salt)
( excess )
Salt M does not react with solution of

(A) CH3COONa (B) AgNO3 (C) Na2S2O3 (D) SrCl2
Q.79 P(soln .) Air

 Q(soln .) KOH
 R
coloured coloured ( ppt )
(insoluble in both excess
NaOH and excess NH 3 solution )
Then P contains
(A) Cu2+ (aq) (B) Fe2+ (aq) (C) Cr2+ (aq) (D) Ni2+ (aq)
Q.80 K2MnO4 is unstable in aqueous solution and the green solution obtained is changed into purple colouration
INCORRECT statement regarding the above change is.
(A) It is a disproportionation reaction
(B) It produces KMnO4
(C) It produces brown precipitate of hydrated MnO2
(D) K2MnO4 stable in acidic medium
pH = X
Q.81 CrO42– Cr2O72–
pH = Y
The pH values of (X) and (Y) are respectively :
Q.82 CORRECT stability order of oxidation state of given metal cation is :

(A) Mn+2(aq) < Mn+3(aq) (B) Fe+2(aq) < Fe+3(aq)
(C) Cr+2(aq) < Cr+3(aq) (D) Co+2 (aq) < Co+3 (aq)
Q.83 When CuSO4 reacts with KI and KCN separately which of the following statement is incorrect for
both reaction
(A) Both are redox reactions
(B) Both reactions produce diatomic gas
(C) Cu (II) cation is reduced in both reaction
(D) Both reactions produce white colour compound

Q.84 Which of the two set of reactions represent amphoteric nature of Zn(OH)2
(I) Zn(OH)2 + NaOH (II) Zn(OH)2 + H2O (III) Zn(OH)2 + HCl (IV) Zn(OH)2 + NH3
(A) I, II (B) I, III (C) II and IV (D) III and IV
Q.85 FeCr2O4 (chromite ore) is converted to Cr by following steps.
Chromite 

I
Na 2 CrO 4 
II
Cr2O3 
III
Cr
In above chain of reactions, steps I, II and III are:
I II III
(A) Na2CO3/air,  C C
(B) NaOH/air,  C,  Al, 
(C) NaOH/air,  C,  Mg, 
(D) Conc. H2SO4,  NH4Cl,  C, 
Q.86 Which substance does not react with dilute HCl ?

(A) ZnCO3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C) Zn Metal (D) Zn(NO3)2
Q.87 Which metal cation absorbs violet colour in aqueous medium ?

(A) Fe2+ (aq.) (B) Fe3+ (aq.) (C) Cr3+ (aq.) (D) Cu2+ (aq.)
Q.88 Which is not oxidized by acidified K2Cr2O7 ?

(A) KF (aq.) (8) KCl (aq.) (C) KBr (aq.) (D) KI (aq.)

[REASONING TYPE]
Questions given below consist of two statements each printed as Statement-1 and Statement-2; while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(A) if both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of
statement-1
(B) if both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are true but Statement-2 is not correct explanation of
statement-1
(C) if Statement-1 is true but Statement-2 is false
(D) if Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is true
Q.89 Statement-1 : KMnO4 is purple in colour due to charge transfer.

Statement-2 : In MnO4¯, there is no unpaired electron present in d-orbitals of manganese.
Q.90 Statement-1 : K2CrO4 has yellow colour due to charge transfer.

Statement-2 : CrO42– ion is tetrahedral in shape.
Q.91 Statement-1 : The highest oxidation state of chromium in its compounds is +6.
Statement-2 : Chromium atom has only six electrons in ns and (n-1) d orbitals.
Q.92 Statement-1 : CrO3 reacts with HCl to form chromyl chloride gas.
Statement-2 : Chromyl chloride (CrO2Cl2) has tetrahedral shape.
Q.93 Statement-1 : Zinc does not show characteristic properties of transition metals.
Statement-2 : In zinc outermost shell is completely filled.
Q.94 Statement-1 : Tungsten has a very high melting point.

Statement-2 : Tungsten is a covalent compound.
Q.95 Statement-1 : Equivalent mass of KMnO4 is equal to one-third of its molecular mass when it acts as an
oxidising agent in an alkaline medium.
Statement-2 : Oxidation number of Mn is +7 in KMnO4.
Q.96 Statement-1 : Cu+ ion is coloured in aqueous solution.

Statement-2 : Four water molecules are coordinated to Cu+ ion

f-BLOCK COMPOUNDS
Q.97 In general, actinides exhibit more number of oxidation states than lanthanoids. This is because
(A) there is a similarly between 4f and 5f orbitals in their angular part of wave function
(B) The actinoids are more reactive than lanthanoids
(C) The 5f orbitals extend farthar from nucleus than 4f-orbitals
(D) The 5f orbitals are more buried than the 4f-orbitals
Q.98 Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(B) In Lanthanide series, ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases
(C) La metal is actually an element of transition series rather than lanthanide series
(D) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are almost same because of lanthanide contraction
Q.99 Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT regarding lanthanoids and actinoids?
(A) Oxidation state of +3 is predominant in both the series
(B) Both the series show contraction in ionic radii as lanthanoid contraction and actinoid contraction with
increase in atomic number .
(C) Actinoids show larger number of oxidation states than lanthanoids due to lesser energy difference
between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals of lanthanoids.
(D) Elements of both the series are radioactive
Q.100 Incorrect statement for lanthanides is

(A) They liberate hydrogen gas with dilute acids
(B) They form carbides with carbon on heating
(C) Their hydroxides are basic
(D) Ce4+(aq) is stable towards reducing agents.
Q.101 Which of the properties has higher value for lanthanoids in comparison of actinoids
(A) Variety of oxidation state (B) Element to element size contraction
(C) Both of them (D) None of these
Q.102 The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that:

(A) Zr and Nb have same oxidation state (B) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(C) Y and La have about the same radius (D) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

Q.103 Incorrect statement for lanthanides is

(A) They all liberate hydrogen gas with dil HCl.
(B) All paramagnetic hydrated lanthanoid cations [Ln3+ (aq)] are coloured
(C) Separation of Hf 4+ from Zr4+ is difficult due to their comparable size
(D) Misch metal is an alloy of a lanthanide metal.
Q.104 Incorrect statement about Lanthanoids is:

(A) They liberate H2 gas with non oxidizing acids
(B) Their hydroxides are basic
(C) Ce4+ (aq) acts strong oxidant
(D)All tripositive lanthanoid ions are coloured

EXERCISE-2
[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
   Y  Na
2  Y
  Colourless products
Excess KI S2O3
X 
Z
Water Coloured White
So lub le Solution 
salt
Q.1 Salt 'X' is

(A) Fe2(SO4)3 (B) CuSO4.5H2O (C) KNO2 (D) Hg(NO3)2
Q.2 Salt 'X' does not produce precipitate with solution of

(A) K4[Fe(CN)6] (B) BaCl2 (C) NaOH (D) excess NH4OH

The unique behaviour of Cu, having a positive Eº (Reduction potential) accounts for its inability to
liberate H2 from acids. Only oxidising acids (nitric acid and hot concentrated sulphuric acid) react with
Cu. The high energy to transform Cu(s) to Cu2+(aq) is not balanced by its hydration enthalpy.
On the other hand, all Cu (II) halides are known except iodide. In this case, Cu2+ oxidises I¯ to I2 :
2Cu2+ + 4I¯  2 CuI(s) + I2
However, copper (I) compounds are unstable in aqueous solution and undergo disproportionation.
2Cu+ (aq)  Cu2+(aq) + Cu
The stability of Cu2+(aq) rather than Cu+(aq) is due to the much more negative HHyd of Cu2+(aq) than
Cu+(aq).
Q.3 Consider the following transformation :
CuSO4 (aq) + KI(Excess)  Product
Select the correct statement
(A) Product contains [Cu(H2O)4]2+ ion.
(B) Presence of brown colouration in product is due to I3¯ ion
(C) Oxidation state of sulphur in reactant and product is different
(D) White ppt. of CuI2 is observed in product
Q.4 Select the correct chemical change

(A) Cu + dil. H2SO2  CuSO4 + H2(g)
(B) Cu + dil. HNO3  Cu(NO3)2 + N2O(g)
(C) CuSO4 (aq) + KCN (excess)  K2[Cu(CN)4]
(D) CuSO4 (aq) + NH4OH  Cu(OH)2


When hydrogen peroxide is added to an acidified solution of a dichromate gives a deep blue coloured
compound 'A' in presence of organic solvent, which decomposes rapidly in aqueous solution into 'B' and
dioxygen. Compound 'A' can be extracted by dimethyl ether forming the adduct 'C'.
Q.5 The oxidation state of the metal ion in compound 'A' are
(A) 3+ (B) 10 + (C) 6+ (D) 4+
Q.6 The magnetic moment of compound 'B' is:

(A) 2.8 B.M (B) 4.9 B.M (C) 0 (D) 3.8 B.M

Q.7 Correct characteristics of aqueous solution of chrome alum is/are
(A) green colour
(B) acidic character
(C) gives precipitates with BaCl2
(D) Produces precipitates with excess of NaCN
Q.8 Addition of non-metals like boron, carbon and nitrogen to the interstitial voids of a transition metal,
makes the metal
(A) more ductile (B) less ductile (C) less malleable (D) more hard
Q.9 Mercury is a liquid at 0°C because of

(A) veryhigh ionisation energy (B) weak metallic bonds
(C) high heat of hydration (D) high heat of sublimation
Q.10 The ionisation energies of transition elements are

(A) less than p-block elements (B) more than s-block elements
(C) less than s-block elements (D) more than p-block elements
Q.11 Transition metal cations have more tendency to form complex than metal cations of s- and p-block
elements. It is due to
(A) availabilityof d-orbitals for bonding
(B) variable oxidation states are not shown by transition elements
(C) all electrons are paired in d-orbitals
(D) Higher nuclear force of attraction at their peripheral shell in transition metal cations
Q.12 The metal(s) which does/do not form amalgam

(A) Fe (B) Pt (C) Zn (D)Ag
Q.13 Which of the following statements concern with transition metals?

(A) Hydrated paramagnetic transition metal salts are coloured
(B) common oxidation state is +3
(C) they show variable oxidation states, which differ by two units only
(D) they can form acidic oxides
Q.14 Correct statement(s) is/are

(A) Acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 liberates iodine from KI
(B) Acidified K2Cr2O7 is used as a standard solution for estimation of Fe2+ ions
(C) In acidic medium, M = N/6 for K2Cr2O7
(D) On heating (NH4)2Cr2O7 decomposes to yield Cr2O3 through an endothermic reaction
Q.15 The highest oxidation state among transition elements is

(A) + 7 by Mn (B) + 8 by Os (C) + 8 by Ru (D) + 7 by Fe
Q.16 Amphoteric oxide(s) is/are

(A) Al2O3 (B) SnO (C) ZnO (D) Fe2O3
Q.17 Interstitial compounds are formed by

(A) Co (B) Ni (C) Fe (D) Ca
Q.18 The catalytic activity of transition elements is related to their

(A) variable oxidation states (B) surface area
(C) complex formation ability (D) magnetic moment
medium ‘x’ 2–
MnO4
+ n1 e¯
medium ‘y’ 2+
Q.19 MnO4¯ Mn (aq)
+ n2 e¯
medium ‘z’
+ n3 e¯ MnO2
Select correct match:

(A) n1 = 1; x = strongly alkaline medium
(B) n2 = 5, acidic medium
(C) n3 = 3, Neutral or weakly alkaline medium
(D) n1 = 1, weakly alkaline medium

Q.20 In the equation : M + 8CN¯ + 2H2O + O2  4[M(CN)2]¯ + 4OH¯, the metal M is

(A)Ag (B)Au (C) Pb (D) Hg
Q.21 An element of 3d-transition series shows two oxidation states x and y, differ by two units then
(A) If x > y then compound in oxidation state x will be ionic
(B) If x < y then compound in oxidation state x will be ionic
(C) If x < y then compound in oxidation state y will be covalent
(D) If y < x then compound in oxidation state y will be covalent
Q.22 A pinch of Na2O2 was added to an acidified dichromate solution, then observations noted are
(A) Blue colour appears in transient phase
(B) Orange colour directly changing to green
(C) Copious evolution of oxygen
(D) Bluish -green precipitate
Q.23 The rusting of iron is formulated as Fe2O3· xH2O which involves the formation of
(A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe(OH)3 (C) Fe(OH)2 (D) Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)3
Q.24 CuSO4(aq) + 4NH3  X, then X is

(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (B) paramagnetic
(C) coloured (D) of a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM
Q.25 Amphoteric oxide(s) of Mn is/are

(A) MnO2 (B) Mn3O4 (C) Mn2O7 (D)MnO
Q.26 Acidified KMnO4 can be decolourised by

(A) SO2 (B) H2O2 (C) FeSO4 (D) Fe2(SO4)3
Q.27 The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that

(A) Zr and Hf have same atomic sizes (B) Zr and Hf have same properties
(C) Zr and Hf have different atomic sizes (D) Zr and Hf have different properties
Q.28 Ion(s) having non zero spin onlymagnetic moment:

(A) Sc3+ (B) Ti3+ (C) Cu2+ (D) Zn2+
Q.29 Colourless solutions of the following four salts are placed separately in four different test tubes and a
strip of copper is dipped in each one of these. Which solution will turn blue?
(A) KNO3 (B) AgNO3 (C) Zn(NO3)2 (D) Hg(NO3)2
Q.30 Which of the following option is correctly match ?

(A) FeSO4.White (B) FeCl2. 6H2O : Pale green
(C) NiCl2.6H2O Green (D) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 : Blue
Q.31 Which of the following compound(s) produce green coloured product on thermal decomposition.
(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) KMnO4 (C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) NH4NO3
Q.32 Quantitative conversion of K2MnO4 into KMnO4 can be carried out by

(A) Electrolytic oxidation of K2MnO4 in acidic medium
(B) Electrolytic oxidation of K2MnO4 in alkaline medium
(C) Oxidation of K2MnO4 by chlorine in alkaline medium
(D) Oxidation of K2MnO4 by Ozone in alkaline medium
Q.33 The element with maximum and minimum melting points in the respective transition series respectively
are-
(A) Cr and Zn (B) Mo and Ag (C) Mn and Zn (D) Mo and Cd
add of conc. H2SO4

followed by
R
Crystallization Orange Red
Q.34 P Fused with Q
(ore) Na2 CO3 & Air yellow Pb (CH3COO)2
S
Solution
Yellow ppt.
Which of the following option(s) is/are correctly match.

(A) P : FeCr2O4 (B) R : K2Cr2O7 (C) PbCrO4 (D) Q : Fe(OH)3
Q.35 Select the CORRECT chemical changes

(A) Cu + dil. H2SO4 + 1/2 O2{g)  CuSO4 + H2O
(B) Cu + dil. HNO3  Cu{NO3)2 + N2O(g)
(C) CuSO4(aq) + KCN(excess)  K2[Cu(CN)4]
(D) CuSO4(aq) + NH4OH  Cu(OH)2¯
Q.36 Which of the following compound(s) undergo does /do not disproportionation in presence of SO3 gas.
(A) K2MnO4 (B) K2CrO4 (C) I2 (D) Hg(NO3)2

3
Q.37 
2K2Cr2O7  2X + Y + Z
2

2KMnO4  P + Q + R
If order of molecular weight is X >Y > Z and P > Q > R, then which of the following statement is
CORRECT regarding above information
(A) Oxidation state of central metal atoms are same in X and P.
(B) Molecular weight of Z and R is same
(C) Molecular weight of Q is greater than Y.
(D) The colour of Y and P almost same
Q.38 For given reactions :

KMnO4 + KOH (conc.)  P + Q
Coloured
P + H2O  R + S
(excess) (purple) Brown
Correct statement(s) is/are :
(A) Both are redox reactions
(B) Substance 'S' on heating with solid KOH in presence of KNO3 produces 'R'
(C) 'S' is converted into mixed oxide on heating
(D) Atomic form of Q can convert I¯ (aq) into I2 in acidic medium

Q.39 KMnO 4  NaOH  Green solution excess
 water
 purple colour along with black residue (X)
purple  Hot conc.
Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding above information

(A) The oxidation state of Mn in green solution is +6
(B) Both steps take place through redox reaction
(C) MnO2 is obtained in the form of black residue (X)
(D) Black residue (X) can oxidize NaCl into Cl2 gas in acidic medium
Q.40 Correct statement is/are :

(A) Cr2+ (aq) has strong reducing character.
(B) Mn3+ (aq} has oxidizing character.
(C) Co2+ (aq) is stable but it is easily oxidized in presence of strong field ligand (SFL).
(D) CuCl undergoes disproportionation in excess of water.

Q.41 When acidified CrO42– ion reacts with H2O2 in the presence of ether solvent then correct statement(s)
is/are?
(A) Orange colour of solution turns blue
(B) Deep blue colour is due to formation of CrO5.OEt2
(C) Oxidation state of Cr-atom remains same in the reaction
(D) Orange colour of solution turns green
Q.42 Which of the following metal sulphide (s) undergo hydrolysis ?

(A) Cr2S3 (B) Al2S3 (C) MgS (D) FeS
Q.43 Which of the general properties are common among group 2nd elements and 4f series elements ?
(A) Abundance in earth crust
(B) Evolution of H2 gas on reaction with dil HCl
(C) Formation of oxide and nitride when reacts with air
(D)Aqueous solution reacts with HCl
Q.44 K2CrO4 reacts with which of the following reagents

(A) dil. H2SO4 + H2O2 (B) KOH solution + I¯ (aq.)
(C) AgNO3 (D) SO2 gas
Q.45 Reduction of the metal centre in aqueous permanganate ion involves

(A) 3 electrons in neutral medium (B) 1 electron in strongly basic medium (pH  11)
(C) 3 electrons in alkaline medium (D) 5 electrons in acidic medium
Q.46 Which one of the following ionic species will impart colour to an aqueous solution?
(A) Ti4+ (aq) (B) Cu+ (aq) (C) Zn2+ (aq) (D) Cr3+ (aq)
[MATCH THE COLUMN]

(A) [Sc(H2O)6]3+ (P) Paramagnetic complex
(B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (Q) Diamagnetic complex
(C) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (R) Coloured complex
(D) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (S) Colourless complex
(T) Inner orbital complex


(A) Highest density (P) Os
(B) Colourless salts (Q) Cr
(C) Maximummagnetic moment (R) Zn
(D) Variable oxidation state (S) Mn

(A) Coloured ion (P) Cu+
(B) µ = 1.73 B.M. (Q) Cu2+
(C) d10 configuration (R) Fe2+
(D) More than 3 unpaired electrons (S) Mn2+

(A) Zn (P) d-block metal
(B) Cu (Q) Coinage metal
(C) Ag (R) Native metal
(D) Fe (S) Transitional metal
[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.51 Calculate difference between oxidation state of chromium (Cr) in blue and green coloured chromium
species formed during the following given transformation.

CrO42–(aq) H2O  Blue solution    Green solution
2 /H on s tanding
Q.52 Total number of species that can be oxidized by acidic permanganate ion (MnO4¯ / H+)
I¯, Fe2+, CO2, C2O42–, S2–, SO32–, NO2¯, PO43–, SO42–.
Q.53 Find total number of bond angles in Cr2O72– ion which are greater than 109º28'
Q.54 Find total number of process which has positive value of standard electrode potential
Cr2+/Cr3+, Mn2+/Mn3+, Fe/Fe2+, Cu/Cu2+, Fe/Fe3+
Sn/Sn2+, Cr/Cr3+, Ag/Ag+, Fe3+/Fe2+
Q.55 The oxidation state of Cr in K3CrO8.
Q.56 Find total no. of oxides which act as an acid on reacting with NaOH.
ZnO, MnO, Mn2O7, CrO3, MnO2, Cr2O3, TiO

Q.57 Find total no. of mole of I¯ required to reduce 1 mole K2Cr2O7 in acidic medium
Q.58 Find total no. of ions/molecules which are tetrahedral in shape.

MnO4–1, MnO4–2, CrO4–2, CrO2Cl2, Zn(OH)4–2 , NiCl4–2, Ni(CO)4
Q.59 Select total no. of ions which are disproportionate in aqueous medium.
Cu+, Au+, Zn+2, Hg2+2
Q.60 Find total no. of ions which are paramagnetic in nature.

Sc3+, Ti3+, V+3, Cr+3, Mn+2, Fe+2, Co+2, Ni+2, Cu+, Zn+2
Q.61 Find total no. of ions whose aqueous solution is coloured.

