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Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
PAPER - 1
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This Question Paper contains 75 questions.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.
4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets
in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.
9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts.
10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for a
change of the Booklet.
11. Write your Roll No., Name and Name of centre and sig with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these
anywhere else.
12. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil.
13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of Four Sections.
14. For each question in Section–I , you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the
correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (–1) mark will be awarded.
15. For each question in Section–II , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding
to the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative
marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section.
16. For each question in Section–III , you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened.. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer(s) for this this section.
17. For each question in Section–IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer,
minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
PART–I
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,
P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,
Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.
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3. Propanone reacts with iodine in acid medium according to the following equation :
H
+ I2
+ HI
The following data were obtained when the reaction was studied
For the above reaction the following mechanism have been proposed
Step I : + H+
Step II : H O
2
Step III :
4. The number of atoms in 100 g of an FCC crystal with density d = 10 gcm–3 and cell edge of 200 pm is equal
to
(A) 3 × 1025 (B) 5 × 1024 (C) 1 × 1025 (D) 2 × 1025
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5. The IUPAC name of [Fe(NH2)(CO)2I(PPh3)2] is :
(A) Amidodicarbonyliodidoditriphenylphosphineiron(II)
(B) Amidodicarbonyliodidobis(triphenylphosphine)iron(II)
(C) Aminedicarbonyliodidobis(triphenylphosphine)iron(II)
(D) Amidodicarbonyliodidobis(triphenylphosphine)ferrate(II)
6. Which of the following reactions of potassium superoxide supply oxygen gas in the breathing equipments
used in space and submarines ?
(1) Reaction of superoxide with nitrogen in the exhaled air.
(2) Reaction of superoxide with moisture in the exhaled air.
(3) Reaction of superoxide with carbon dioxide in the exhaled air.
(A) (1), (2) and (3) (B) (2) and (3) only
(C) (2) only (D) (1) and (2) only
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10. The best rearranged carbocation of (X) is obtained by shifting of :
(X) =
(A) CH3 – group (B) CD3 – group (C) H – group (D) D – group
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
11.
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13. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) Ore bauxite is purified by alkaline treatment, the Bayer process and then dissolved in molten cryolite and
reduced electrolytically in the fused salt system to get metal.
(B) Magnesium is precipitated as Mg(OH)2 from sea water by treatment with lime and then it dissolved in
dilute HCl and reduced electrolytically in aqueous medium to get magnesium metal.
(C) Silver ore is dissolved in dilute NaCN solution in presence of air and the solution so obtained is treated
with scrap zinc when silver metal is precipitated.
(D) Sulphide ore of some of the less electropositive metals like Hg, Cu, Pb etc are heated in air, a part of
these is changed into oxide or sulphate than that reacts with the remaining part of the sulphide ore to
give its metal and SO2.
(i ) O H / AgNO NH OH
3 4
(C) Ph–CHO + CH3CHO (D)
(ii) CrO3 / H2O / Acetone H
H
ester + water
RESONANCE P1MT1XII020111C0-5
SECTION - III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 5 choices (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. Statement-1 : The red liquid bromine reacts with sodium carbonate solution and forms sodium bromide and
sodium bromate.
Statement-2 : Sodium bromide reacts with conc. H2SO4 to form HBr.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(E) Both statement-1 and 2 are wrong.
17. Statement-1 : In ZnS lattice (zinc blende) number of empty tetrahedral voids and empty octahedral voids are
equal.
Statement-2 : In zinc blende, S2– form HCP lattice and Zn2+ occupies alternate tetrahedral voids.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(E) Both statement-1 and 2 are wrong
18. Statement-1 : Phosphine is prepared by heating white phosphorus with concentrated NaOH solution in an
inert atmosphare of CO2.
Statement-2 : Pure PH3 catches fire on heating in air at 150°C forming H3PO4.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(E) Both statement-1 and 2 are wrong
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19. Statement 1 : The reactivity order is :
Statement 2 : Presence of –OMe group increases rate of Hofmann bromamide reaction by increasing
electron density in migrating phenyl group.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
(E) Both statement-1 and 2 are wrong
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 multiple choice questions.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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21. How many moles of electrons pass through the circuit when 0.6 mole of Hg2+ and 0.30 mole of HNO2 are
produced in the cell that contains 0.5 mole of Hg22+ and 0.40 mole of NO3– at the beginning of the reaction
(A) 0.6 mole (B) 0.8 mole (C) 0.3 mole (D) 1 mole
22. How long will it take to produce 0.3 mole of HNO2 by this reaction if an average current of 10 amp passes
through the cell ?