Sc3+, Ti3+, V+3, Cr+3, Mn+2, Fe+2, Co+2, Ni+2, Cu+2, Zn+2
Q.62 Find total number of metals which shows variably valency. Na, Zn, Fe, Cu, Hg, Cd, Au, Cr, Mn

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 B Q.2 A Q.3 B Q.4 A Q.5 B
Q.6 D Q.7 A Q.8 B Q.9 A Q.10 A
Q.11 B Q.12 A Q.13 B Q.14 B Q.15 A
Q.16 B Q.17 D Q.18 B Q.19 C Q.20 A
Q.21 B Q.22 A Q.23 D Q.24 A Q.25 D
Q.26 A Q.27 B Q.28 A Q.29 C Q.30 C
Q.31 D Q.32 C Q.33 B Q.34 C Q.35 A
Q.36 C Q.37 D Q.38 C Q.39 A Q.40 A
Q.41 B Q.42 C Q.43 B Q.44 A Q.45 B
Q.46 B Q.47 C Q.48 C Q.49 C Q.50 C
Q.51 A Q.52 A Q.53 C Q.54 D Q.55 D
Q.56 D Q.57 C Q.58 D Q.59 A Q.60 B
Q.61 C Q.62 A Q.63 C Q.64 A Q.65 C
Q.66 C Q.67 A Q.68 D Q.69 C Q.70 D
Q.71 A Q.72 C Q.73 C Q.74 A Q.75 D
Q.76 C Q.77 A Q.78 D Q.79 B Q.80 D
Q.81 B Q.82 C Q.83 B Q.84 B Q.85 B
Q.86 D Q.87 B Q.88 A Q.89 B Q.90 B
Q.91 A Q.92 B Q.93 C Q.94 C Q.95 B
Q.96 C Q.97 C Q.98 A Q.99 D Q.100 D
Q.101 D Q.102 B Q.103 B Q.104 D

EXERCISE-2
Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 B Q.4 D Q.5 C
Q.6 D Q.7 ABC Q.8 BCD Q.9 AB Q.10 AB
Q.11 AD Q.12 AB Q.13 ABD Q.14 ABC Q.15 BC
Q.16 ABC Q.17 ABC Q.18 ABC Q.19 ABC Q.20 AB
Q.21 BC Q.22 AC Q.23 BD Q.24 ABCD Q.25 AB
Q.26 ABC Q.27 AB Q.28 BC Q.29 BD Q.30 ABCD
Q.31 ABC Q.32 BCD Q.33 AD Q.34 AC Q.35 AD
Q.36 BCD Q.37 ABD Q.38 ACD Q.39 ABCD Q.40 ABC
Q.41 ABC Q.42 ABC Q.43 ABCD Q.44 ACD Q.45 ABCD
Q.46 BD
Q.47 (A) Q,S,T;(B)P, R;(C) Q, R, T;(D) P, R, T Q.48 (A) P (B) R (C) Q (D) P,Q,S
Q.49 (A) Q,R,S (B) Q (C) P (D) R,S Q.50 (A) P (B) P,Q,S (C) P,QR,S (D) P, S
Q.51 3 Q.52 6 Q.53 7 Q.54 6 Q.55 5
Q.56 5 Q.57 6 Q.58 7 Q.59 3 Q.60 7
Q.61 8 Q.62 6

SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY Metallurgy
METALLURGY
CHAPTER
EXERCISE-1
GENERAL PRINCIPLES INVOLVED IN METALLURGY / CONCENTRATION /
ORES AND THEIR CONCENTRATION
Q.1 Metallurgy is the process of
(A) Concentration of ore (B) Roasting of ore
(C) Extraction of metal from the ore (D) Adding carbon to the ore in blast furnace
Q.2 Which of the following metal is not found in free state

(A) Zn (B)Au (C) Ag (D) Hg
Q.3 All ores are minerals, while all minerals are not ores because
(A) The metal cannot be extracted economically from all the minerals
(B) Minerals are complex compounds
(C) The minerals are botained from mines
(D) All of these are correct
Q.4 Which one of the followng does not occur as sulphide ore
(A) Zn (B) Cr (C) Ag (D) Fe
Q.5 Electrometallurgical process is used to extract

(A) Fe (B) Pb (C) Na (D) Ag
Q.6 Which of the following metal is extracted by carbon reduction process

(A) Cu (B) Ca (C) Hg (D) Zn
Q.7 Which metal is extracted by electrolytic reduction method

(A) Cu (B) Ca (C) Fe (D)Ag

Q.8 Thermite process is used to extracted metals

(A) When their oxides can be reduced by carbon
(B) When their carbonates do not yield oxides by thermal decomposition
(C) When their sulphides cannot be converted into oxides by roasting
(D) When their oxides are highly stable
Q.9 'Lapis-Lazuli' is a blue coloured precious stone. It is mineral of the class

(A) Sodium-alumino silicate (B) Zinc cobaltate
(C) Basic copper carbonate (D) Prussian blue
Q.10 The lustre of a metal is due to

(A) its high density (B) polished surface
(C) its chemical inertness (D) presence of free electrons
Q.11 Which of the following processes is used in exctractive metaullurgy of magnesium?

(A) Fused salt electrolysis (B) Self reduction
(C)Aqueous solution electrolysis (D) Thermite reduction
Q.12 Which metal is commerciallyextracted by hydrometallurgical process involving complexation?

(A) Mg (B)Au (C) Cu (D) Zn
Q.13 Which of the following metal is obtained by Self-Reduction process?

(A) Copper (B) Iron (C) Silver (D) Magnesium
Q.14 Cyanide process is used for the concentration of

(A)Au (B)Ag (C) Al (D) Both A & B
Q.15 Froth floatation process for the concentration of ores is an illustration of physical phenomenon of
(A) Adsorption (B) Absorption (C) Coagulation (D) Sedimentation
Q.16 The method of concentration of the ore that makes use of difference in densitybetween ore and impurities
is called
(A) Levigation (B) Leaching
(C) Magnetic separation (D) Liquation
Q.17 During concentration of Tin stone separation of sulframates of FeII and MnII is based on the fact
(A) SnO2 is paramagnetic (B) SnO2 is diamagnetic
(C) FeWO4 and MnWO4 are paramagnetic (D) Both B and C
Q.18 Leaching of Ag2S by NaCN solution is carried out in the presence of air it, because :
(A) [Ag(CN)2]¯ complex is formed in a reversible reaction
(B) oxidation of formed Na2S into Na2SO4 and sulphur
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) none of the above
Q.19 In froth-floatation process, pine oil functions as

(A) activator (B) frother (C) collector (D) agitator
Q.20 Collector are the substance which combine with sulphide ore and make them water repellant, which of
the following substance can act as collector
(A) sodium ethyl xanthate (B) sodium xenate
(C) sodium pyrophosphate (D) adsorption
Q.21 Preferential wetting of ore by oil and gangue by water takes place during
(A) Levigation (B) Froth floatation (C) Leaching (D) Bessemerisation
Q.22 Concentration of sulphide ores can be carried out by

(A) Liquation (B) Leaching
(C) Froth-floatation process (D) Both B & C
Q.23 Froth floatation process for concentration of ores is an illustration of the practical application of:
(A) Adsorption (B) Absorption (C) Coagulation (D) Sedimentation
Q.24 The most abundant element in the earth crust is

(A)Aluminium (B) Oxygen (C) Silicon (D) Iron
Q.25 Titanium containing ore found in the earth crust is

(A) Bauxite (B) Dolomite (C) Chalcopyrites (D) Ilmenite
Q.26 Silicon is main constituent of

(A)Alloys (B) Rocks (C) Seawater (D) Plants
Q.27 A mineral is called ore if

(A) Metal present in mineral is precious (B) Metal present in mineral is in low content
(C) Metal present in mineral is in rich content (D) Metal cannot be extracted from it

Q.28 Which of the following does not contain Mg

(A) Magnetite (B) Asbestos (C) Magnesite (D) Carnallite
Q.29 Composition of azurite mineral is

(A) CuCO3CuO (B) Cu(HCO3)2.Cu(OH)2
(C) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (D) CuCO3.2Cu(OH)2
Q.30 The salt which is least likely to be found in minerals is

(A) Halides (B) Carbonate (C) Sulphide (D) Nitrate
Q.31 Metal which can be extracted from all the three dolomite, magnesite and carnallite is
(A)Na (B) K (C) Mg (D) Ca
Q.32 Cinnabar is an ore of

(A) Hg (B) Cu (C) Pb (D) Zn
Q.33 An example of halide ore is

(A) Galena (B) Bauxite (C) Cinnabar (D) Cryolite
Q.34 Which of the following is not an ore

(A) Bauxite (B) Malachite (C) Zinc blende (D) Pig iron
Q.35 Which of the following ore is used for industrial extraction of aluminium
(A) Corundum (B) Kaolin (C) Cryolite (D) Bauxite
Q.36 Siderite is an ore of

(A) Cu (B)Al (C) Ag (D) Fe
Q.37 Corundum is
(A)Al2O3.H2O (B) Al2O3 (C) Al2O3.2H2O (D) Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O
Q.38 Formula of magnetite is

(A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe2O3.3H2O (C)FeCO3 (D) Fe3O4
Q.39 Which of the following ores does not represent the ore of iron
(A) Haematite (B) Magnetite (C) Cassiterite (D) Limonite

Q.40 Which of the following ore is called malachite

(A) CuFeS2 (B) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
(C) Cu2S (D) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
Q.41 Calamine is
(A)ZnSO4 (B) ZnO (C) ZnS (D) ZnCO3
Q.42 Which of the following statement is incorrect·

(A) Silver glance mainlycontains silver sulphide (B) Gold is found in native state
(C) Tin stone is oxide ore (D) Chalcocite: CuFeS2
Q.43 Which ore contains both iron and copper?

(A) Cuprite (B) Chalcocite (C) Chalcopyrite (D) Malachite
Q.44 Commercially important ore of lead from which it is extracted is

(A)Anglesite (B) Cerussite (C) Galena (D) Siderite
Q.45 Cassiterite is an ore of

(A) Mn (B) Ni (C) Sb (D) Sn
Q.46 Among the following statements, the incorrect one is

(A) Calamine and siderite are carbonates (B) Argentite and cuprite are oxides
(C) Zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides (D) Hornsilver is halide ore
Q.47 Which of the following sulphide ore is concentrated by leaching

(A)Argentite (B) Galena (C) Copper pyrite (D) Sphalerite
Q.48 Froth floatation process is used for the concentration of

(A) Oxide ores (B) Sulphide ores (C) Halide ores (D) Sulphate ores
Q.49 Process used for the concentration of ore is

(A) Froth floatation (B) Roasting (C) Electrolysis (D) Bessemerization
Q.50 Magnetic separation is used for the concentration of

(A) Horn silver (B) Gypsom (C) Chromite (D) Magnesite
Q.51 Cassiterite is concentrated by

(A) Levigation (B) Electromagnetic separation
(C) Froth floatation (D) Liquation

Q.52 Bauxite ore is concentrated by

(A) Froth floatation (B) Cyanidation
(C) Chemical leaching (D) Calcination
Q.53 Zinc blende is concentrated by

(A) Froth floatation (B) Magnetic separation
(C) Leaching (D) Roasting
Q.54 Gravity separation process is primarily used for the concentration of

(A) Calamine (B) Haematite (C) Chalcopyrite (D) Bauxite
Q.55 Froth floatation process is used for concentration of

(A) Chalcopyrite (B) Bauxite (C) Haematite (D) Calamine
Q.56 Which one of the following beneficiation process is used for the ore, Al2O3.2H2O
(A) Froth floatation (B) Leaching (C) Liquation (D) Magnetic separation
Q.57 Naturall occuring materials from which an element can be extracted economically are called
(A) Ores (B) Minerals (C) gangue (D) None ofthese
Q.58 Cassiterite is concentrated by

(A) Levigation (B) Electromagnetic separation
(C) Floatation (D) Liquefaction
Q.59 Wolframites are separated from tin stone ore by the process of
(A) Calcination (B) Electromagnetic process
(C) Roasting (D) Smelting
Q.60 Which of the following is not an ore?

(A)Azurite (B) Siderite (C) Clay (D) Cerussite

Q.61 Select the correct match:

Column-I (Method of conc.) Column-II (Ores)
X Magnetic separation (a) Ag2S
Y froth floation (b) FeCr 2O4
Z Leaching (c) Al2O3.2H2O
X Y Z X Y Z
(A) (a) (b) (c) (B) (b) (a) (c)
(C) (c) (a) (b) (D) (b) (c) (a)
Q.62 Incorrect statement is

(A) Casseterite, chromite and haematite can be concentrated by hydraulic washing method.
(B) In Hall's process Red Bauxite is purified by leaching,
(C) Sulphide ore is concentrated by froth floatation process.
(D) During roasting of sulphide ore both metal oxide and metal sulphate are formed.
Q.63 Which one of the following is not a method of concentration of ore?

(A) Gravity separation (B) Froth floatation process
(C) Electromagnetic separation (D) Bessemerization
Q.64 Leaching is commerciallyused in the concentration of:

(A) Haematite (B)Argentite (C) Galena (D) Cinnabar
Q.65 In the froth floatation process, NaCN is added as depressant when galena is associated with impurity of
ZnS, because
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while ZnS remains unaffected,
(B) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2[Zn(CN)4] while PbS combines with frother.
(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4] while ZnS combines with frother.
(D) NaCN regenerates ZnS from complex [Zn(CN)4]2–.
Q.66 Which mineral has been named incorrectly?

(A) bauxite : Al2O3.2H2O (B) Chalcocite : Cu2S
(C) Cryolite : 3NaF. AlF3 (D) Feldspar : Be3Al2Si6O18
Q.67 Carnallite does not contain

(A) K (B) Ca (C) Mg (D) Cl
Q.68 Identify the metal M which is present in its ore as MFeS2 :

(A) copper (B) tin (C) lead (D) zinc
Q.69 The main ore of copper is:

(A) chalcocite (B) Chalcopyrite (C)Azurite (D) Cerussite
Q.70 Three most abundunt elements in the earth crust in their decreasing order of percentage.
(A) O, Si, Al (B) Si, O, Al (C) Al, O, Si (D) O, Fe, Si
Q.71 An ore containing the impurity of FeCr2O4 is concentrated by

(A) magnetic-separation (B) gravity separation
(C) froth-floatation method (D) electrostatic method
Q.72 Formula of dolomite is :

(A) CaMg(CO3)2 (B) MgCO3 (C) CacO3.MgCO3 (D) (A) & (C) both
Q.73 Incorrect statement is :

(A) calamine and siderite are carbonates (B) argentite and cuprite are oxide
(C) zinc blende and pyrites are sulphides (D) malachite and azurite are ores of copper
Q.74 The impurities present in a mineral are called:

(A) gangue (B) f1ux (C) pulverization (D) nuggets
Q.75 Correct statement is:

(A) Magnetite is an ore of magnesium (B) Pyrolusite is mixed oxide of Mn
(C) Siderite is carbonate ore of iron (D) FeS2 is rolled gold
Q.76 Elements found in native state are

(A) Mg & Al (B) Cu & Fe (C) Zn & Pb (D) Pt & Au
Q.77 The reason, for floating of ore particles in concentration by froth floatation process is that:
(A) they are light (B) they are insoluble
(C) they are charged (D) they are adsorbed over air bubbles
Q.78 The formula of carnallite is :

. (A) LiAl(Si2O5)2 (B) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O
(C) K2OAl2O3.6SiO2 (D) KCl.MgCl2.2H2O
Q.79 Which of the following is not an ore of iron?

(A) Haematite (B) Limonite (C) Siderite (D) Malachite
Q.80 "Fool's gold" is

(A) iron pyrites (B) horn silver (C) copper pyrites (D) bronze

REDUCTION / EXTRACTION OF METALS

Q.81 Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by
(A) Electrolytic reduction
(B) Roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(C) Roasting following reduction with another metal
(D) Roasting followed by self-reduction
Q.82 Roasting is generally done in case of the following.

(A) Sulphate ores (B) Silicate ores (C) Sulphide ores (D) Carbonate ores
Q.83 Electric furnaces are lined with magnesia because

(A) it is not affected by acids (B) it gives oxygen on heating
(C) it melts at very high temperature (D) it has no effect of electricity
Q.84 Purpose of smelting of an ore is

(A) To oxidise it (B) To reduce it
(C) To remove vaporisable impurities (D) To obtain an alloy
Q.85 The role of calcination in metaullurgical operation is

(A) To remove moisture (B) To decompose carbonates
(C) To decompose organic matter (D) To achieve all the above
Q.86 The metallurgical process in which metal is obtained in fused state from its ore is called
(A) Smelting (B) Roasting (C) Calcination (D) Froth floatation
Q.87 Which of the following processes involves smelting

(A) ZnCO3  ZnO + CO2 (B) Fe2O2 + 3 CO  2Fe + 3CO2
(C) 2PbS + 3O2  2 PbO + 2SO2 (D) Al2O3·2H2O  Al2O3 + 2H2O
Q.88 Which of the following ore is subjected to roasting during metallurgical operations for getting the metal
oxide
(A)Argentite (B) Zinc blende (C) Malachite (D) Limonite
Q.89 Flux is added to remove

(A)Acidic impurities (B) Basic impurities
(C)All impurities of ores (D) Both (A) and (B)

Q.90 Which element is used as a reducing agent in smelting

(A) C (B)Al (C) Zn (D) None of these
Q.91 According to Ellingham diagram, the oxidation reaction of carbon to carbon monoxide may be used to
reduce which one of the following oxides at the lowest temperature
(A) Al2O3 (B) Cu2O (C) MgO (D) ZnO
Q.92 In blast furnace, maximum temperature is in

(A) Zone of fusion (B) Zone of combustion
(C) Zone of slag formation (D) Zone of reduction
Q.93 During smelting, an additional substance is added which combines with impurities to form a fusible
product. It is known as
(A) slag (B) mud (C) gangue (D) flux
Q.94 Which one of the following reaction is an example of calcination process?

(A) 2Ag + 2HCl + [O]  2AgCl + H2O
(B) 2Zn + O2  2 ZnO
(C) 2 ZnS + 3O2  2 ZnO + 2SO2

(D) 2 PbCO3·Pb(OH)2  3PbO + CO2 + H2O
Q.95 Which of the following metal is obtained by electrolytic reduction process ?

(A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Ag (D) Mg
Q.96 Heating of ore in the absence of air below its melting point is called
(A) Leaching (B) Roasting (C) Smelting (D) Calcination
Q.97 Which of the following flux is used to remove acidic impurities in metallurgical process?
(A) Silica (B) Lime stone (C) Borax (D) Sodium
Q.98 The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is called
(A) Roasting (B) Smelting (C) Dressing (D) Calcination

Q.99 Which of the following statements about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before smelting is not
true?
(A) fGº of the sulphide is more negative than that of CS2
(B) fGº is negative for roasting of sulphide ore to oxide
(C) fG of carbon reduction of metal oxide to free metal is more negative at higher temperature
(D) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides
Q.100 The value of fGº for Cr2O3 is – 540 kJ mol–1 and that of Al2O3 is – 827 kJ mol–1. Is the reduction of
Cr2O3 byAl is feasible reaction
(A) The data is incomplete (B) The reaction is feasible
(C) The reaction is not feasible (D) The reaction may or may not be feasible
Q.101 Heating pyrites in air for oxidation of sulphur is called

(A) Slagging (B) Smelting (C) Roasting (D) None of these
Q.102 Which of the following condition is incorrect for metal oxide formation from metal and oxygen at given
temp.
(A) H = – ve (B) S = – ve (C) S = + ve (D) None of these
Q.103 Calcination is not carried out for

(A) Calalmine (B) Malachite (C) Chalcopyrite (D) Dolomite
Q.104 Consider the following statements :

Roasting is carried out to :
(i) convert sulphide ore to metal oxide and metal sulphate
(ii) remove water of hydration
(iii) organic matter is decomposed into volatile substance
(iv) remove arsenic and sulphuric impurities as their oxides
Of these statements :
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (B) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct (D) All are correct
Q.105 Identify the metal M whose extraction is based on the following reactions :
MS + 2O2  MSO4 ; 2 MS + 3O2  2MO + 2SO2
MS + 2 MO 3M + SO2 ; MS + MSO4  2M + 2SO2
(A) Magnesium (B)Aluminium (C) Lead (D) Tin
Q.106 Which of the following metal is not extracted commercially by carbon reduction process?
(A) Zn (B) Fe (C) Hg (D) Sn

Q.107 Which of the following reaction does not represent to calcination.


(A) Al(OH)3  Al2O3 
(B) ZnS + O2  ZnSO4


(C) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2  CuO + CO2 + H2O (D) MgCl2.6H2O Dry MgCl2
HCl
Q.108 An ore after levigation is found to have acidic impurities . Which of the following can be used as flux
during smelting operation?
(A) Na2B4O7 (B) CaCO3 (C) SiO2 (D) Na3PO4
Q.109 Which of the following reactions represent(s) the self-reduction process?
HgS  O 2  HgO  SO 2 Cu 2S  O 2  Cu 2O  SO 2

(A)  (B) 
HgO  HgS  Hg  SO 2 Cu 2S  Cu 2O  Cu  SO 2
PbS  O 2  PbO  SO 2
(C)  (D)All of these
PbO  PbS  Pb  SO 2
Q.110 Which of the following represents thermite reduction?


(A) 3Mn3O4 + 8Al  9Mn + 4Al2O3 (B) Al2O3 + 3Mg  2Al + 3MgO
(C) Cu2S + 2Cu2O  6Cu + SO2 (D) Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2
Q.111 Choose the correct option for the following statements

Statement-1 Sulphide ore is firstly converted to oxide and then it is subjected to reduction for the
extraction of metal.
Statement-2 In calcination, the ore is heated in a regular supply of air in a furnace at a temperature
below melting point of the calcined product.
Statement-3 Carbon can be used in place of Mg metal during commercial extraction of Ti-metal in
Kroll process.
Statement-4 In commercial extraction of Mn by Thermite process, three parts of MnO2 and one part
of Al as reductant, is used.
(A) TTFF (B) FFFT (C) TFFT (D) TFFF
Q.112 Extraction of manganese from Mn3O4 by the use of aluminium is an example of :

(A)Amalgamation (B) hydrometallurgy (C) electrometallurgy (D) Pyrometallurgy

Q.113 Slag is formed by reaction between:

(A) impurities and coke (B) impurities and ore
(C) impurities and flux (D) flux and coke
Q.114 The slag consists of molten impurities, generally, in the form of:
(A) Metal carbonate (B) Metal silicate
(C) Metal oxide (D) Metal nitrate
Q.115 Refractory materials are used in furnaces because

(A) they maintain temperature of the furnace (B) they can withstand high temperature
(C) they prevent formation of CO (D) they help in burning of coal
Q.116 Which of the following statement is correct regarding the slag obtained during the extraction of a metal
like copper or iron?
(A) The slag is lighter and has lower melting point than the metal
(B) The slag is heavier and has lower melting point than the metal
(C) The slag is lighter and has higher melting point than the metal
(D) The slag is heavier and has higher melting point than the metal
Q.117 Among the following groups of oxides, the group containing oxides that is reduced by carbon for their
respective extraction.
(A) CaO and K2O (B) Fe2O3, ZnO and SnO2
(C) Al2O3, B2O3 (D) Cr2O3, Mn3O4
Q.118 Which of the following match is incorrect

Extraction Method Metal(s)
(A) Self reduction Hg, Pb
(B) Electrolytic reduction Na, Al
(C) Hydrometallurgy Pb, Zn
(D)Alumino-thermite reduction Mn, Cr
Q.119 Heating of pyrites in air for oxidation of sulphur is called

(A) Roasting (B) Calcination (C) Smelting (D) Levigation
Q.120 Which is not basic flux

(A) Lime stone (B) SiO2 (C) Magnesite (D) None

Q.121 In the extraction of iron lime stone added to the blast furnace, calcium ion is obtained mainly in the form
of
(A) CaSiO3 (B) CaCO3 (C) Ca (D) CaO
Q.122 The slag obtained during the extraction of copper from copper pyrites is composed mainly of
(A) CaSiO3 (B) FeSiO3 (C) CuSiO3 (D) SiO2
Q.123 Which of the following reaction taking place in the Blast furnace is endothermic
(A) CaCO3  CaO + CO2 (B) 2C+ O2  2CO
(C) C + O2  CO2 (D) Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2
Q.124 In the modern blast furnaces, in the extraction of iron the charge consists of a mixture of
(A) Fe2O3+ lime stone + anthracite coal (B) Fe2O3+ limestone + coke
(C) Fe2O3.3H2O + dolomite + coke (D) Iron pyrites + lime stone + bituminous coal
Q.125 A metal obtained directly by roasting of its sulphide ore is

(A) Cu (B) Pb (C) Hg (D) Zn
Q.126 Heating mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S will give

(A) Cu + SO2 (B) Cu + SO3 (C) CuO +CuS (D) Cu2O + S
Q.127 In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous
oxide with
(A) Copper (I) sulphide (Cu2S) (B) Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
(C) Iron sulphide (FeS) (D) Carbon monoxide (CO)
Q.128 Alumino-thermite process is used for the extraction of

(A)Al (B) Cr (C) Fe (D) Cu
Q.129 In alumino-thermite process, aluminium is used as

(A) Oxidising agent (B) Flux
(C) Reducing agent (D) Ignition agent
Q.130 Aluminium is extracted in large quantities by

(A) Heating cryolite in a limited quantity of air
(B) Reducing aluminium oxide with coke
(C) Reducing aluminium oxide with sodium
(D) Electrolysing aluminium oxide dissolved in fused cryolite
Q.131 After partial roasting, the sulphide of lead is reduced by

(A) Reduction by carbon (B) Electrolysis
(C) Self-reduction (D) Cyanide process
Q.132 Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al2O3) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of

(A) Al2O3 + HF + NaAlF4 (B) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4
(C) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2 (D) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6
Q.133 Extraction ofchromium from chromic oxide, the method used is

(A)Alumino-thermic process (B) Electrolytic reduction
(C) Carbon reduction (D) Carbon monoxide reduction
Q.134 Bauxte ore is made up ofAl2O3 + SiO2 + TiO2 + Fe2O3. The ore is treated with conc. NaOH solution
at 500 K and 35 bar pressure for few hours and filtered, In the filtrate the species present, are
(A) NaAlO2 only (B) Na2Ti(OH)6 only
(C) Both NaAlO2 and Na2SiO3 (D) Na2SiO3 only
Q.135 The autoreduction process is not used for extraction of

(A) Hg (B) Cu (C) Pb (D) Fe
Q.136 Pb and Sn are extracted from their chief ore respectively by.
(A) Carbon reduction and self reduction (B) Self reduction and carbon reduction.
(C) Electrolysis and self reduction. (D) Self reduction and electrolysis.
Q.137 Slag formed during extraction of iron is

(A) Fe3C (B) FeSiO3 (C) MgSiO3 (D) CaSiO3
Q.138 The methods chiefly used for the extraction of lead and tin from their ores are respectively.
(A) Self reduction and carbon reduction (B) Self reduction and electrolytic reduction
(C) Carbon reduction and self reduction (D) Cyanide process and carbon reduction
Q.139 Complex is formed in the extraction of

(A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Ag (D) Na
Q.140 Spiegelesin is an alloyof

(A) Fe, Co and Cr (B) Fe, Co and Mg (C) Fe, Mg and C (D) Fe, C and Mn

Q.141 From which of the following ore, the concerned metal is not commercially extracted by self reduction.
(A) Ag2S (B) PbS (C) CuFeS2 (D) Cu2S
Q.142 The reduction of a metal oxide by aluminium is called:

(A) Ellingham process (B) Goldschmidt's aluminothermite process
(C) Kroll's process (D) Van Arkel process
Q.143 Blister Cu contains about:

(A) 60 % Cu (B) 90 % Cu (C) 98 % Cu (D) 100 % Cu
Q.144 Self-reduction of Cu2S to Cu is carried out in ............ step

(A) Roasting (B) Smelting (C) Bessemerization (D) Poling
Q.145 In which of the following process, silver metal can not be obtained.
(A) As a by product in the electrolytic refining of copper
(B) Parke's process
(C) By reaction of argentite ore with excess KCN followed by metal displacement
(D) By treatment of Horn silver withAqua Regia
Q.146 Incorrect reduction process is :

(A) 2[Ag(CN)2]¯ + Zn  [Zn(CN)4]2–+'2Ag

(B) Cu2O + H2  2Cu + H2O

(C) ZnO + Cu  Zn + CuO

(D) TiCl4+ 2Mg  Ti + 2MgCl2
Q.147 In which of the following isolations no reducing agent is required:

(A) Iron from haematite (B) Tin fromTinstoe
(C) Mercury from cinnabar (D) Zinc from zinc blende

Q.148 Which of the following combination of reactions is involved during commercial extraction of copper
metal
3  
(A) Cu2S + O  Cu2O + SO2 ; Cu2O + C  Cu + CO
2 2
3  
(B) Cu2S + O2  Cu2O + SO2 ; 2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu + SO2
2
3  
(C) Cu2S + O2  Cu2O + SO2 ; 2Cu2O + Si  4Cu + SiO2
2
3  
(D) Cu2S + O2  Cu2O + SO2 ; Cu2O + CO  2Cu + CO2
2
Q.149 Iron obtained directly from blast furance is:

(A) wrought iron (B) cast iron (C) pig iron (D) steel
Q.150 Which one of the following reactions will occur on heatingAgNO3?

(A) 2AgNO3  2Ag + N2 + 3O2 (B) 3AgNO3  Ag2O + N2O3 + O2
(C) 2AgNO3  2AgNO2 + O2 (D) 2AgNO3 2Ag + NO2 + O2
Q.151 Boron can be obtained by various methods but not by:

(A) thermal decomposition of B2H6 (B) pyrolysis of BI3 (Van Arkel)
(C) Reduction of BCl3 by H2 (D) electrolysis of fused BCl3
Q.152 Black tin is

(A) an alloy of Sn (B) an allotrope of Sn
(C) 60-70 percent SnO2 (D) 100 percent SnO2
Q.153 Incorrect statement during extraction ofAl by Hall-Heroult process is :

(A) cryolite Na3[AlF6] lowers the working temperature.
(B) Al is obtained at cathode and probably CO at anode
(C) Anode rods are disintegrated due to their oxidation
(D) Pure aluminium floats above molten electrolyte.
Q.154 Which of the following species is desirable substance in extraction of copper but not in extraction of
iron?
(A) CaSiO3 (B) FeSiO3 (C) SiO2 (D) coke

Q.155 Main source of lead is PbS. It is converted to Pb by:
(A) : PbS air


PbO + SO2 (B) : PbS air

PbO + PbS
c
Pb + CO2 Pb + SO2
Self-reduction pocess is:

(A)A (B) B (C) both (D) none
Q.156 Which of the following reaction does not occur in Bessemer's converter?
(A) FeS + Cu2O  Cu2S + FeO (B) 2Cu2S + 3O2  2Cu2O + 2SO2
(C) 2CuFeS2+ O2  Cu2S + 2FeS + SO2 (D) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3
Q.157 In McArthur forest method zinc powder is used as

(A) oxidising agent (B) reducing agent (C) solvent (D) solvating agent
Q.158 The metal which can be extracted by both sea-water and ores from the earth's crust is:
(A) Magnesium (B) Lead (C) Iron (D)Aluminium
Q.159 Electrolyte used in the commercial extraction of aluminium is :

(A)Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution
(B) Molten mica and CaF2
(C) Molten mixture of Al2O3, Na3AlF6 & CaF2
(D) Molten potash alum
Q.160 Use T if statement is true and F if it is false for following statement.

(i) Cu metal is extracted from its sulphide ore by reduction of Cu2O with FeS.
(ii) Calamine containing impurity of FeCr2O4 is concentrated by magnetic separation.
(iii) Self reduction is used for the extraction of Cu & Hg.
(iv) Cassiterite and Rutile are oxide ores of their respective metals
(A) TFTT (B) TIFT (C) FTTT (D) FFFT
Q.161 During extraction of aluminium the carbon anodes are replaced periodically because:
(A) carbon anodes are gradually lost due to formation of Al4C3
(B) Carbon anodes melt and mix up with the electrolyte
(C) Oxygen liberated at the carbon anode reacts with anode to form CO
(D) Carbon anode reduces Al2O3 into Al

Q.162 In the extraction of aluminium

Process X : Used for purification of red bauxite by leaching.
Process Y : Used for purification of white bauxite and removes impurity of Z then correct statement is.
(A) X = Hall and Heroult's process and Z = SiO2
(B) X =Baeyer's process and Z = SiO2
(C) X =Serpeck's process and Z = iron oxide
(D) X =Baeyer's process and Z = iron oxide
Q.163 Magnesium is commerciallyextracted by :

(A) self-reduction process (B) Dow's sea process
(C) Thermite reduction (D) Leaching followed by metal displacement
Q.164 Bauxite is leached with:

(A) N2 + Coke (B) NaCN (C) NaOH (D) Na2CO3
Q.165 Silver ore dissolves in dilute solution of NaCN in the presence of air to form:
(A)AgCN (B) [Ag(CN)2]¯ (C) AgSCN (D) [Ag(CN)4¯]
Q.166 For extraction of sodium from NaCl, the electrolytic mixture NaCl + KCl + CaCl 2 is used. During
extraction process, only sodium is deposited on cathode but K and Ca do not because
(A) Na is more volatite than K and Ca
(B) Na is less reactive than K and Ca
(C) NaCl is less stable than Na3AlF6 and CaCl2
(D) the discharge potential of Na+ is less than that of K+ and Ca2+ ions.
Q.167 What is the chemical composition of matte?

(A) Cu2O + FeS (B) Cu2O + Cu2S (C) FeS + SiO2 (D) Cu2S + FeS
Q.168 Dow's process is used for:

(A) Extraction of sodium metal (B) Extraction of Mg from molten carnallite
(C) Extraction of magnesium from sea water (D) Purification of aluminium
Q.169 Which of the following reaction occurs in the reduction zone during extraction of iron?
(A) CaO + SiO2 CaSiO3(slag) (B) Fe2O3 + 3C  2Fe + CO
(C) FeO + CO  Fe + CO2 (D) CO2+ C  2CO
Q.170 In the metallurgy of iron, the upper layer obtained at the bottom of blast furnace mainly contains:
(A) CaSiO3 (B) Spongy iron (C) Fe2O3 (D) FeSiO3
Q.171 In the extraction of aluminium during electrolysis stage:

(A) Al2O3 undergoes dissociation
(B) AlF3 undergoes dissociation
(C) Al2O3 and AlF3 both underg'o dissociation
(D) Neither of the two undergoes dissociation
Q.172 In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with:
(A) FeS (B) CO (C) Cu2S (D) SO2
Q.173 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Tin is extracted by carbon reduction (smelting)
(B)Aluminium is extracted by Hall's process which involves carbon reduction.
(C) Extraction of lead does not involve bessemerisation
(D) Silver is extracted by cyanide process
Q.174 Fused carnallite on electrolysis gives:

(A) Ca and Cl2 (B) Na and CO2 (C) Al and Cl2 (D) Mg and Cl2
REFINING
Q.175 Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to a
(A) Volatile stable compound
(B) Volatile thermallyunstable compound
(C) Non volatile stable compound
(D) None of the above
Q.176 If the impurityin a metal has a greater affinity for oxygen and is more easily oxidised than the metal, then
the purification of metal may be carried out by
(A) Cyanidation (B) Zone refining (C) Electrolytc refining (D) Cupelation
     Select
Q.177 (Ag + Pb) alloy Melt Upper Layer ( X )
   (Ag + Pb + Zn) melt Cool
and zinc is added

Bottom Layer ( Y )
correct statement based on above scheme

(A) Layer X contain Zn and Ag
(B) Layer Y contains Pb andAg but amount of silver in this layer is smaller than in layer X
(C) X and Y are immiscible layer
(D) All are correct statements

Q.178 The method of zone refining is based on the principle of

(A) Greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid
(B) Greater mobility of the pure metal than that of the impurity
(C) Higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal
(D) Greater noble character of the solid metal than that of the impurity
Q.179 Van-Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to a

(A) Volatile thermally stable compound (B) Non-volatile stable compound
(C) Volatile thermallyunstable compound (D) None of the above
Q.180 Zone refining is based on the principle of

(A) fractional distillation (B) fracitonal crystallisation
(C) partitition coefficient (D) chromatographic separation
Q.181 In electrorefining of metals , the anode is made of :

(A) Impure metal concerned (B) Pure metal concerned
(C) Graphite (D) Platinum

(A) Liquation is applied when the metal has low melting point than those of impurities.
(B) Presence of carbon in steel makes it hard due to having cementite impurity.
(C) Less reactive metals like Hg, Pb and Cu are obtained by auto reduction from their sulphide ores.
(D)Amalgamation is used for purification of mercury
Q.183 Zinc does not form alloy with

(A) Cu (B) Sn (C)Pb (D)Ag
Q.184 Which ofthe following process involves the principle of fractional crystallisation for refining of an element?
(A) Parke's process (B) Mond's process (C) Van Arkel process (D) Zone refining
Q.185 Mg can be obtained by:

(A) heating MgCl2(anhydrous) with Na in the atmosphere of coal gas
(B) electrolysis of fused anhydrous carnallite
(C) both methods
(D) one of.the above.

Q.186 NaCl and CaCl2 are added to fused MgCl2 during extraction of Mg because.
(A) Melting point of electrolyte is decreased and its conductivity is increased
(B) Melting point of electrolyte is increased and its conductivity is decreased
(C) Both melting point and conductivity of electrolyte are decreased
(D) Both melting point and conductivity of electrolyte are increased
Q.187 Incorrect match is

(A) Bayer's method NaOH solution
(B) Matte 98% CuS + 2% FeS
(C) Van Arkel method BI3
(D) Thomas slag Bessemerization
Q.188 Purest form of iron is :

(A) cast iron (B) wrought iron (C) pig iron (D) None ofthese
Q.189 Tempering of steel:

(A) to obtain steel of a particular hardness
(B) increases mechanical strength
(C) changes content of carbon in the form of cementite
(D) All of the above
Q.190 Bessemerisation is used in the extraction / Refining of

I : Fe II : Cu III :Al IV: Silver
(A) I, II (B) II, III (C) I, III (D) all
Q.191 The method of extraction ofAg by cyano complex formation followed by metal displacement is called:
(A) Parke's method (B) McArthur-Forest method
(C) Serpeck method (D) Hall's method
Q.192 Silica is added during extraction of copper in order to remove

(A) cuprous sulphide (B) ferrous oxide
(C) cupric oxide (D) cuprous oxide
Q.193 Addition of manganese makes steel useful in making rails of railroads, because manganese
(A) gives hardness to steel (B) helps the formation of oxides of iron
(C) reduces impurity of SiO2 into silicon (D) reduces hardness
Q.194 A piece of steel is heated to red hot and then it is dipped into cold water, this treatment of iron makes it
(A) soft and malleable (B) hard but not brittle
(C) more brittle (D) hard and brittle

Q.195 Modern method of steel manufacturing is

(A) open hearth process (B) L.D. Process
(C) Bessemerisation (D) Cupellation
Q.196 The chemical process of manufacturing of steel from its ore haematite involves
(A) oxidation (B) reduction followed by oxidation
(C) oxidation followed by reduction (D) oxidation followed bydecomposition and reduction
Q.197 Which of the following metal acts as scavenger in steal manufacturing.

(A) Cr (B) Mn (C) Ti (D) Pb
Q.198 Railway wagon axles are made by

(A) Sherardising (B)Annealing (C) Tempering (D) Case hardening
Q.199 In electrolytic refining of metals, electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its complex salt is done with
impure metal as anode and an strip of pure metal as cathode. This method cannot be used for the refining
of the metal
(A) Silver (B) Copper (C)Aluminium (D) Zinc
Q.200 Cupellation process is used in the metallugry of

(A) Copper (B) Silver (C)Aluminium (D) Iron
Q.201 Zone refining is a method to obtain

(A) Ultra pure Hg (B) Ultra pure Lead (C) Ultra pure Silicon (D) Ultra pure Sn
Q.202 Metal which is refined bypoling is

(A) Sodium (B) Blister copper (C) Zinc (D) Silver
Q.203 Silver obtained from argentiferrous lead containing lead impurity is purified by
(A) Distillation (B) Froth floatation
(C) Cupellation (D) Aqueous NaCN in absence of air
Q.204 The method not used in metallurgy to refine the impure metal is
(A) Mond's process (B) Van-Arkel process (C) Froth floatation (D) Liq uation
Q.205 Method used for obtaining ultra pure silicon used as a semiconductor material is
(A) Oxidation (B) Electrochemical (C) Crystallization (D) Zone refining
Q.206 In electrorefining of copper, some gold is deposited as

(A) anode mud (B) cathode mud (C) flux (D) slag

Q.207 Which method of purification is represented by the following equation?
Ti(s) + 2I2 (g) 523

 K
 TiI4 (g) 1700
 K
 Ti(s) + 2I2 (g)
(A) Zone refining (B) Cupellation (C) Poling (D) Van-Arkel
Q.208 Refining of silver is carried out by:

(A) Liquation (B) Poling (C) Cupellation (D) Vapour phase refining
Q.209 Which does not represent correct method?


(A) TiCl4 + 2 Mg  Ti + 2MgCl2 : Kroll process

(B) Ni(CO)4  Ni + 4CO : Mond's process

(C) PbI2  Pb + I2 : Van Arkel process

(D) ZrI4  Zr + 2I2 : Van Arkel process
Q.210 In the form of byproduct, tungstan is mainly obtained during electrolysis refining of :
(A) Pb (B) Sn (C) Cu (D)Al
Q.211 In the extraction of nickel by Mond's process, the metal is obtained by:
(A) electrochemical reduction (B) thermal decomposition
(C) chemical reduction byaluminium (D) reduction by carbon
Q.212 When copper is purified by electrorefining process, noble metals like Ag and Au are found in
(A) cathode mud (B) over anode
(C) anode mud (D) over cathode or anode
Q.213 Formation of Ni(CO)4 and subsequent its decomposition into Ni and CO (recycled) makes basis of
Mond's process
Ni(CO)4 
T
Ni + 4CO 
T1 2
Ni + 4CO
T1 and T2 are:
(A) 100°C, 50°C (B) 50°C, 100°C (C) 50°C, 230°C (D) 230°C, 50°C
Q.214 In making of steel, phosphorous separates as :

(A) Slag. Ca3(PO4)2 (B) volatile, P2O5 (C) slag, FePO4 (D) Ca3P2

Q.215 Incorrect statement regarding silver extraction process is :

(A) When the lead-silver composition is rich in silver, lead is removed by the cupellation process.
(B) When lead-silver composition is rich in lead, most of lead is removed by Pattinson's process.
(C) Zinc forms an alloy with lead, from which lead is separated by distillation
(D) Zinc dissolves silver, from which zinc is separated by distillation.
Q.216 Which process is based on Distribution law

(A) Pattinson's process (B) Parke's process (C) Kroll process (D) Moisson process
Q.217 During poling which ofthe following oxide(s) is/are not reduced by hydrocarbons.
(A) SnO2 (B) Fe2O3 (C) Cu2O (D) both A and C
Q.218 Ultrapure form of Si and Ge are obtained from.

(A) zone-refining (B) electrorefining
(C) Van-Arkel's process (D) cupellation process
Q.219 The metal for which, its property of forming of volatile complex is used for its purification.
(A) Cobalt (B) Nickel (C) Vanadium (D) Iron
Q.220 In the purification of aluminium by Hoope's process, impurities of silicon and copper are added to the
molten impure aluminium in order to :
(A) make the melt conducting (B) reduce CaO into Ca
(C) smooth deposition of aluminium ion (D) make the melt heavier
Q.221 In electrorefining of metal, the anode is made of thick plate of impure metal and this method is not used
for 1 refining of :
(A) Silver (B) Copper (C)Aluminium (D) Gold
Q.222 % of silver in 'german silver' is

(A) 0 (B)80 (C) 90 (D) 10
Q.223 Which method of purification is presented by the following reactions?
Ti  2 I 2 500
 K
 TiI 4 1675
 K
 Ti  2 I 2
(Impure) (Pure)
(A) Cupellation (B) Polling (C) Van Arkel (D) Zone refining

Q.224 Which of the following metals may be present in the anode mud during electrorefining of copper?
I. Gold ; II. Iron ; III. Silver ; IV. magnesium
(A) I and II (B) II and IV (C) I and III (D) III and IV
Q.225 Mercury is purified by:

(A) Leaching (B) Distillation (C) Cupellation (D) Vapour phase refining
Q.226 Which is not correctly matched :

(A) Spiegleisan : Mn + Fe+C (B) Dow's sea water process : Ca(OH)2
(C) Parke's process : Ag (D) Liquation : Spelter (Impure Zn)
Q.227 Silver and gold are often obtained as valuable by-products during:
(A) Smelting (B) Electrolytic refining
(C) Zone refining (D) Iron making
Q.228 Extraction of pure Zn metal from its sulphide ore does not involve
(A) Roasting (B) Distillation (C) Self reduction (D) Rapid Cooling
Q.229 Which of the following match is incorrect

Extraction Method Metal(s)
(A) Self reduction Hg, Pb
(B) Electrolytic reduction Na, Al
(C) Hydrometallurgy Pb, Zn
(D)Alumino-thermite reduction Mn, Cr
Q.230 Which of the following metal is commercially extracted by Pyrometallurgy

(A)Ag (B)Al (C) Cu (D) Mg

EXERCISE-2

Q.1 Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of
(A) Cu (B) Hg (C) Al (D) Fe
Q.2 Metal(s) which does/do not form amalgam is/are

(A) Fe (B) Pt (C) Na (D)Au
Q.3 Metal(s) which is/are extracted by smelting (Carbon reduction) process

(A) Cr (B) Fe (C) Zn (D) Sn
Q.4 Extraction of silver from argentiferrous lead (Pb +Ag) involves

(A) distillation method (B) cupellation
(C) Pattinson's process (D) Parke's process
Q.5 Which of the following reduction reactions are actually employed in commerical extraction of metals?
(A) Fe2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Fe
(B) Cr2O3+ 2Al  Al2O3+ 2Cr
(C) 2Na[Au(CN)2] + Zn  Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Au
(D) Cu2O + H2  2Cu + H2O
Q.6 Conversion of concentrated ore into metal oxide is required because

(A) Reduction of metal oxide thermodynamically feasible
(B) Non metal impurities like As, Sb, S are removed as volatile oxides
(C) Organic impurities are burnt away.
(D) it makes ore porus
Q.7 Which of the following can be obtained byelectrolytic reduction of their compounds in aqueous solution?
(A) Gold (B)Aluminium (C) Silver (D) Copper
Q.8 During extraction of iron, correct statement(s) about slag formation is/are
(A) It prevents oxidation of pig iron (B) Heat energy is evolved
(C) It exists in molten form (D) It is used in cement industry
Q.9 Roasting is usuallycarried out in

(A) Blast furnace (B) Reverberatory furnace
(C) Bessemer's converter (D) Electric furnace
Q.10 Which of the following reaction(s) occur during calcination?


(A) Zn(OH)2ZnCO3  2ZnO + CO2  + H2O 

(B) 4FeS2 + 11O2   2Fe2O3 + 8SO2

(C) 2Al(OH)3  Al2O3 + 3H2O 

(D) MgCl2.6H2O  MgCl2 + 6H2O 
Dry HCl gas
Q.11 Which of the following statement(s) is / are common between roasting and sintering?
(A) Both require heating of the ore.
(B) Both involve burning away of organic matter.
(C) Both the process cause partial fusion of ore
(D) Both are performed only for sulphide ores
Q.12 The correct statement(s) is / are

(A) Calcination and roasting can be carried out in blast furance
(B) The sandy and rocky materials associated with ore are called matrix
(C) In froth floatation process CuSO4 converts Na2[Zn(CN)4] into ZnS
(D) substance that reacts with gangue to form fusible mass is called slag
Q.13 Which of the following is/are true for calcination of a metal ore?
(A) It makes the ore more porous .
(B) The ore is heated to a temperature when fusion just begins
(C) Hydrated salts lose their water of crystallisation
(D) Impurities of S, As and Sb are removed in the form of their volatile oxides.
Q.14 The difference(s) between roasting and calcination is (are)

(A) roasting is highlyendothermic while calcination is not.
(B) partial fusion occurs in calcination but not in roasting.
(C) calcination is performed in limited supply of air but roasting employs excess air.
(D) combustion reactions occur in roasting but not in calcination.
Q.15 In electrorefining of metals anode and cathode are taken as thick slab of impure metal and a strip of
pure- metal respectivelywhile the electrolyte is aq. solution of a complex metal salt. This method cannot
be applied for the refining of
(A) Copper (B) Sodium (C)Aluminium (D) Silver

Q.16 Which of the following metal is not refined by fractional distillation?

(A) Zn (B) Cd (C) Hg (D) Sn
Q.17 Hg and Pb are comercially extracted from their respective sulphide ores by Pyrometallurgy whereas
Pyrometallurgy is not applied in the extraction of Ag fromAg2S because
(A) Roasting of PbS is thermodynamically feasible below its melting point
(B) Roasting ofAg2S is not thermodynamically feasible
(C) Roasting of HgS is feasible at low temperature
(D) Gf of Ag2O becomes positive on normal heating
Q.18 Which of the following process(es) are used for purification of Bauxite ore?
(A) Hall's process (B) Serpeck's process
(C) Baeyer's process (D) Mond's process
Q.19 Common impurities present in Bauxite are

(A) Cu2O (B) TiO2 (C) Fe2O3 (D) SiO2
Q.20 Amphoteric nature of alumina is employed in which of the following process for extraction of aluminium?
(A) Baeyer's process (B) Hall's process
(C) Serpek's process (D) Hall-Heroult's process
Q.21 Which of the following is/are regarded as ores of iron?

(A) Haematite (B) Magnesite (C) Rolled gold (D) Copper pyrites
Q.22 Dolomite is an ore of :

(A)Aluminium (B) Magnesium (C) Calcium (D) Potassium
Q.23 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct:

(A) Cuprite and Zincite are oxide ores
(B) Magnesite and carnallite are carbonate ores
(C) Chalcocite and azurite are ores of copper
(D) Felspar and mica minerals contain aluminium.

Q.24 During extraction of metallic sodium by electrolysis of fused NaCl (Down's process), small amount of
CaCl2 is added in order to
(A) Improves the electrical conductivity
(B) Decreases the melting point of NaCl
(C) Reduces vapourization of isolated sodium metal
(D) Acts as dessicant
Q.25 Correct statement(s) about extraction of copper from matte is/are

(A) Matte is treated in Bessemer converter
(B) Molten matte is electrolysed
(C) It is treated with a blast of hot air and in presence of silica linings.
(D) From matte blister copper is obtained by self reduction
Q.26 The main reaction(s) which occur(s) in blastfurnace during extraction of iron from haematite is(are)
(A) Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2 (B) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3
(C) Fe2O3 + C  2Fe + 3CO (D) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3
Q.27 During extraction of iron which of the following reaction(s) exhibit development ofelemental impurities in
iron:

(A) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (B) MnO + C  Mn + CO
 
P4O10  P4 Si + 2CO 
C
(C) Ca3(PO4)2  (D) SiO2 + 2C 

Q.28 The role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in small quantities in the electrolytic reduction of alumina
dissolved in fused cryolite (Na3AlF6) is
(A) as a catalyst
(B) to make the fused mixture very conducting
(C) to lower the temperature of the melt
(D) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode.
Q.29 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the extractive metallurgy of aluminium?
(A) Red bauxite contains the major impurities of iron oxides and minor % of TiO2.
(B) Red bauxite is purified by Hall's and Serpeck's process
(C) Hall-Heroult process is used for the electrolytic reduction of molten alumina dissolved in molten
cryolite.
(D) In electrolytic reduction of alumina gases / vapours of CO, CO2 and f1orocarbons are liberated at
anode.

Q.30 Which of the following processe(s) occur(s) during the extraction of copper from chalcopyrites ?
(A) Froth floatation (B) Roasting (C) Bessemerisation (D) leaching
Q.31 In the extraction of copper from chalcopyrites, the impurity of iron sulphide is removed as FeSiO3 in :
(A) Electrolytic refining (B) Bessemerisation
(C) Roasting (D) Poling
Q.32 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) In Serpeck's process silica is removed by heating the bauxite to 1800°C with coke in a current of N2
(B) In extraction of lead from galena roasting and self reduction takes place in the same furnance but
under different conditions of tempt and supply of air
(C) Tin is obtained by the carbon reduction of black tin (SnO2).
(D) None
Q.33 The anode mud obtained during electrolytic refining of copper may contain:
(A) Se and Te (B) Platinum (C) silver (D) gold
Q.34 Correct matched is / are

(A) Bayer's method NaOH solution
(B) Matte 98% CuS + 2% FeS
(C) Van Arkel method BI3
(D) Thomas slag Bessemerization
Q.35 In the extraction of respective metal correct match is/are

Metals Process
(A) Pb Pattinson's Process
(B) Cu Bessemerisation
(C) Ag pyrometallurgy
(D) Zn Carbon Reduction
Q.36 Which of the following process is not involved in the commercial extraction of pure zinc?
(A) Froth Floatation (B) Distillation (C) Self-Reduction (D) Rapid cooling
Q.37 Which ofthe following statement is/ are CORRECT regarding silver extraction from argentiferrous lead.
(A) When lead-silver composition is rich in lead, then silver is removed by Parke's method
(B) When lead-silver composition is rich in silver, then lead is removed by Cupellation method
(C) Zinc dissolves silver, from which zinc is separated by distillation
(D) Zinc dissolves in lead, from which lead is separated by distillation.
Q.38 Zone refining is used for purification of

(A)Ge (B) Si (C)Ga (D) B
Q.39 Spelter, is purified by :

(A) electrolysis process (B) fractional distillation
(C) polling (D) Parke's process
Q.40 Correct statement (s) about refining of impure aluminium by Hoop's process is/are .
(A) Three layers have different densities
(B) Middle layer consists of cryolite and BaF2
(C) The upper layer is of pure aluminium which acts as a cathode
(D) The bottom layer is of impure aluminium which acts as an anode
Q.41 Poling is employed in refining of

(A) iron (B) copper (C) tin (D) lead
Q.42 Liquation process is applied for the purification of :

(A) Copper (B) tin (C) iron (D) lead
Q.43 Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

(A) Silver is purified bycupellation method
(B) Tin is purified byliquation followed by poling
(C) Bessemerisation is used in the metallurgy of copper
(D) Extraction of Ag by parke's method is based on distribution law
[REASONING TYPE]
These questions consist of two statements each printed asAssertion and Reason. While answering these
questions you are required to choose anyone of the following four responses to encircle (A, B, C, D) as
per instructions given below:
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation ofAssertion . •
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) IfAssertion is false but Reason is true.
Q.44 Asseration : Oxide ores of iron undergo in calcination and roasting in a reverberatory furnance.
Reason: The water is removed, carbonates are decomposed. and impurities are oxidised.

Q.45 Asseration : Extraction of gold from its native ore involves leaching the metal with CN¯
Reason : This is an oxidation of native ore.
Q.46 Asseration : Extraction of zinc from sphalerite ore involves the roasting followed by reduction with
coke.
Reason: Zinc can be commercially extracted by hydrometallurgy.
Q.47 Asseration : The reduction of a metal oxide is easier if the extracted metal is in liquid state at the
temperature of reduction.
Reason: When the metal formed is in liquid state then value of entropy change S of the reduction
process is more positive and the value of G becomes more negative.
Q.48 Asseration : CuO can be reduced by carbon.

Reason: CuO is basic oxide
Q.49 Assertion : Zone refining is used to obtain element in high degree of purity.
Reason : During electroefining pure metal is liberated at cathode.
Q.50 Assertion : Highly electropositive metals are extracted by electrolysis of their aq. salt solutions.
Reason : Highly electropositive metals cannot be reduced by chemical reduction methods.
Q.51 Assertion : During calcination the ore is heated below its melting point in the limited supplyof oxygen.
Reason : The process of calcination is carried out for sulphide ores.
Q.52 Assertion: All metals cannot be obtained by carbon reduction.

Reason: Carbon is a very strong reducing agent.
Q.53 Assertion: Platinum and gold occur in native state in nature.

Reason: Platinum and gold are noble metals.
Q.54 Assertion: Magnesia and quick lime (CaO) are used as basic refractory material.
Reason: MgO and CaO can withstand very high temperatures.
Q.55 Assertion: Magnesium can be prepared by the electrolysis of aq. MgCl2.

Reason: The reduction potential of Mg2+ is much lower than that of H+.
Q.56 Assertion: In smelting, roasted ore is heated with powdered coke in presence of a flux.
Reason: Metal oxides are reduced to metals by C or CO and impurities are removed as slag.
Q.57 Assertion: Alkali metals can not be prepared bythe electrolysis of their chlorides in aqueous solution.
Reason: Reduction potentials of alkali metals cations is much lower than that of H+.
Q.58 Assertion: Al is used as a reducing agent in aluminothermite process.

Reason: Al has a lower melting point than Fe, Cr and Mn.
Q.59 Assertion: Gold occurs in native state

Reason: Gold dissolves in aqua-regia.
Q.60 Assertion: Froth floatation process is used to concentrate sulphide ores.

Reason: There is difference in wettability of ore and gangue particles.
Q.61 Assertion: Argentite ore is concentrated by froth floatation process.

Reason: Argentite is a sulphide ore.
Q.62 Assertion: Sulphide ores are concentrated by froth floatation process.

Reason: Pine oil acts as a frothing agent in froth floatation process.
Q.63 Assertion: Wolframite impurities are separated from cassiterite by electromagnetic separation.
Reason: Cassiterite being magnetic is attracted by the magnet and forms a separate heap.
Q.64 Asseration : Cast iron is different from pig iron.

Reason : Cast iron is made bymelting pig iron with scrap iron using hot air blast and has about 3%
carbon content.
Q.65 Asseration : Silica is added as a flux in reverberatory furnace, in the extraction of copper from copper
pyrites.
Reason: Silica decreases the melting point of the ore and brings the conductivity.
Q.66 Asseration : The principle involved in the extraction of tin from tin stone is the carbon reduction of
SnO2 to Sn.
Reason: Tin is extracted commercially from ore cassiterite by reduction with hydrogen.
Q.67 Assertion: Galena is roasted in limited supply of air in reverberatory furnace at a temperature so
that at this temperature molten lead can be obtained in self reduction stage.
Reason: Galena is partially converted to PbO and PbSO4 which are reduced by remaining
unroasted galena to matallic lead.

Q.68 Assertion: Silver extraction is done by dissolving its ore into cyanide solution.
Reason: In cyanide process, the silver is precipitated from soluble complex of silver byzinc-dust.
Q.69 Assertion: Heamatite ore containing a small quantity of siderite ore is always calcined followed by
roasting.
Reason: FeCO3  FeO + CO2 ; FeO + O2  Fe2O3 , Prevents the loss of iron as
FeSiO3.
Q.70 Assertion: In Hall -Heroult process aluminium is extracted by the electrolytic reduction of alumina
dissolved in molten cryolite and fluorspar.
Reason: The cryolite and fluorspar lower the melting point of melt and make it more conducting.
Q.71 Assertion: Commercial extraction of iron metal from iron oxide ore is carried out by heating with
coke.
Reason: Siderite ore is carbonate ore of iron.
Q.72 Asseration: The graphite rod is burnt away in Hall-Heroult process for aluminium.
Reason: The oxygen liberated at anode in the process reacts with the carbon anode producing
CO and CO2
Q.73 Assertion: Nickel is purified by the thermal decomposition of nickel tetracarbonyl.

Reason: Nickel is a transitional element.
Q.74 Assertion: Titanium is-purified byVan-Arkel method

Reason: Ti reacts with I2 to form TiI4 which decomposes at 1700 K to give pure Ti.
Q.75 Assertion: Lead, tin and bismuth are purified by liquation method.
Reason: Lead, tin and bismuth have low m.p. as compared to impurities.
Q.76 Asseration: Fused substance exists in three different layers in Hoop's process and these layers remains
distinct during refining.
Reason: All the layers have different densities

[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
At high temperature carbon reacts with water to produce a mixture of carbon monoxide, (CO) and
hydrogen, (H2).
C + H2O red
  CO + H2 (water gas)
heat
CO is separated from H2 and then used to separate nickel from cobalt by forming a volatile compound,
nickel tetracarbonyl, Ni(CO)4
Ni + 4CO  Ni(CO)4
Q.77 How many moles of Ni(CO)4 could be obtained from the CO produced by the reaction of 75.0 g of
carbon? (Assume 100% reaction and 100% recovery in both steps.)
(A) 6.25 (B) 1.563 (C) 3.125 (D) 25.0
Q.78 Formation of volatile Ni(CO)4 and its subsequent heating gives pure Ni, process is called:
(A) Hall's Process (B) Dow's Process
(C) Serpeck 's Process (D) Mond's Process

Magnesium is a valuable, light weight metal used as a structural material as well as in alloys, in batteries.
and in chemical synthesis. Although magnesium is plentiful in Earth's crust, it is cheaper to "mine" the
metal from seawater. Magnesium forms the second most abundant cation in the sea (after sodium); there
are about 1.3 g of magnesium in a kilogram of sea-water. The process from obtaining magnesium from
sea -water employs all three types of reactions precipitation, acid-base, and redox reactions.
Q.79 Precipitation reaction involves formation of:
(A) insoluble MgCO3 by adding Na2CO3 (B) insoluble Mg(OH)2 by adding Ca(OH)2
(C) insoluble MgSO4 by adding Na2SO4 (D) insoluble MgCl2 by adding NaCl
Q.80 Acid-base reaction involves reaction between:

(A) MgCO3 and HCl (B) Mg(OH)2 and H2SO4
(C) Mg(OH)2 and HCl (D) MgCO3 and H2SO4
Q.81 Redox reaction involves reaction between:

(A) in the electrolytic cell when fused MgCl2 is subjected to electrolysis.
(B) when fused MgCl2 is heated
(C) when fused MgCO3 is strongly heated
(D) in none ofthe above.

Q.82 Instead of calcium hydroxide, why don't we simply add sodium hydroxide to seawater to precipitate
magnesium hydroxide?
(A) Solubility of Ca(OH)2 is higher than that of NaOH.
(B) NaOH may dissolve Mg(OH)2 formed.
(C) NaOH may also precipitate other species.
(D) NaOH, being a weak electrolyte will not coagulate Mg(OH)2

Look at the location of elemenlsA, B, C and D in the following periodic table and answer the questions
given below
A B
C
D
Q.83 Which of the elements indicated byA, B, C and D is expected to be found in native ORE.
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
Q.84 Which is found as its sulphide ORE ?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
Q.85 Which is found as its carbonate ORE?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
Q.86 Imagine a planet with an atmosphere that contains O2 and SO2 but no CO2 and H2O. What is the
chemical composition of the mineral you would expect to find for the alkaline earth metals (M) on such
a planet?
(A) MCO3, MHCO3 (B) MSO3, MSO4
(C) M(HSO3)2 M(HSO4)2 (D)All


Amongst the various ores of a metal (M) (sulphide, carbonates, oxides, hydrated or hydroxides) two
ores [X] and [Y] show the following reactivity.
(i) [X] on calcination gives a black solid (S), carbon dioxide and water.
(ii) [X] dissolved in dil. HCl on reaction with KI gives a white ppt. (P) and iodine gas.
(iii) [Y] on roasting gives metal (M) and a gas (G1) which turns acidified K2Cr2O7 solution green.
(iv) [Y] on reaction with conc. HCl gives a white ppt. (MS) and another gas (G2) which turns lead
acetate solution black and also reacts with gas (G1) to precipitate colloidal sulphur in presence
of moisture.
The M, S, [X] and [Y] gives greenish blue flame.
Q.87 The metal ores [Xl and [Y] are respectively
(A) Carbonate and sulphide ores (B) Sulphide and carbonate ores
(C) Carbonate and hydroxide ores (D) Carbonate and oxide ores
Q.88 Which of the following statements is correct about [Y]?

(A) [Y] is converted to metal (M) by self reduction
(B) Soda extract of [Y] gives yellow ppt with suspension of CdCO3
(C) [Y] is chalcocites
(D)All of these
Q.89 The gas (G1) acts as

(A) Oxidising agent (B) Reducing agent
(C) Oxidising and reducing agent (D) Fluxing agent
Q.90 The white ppt. (P) is of

(A) CuI (B) CuI2 (C) K2[CuI4] (D) None

Dow's process of extraction of Mg involves extraction of Mg from sea water. Sea water is concentrated
in sun light and is then treated with milk of lime. Magnesium hydroxide obtained is reacted with dilute
HCl and MgCl2 is crystallised. The molten mixture containing 35% MgCl2, 50% NaCl and 15% CaCl2
is electrolysed when magnesium is discharged at cathode. NaCl and CaCl2 are added to lower the
fusion temperature and to increase the conductance. Mg electrolysed is protected from atmoshperic
oxidation by a blanket of inert gases.
Q.91 Select the correct statement
(A) Magnesium forms metal carbide in carbon reduction at high temperature
(B) Hydrated magneisum chloride is made anhydrous by heating in presence of dry HCl gas
(C)Anhydrous fused carnallite on electrolysis diposit magnesium at cathode
(D)All of these

Q.92 In the hydrated chloride of magnesium, MgCl2.xH2O, the value of x is

(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 10
Q.93 Molten mixture of NaCl and CaCl2 is added to the heated MgCl2 because
(A) It increases the melting point of MgCl2
(B) CaCl2 acts as a dehydrating agent
(C) (CaCl2 + NaCl) lowers the melting point of MgCl2
(D) None of these

Following flow diagram represents the extraction of aluminium from bauxite.
Bauxite Concentration of ore by Pure anhydrous Electrolytic reduction of fused Aluminium

Al2O3.2H2O Chemical method Alumina alumina + Na 3AlF6 + CaF 2 impure
Electrolysis using suspended graphite

rods (anode) and C-lining inside the
Pure iron container (cathode)
aluminium
Q.94 The purpose of adding cryolite is

(A) To increase the electrical conductivity of pure aluminium
(B) To lower the melting point ofAl2O3
(C) To remove the impurities as slag
(D) To increase the aluminium percentage in the yield
Q.95 Coke powder is spread over the molten electrolyte to

(A) Prevent the loss of heat by radiation from the surface of electrolyte.
(B) Prevent the rate of corrosion of graphite anode
(C) Can prevent oxidation of molten aluminium by air
(D) All
Q.96 Select the correct statement

(A) Bauxite is purified by Hall's, Serpeck's and Baeyer's processes
(B) In electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, a molten mixture ofAl2O3, Na3AlF6 and CaF2
is used as electrolyte
(C) Hydrated alumina is converted to anhydrous alumina by calcination process
(D)All of these

Paragraph for question nos. Q.97 to 99

In the diagram points are melting and boiling points ofthe metal zinc and magnesium. G° is a function of
temperature for some reactions of extractive metallurgy.
2Zn+O22ZnO
–200 2C+
O 2
2
CO
–400
bp
G°kJ
–600 mp
mp
–800 2Mg + O22MgO
–1000
mp
500 1000 1500 2000
Temperature °C
Q.97 At what approximate temperature, zinc and carbon have equal affinity for oxygen?
(A) 1000°C (B) 1500° (C) 500° (D) 1200°C
Q.98 At this temperature, G of the reaction

ZnO + C  Zn + CO is
(A) –ve (B) + ve (C) zero (D) Nothing can be said
Q.99 To make the following reduction process, spontaneous temperature should be


ZnO + C  Zn + CO
(A) < 1000°C (B) > 1000°C (C) < 500°C (D) > 500°C but < 1000°C

Questions are based on following reactions:
(I) FeCr2O4 + NaOH + air  (A) + Fe2O3
(II) (A) + (B)  Na2Cr2O7

(III) Na2Cr2O7 + X  Cr2O3

(IV) Cr2O3 + Y  Cr
Q.100 Compounds (A) and (B) are:
(A) Na2CrO4 , H2SO4 (B) Na2Cr2O7 , HCl
(C) CrO3, H2SO4 (D) [Cr(H2O)6](OH)3
Q.101 (X) and (Y) are:

(A) C and Al (B) Al and C (C) C in both (D) Al in both
Q.102 Na2CrO4 and Fe2O3 are separated by

(A) dissolving in conc. H2SO4 (B) dissolving in NH3
(C) dissolving in H2O (D) dissolving in dil.HCl

[MATCH THE COLUMN]

Q.103 Column-I (Reaction involved in different process) Column-II (Process)
(A) 4Au + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2 (air)  4Na[Au(CN)2] + 4NaOH (P) Leaching
(B) CuFeS2 + 2H2SO4  CuSO4 + FeSO4 + 2H2S (Q) Smelting
(C) Fe3O4 + 4CO 823

 K
 3Fe + CO (R) Hydrometallurgy
(D) MgCl2.6H2O   MgCl + 6H O

823 K
Dry HCl ( g ) 2 2 (S) Calcination
(T) Dow's process
Q.104 Column-I Column-II (Process)

(Reaction involved in different metal extraction process)
(A) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3 (P) Calcination
(B) MgCl2.6H2O Dry

  MgCl2
HCl
(Q) Hydrometallurgy


(C) Cu2S + 2Cu2O  6Cu + SO2 (R) Smelting
(D) Fe2O3 + 3C  2Fe + 3CO (S) Roasting
(E) 2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn  Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag (T) Bessemerisation
Q.105 Match the following choosing one entry from column X and the appropriate entry from column Y.
Column X ColumnY
(A) Al (P) Calamine
(B) Cu (Q) Cryolite
(C) Mg (R) Malachite
(D) Zn (S) Carnallite
Q.106 Column I (Process) Column II (Electrolyte)

(A) Downs cell process (P) Fused MgCl2
(B) Dow sea water process (Q) Fused (Al2O3 + Na3AlF6)
(C) Hall-Heroult process (R) Fused KHF2
(D) Moissan process (S) Fused (40 % NaCl + 60 % CaCl2)

(A) Van Arkel method (P) Refining of Mercury
(B) Zone refining (Q) Purification of titanium
(C) Cupellation (R) Refining of Germenium
(D) Poling (S) Refining of silver

Q.108 Column I (Property) Column II (Element / Compound)

(A) Explosive (P) Cu
(B) Self-reduction (Q) Fe 3O4
(C) Magnetic material (R) Cu(CH3COO)2.Cu(OH)2
(D) Green Verdigris (S) Pb(NO3)2

(A) Cyanide process (P) Ultrapure Ge
(B) Floatation process (Q) Dressing of HgS
(C) Electrolytic reduction (R) Extraction ofAl
(D) Zone refining (S) Extraction ofAu
Q.110 Column I (Metals) Column II (Method used for refining)

(A) Iron & Copper (P) Poling
(B) Zirconium&Titanium (Q) Bessemerisation
(C) Lead & Tin (R) Van-Arkel
(D) Copper & Tin (S) Liquation

(Metals) (Method used for refining)
(A) Iron (P) Siderite
(B) Tin (Q) Silver glance
(C) Magnesium (R) Cassiterite
(D) Silver (S) Dolomite
Q.112 Select CORRECT match

(A) Difference in densities (P) Magnetic separation
(B) Bauxite (Q) Gravity separation
(C) CuFeS2 (R) Pyrometallurgy
(D) Wulframites (FeWO4+ MnWO4) (S) Leaching

[INTEGER TYPE]
QR 
Q.113 Consider following ORES and calculate the value of expression  .
 PS 
Fe2O3 , SnO2 , PbS, MgCl2 , HgS , ZnS , Al2O3 , Ag2S , Cu2S
where, P = Number of ores from which metal is commercially extracted by Hydrometallurgy.
Q = Number of ores from which metal is commercially extracted by Self reduction.
R = Number of ores from which metal is commercially extracted by Carbon reduction.
S = Number of ores from which metal is commercially extracted by Electrolytic reduction.
Q.114 How many of the following metals is extracted by self reduction process?
Pb, Au, Mg, Sn, Fe, Al, Ag, Hg, Na, Zn, Cu, Ca
Q.115 For how many metals carbon reduction method is/are mainly applicable.
Sn, Al, Cr, Mn, Pb, Ca, Na, Zn
Q.116 In order to concentrate galena (which contains ZnS as impurity) by froth-floatation process, sodium
cyanide is used as depressant. NaCN dissolves ZnS due to formation of water soluble complex(A).
Find the value of w + x + y + z.
where w = coordination number of central metal ion in complex ion of (A)
x = number of unpaired electrons in (A).
y = total number of possible linkage isomers of (A) including (A).
z = maximum number of atoms in a single plane in the complex ion of (A).
Q.117 In how many following ores, during the extraction of metal roasting process is carrying out.
Galena, Chalcopyrite, Casseterite, Haematite, Bauxite, Carnalite

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 C Q.2 A Q.3 A Q.4 B Q.5 C
Q.6 D Q.7 B Q.8 D Q.9 A Q.10 D
Q.11 A Q.12 B Q.13 A Q.14 D Q.15 A
Q.16 A Q.17 D Q.18 C Q.19 B,C Q.20 A
Q.21 B Q.22 D Q.23 A Q.24 B Q.25 D
Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 A Q.29 C Q.30 D
Q.31 C Q.32 A Q.33 D Q.34 D Q.35 D
Q.36 D Q.37 B Q.38 D Q.39 C Q.40 B
Q.41 D Q.42 D Q.43 C Q.44 C Q.45 D
Q.46 B Q.47 A Q.48 B Q.49 A Q.50 C
Q.51 B Q.52 C Q.53 A Q.54 B Q.55 A
Q.56 B Q.57 A Q.58 B Q.59 B Q.60 C
Q.61 B Q.62 B Q.63 D Q.64 B Q.65 B
Q.66 D Q.67 B Q.68 A Q.69 B Q.70 A
Q.71 A Q.72 D Q.73 B Q.74 A Q.75 C
Q.76 D Q.77 D Q.78 B Q.79 D Q.80 A
Q.81 B Q.82 C Q.83 C Q.84 B Q.85 D
Q.86 A Q.87 B Q.88 B Q.89 D Q.90 A
Q.91 B Q.92 B Q.93 D Q.94 D Q.95 D
Q.96 D Q.97 B Q.98 D Q.99 D Q.100 B
Q.101 C Q.102 C Q.103 C Q.104 D Q.105 C
Q.106 C Q.107 B Q.108 B Q.109 D Q.110 A
Q.111 D Q.112 D Q.113 C Q.114 B Q.115 B
Q.116 A Q.117 B Q.118 C Q.119 A Q.120 B
Q.121 A Q.122 B Q.123 A Q.124 B Q.125 C
Q.126 A Q.127 A Q.128 B Q.129 C Q.130 D
Q.131 C Q.132 C Q.133 A Q.134 C Q.135 D
Q.136 B Q.137 D Q.138 A Q.139 C Q.140 D
Q.141 A Q.142 B Q.143 C Q.144 C Q.145 D
Q.146 C Q.147 C Q.148 B Q.149 C Q.150 D
Q.151 D Q.152 C Q.153 D Q.154 C Q.155 B
Q.156 C Q.157 B Q.158 A Q.159 C Q.160 C
Q.161 C Q.162 B Q.163 B Q.164 C Q.165 B
Q.166 D Q.167 D Q.168 C Q.169 C Q.170 A

Q.171 B Q.172 C Q.173 B Q.174 D Q.175 B

Q.176 D Q.177 D Q.178 A Q.179 C Q.180 B
Q.181 A Q.182 D Q.183 C Q.184 D Q.185 C
Q.186 A Q.187 B Q.188 B Q.189 D Q.190 A
Q.191 B Q.192 B Q.193 A Q.194 D Q.195 B
Q.196 B Q.197 B Q.198 D Q.199 C Q.200 B
Q.201 C Q.202 B Q.203 C Q.204 C Q.205 D
Q.206 A Q.207 D Q.208 C Q.209 C Q.210 B
Q.211 B Q.212 C Q.213 C Q.214 A Q.215 C
Q.216 B Q.217 B Q.218 A Q.219 B Q.220 D
Q.221 C Q.222 A Q.223 C Q.224 C Q.225 B
Q.226 D Q.227 B Q.228 C Q.229 C Q.230 C
EXERCISE-2
Q.1 AB Q.2 AB Q.3 BCD Q.4 ABCD Q.5 BC
Q.6 ABCD Q.7 ACD Q.8 ABCD Q.9 AB Q.10 ACD
Q.11 AB Q.12 ABC Q.13 AC Q.14 CD Q.15 BC
Q.16 D Q.17 ABCD Q.18 ABC Q.19 BCD Q.20 AB
Q.21 A Q.22 BC Q.23 ACD Q.24 ABC Q.25 ACD
Q.26 AD Q.27 BCD Q.28 BC Q.29 ACD Q.30 ABC
Q.31 BC Q.32 ABC Q.33 ABCD Q.34 ACD Q.35 ABD
Q.36 C Q.37 ABC Q.38 ABCD Q.39 AB Q.40 ABCD
Q.41 BCD Q.42 BD Q.43 ABCD Q.44 A Q.45 B
Q.46 C Q.47 A Q.48 B Q.49 B Q.50 D
Q.51 C Q.52 B Q.53 A Q.54 A Q.55 D
Q.56 A Q.57 A Q.58 B Q.59 B Q.60 A
Q.61 A Q.62 B Q.63 C Q.64 A Q.65 C
Q.66 C Q.67 A Q.68 A Q.69 A Q.70 A
Q.71 B Q.72 A Q.73 B Q.74 A Q.75 A
Q.76 A Q.77 B Q.78 D Q.79 B Q.80 C
Q.81 A Q.82 C Q.83 D Q.84 B Q.85 B
Q.86 B Q.87 A Q.88 D Q.89 C Q.90 A
Q.91 D Q.92 A Q.93 C Q.94 B Q.95 D
Q.96 D Q.97 A Q.98 C Q.99 B Q.100 A
Q.101 A Q.102 C Q.103 (A) PR (B) PR (C) Q (D) ST
Q.104 (A) RST, (B) P (C) T (D) R (E) Q Q.105 (A) Q (B) R (C) S (D) P
Q.106 (A) S (B) P (C) Q (D) R Q.107 (A) Q (B) R (C) P (D) S
Q.108 (A) S (B) P (C) Q (D) R Q.109 (A) S (B) Q (C) R (D) P
Q.110 (A) Q (B) R (C) PS (D) P Q.111 (A) P (B) R (C) S (D) Q
Q.112 (A) Q (B) S (C) R (D) P Q.113 3 Q.114 0003 Q.115 3
Q.116 14 Q.117 4
SUPER PROBLEMS IN INORGANIC CHEMISTRY SALT ANALYSIS
SALT ANALYSIS
CHAPTER
EXERCISE-1
DRY TEST
Q.1 Borax on heating with cobalt oxide forms a blue bead of:
(A) Co(BO2)2 (B) CoBO2 (C) Co3(BO3)2 (D) Na3Co(BO2)2
Q.2 Which salt gives brown colour residue on heating

(A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) FeSO4 (C) CaC2O4 (D) MgNH4PO4
Q.3 Compound which on heating produces paramagnetic acidic gas

(A) Mg(NO3)2 (B) Fe2(SO4)3 (C) FeCO3 (D) HgC2O4
Q.4 Which compound on heating produces coloured metal oxide finally

(A) Al2(SO4)3 (B) HgCO33Hg(OH)2 (C) Cu(NO3)2 (D) Ba(OH)2

Q.5 (P)  (Q) metallic solid + (R)  + (S) 

(X)  (Y) amphoteric + (R)  + (S) 
P & X are respectively
(A) AgNO3, LiNO3 (B) AgNO3, Pb(NO3)2
(C) Hg2(NO3)2, Ca(NO3)2 (D) NaNO3, Zn(NO3)2
Q.6 Oxygen gas is not produced from the following decomposition reaction:
 
(A)K2Cr2O7  (B) Ag2C2O4 
 
(C) Pb(NO3)2  (D) Ag2CO3 

Q.7 Borax is converted to crystalline boron by the following steps


Borax 
 H3BO3 
(X)
B2O3 (

Y)
B (crystalline)

(X) and (Y) can be respectively
(A) Conc. H2SO4, Mg (B) Conc. H2SO4, Na
(C) Carbon, Al (D) Conc. H2SO4, Al
Q.8 At the occasion of marriage, the fire works are used, which of the following gives green flame?
(A) Ba (B) K (C) Be (D) Na
Q.9 Which of the following cations is detected by the flame test?

(A) NH4+ (B) K+ (C) Mg2+ (D)Al3+
Q.10 Which metal salt gives a violet coloured bead in the borax bead test?
(A) Fe2+ (B) Ni2+ (C) Co2+ (D) Mn2+
Q.11 A chloride dissolves appreciably in cold water. When placed on a platinum wire in Bunsen flame no
distinctive colour is noticed, the cation would be:
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ba2+ (C) Pb2+ (D) Ca2+
Q.12 Which of the following leaves no residue on heating?

(A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) NH4NO3 (C) Cu(NO3)2 (D)NaNO3
Q.13 In the borax bead test of Co2+, the blue colour of bead is due to the formation of:
(A) B2O3 (B) Co3B2 (C) Co(BO2)2 (D) CoO
Q.14 Which of the following is not a preliminary test used to detect ions:
(A) borax bead test (B) flame test (C) brown ring test (D) cobalt nitrate test
Q.15 The compound formed in the borax bead test of Cu2+ ion in oxidising flame is:
(A) Cu (B) CuBO2 (C) Cu(BO2)2 (D) None of these
Q.16 Potassium chromate solution is added to an aqueous solution of a metal chloride. The precipitate thus
obtained are soluble in acetic acid. These are subjected to flame test, the colour of the flame is:
(A) Lilac (B) Apple green (C) Crimson red (D) Golden yellow

Q.17 The salt which finds uses in qualitative analysis in inorganic chemistry.
(A) CuSO4·5H2O (B) K2SO4·Al2(SO4)3·24H2O
(C) Na(NH4)HPO4·4H2O (D) FeSO4·(NH4)2SO4·6H2O
Q.18 Which chemical reaction contains INCORRECT products ?

 
(A) SnSO4  SnO2 + SO3  + SO2  (B) Ag2C2O4  Ag + CO2 
 
(C) P4O10(s) + CaO(s)  Ca3(PO4)2 (D) PbCl4  PbCl2 + Cl2 
Q.19 Which of the following compound on heating does not produce metal oxide?
(A) MgCl2· 6H2O (B) K2Cr2O7 (C) K2CO3 (D) Cu(NO3)2
Q.20 Compound having lowest thermal stability is

(A) NaHCO3 (B) KHCO3 (C) RbHCO3 (D)CsHCO3
Q.21 Thermal decomposition of which of the salt listed below yield a basic and acidic oxides simultaneouly
(A) NH4ClO4 (B) CaCO3 (C) NaNO3 (D) NH4NO2
Q.22 Which of the following compound does not produce green coloured product on thermal decomposition?
(A) K2Cr2O7 (B) KMnO4 (C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) NH4NO3
Q.23 Select the INCORRECT match for given reaction.


P  Q  Other product (s) 
( Oxy salt ) ( Y 800C ) ( Metal salt )
Oxysalt(P) Metal Oxide(Q)

(A) FeCO3 FeO
(B) Fe2(SO4)3 Fe2O3
(C) FeC2O4 Fe2O3
(D) FeSO4 Fe2O3
Q.24 Which of them does not give green colour in borax bead test in given flame.
(A) Cr2(SO4)3 in reducing flame. (B) Cr2(SO4)3 in oxidising flame.
(C) Fe2(SO4)3 in reducing flame. (D) Fe2(SO4)3 in oxidising flame.

ANIONS
Q.25 A salt gives violet vapours when treated with conc. H2SO4. It contains
(A) Cl– (B) I– (C) Br– (D) NO3–
Q.26 When a mixture of solid NaCl, solid K2Cr2O7 is heated with conc. H2SO4, orange red vapours are
obtained. These are of the compound
(A) chromous chloride (B) chromyl chloride
(C) chromic chloride (D) chromic sulphate
Q.27 Which of the following radical does not liberate gas with (Zn + dil. HCl) on warming?
(A) S2– (B) SO32– (C) NO3– (D) CH3COO–
Q.28 Which of the following reagent does not oxidize HCl?

(A) PbO2 (B) Conc. H2SO4 (C) MnO2 (D) K2Cr2O7/H+
Q.29 NaCl(solid) + K2Cr2O7(solid) + conc. H2SO4 Warm

 Reddish brown fumes of 'X'.
The oxidation state of central atom in compound 'X' is
(A) +6 (B) +3 (C) +2 (D) Zero
Q.30 Which of the following reagent can be used to separate AgCl and AgI ?
(A) dil. HNO3 (B) NH4OH solution (C) KCN solution (D) Na2S2O3 solution
Q.31 Which of the following combination of species does not undergo(es) comproportionation?
(A) MnO4– (aq) +Mn2+(aq) ZnO
  4 
/ ZnSO (B) S + conc. H2SO4(excess) Warm

(C) PH3 + H3PO4  (D) NO(g) + NO2(g) Cool


Q.32 In a closed container there is a mixture of SO2, CO2 and O2 gas. Which sequence of reagent can be
helpful to separate them.
(I) Lime water (II)Acidified potassium dichromate (III)Alkaline pyragallol.
(A) (I), (II), (III) (B) (II), (I), (III) (C) (III), (II), (I) (D) (III), (I). (II)
Q.33 X(Salt) +AgNO3(aq)  Y  (soluble in excess of NH3 solution)

yellow ppt.
Salt X, does not contain.
(A) PO43– (B) Br– (C) I– (D) AsO33–

Q.34 FeSO4.7H2O (Green Vitriol) salt on thermal decomposition does not produce.
(A) SO2 (B) O2 (C) SO3 (D) H2O vapour
X(aq.) +Na2O2 Y(aq.) 2 

BaCl
Q.35 Z
Insoluble in dil. HCl
X and Y are different sodium salts, then anion present in the salt (X) is :
(A) Cr2O72– (B) C2O42– (C) SO32– (D) SO42–
Q.36 Which salt is colorless?

(A) KMnO4 (B) BaSO4 (C) Na2CrO4 (D) CoCl2
Q.37 Consider following reaction:
Cl2(g) + H2O 
 P + Q
R .T.
If molecular weight of P is less than Q then INCORRECT statement is :

(A) On warming 'P' can form deep red coloured vapours with CrO3
(B) 'Q' exhibits bleaching property
(C) MnO2 can change 'P' into Cl2 gas on warming
(D) 'P' reacts with H2S gas while 'Q' does not.
Q.38 Comproportionation occurs between:

(A) Cl–(aq) + ClO–(aq) + OH–(aq) (B) PH3(g) + H3PO4 acid
(C) Na2S(aq) + Na2SO3(aq) (D) MnO4–(aq) + Mn2+(aq) +ZnSO4(aq)
Q.39 Select correct match

Anions Separated by reagent
(A) CO32–, SO32– BaCl2
(B) CO32–, HCO3– CaCl2
(C) SO3 2–, SO3 2– (CH3COO)2Pb
(D) Cl–, Br– AgNO3
Q.40 Which of the following pairs of ions would be expected to form precipitate when dilute solution are
mixed?
(A) Na+, SO42– (B) NH4+, CO32– (C) Na+, S22– (D) Fe3+, PO43–

Q.41  N  + P 
M (salt) + dil HCl Warm
gas 'N' changes colour of FeSO4 solution into yellow solution then salt M in above reaction is
(A) BaS2O3 (B) Ag2SO3 (C) AgNO2 (D) Pb(NO3)2
Q.42 Nitrate is confirmed by ring test. The brown colour of the ring is due to formation of
(A) ferrous nitrite (B) nitroso ferrous sulphate
(C) ferrous nitrate (D) FeSO4NO2
Q.43 Which of these reaction is correct?

(A) Cl– + Br2  Br– + Cl2
(B) Mohr's salt NaOH
  NH3  (g)
so ln .
(C) K2Cr2O7 solution SO

3  Green colour solution
(D) FeCl2 NaOH

 (ppt. coloured)    Soluble complex
Excess NaOH
Q.44 Which of the following will not give positive chromyl chloride test?
(A) Copper chloride, CuCl2 (B) Mercuric chloride, HgCl2
(C) Zinc chloride, ZnCl2 (D)Anillinium chloride, C6H5NH3Cl
Q.45 When chlorine water is added to an aqueous solution of potassium halide in presence of chloroform; a
violet colour is obtained. On adding more of chlorine water, the violet colour disappears, and a colourless
solution is obtained. This test confirms the presence of the following in aqueous solution
(A) Iodide (B) Bromide (C) Chloride (D) Iodide and bromide
Q.46 A substance on treatment with dil. H2SO4 liberates a colourless gas which produces
(i) turbidity with baryta water and
(ii) turns acidified dichromate solution green. The reaction indicates the presence of
(A) CO32– (B) S2– (C) SO32– (D) NO2–
Q.47 A white solid is first heated with dil H2SO4 and then with conc. H2SO4, No action was observed in
either case. The solid salt contains
(A) sulphide (B) sulphite (C) thiosulphate (D) sulphate
Q.48 Sodium borate on reaction with conc. H2SO4 and C2H5OH gives a compound A which burns with a
green edged flame. The compoundA is
(A) H2B4O7 (B) (C2H5)2B4O7 (C) H3BO3 (D) (C2H5)3BO3

Q.49 When K2Cr2O7 crystals are heated with conc. HCl, the gas evolved is
(A) O2 (B) Cl2 (C) CrO2Cl2 (D) HCl
Q.50 Solution of chemical compound X reacts withAgNO3 solution to form a white ppt. Y which dissolves in
NH4OH to give a complex Z. When Z is treated with dil. HNO3, Y reappears. The chemical compound
X can be
(A) NaCl (B) CH3Cl (C) NaBr (D) NaI
Q.51 A salt on treatment with dil. HCl gives a pungent smelling gas and a yellow precipitate. The salt gives
green flame when tested. The solution gives a yellow precipitate with potassium chromate. The salt is:
(A) NiSO4 (B) BaS2O3 (C) PbS2O3 (D) CuSO4
Q.52 Iodine is not oxidized to iodic acid/iodicanhydride by

(A) conc. HNO3 (B) conc. H2SO4 (C) Excess Cl2 water (D) conc. H3PO4
Q.53 Colourless gas that has oxidising as well as reducing properties

(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) NO2 (D) SO3
Q.54 A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to give a solution which is neutral to litmus. When silver
nitrate solution is added to the solution, a white precipitate is obtained which does not dissolve in dil.
HNO3. The anion could be:
(A) CO32– (B) Cl– (C) SO42– (D) S2–
Q.55 A mixture of two salts is not water soluble but dissolves completely in dil HCl to form a colourless
solution. The mixture could be:
(A) AgNO3 and KBr (B) BaCO3 and ZnS
(C) FeCl3 and CaCO3 (D) Mn(NO3)2 and MgSO4
Q.56 The brown ring test for NO2– and NO3– is due to the formation of complex ion with formula.
(A) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Fe(NO)(CN)5]2–
(C) [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+ (D) [Fe(H2O)(NO)5]2+
Q.57 When I2 is passed through KCl, KF, KBr :

(A) Cl2 and Br2 are evolved (B) Cl2 is evolved
(C) Cl2, F2 and Br2 are evolved (D) None of these
Q.58 Which one has the minimum solubilityproduct?

(A)AgCl (B)AlCl3 (B) BaCl2 (D) NH4Cl

Q.59 Which of the following sulphate is insoluble in water?

(A) CuSO4 (B) CdSO4 (C) PbSO4 (D) Bi2(SO4)3
Q.60 Statement-1: NO2– ion can not be detected by brown ring test in presence of NO3– ion.
Statement-2 : Both NO2– and NO3– ions are confirmed by brown ring test.
Q.61 Which statement for Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] (sodium nitroprusside) is INCORRECT?

(A) Oxidation state of Fe is + 2
(B) It has NO+ as ligand
(C) It is a heteroleptic complex and has d2sp3 hybridisation
(D) It is paramagnetic in nature
Q.62 Which of the following is not obtained as final product on reaction of KMnO4 with S2O32– in basic
medium:
(A) SO42– (B) S (C) MnO2 (D) H2O
Q.63 CO2 gas can not be identified by passing it into solution of :

(A) Ca(OH2) (lime water) (B) Ba(OH)2
(C) KMnO4 (D) None
Q.64 When iodine is dissolved in aqueous solution of potassium iodide the shape of species formed is:
(A) Linear (B)Angular (C) See-saw (D) Square planar
Q.65 Which of the following reaction gives observable change?

(A) KCl(s) + conc. H2SO4 + K2Cr2O7(s) 
(B) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] + H2S + HCl
(C) K2HgI4+ NH4Cl 
(D) FeSO4 + dil. H2SO4 + NaNO3 
Q.66 Which anion gives same product when reacts with dil. H2SO4 and conc. H2SO4 ?
(A) CO32– (B) CH3COO– (C) S2– (D) I–
Q.67 Which of following salt will not give positive brown ring test?
(A) Cu(NO3)2 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) Zn(NO3)2 (D) Mg(NO3)2
Q.68 A solid mixture of AgCl and K2Cr2O7 is heated with con. H2SO4 and produces
(A) Greenish yellow gas (B) Colourless gas
(C) Red coloured gas (D) No gas
Q.69 H2S gas was passed to ammonical solution of salt 'P' and precipitate 'Q' was obtained. Precipitate 'Q'
was treated with Na2O2 solution and coloured solution was obtained. Then which of the following cation
is present in the given salt P'.
(A) Cu2+ (aq) (B) Fe2+(aq) (C) Ni2+ (aq) (D) Cr3+(aq)
Q.70 X2 + Y–  Y2 + X–
X2 + Z–  Z2 + X–
Y2 + Z–  Z2 + Y–
X, Y, Z are respectively
(A) Cl2, Br2, I2 (B) Cl2, I2, Br2 (C) I2, Br2, Cl2 (D) Br2, Cl2, I2
Q.71 Select incorrect match

(A) FeSO4(aq) + NO2–(aq) + dil. H2SO4 
 Brown colouration
(B) FeSO4(aq) + NO3–(aq) + dil. H2SO4 
(C) FeSO4(aq) + NO2–(aq) + conc. H2SO4 
(D) FeSO4(aq) + NO3–(aq) + conc. H2SO4 
Q.72 Sodiumnitroprusside is used to detect S2– ion in basic mediumand gives purple colour complex compound
Nax[Fe(CN)y(NOS)z] , Select correct set of value of x, y, z respectively.
(A) 4,5,1 (B) 2, 4, 2 (C) 3, 4, 2 (D) 3,5,1
Q.73 Which of the following does not give any gaseous product when reacts with dil H2SO4?
(A) Na2CO3 (B) BaCl2 (C) Pb(NO2)2 (D) (CH3COO)2Ca
Q.74 Which of the following cannot be precipitated as metal hydroxide by the addition of Na2CO3 in aqueous
medium?
(A) FeCl3 (B) ZnCl2 (C) CrCl3 (D)AlCl3
Q.75 Which test is applicable in presence of dil. H2SO4 for given ion.
(A) S2– , Methylene blue test (B) NH4+, Nessler’s reagent test
(C) S2–, test by nitroprusside (D) NO3¯, test by FeSO4

Q.76 S2–(sulphide) ion reacts with sodium nitroprusside, Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] to give purple coloured compound
Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]. In this reaction oxidation state of iron changes from:
(A) +2 to +3 (B) +1 to +2 (C) +2 to +4 (D) No change
Q.77 A sodium salt 'x' produces colourless gas with dil. HCl, and its aqueous solution produces precipitate
with BaCl2 but does not produce precipitate with CaCl2. Then salt 'x' contains anion.
(A) CO32– (B) SO32– (C) C2O42– (D) S2O32–
Q.78 Consider the following chemical equation, gas (Y) gives no observable change with
Black sulphide + dil. HCl  Salt (X) + (Y) gas
(A) CuSO4 solution (B) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)] solution
(C) Cd(NO3)2 solution (D)AgNO3 solution
Q.79 CO2 gas is detected by its action on

(A) Baryta water (B) Phenolphthalein
(C) Calcium bicarbonate (D)Acidified dicromate
Q.80 The brown ring test for nitrates depends on :

(A) The reduction of nitrate to nitric oxide.
(B) Oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrogen dioxide.
(C) Reduction of ferrous sulphate to iron.
(D) Oxidising action of sulphuric acid
Q.81 When CS2 layer containing I2 is shaken with excess of Cl2 water, the violet colour disappears. The
disappearance of violet colour is due to formation of
(A) I3– (B) HIO3 (C) ICl2 (D) I–
Q.82 Which of the following conversion is incorrect in presence of acidified K2Cr2O7 solution :
(A) H2S  S (B) SO2  H2SO4
(C) H3PO4  H3PO3 (D) HI  I2
Q.83 Which of the following combination does not give coloured gaseous product ?
(A) When K2Cr2O7 soln. reacts with KCl (B) When KMnO4 soln. reacts with HCl
(C) When MnO2 soln. react with con. HCl (D) When con. H2SO4 reacts with KCl
Q.84 Which of the following releases paramagnetic gas on a reaction with concentrated H2SO4?
(A) S2O32–(aq) (B) NO2–(aq) (C) Br–(aq) (D) C2O42–(aq)

Q.85 A salt was first heated with dilute H2SO4 and then with conc.H2SO4, no action was observed in either
case, the given salt will be :
(A) Nitrate salt (B) Sulphite salt (C) Sulphide salt (D) Sulphate salt
Q.86 K2Cr2O7 + H2O2 + H+  X (Blue colour compound )

Select correct statement for 'X'.
(A) Oxidation state of Cr increases with respect to K2Cr2O7
(B) Oxidation state of oxygen increases with respect to H2O2
(C) Oxidation state of oxygen is higher with respect to K2Cr2O7
(D) Oxidation state of Cr decreases with respect to K2Cr2O7
CATIONS
Q.87 In the precipitation of the iron group in qualitative analysis. ammonium chloride is added before adding
ammonium hydroxide to
(A) decrease concentration of OH– ions. (B) prevent interference by phosphate ions.
(C) increase concentration of Cl– ions. (D) increase concentration of NH4+ ions.
Q.88 Consider the following reactions

X(aq.) K4 [   Chocolate brown ppt
Fe ( CN )6 ]
X(aq.) AgNO
 3  White ppt (insoluble in dil. HNO3)
Then 'X' will be :'
(A) ZnSO4 (B) CuCl2 (C) FeSO4 (D) FeCl3
Q.89 Br2 + NaOH R

 Y + Z
.T.
If Y gives precipitate with AgNO3 , then Z does not undergo reaction with
(A) Cr3+(aq) (B) Fe2+(aq) (C)Al3+(aq) (D) Sn++(aq)
Q.90 The acidic solution of a salt produced a deep blue colour with starch iodide solution. The salt may be
(A) chloride (B) nitrite (C) acetate (D) bromide
Q.91 Nessler's reagent is

(A) K2HgI4 (B) K2HgI4 + KOH (C) K2HgI2+ KOH (D) K2HgI4 + KI

Q.92 Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding Fe2+ and Fe3+ cations
(A) Fe3+ gives brown colour solution with potassium ferricyanide
(B) Fe2+ gives blue precipitate with potassium ferricyanide
(C) Fe3+ gives red colour solution with potassium thiocyanate
(D) Fe2+ gives brown colour with ammonium thiocyanate
2 
Q.93 Metal Sulphate (A) Heat
 Oxide (B) + Gas(C) + Gas(D) Cr
2O 
7 /H
Green Solution Na

22   
O ( excess) (E)
yellow solution
Compound A, B, C, D and E are respectively.

(A) FeSO4, Fe2O3, SO3, SO2, Na2CrO4 (B) Al2(SO4)3, Al2O3, SO3, SO2, Na2CrO4
(C) CuSO4, CuO, SO3, SO2, Na2CrO4 (D) ZnSO4, ZnO, SO3, SO2, Na2CrO4
Q.94 Which of the following metal nitrate produces gaseous product when reacts with KCN solution?
(A) Cu(NO3)2 (B) AgNO3 (C) Cd(NO3)2 (D) Pb(NO3)2
Q.95 Aqueous solution of FeSO4 does not produce precipitate with

(A) NaOH (B) NH3 solution (C) Na2CO3 (D) None
Q.96 Ferric ion forms a prussian blue coloured ppt. of

(A) K4[Fe(CN)6] (B) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (C) KMnO4 (D) Fe(OH)3
Q.97 Select incorrect statement :

(A) A metal ion exist which doesn’t form complex with excess KI as well as excess KCN.
(B) A metal ion exist which form complex with excess KI but not with excess KCN.
(C) A metal ion exist which form complex with excess KCN but not with excess KI.
(D) A metal ion exist which form complex with both excess KCN as well as excess KI
Q.98 Which of the following combination doesn't evolve Cl2 gas

(A) HCl(aq) + KMnO4 (B) HCl + MnO2
(C) HCl + I2 (D) HCl + F2
Q.99 Fe(OH)3 can be separated fromAl(OH)3 by addition of

(A) dil. HCl (B) NaCl solution (C) NaOH solution (D) NH4Cl and NH4OH

Q.100 If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution of zinc ions a white ppt appears and on adding excess NaOH,
the ppt dissolves. In this solution zinc exist in the
(A) cationic part (B) anionic part
(C) both in cationic and anionic parts (D) there is no zinc ion in the solution
Q.101 Mark the compound which is soluble in hot water.

(A) Lead chloride (B) Mercurous chloride
(C) Stronsium sulphate (D) Silver chloride
Q.102 Colour of nickel chloride solution is

(A) pink (B) black (C) colourless (D) green
Q.103 Sometimes yellow turbidity appears while passing H2S gas even in the absence of II-group radicals.
This is because of
(A) sulphur is present in the mixture as impurity.
(B) IV group radicals are precipitated as sulphides.
(C) the oxidation of H2S gas by some acid radicals.
(D) III group radicals are precipitated as hydroxides.
Q.104 The ion that cannot be precipitated by H2S and HCl is :

(A) Pb2+ (B) Cu2+ (C)Ag+ (D) Ni2+
Q.105 CuSO4 decolourises on addition of excess KCN, the product is

(A) [Cu(CN)4]2– (B) Cu2+ get reduced to form [Cu(CN)4]3–
(C) Cu(CN)2 (D) CuCN
Q.106 Which one among the following pairs of ions cannot be separated by H2S in dilute HCl?
(A) Bi3+, Sn4+ (B) Al3+, Hg2+ (C) Zn2+, Cu2+ (D) Ni2+, Cu2
Q.107 A metal salt solution gives a yellow ppt with silver nitrate. The ppt dissolves in dil. nitric acid as well as in
ammonium hydroxide. The solution contains
(A) bromide (B) iodide (C) phosphate (D) chromate
Q.108 A metal salt solution forms a yellow ppt with potassium chromate in acetic acid, a white ppt with dilute
sulphuric acid, but gives no ppt with sodium chloride or iodide, it is :
(A) lead carbonate (B) basic lead carbonate
(C) barium nitrate (D) strontium nitrate

Q.109 Which is soluble in NH4OH?

(A) PbCl2 (B)AgCl (C) PbSO4 (D)CaCO3
Q.110 Which of the following combines with Fe(II) ions to form a brown complex?
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) N2O3 (D) N2O4
Q.111 Nessler's reagent is used to detect

(A) CrO42– (B) PO43– (C) MnO4– (D) NH4+
Q.112 Prussian blue is formed when

(A) Ferrous sulphate reacts with FeCl3.
(B) Ferric sulphate reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6].
(C) Ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3
(D) Ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3.
Q.113 What are formed products, when aqueous solution of CuCl2 and (NH4)2S are mixed?
(A) CuS(aq.) and NH4Cl(s) (B) CuS(s) and NH4Cl(aq.)
(C) CuS(aq.) and NH4Cl(g) (D) CuS(s) and NH4Cl(s)
Q.114 What product is formed by mixing the solution of K4[Fe(CN)6] with the solution of FeCl3?
(A) Ferro-ferricyanide (B) Ferri-ferrocyanide
(C) Ferri-ferricyanide (D) None of these
Q.115 A blue colouration is not obtained when

(A) ammonium hydroxide dissolves in copper sulphate.
(B) copper sulphate solution reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6].
(C) ferric chloride reacts with sodium ferrocyanide.
(D) anhydrous white CuSO4 is dissolved in water.
Q.116 AgCl dissolves in ammonia solution giving

(A) Ag+, NH4+ and Cl– (B) Ag(NH3)+ and Cl–
(C) Ag(NH3)2– and Cl– (D) Ag(NH3)2+ and Cl–
Q.117 A white crystalline substance dissolves in water. On passing H2S gas in this solution, a black ppt is
obtained. The black ppt dissolves completely in hot HNO3. On adding a few drops of conc. H2SO4, a
white ppt is obtained. This ppt is that of
(A) BaSO4 (B) SrSO4 (C) PbSO4 (D) CdSO4

Q.118 When excess of SnCl2 is added to a solution of HgCl2, a white ppt turning grey is obtained. The grey
colour is due to the formation of
(A) Hg2Cl2 (B) SnCl4 (C) Sn (D) Hg
Q.119 An aqueous solution of colourless metal sulphate M, gives a white ppt, with NH4OH. This was soluble
in excess of NH4OH. On passing H2S through this solution a white ppt is formed. The metal M in the
salt is
(A) Ca (B) Ba (C)Al (D) Zn
Q.120 AgCl is soluble in

(C) Aqua regia (B) H2SO4 (C) dil. HCl (D) aq. NH3
Q.121 A pale green crystalline metal salt of M dissolves freely in water. On standing it gives a brown ppt on
addition of aqueous NaOH. The metal salt solution also gives a black ppt on bubbling H2S in basic
medium.An aqueous solution of the metal salt decolourizes the pink colour of the permanganate solution.
The metal cation in salt solution is
(A) Cu2+ (B)Al3+ (C) Fe3+ (D) Fe2+
Q.122 On the addition of a solution containing CrO42– & CH3COOH acid to the solution of Ba2+, Sr2+ and
Ca2+ ions, the ppt obtained first will be of :
(A) CaCrO4 (B) SrCrO4 (C) BaCrO4 (D) a mixture of all the three
Q.123 Turnbull's blue is a compound

(A) ferricyanide (B) ferroferricyanide
(C) ferrouscyanide (D) ferriferrocyanide
Q.124 Which is most soluble in water?

(A)AgCl (B)AgBr (C) AgI (D) AgF
Q.125 On passing H2S gas in IInd group sometimes the solution turns milky. It indicates the presence of
(A) oxidising agent (B) acidic salt (C) thiosulphate (D) reducing agent
Q.126 Dimethyl glyoxime in a suitable solvent was refluxed for 10 minutes with pure pieces of nickel sheet, it
will result in
(A) Red ppt· (B) Blue ppt. (C) Yellow ppt (D) No ppt.

Q.127 Amixture of chlorides of copper, cadmium, chromium, iron and aluminiumwas dissolved in water acidified
with HCl and hydrogen sulphide gas was passed for sufficient time. It was filtered, boiled and a few
drops of nitric acid were added while boiling. To this solution ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide
were added in excess and filtered. The filtrate shall give test for
(A) sodium and iron ion (B) sodium, chromium and aluminium ion
(C) aluminium and iron ion (D) sodium, iron, cadmium and aluminium ion
Q.128 A white ppt obtained in a analysis of a mixture becomes black on treatment with NH4OH. It may be
(A) PbCl2 (B)AgCl (C) HgCl2 (D) Hg2Cl2
Q.129 An aqueous solution of FeSO4,Al2(SO4)3 and chrome alum is heated with excess of Na2O2 and filtered.
The materials obtained are:
(A) a colourless filtrate and a green residue. (B) a yellow filtrate and a green residue.
(C) a yellow filtrate and a brown residue. (D) a green filtrate and a brown residue
Q.130 Which of the following compound on reaction with NaOH and Na2O2 gives yellow colour?
(A) Cr(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C)Al(OH)3 (D) None of these
Q.131 An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white ppt. on treatment with dil. HCl. which dissolves on
heating. When hydrogen sulphide is passed through the hot acidic solution, a black ppt. is obtained. The
substance is a
(A) Hg2+ salt (B) Cu2+ salt (C) Ag+ salt (D) Pb2+ salt
Q.132 Which of the following does not react withAgCl?

(A) Na2CO3 (B) NaNO3 (C) NH4OH (D) Na2S2O3
Q.133 Which of the following gives a precipitate with Pb(NO3)2 but not with Ba(NO3)2?
(A) Sodium chloride (B) Sodium acetate
(C) Sodium nitrate (D) Sodium hydrogen phosphate
Q.134 Which of the following is soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide?

(A) CuS (B) CdS (C) SnS (D) PbS
Q.135 Three separate samples of a solution of a single salt gave these results. One formed a white precipitate
with excess of ammonia solution, one formed a white precipitate with dil NaCl solution and one formed
a black precipitate with H2S. The salt could be:
(A) AgNO3 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) Hg(NO3)2 (D) MnSO4

Q.136 Which is not dissolved by dil HCl?

(A) ZnS (B) MnS (C) BaSO3 (D) BaSO4
Q.137 In Nessler's reagents, the ion present is:

(A) HgI2– (B) HgI42– (C) Hg+ (D) Hg2+
Q.138 The cations present in slightlyacidic solution are Fe3+, Zn2+ and Cu2+. The reagent which when added in
excess to this solution would identify and separte Fe3+ in one step is:
(A) 2 M HCl (B) 6 M NH3 soln. (C) 6 M NaOH (D) H2S gas
Q.139 A very dilute acidic solution of Cd2+& Ni2+ gives only yellow ppt of CdS on passing H2S, this is due to
(A) Solubility product (Ksp) of CdS is more than that of NiS
(B) Solublility product (Ksp) of CdS is less than that of NiS
(C) Cd2+ belong to II(B) group while Ni2+ belongs to IVth group.
(D) CdS is insoluble in yellow ammonium sulphide (YAS)
Q.140 Which of the following gives blood red colour with KCNS?
(A) Cu2+ (B) Fe3+ (C)Al3+ (D) Zn2+
Q.141 Which of the following is insoluble in excess of NaOH?

(A)Al(OH)3 (B) Cr(OH)3 (C) Fe(OH)3 (D) Zn(OH)2
Q.142 The metal ion which is precipitated when H2S is passed with HCl :
(A) Zn2+ (B) Ni2+ (C) Cd2+ (D) Mn2+
Q.143 Which one of the following metal sulphides has maximum solubilityin water?
(A) HgS, Ksp= 10–54 (B) CdS, Ksp = 10–30 (C) FeS, Ksp = 10–20 (D) ZnS, Ksp= 10–22
Q.144 Read of the following statements and choose the correct code w.r.t true(T) and false(F).
(I) manganese salts give a violet borax bead test in reducing flame
(II) from a mixed precipitate ofAgCl andAgI ammonia solution dissolves onlyAgCl
(III) ferric ions give a deep green precipitate, on adding potassium ferrocyanide solution
(IV) on boiling the solution having K+, Ca2+ and HCO3– we get a precipitate of CaCO3
(A) TTFF (B) FTFT (C) FTFF (D) TTFT
Q.145 Identify the correct order of solubility of Na2S, CuS and ZnS in aqueous medium is:
(A) CuS > ZnS > Na2S (B) ZnS > Na2S >CuS
(C) Na2S > CuS > ZnS (D) Na2S > ZnS > CuS

Q.146 When H2S gas is passed through the HCl containing aqueous solution of CuCl2, HgCl2, BiCl3 and
CoCl2, it does not precipitate out :
(A) CuS (B) HgS (C) Bi2S3 (D) CoS
Q.147 Mark the correct statement:

(A) I group basic radicals precipitate as chlorides
(B) IV group basic radicals precipitates as sulphides.
(C) V group basic radicals precipitates as carbonates.
(D) All the above statement are correct
Q.148 MgSO4 on reaction with NH4OH and Na2HPO4 forms a white crystalline precipitate. What is its formula?
(A) Mg(NH4)PO4 (B) Mg3(PO4)2 (C) MgCl2·MgSO4 (D) MgSO4
Q.149 Mg3N2(s) + H2O 

 P  + Q 
R .T.
Excess 'Q' gas does not form coloured complex with :

(A) Ni2+(aq) (B) Zn2+(aq) (C) Cr3+(aq) (D) Cu2+(aq)
Q.150 Which of the following pair of cations can be separated by excess NaOH solution?
(A) Fe3+(aq), Zn2+(aq) (B) Mn2+(aq), Cd2+(aq)
(C) Mg2+(aq), Hg2+(aq) (D)Al3+(aq), Cr3+(aq)
Q.151 Concentrated sodium hydroxide can seperate a mixture of

(A) Al3+ and Cr3+ (B) Cr3+ and Fe3+ (C) Al3+ and Zn2+ (D) Zn2+ and Pb2+
Q.152 Which of the following ion is oxidized by Cu2+(aq) as well as Fe3+(aq) cations?
(A) Cl– (B) CN– (C) SCN– (D) S2O32–
Q.153 In analysis of group 3rd cations if NH4OH is mixed before NH4Cl then all cations of which group also
precipitated along with group 3rd cations.
(A) 4th group (B) 5th group (C) 6th group (D) None of these
Q.154 Sodium salts of pseudohalides x, y and z form colourless solution in water. Solution of x decolourizes I3–
solution with brisk effervescence, solution of y gives an intense red colour on reaction with Fe 3+
solution. and solution of z gives an intense blue colour on reaction with a solution containing both Fe3+ &
Fe2+ cations, then pseudo halides x, y and z respectively are
(A) CN–, N3–, SCN– (B) N3–, SCN–, CN–
(C) N3–, CN–, SCN– (D) N3– ,SCN–, OCN–

Q.155 An aqeous solution contains Ag+, Ba2+, and Ni2+ cations, dilute aqueous solutions of NaCl, Na2S, and
Na2SO4 are available as reagent. In what order should these reagent be added to precipitate each of the
three cations separately?
(A) Na2S, Na2SO4, NaCl (B) Na2S, NaCl, Na2SO4
(C) Na2SO4, Na2S, NaCl (D) NaCl, Na2SO4 , Na2S
Q.156 An aqueous solution was prepared by dissolving a gas 'P' into water, to this solution Hg2(NO3)2 was
added and a precipitate was obtained, then gas 'P' is :
(A) NH3 (B) N2O (C) Cl2 (D) None
Q.157 Which of following salt does not give white colour ppt. on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] ?
(A) ZnCl2 (B) AgNO3 (C) FeCl2 (D) Cu(NO3)2
Q.158 MgCO3 is not precipitated with the carbonates of Vth group radicals in presence of NH4Cl and NH4OH
because:
(A) MgCO3 is soluble in NH4OH
(B) MgCO3 is not precipitated in presence of NH4Cl
(C) MgCO3 is soluble in water
(D) MgCO3 is soluble in (NH4)2CO3
Q.159 Fe(OH)3 can be separated fromAl(OH)3 by addition of

(A) NaOH solution (B) NH4Cl +NH4OH (C) diluteHCl (D) (NH4)2CO3
Q.160 Acolourless solid X dissolves in water. The aqueous solution gives a white precipitate Y when NaOH is
added. Y dissolves in excess of NaOH but not in excess of NH4OH. Solution of 'X' give white
precipitate with BaCl2 which are insoluble in dilute HCl 'X' can not be :
(A) SnSO4 (B)Al2(SO4)3 (C) ZnSO4 (D) None of these
Q.161 Mohr's salt solution does not produce precipitate with

(A) Na2O2 (B) BaCl2 (C) (NH4)2S (D) H2S gas
Q.162 P Q +
+ BaCl2  ( white R
( Coloured solution ) ) ( Coloured solution )
Then salt 'P' in above reaction is :

(A) Na2CrO4 (B) ZnSO4 (C) CuSO4 (D) AgNO3

Q.163 Passing H2S gas into a mixture of Mn2+, Ni2+, Cu2+ and Hg2+ ions in an acidified solution precipitates:
(A) CuS and HgS (B) MnS and CuS (C) MnS and NiS (D) NiS and HgS
Q.164 Fe3+(aq) does not show redox reaction with solution of

(A) Na2O2 (B) NH4SCN (C) KI (D) Na2S2O3
Q.165 Pair of cations can not be seperated by Na2S

(A) Pb2+(aq), Mg2+(aq) (B) Cd2+(aq), Zn2+(aq)
(C) Ag+(aq), Na+(aq) (D) Ni2+(aq), Ca2+(aq)
Q.166 Which of the given cation is soluble in excess of NH3 solution as well as in excess of NaOH solution?
(A) Pb2+(aq) (B) Cr3+(aq) (C) Fe3+(aq) (D) Be2+(aq)
Q.167 Which of the following salt solution gives Purple colour solution on reaction with SnCl2 solution?
(A) HgCl2 solution (B) BiCl3 solution
(C) FeCl3 solution (D)AuCl3 solution
Q.168 Correct match :

(A) SrCrO4 : Yellow (B) BaCrO4 : Yellow
(C) CaC2O4 : White (D) All are correct
Q.169 For Reaction :
M x  (aq)   3    3  Insoluble

NaOH / NH NaOH / NH
M (OH ) x
Re ddish Brown ppt .
Which of the following is metal cation (Mx+)

(A) Cr3+ (aq) (B) Fe2+ (aq) (C) Fe3+ (aq) (D) Ni2+ (aq)
Q.170 BaCl2 solution was added to sodium salt solution and white precipitate was obtained. The white ppt is
not soluble in dilute HCl then, which of the following anion will be present in sodium salt solution
(A) C2O42–(aq) (B) PO43–(aq.) (C) SO42–(aq.) (D) CrO42–(aq.)
Q.171 Select the incorrect match

(A) Fe3+ + [Fe(CN)6]4–  Blue colour ppt (B) Fe3+ + [Fe(CN)6]3–  Red brown colouration
(C) Fe2++ [Fe(CN)6]3–  Blue colour ppt (D) Fe2+ + [Fe(CN)6]4–  Red brown colouration

Q.172 Cu2+ (aq) + X– (aq) R

 CuX  + X2
.T.
'X' can not be

(A) Cl–(aq) (B) I–(aq) (C) CN–(aq) (D) SCN–(aq)
Q.173 In which of the following redox reaction precipitate is not formed.

(A) Cr3+ (aq) + Na2O2 soln.  (B) Fe3+ (aq) + (NH4)2S 
(C) Mn2+ (aq) + H2O2 + NH3 soln. (D) Fe++ (aq) + Na2O2 soln. 
Q.174 Which metal sulphide is soluble in excess NH3 solution?

(A) ZnS (B) MnS (C) FeS (D) Cr2S3
Q.175 Select the incorrect statement regarding FeSO4

(A) Form ppt with excess NaOH solution
(B) Black metal sulphide ppt is formed with (NH4)2S solution
(C) Yellow ppt of FeCl2 is formed with BaCl2 solution
(D) Chemical change is observed with excess Na2O2 solution
Q.176 Which of following salt will not give positive brown ring test?
(A) Cu(NO3)2 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) Zn(NO3)2 (D) Mg(NO3)2
Q.177 Select the ion exchange reaction, which proceeds to forward direction in aqueous medium:
(A) 2AgCl + CaF2 Aqueous
  2AgF + CaCl2
(B) BaSO4+ 2NaOH Aqueous

  Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4
(C) Pb(NO3)2+ 2CH3COONa Aqueous

  Pb(OAc)2 + 2NaNO3
(D) Na2CrO4 + BaCl2 Aqueous

  BaCrO4 + 2NaCl
Q.178 Which of the following metal hydroxide is not soluble in excess of NH3 solution?
(A) Fe(OH)2 (B) Ni(OH)2 (C) Cd(OH)2 (D) Cu(OH)2
Q.179 Which of the following combination of reagents does not undergo redox reaction in aqueous medium?
(A) SnCl2+ HgCl2 (B) CuSO4+ KCN
(C) Pb(CH3COO)2 + KI (D) Ag2O + SO2

Q.180 K4[Fe(CN)6] + MX+(aq)  M4[Fe(CN)6]x 

coloured precipitate
Which of the following cation does not respond to the above reaction?
(A) Cu2+(aq) (B) Fe3+(aq) (C) Zn2+(aq) (D) None of these
Q.181 Sodium salt solution + AgNO3 soln.  Coloured precipitate.

If coloured precipitate is soluble in both dil. HNO3 and excess conc. NH3 solution then which of the
following anion is present in the salt solution.
(A) S2– (aq) (B) I–(aq) (C) PO43–(aq) (D) Br–(aq)
Q.182 Which of the following anion does not produce precipitate with BaCl2 solution however gives precipitate
with AgNO3?
(A) CO32–(aq.) (B) C2O42–(aq.) (C) MnO4–(aq.) (D) S2–(aq.)
Q.183 Which of the following compound is completely water soluble ?

(A) BaSO4 (B) Ba(OH)2 (C) Al(OH)3 (D) CaF2
Q.184 Which of the following metal sulphide does not undergo hydrolysis?
(A) Cr2S3 (B) Al2S3 (C) MgS (D)FeS
Q.185 Which of the following pairs of ions cannot be separated by H2S in ammonical medium?
(A) Zn2+ and Ni2+ (B) Zn2+ and Mg2+ (C) Mn2+ and Ca2+ (D) Co2+ and Ca2+
Q.186 In group-V basic radicals, if NaHCO3 is added instead of (NH4)2CO3 and NH4OH, the precipitate
obtained will be:
(A) White (B)Yellow (C) Black (D) No ppt is formed
Q.187 Which of the following reagent can dissolves precipitate of HgS  ?

(A) NH3 solution (B) conc HCl (C) conc HNO3 (D) Na2S solution
Q.188 Concentrated sodium hydroxide can seperate a mixture of

(A)Al3+ and Cr3+ (B) Cr3+ and Fe3+ (C) Al3+ and Zn2+ (D) Zn2+ and Pb2+
Q.189 Cu2+ (aq) does not undergo redox reaction with solution of
(A) (NH4)2S (B) Na2S2O3 (C) KI (D) NH4SCN

Q.190 The incorrect order of solubility in water is

(A) Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 (B) Li2CO3< Na2CO3 < K2CO3
(C) CsNO3 < RbNO3< KNO3 (D) BeS2O3 < MgS2O3 < CaS2O3
Q.191 The correct order of increasing solubility in water is

(A) KF < NaF < LiF (B) NaHCO3 < KHCO3< RbHCO3
(C) K2CO3 < Na2CO3< Li2CO3 (D) LiNO3< NaNO3 < KNO3
Q.192 P(soln .) Air

 Q(soln .) KOH
 R 
Coloured ( Coloured ) ( ppt )
( Insolub le in both excess
NaOH and excess NH 3 solution )
Then P contains
(A) Cu2+(aq) (B) Fe2+(aq) (C) Cr2+(aq) (D) Ni2+(aq)
Q.193 X2Sn + water X(OH)n + Y

(gas)
Pb(CH3COO)2
Z
(Black ppt.)
Then (X) cation can not be :

(A) Fe3+ (B) Al3+ (C) Cr3+ (D) Mg2+
Q.194 Mn+ (aq) + KI  X  (ppt) KI ppt remains insoluble in excess KI solution..
excess
then cation Mn+(aq) can be :

(A) Pb2+(aq) (B) Cu2+(aq) (C) Bi3+(aq) (D) Hg2+(aq)
Q.195 Aqueous solution of which of the following cation gives precipitate with potash alum.
(A) Cu2+(aq) (B) Zn2+(aq) (C) Ba2+(aq) (D) Ni2+(aq)
Q.196 A very dilute acidic solution of Cd2+ & Ni2+ gives only yellow ppt of CdS on passing H2S, this is due to:
(A) Solubility product (Ksp) of CdS is more than that of NiS
(B) Solublility product (Ksp) of CdS is less than that of NiS
(C) Cd2+ belong to II B group while Ni2+ belongs to IVth group.
(D) CdS is insoluble in yellow ammonium sulphide (YAS)
Q.197 Which of the following cation does not give precipitate with H2S in neutral medium?
(A) Fe3+ (B) Cu2+ (C) Bi3+ (D) Ag+
EXERCISE-2

Q.1 Which metal impart(s) red colour to flame?
(A) Li (B) K (C)Ca (D) Sr
Q.2 When copper (II) nitrate is strongly heated, it is converted into

(A) Cu metal (B) cupric oxide (C) cuprous oxide (D) copper nitrate
Q.3 Which of the following compound(s) during heating undergo redox decomposition reaction?
(A) HgCO3(s) (B) Ag2C2O4(s) (C) FeCl3·6H2O(s) (D) K2Cr2O7(s)
Q.4 NO2 gas evolves on thermal decomposition of which of the following compound(s) ?
(A) Hg(NO3)2 (B) KNO3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O3
Q.5 Which of the following combination of species undergo(es) comproportionation.
(A) MnO4–(aq) + Mn2+(aq) ZnO

  4 
/ ZnSO (B) S + conc. H 2SO 4 warm

( excess )
(C) PH3 + H3PO4  (D) NO(g) + NO2(g) cool


Q.6 I2 + Na2CO3 soln. Hot


 X+Y
If 'X' gives coloured ppt with Pb(CH3COO)2 solution, then 'Y' will respond to which of the following
(A) Y + H+(aq) + H2S (B) Y + Cr2O72– (aq) + OH–(aq)
(C) Y + H+(aq) + SO2 (D) Y + H+(aq) + I–(aq)
Q.7 Which of the following combination of reagent(s) produce observable change in aqueous medium.
(A) Ba(OH)2 solution + SO2(g) (B) AgF solution + NaNO3 solution
(C) Pb(OAc)2 solution + Na2CO3 solution (D) CuCl2 solution + NH3 (excess)
Q.8 In which of the following acidic radical(s) dual properties of conc. H2SO4 are used ?
(A) BO33– (B) Cl– (C) Br– (D) I–

Q.9  CrO3 vapour

X Y Z
conc.H2SO4
(coloured
AgNO3 vapours)
Q
(Soluble in excess
conc. NH3 soln.)
Which of the following anion cannot be in X ?

(A) F– (B) Cl– (C) Br– (D) I–
Q.10 Which of the following reagent(s) can be used to distinguish between SO2 and CO2?
(A) FeCl3 soln. (B) Baryta water (C) H2S (D) Acidified NaIO3
Q.11 H2S gas is not evolved by

(A) FeS + hot concentration H2SO4 (B) HgS + warm dil. HCl
(C) ZnS + warm dil. H2SO4 (D) SO32–(aq) + Zn + NaOH soln.
Q.12 CO2 gas is evolved, when solid Na2CO3 is :

(A) Fused with silica (B) Boiled withAgNO3 solution
(C) Treated with CH3COOH (D) with boiled BaCl2 solution
Q.13 Which compound(s) dissolve in hot dilute HNO3?

(A) HgS (B) PbS (C) CuS (D) CdS
Q.14 Which of the following sulphides is insoluble in dil. HCl(non oxidising acid) as well as in exess NaOH
solution ?
(A) PbS (B) Zns (C) FeS (D) HgS
Q.15 Which one of the following does not produce metallic sulphide with H2S?
(A) ZnCl2 (B) CdCl2 (C) CoCl2 (D) CuCl2
Q.16 Which of the following acid(s) does/do not reduce AgNO3 into metallic Ag?
(A) HI (B) H3PO4 (C) H3PO2 (D) H2S

Q.17 Which of the following cation(s) give coloured precipitate with both excess of NH3 and excess NaOH
solution ?
(A) Fe3+(aq) (B) Hg22+(aq) (C) Ni2+(aq.) (D) Cr3+(aq.)
Q.18 Fe3+(aq) undergoes redox reaction with solution of :

(A) KCN (B) NH4SCN (C) KI (D) Na2S2O3
Q.19 Chemical behaviour of excess of hypo solution towards Ag+(aq) is same as with :
(A) Hg2+(aq) (B) Cu2+(aq) (C) Pb2+(aq) (D) Bi3+(aq)
Q.20 K2SO4Cr2(SO4)3·24H2O + Na 2O 2 solution 

 'P' + other compounds
excess
Compound 'P' is water soluble coloured compound; then 'P' can form precipitate with.
(A) Ag+(aq) (B) Ba2+(aq) (C) Pb2+(aq) (D) Ca2+(aq)
Q.21 Which of the following Nitrate salt solution neither produce ppt with excess NaOH nor with excess
NH4OH solution.
(A) Al(NO3)3 (B) Zn(NO3)2 (C) Cr(NO3)3 (D) Pb(NO3)2
Q.22 Which of the following sulphide(s) does/do not liberate H2S on warming with dil HCl?
(A) HgS (B) ZnS (C) FeS (D) CuS
Q.23 Which of the following cation does not give precipitate with H2S in neutral medium?
(A) Fe3+ (B) Cu2+ (C) Bi3+ (D) Ag+
Q.24 Which of the following precipitate(s) is/are dissolved to colourless solution on adding sufficient amount
of dillute HCl ?
(A) CaCO3 (B) BaCrO4 (C) MgC2O4 (D) BaSO4

[PARAGRAPH TYPE]
For followig reactions :

Microcosmic salt  P  + Q (solid) + xH2O 
Mn2+(aq) + P  + H2O2  R 
(Brown)

Q(solid) + CoO  S
Oxidizing ( Blue coloured solid )
flame
Answer following questions :

Q.25 When solid 'R' is fused with KOH in the presence of air, then which of the following substance is formed.
(A) Mn3O4 (B) KMnO4 (C) K2MnO4 (D) MnO
Q.26 Incorrect statement for 'S' is :

(A) It is paramagnetic.
(B) It is orthophosphate.
(C) Its colour remains same even in reducing flame
(D) It is reduced to metal cobalt in reducing flame.
Q.27 Microcosmic salt does not undergo observable change with:

(A)AgNO3 solution (B) K2[HgI4] + KOH (C) dil. H2SO4 (D) BaCl2 solution
 
Compound 'A' Initially swelled Amorphous powder
strong
heating
Lilac flame in the flame test
Compound 'A' excess

 NaOH 'B'( No change in colour) H2O2  'C' (Yellow solution)
(in aq. solution)
Q.28 Compound 'A' is having water of crystallization by the number of :
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 24 (D)36
Q.29 The compound 'B' is having oxidation state of

(A) zero (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Q.30 The hybridization of compound 'C' is

(A) sp3 (B) sp3d (C) d2sp3 (D) d3s


For following sequence of reactions answer the following questions :
Aqueous solution
of two salts
Precipitate Filtrate
P Q
(NH4)2S
Precipitate Filtrate
R S
Coloured
Q.31 Precipitate 'P' dissolves in hot dil.HNO3 and coloured solution is obtained when K4[Fe(CN)6] was
added to this coloured solution, brown coloured precipitate is obtained; then cation present in the
precipitate 'P' is
(A) Cd2+ (B) Cu2+ (C) Fe3+ (D) Zn2+
Q.32 If precipitate 'R' is soluble in excess of NaOH and coloured solution is obtained, then precipitate 'R' is
(A) Cr(OH)3 (B) ZnS (C) MnS (D) Fe(OH)3
Q.33 One of the salt forms white precipitate with BaCl2 and this precipitate is not soluble in dil HCl. While
other, salt forms white precipitate withAgNO3 and thus obtained white precipitate of silver is not soluble
in dil HNO3 but soluble in excess NH3 solution. Then which of the following anions are present in the
given two salts solution.
(A) PO43–(aq), CO32–(aq) (B) SO42–(aq), Cl–(aq)
(C) SO32–(aq), CO32–(aq) (D) SO42–(aq), C2O42–(aq)


Consider the following reaction
 Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
Na2SO4 + C x z (Purple colour)
Cd(NO3)2
y
Q.34 'y' is insoluble in .

(A) CH3COOH (B) HCl (C) dil. HNO3 (D) None of these
Q.35 'z' also form when Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] reacts with

(A) H2S/OH– (B) H2S (C) H2S/H+ (D)All of these
Q.36 What would be the colour of 'y', if Pb(NO3)2 is used in reaction instead of Cd(NO3)3?
(A) White (B)Yellow (C) Red (D) Black

Using dil. H2SO4 gas evolution takes place from several acid radicals. If we consider their smell, colour
and other observation if any, several acid radicals can be detected in this step.
Q.37 Using dil. H2SO4, which of the acid radical can not be confirmed.
(A) NO2– (B) CH3CO2– (C) HSO3– (D) S2–
Q.38 When the aqueous suspension of Ag2SO3 and Ag2CO3 are heated, the respective ppts. are obtained as
(A) Ag2O & Ag2O (B) Ag2O & Ag (C) Ag &Ag2O (D) Ag & Ag
Q.39 Which of the following radical(s) is/are producing same gas on treatment with (Zn + dil. H2SO4) ?
(I) SO32– (II) HSO3– (III) S2– (IV) Cl–
(A) I and II only (B) I, II and III only (C) I. II. III and IV (D) II. III and IV only

[MATCH THE COLUMN]

(Reactions) (Charactristics of any one product)

(A) (NH4)2Cr2O7  (P) Amphoteric species

(B) FeSO4  (Q) Basic species

(C) Pb(NO3)2  (R) Non polar gas
(D) P4 NaOH
 
(S) Polar acidic gas
(T) Coloured residue

(Ionic compounds) (Possible observations
on thermal decomposition)
(A) HgCO3 (P) Acidic gas evolves
(B) FeSO4 (Q) Metallic residue is obtained as final product
(C) BeC2O4 (R) Metal cation of salt undergoes redox reaction
(D) AgNO3 (S) Metallic oxide can be obtained
(T) Neutral gas is evolved

(Anions) (Reaction of anion(s) with
dil HCl/ conc. H2SO4 )
(A) SO 32– (P) Colourless volatile product is formed
(B) CO 3 2– (Q) Coloured volatile product is formed
(C) Cl– (R) Volatile product forms precipitate with Ba(OH)2 solution
(D) NO 2 – (S) . Volatile product forms precipitate with AgNO3 solution
(T) Formed volatile product decolourizes MnO4– / H+ solution

[INTEGER TYPE]
Q.43 Find out total number metals cation(s) which form coloured metaborates :
Al3+(aq), Fe3+(aq), Pb2+(aq), Cd2+(aq), Mg2+(aq), Cr3+(aq), Ag+(aq), Zn2+(aq), Mn2+(aq)
Q.44 Find the value of expression |x – y| for following compounds

where,
x = Total number of water insoluble salts.
y = Total number of salts. which can liberate nonpolar acidic gas during their complete thermal
decomposition.
BaCO3, PbSO4, AgNO3, CaC2O4, CsHCO3, Na3PO4, CH3COOAg, Mg(OH)2, Pb(NO3)2
Q.45 Find out total number of coloured compound(s) from following

BaCO3, HgO, PbSO4, Ag2S, HgI2, PbO, CdS, AgNO2, PbCrO4
Q.46 Find out total number of compounds which on heating undergo redox reactions.
PbCl4, Mg(NO3)2, HgC2O4, Ag2CO3, Pb(CN)4, A1(OH)3, Cu(CN)2
Q.47 Which of the following reagent( s) can oxidize H2S gas into sulphur :
I2, Cr2O72–(aq) / H+(aq), H2O2, IO3–(aq) / H+(aq), H3PO4, H2CO3, dil. H2SO4, SO2, NO2–(aq)/
H+(aq)
Q.48 How many anions will give coloured volatile product when react with conc. H2SO4 on reaction with
following given anions.
CH3COO– , Cl–, Br–, S2–, SO32–, BO33–, NO2–, C2O42–, I–, NO3–
Q.49 If sodium salt of following acidic radical(s) are heated with concentrated H2SO4, then which of the
following acidic radical(s) produce gas caused by oxidising property of concentrated H2SO4,
Br–, F–, S2–, C2O42–, NO3–, CH3COO–, B4O72–, Cl–, I–
Q.50 Find total number of reagents which can produce I2 from KI solution.
Conc. H2SO4, Hg(NO3)2 solution, CuSO4 solution, Conc. H3PO4,
K2Cr2O7/H+ Cl2water, Pb(CH3COO)2 solution, Ca(OCl)Cl/H+
NaNO2 + dil.HCl

Q.51 Find total number of metal cations which are ppted as metal sulphide on passing H2S gas through metal
salt solution.
Pb2+(aq), Mn2+(aq), Sn2+(aq), Cr3+(aq),
Mg2+(aq), Hg2+(aq), Cu2+(aq), Ag+(aq),
Al3+(aq), Ni2+(aq)
Q.52 Which of the following cation(s) produce precipitate with excess of NaOH solution?
Be2+(aq), Cu2+(aq), Pb2+(aq), Fe3+(aq), Hg2+(aq), Ni2+(aq), Mn2+(aq), Cr3+(aq), Bi3+(aq)
Q.53 Find out total number of cation(s), which produce soluble compound with excess of KCN solution
Pb2+(aq) , Hg2+(aq), Cr3+(aq), Cu2+(aq), Au+(aq), Co2+(aq), Cd2+(aq), Zn2+(aq), Ni2+(aq)
Q.54 Which of the following species/reagent can reduce Fe3+(aq) into Fe2+(aq) at normal conditions.
(NH4)2S, HI, Sn2+(aq), CN–(aq), NaNO2, SO2, Na2S2O3, SCN–(aq), Acidified NaIO3
Q.55 Find out number ionic compound(s) which is/are water insoluble at room temperature
BaSO4, AgNO3, PbCO3, CaCl2, Mg(OH)2, KMnO4, CH3COOAg, Ca3(PO4)2, (NH4)2S
Q.56 Find out total number of cation(s) that produce precipitate with aqueous solution of Na2CO3
Cu2+(aq), Mg2+(aq), Fe3+ (aq), Pb2+(aq), Al3+(aq), Hg2+(aq), Zn2+(aq), NH4+(aq), Cs+(aq)
Q.57 Find out total number of coloured / black water insoluble compound(s) from following substances:
Ag2O, HgI2, FeS, Ag3PO4, Ba(MnO4)2, Na2CrO4, PbI2, AgNO2, Ag2C2O4
Q.58 Find number of basic radicals among the following cations, which can form soluble complex on adding
excess of NH3 solution:
Cd++(aq.), Pb++(aq.), Ni++(aq.), Mn++(aq.), Zn++(aq.), Ag+(aq.), Hg++(aq.), Fe3+(aq.), Mg++(aq.)
Q.59 Find the total number acid radicals which produce gas with dilute sulphuric acid.
 2 3 2   2
C 2 O 24 , Br–, NO2 , CO3 , S2–, PO4 , SO4 , HCO3 , MnO4 , CrO4
Q.60 Which of the following compound have less intensity of colour with respect to AgI ?
AgCl , AgBr, Cu2I2, Cu2Cl2, PbCl2, PbCO3 , Ag2CO3 , PbS

Q.61 Find the number of reactions in the given set of separate experiments which would give white precipitate.
? SrCl2 ?
NH4Cl CaCl2
Na2CO3 BaCl2
? (aqueous) ?
Pb(CH3COO)2
Hg2(NO3)2
CuCl2
? HgCl2 ?
If your answer is 2, write it as 0002.
Q.62 How many number of species give white turbidity with H2S?
KMnO4/H, K2Cr2O7/H, KIO3/H, FeCl3, Br2-water, conc. HNO3, conc. H2SO4, H2O2
Q.63 Select how many following compounds are yellow in nature:

Zn2[Fe(CN)6], CdS, K4[Fe(CN)6], As2S3, Bi2S3, Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3,
[Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4, Ag2S, SnS2, Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
Q.64 Na2SO3, NaCl, Na2C2O4, Na2HPO4, Na2CrO4, NaNO2, CH3CO2Na are separately treated with
AgNO3 solution. In how many cases white ppt. is/are obtained.
Q.65 S2– + Na2 [Fe (CN)5NO]  Complex is having violet colouration (X)
The number of possible isomers for complex 'X' is provided the ambident behaviour of CN¯ is not
considered.
Q.66 From the given salts (BaCl2, CaCO3, NaNO3, KNO3, K2SO4, K2CO3, BaSO4), find the number of
salt(s) which turn(s) red litmus blue and impart(s) lilac colour to the Bunsen flame.
[If your answer is 3 , write the answer as 0003]
Q.67 Find the number of sulphides from the list given below which are not soluble in yellow ammonium
sulphide solution.
HgS, As2S3, Sb2S3, SnS, CuS, PbS
[If your answer is 3 , write the answer as 0003]

[ANSWER KEY]
EXERCISE-1
Q.1 A Q.2 B Q.3 A Q.4 C Q.5 B
Q.6 B Q.7 D Q.8 A Q.9 B Q.10 D
Q.11 A Q.12 B Q.13 C Q.14 C Q.15 C
Q.16 C Q.17 C Q.18 A Q.19 C Q.20 A
Q.21 B Q.22 D Q.23 C Q.24 D Q.25 B
Q.26 B Q.27 C Q.28 B Q.29 A Q.30 B
Q.31 C Q.32 B Q.33 C Q.34 B Q.35 C
Q.36 B Q.37 D Q.38 D Q.39 B Q.40 D
Q.41 C Q.42 B Q.43 B Q.44 B Q.45 A
Q.46 C Q.47 D Q.48 D Q.49 B Q.50 A
Q.51 B Q.52 D Q.53 B Q.54 B Q.55 B
Q.56 C Q.57 D Q.58 A Q.59 C Q.60 D
Q.61 D Q.62 B Q.63 C Q.64 A Q.65 A
Q.66 A Q.67 B Q.68 D Q.69 D Q.70 A
Q.71 B Q.72 A Q.73 B Q.74 B Q.75 A
Q.76 D Q.77 D Q.78 B Q.79 A Q.80 A
Q.81 B Q.82 C Q.83 D Q.84 B Q.85 D
Q.86 C Q.87 A Q.88 B Q.89 C Q.90 B
Q.91 B Q.92 D Q.93 A Q.94 A Q.95 D
Q.96 B Q.97 D Q.98 C Q.99 C Q.100 B
Q.101 A Q.102 D Q.103 C Q.104 D Q.105 B
Q.106 A Q.107 C Q.108 C Q.109 B Q.110 B
Q.111 D Q.112 B Q.113 B Q.114 B Q.115 B
Q.116 D Q.117 C Q.118 D Q.119 D Q.120 D
Q.121 D Q.122 C Q.123 B Q.124 D Q.125 A
Q.126 D Q.127 B Q.128 D Q.129 C Q.130 A
Q.131 D Q.132 B Q.133 A Q.134 C Q.135 B
Q.136 D Q.137 B Q.138 B Q.139 B Q.140 B
Q.141 C Q.142 C Q.143 C Q.144 B Q.145 D
Q.146 D Q.147 D Q.148 A Q.149 B Q.150 A
Q.151 B Q.152 D Q.153 A Q.154 B Q.155 D
Q.156 A Q.157 D Q.158 B Q.159 A Q.160 C
Q.161 D Q.162 C Q.163 A Q.164 B Q.165 B
Q.166 B Q.167 D Q.168 D Q.169 C Q.170 C
Q.171 D Q.172 A Q.173 A Q.174 D Q.175 C
Q.176 B Q.177 D Q.178 A Q.179 C Q.180 C

Q.181 C Q.182 D Q.183 B Q.184 D Q.185 A
Q.186 D Q.187 D Q.188 B Q.189 A Q.190 D
Q.191 B Q.192 B Q.193 A Q.194 B Q.195 C
Q.196 B Q.197 A
EXERCISE-2
Q.1 ACD Q.2 BC Q.3 ABD Q.4 ACD Q.5 AD
Q.6 ACD Q.7 ACD Q.8 CD Q.9 AD Q.10 ACD
Q.11 ABD Q.12 ABC Q.13 BCD Q.14 AD Q.15 AC
Q.16 ABD Q.17 AB Q.18 CD Q.19 ACD Q.20 ABC
Q.21 ABC Q.22 AD Q.23 A Q.24 AC Q.25 C
Q.26 D Q.27 C Q.28 C Q.29 C Q.30 D
Q.31 B Q.32 A Q.33 B Q.34 A Q.35 A
Q.36 D Q.37 C Q.38 C Q.39 B
Q.40 (A) PRT (B) QRST (C) PRST (D) Q
Q.41 (A) PQRST (B) PRS (C) PST (D) PQRST Q.42 (A) PRST (B) PRS (C) PST (D) QST
Q.43 3 Q.44 0 Q.45 6
Q.46 6 Q.47 6 Q.48 4 Q.49 3 Q.50 6
Q.51 5 Q.52 6 Q.53 8 Q.54 5 Q.55 5
Q.56 7 Q.57 5 Q.58 4 Q.59 4 Q.60 7
Q.61 0004 Q.62 8 Q.63 4 Q.64 0005 Q.65 0003
Q.66 0001 Q.67 0003

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SUPER PROBLEMS IN

“Very less percentage of graphite

PMSSIR CHEMSTUDIOS BY PMS

The book has ample number of problems of different profiles to help

Late. Shri Shyam Sunder Maheshwari

chemstudios by pms Page # 1

Q.8 Which of the following set of Quantum numbers is not possible?

Q.9 The total number of orbitals with n +  = 10, is

Q.10 An electron, that has quantum numbers : n = 4 and m = –3

chemstudios by pms Page # 2

Q.18 Which of the following has maximum unpaired electrons?

Q.20 The correct option regarding size of orbitals is :

chemstudios by pms Page # 3

Q.23 The correct option regarding size of orbitals is :

Q.24 Azimuthal and Magnetic quantum numbers are respectively related to :

Q.26 For a 7s electron the values of n,l,m,s respectively could be:

Q.27 What type of orbital is designated n = 2,  = 3, m = –2 ?

chemstudios by pms Page # 4

Q.32 Orbital angular momentum of electron in hydrogen depends on.

Q.33 Subshell which has maximum value of (n + l + m) quantum numbers in 27Co is :

Q.35 For the following set of quantum numbers

chemstudios by pms Page # 5

Q.37 Which of the following is correct for compounds:

(A) n = 146 ; p = 92 ; e– = 92 (B) n = 238 ; p = 92 ; e– = 92

Q.40 Select the impossible arrangement(s) of quantum numbers -

Q.41 Which of the following is not characterized by principal quantum number(n) ?

Q.42 Correct electronic configuration of La(57) is :

chemstudios by pms Page # 6

Q.43 Select the incorrect statement:

Q.44 Which of the following is not a pair of isodiaphers:

Q.46 Maximum value of spin multiplicity for electrons in Cr atom is -

Q.47 Which of the following has maximum energy ?

Q.48 Maximum possible number of elements present in 4th period

Q.49 Number of electrons in Cu atom having (n + l + m) = 4 is -

Q.50 For Cr(24) calculate number of electrons having n + l = 4

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Q.52 If the electronic configuration of oxygen is written as it would violate :

(A) Hund's rule (B) Pauli's exclusion principle

Q.53 A given orbital is labelled by m = –1. This can not be :

Q.55 Maximum number of electrons in a subshell is :

Q.56 Magnetic moments of V, Cr and Mn are x, y and z respectively. Hence:

Q.57 In which of the followingAufbau's rule is followed?

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Q.60 The electron identified by quantum numbers n and l:

Q.61 Select the correct order of energy level in H-atom:

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Q.3 For 24Cr which of the following statements is/are correct.

Q.4 Which of following statements is/are incorrect?

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Q.7 Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Q.8 Which of the following configuration violates Hund's Rule?

Q.12 Which of the following having same value of magnetic moment?

Q.13 Which of the following having same value of magnetic moment?

Q.15 In which of the following pairs, the ions are iso-electronic?

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Q.16 The number of d- electrons in Fe3+ is equal to that of :

Q.17 Read the following statements and identify correct statements:

Q.19 Select the correct statement(s):

(D) In orbital diagramAufbau principle is violated.

Q.20 Select the incorrect statement(s):

Q.21 Select the correct order of energy level in H-atom:

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(A) Q - I and R - I (B) Q - I and R - II