(A) 1.6 hour (B) 16 hour (C) 3.2 hour (D) 32 hour
(i)
(ii)
(A) An ether (B) A hemiacetal (C) An acetal (W) (D) An acetal other than (W)
(A) (Y) only (B) (Z) only (C) Y and Z both (D) (X) only
RESONANCE P1MT1XII020111C0-8
PART- II
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1
26. A missile is destroyed before hitting the target by a probability of . If the missile is not destroyed
3
3
probability of hitting the target is . Three missiles are fired. The probabality of exactly two hits the target
4
is
1 3 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 16 8 8
27. The shortest distance between the z -axis and the line, x + y + 2z – 3 = 0, 2x + 3y + 4z – 4 = 0 is
(A 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
dy
28. The solution of the differential equation – ky = 0, y(0) = 1 approaches zero when x , if
dx
(A) k = 0 (B) k > 0 (C) k < 0 (D) None of these
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3
29. The area bounded by the curve y = and y + |2 – x| = 2 is
|x|
4 – n27 4 n27
(A) (B) 2 – n 3 (C) 2 + n 3 (D)
2 2
x5 x 4
30. The graph of f(x) = – + 5 has
20 12
(A) no local extreme, one point of inflection
(B) Two local maximum one local minimum, two point of inflection
(C) One local maximum, one local minimum, one point of inflection
(D) One local maximum, one local minimum, two point of inflection
x2
1 dx
31. If dx then is equal to
e 4 2 2 2
– –
(1 e x ) e x e 2x e 3 x .....
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 8
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1 1 1
1 sin x
32. Let t1 = (sin x ) , t2 = (sin 1 x )cos x
, t3 = (cos 1 x )sin x , then for x (sin 1, 1)
(A) t1 > t2 > t3 (B) t3 > t1 > t2 (C) t2 > t1 > t3 (D) t3 > t2 > t1
33. If f(x) is a differentiable function and f(x) – x3 is strictly increasing, then f(x) + x – x2 is
(A) increasing (B) decreasing (C) not monotonic (D) not depends on nature of f(x)
1 /4 2
dx e tan
sin I1
34. If I1 = e x
and I2 = 2 3
d, then is equal to
0
(1 x ) 0
( 2 tan ) cos I2
1 e 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) 2e
2e 2 e
x sin , x0
35. Let f(x) = nx , where n I, n 0. If Rolle's theorem is applicable to f(x) in the interval
0 , x0
[0, 1], then
(A) for > 0, least value of n is – 2 (B) for > 1, greatest value of n is –1
(C) for > 0, greatest value of n is 1 (D) for < 0, least value of n is –1
RESONANCE P1MT1XII020111C0-11
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
36. The possible value of a for which e2x – (a – 2) ex + a < 0 holds for atleast one x (0, ) are
(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 16
37. Four whole numbers are randomly selected and are multiplied. Let us defined events
E1 : Last digit in the product is 1,3,7, 9.
E2 : Last digit in the product is 2, 4, 6, 8
Then probability
4 4
4 4 84 – 44
(A) P(E1) = (B) P(E2) = (C) P(E2) = (D) P(E2) > P(E1)
10 10 10 4
38. The vector î ĵ 3k̂ is rotated by an certain angle and doubled in magnitude, Then it becomes
2 2 1
(A) (B) – (C) 2 (D)
3 3 2
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39. Let f(x) be monotonic, f (x) 0, xLt
ƒ( x ) and f (2a2 + a + 1) > f (3a2 – 4a + 1). Possible integral values
of a are :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
40. There are n bags containing three balls each. Two balls are drawn from each bag and found to be white. If
19
probability that at least one bag contains all white balls is greater than , then n can be :
20
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
SECTION - III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 5 choices (A), (B), (C), (D) and
(E) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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42. STATEMENT-1 : For any two vectors a and b , (a î ) . (b î ) + (a ĵ ) . (b ĵ ) + (a k̂ ) . (b k̂ ) = 2 a . b
and
STATEMENT-2 : (a . î ) (b . î ) + (a . ĵ ) (b . ĵ ) + (a . k̂ ) (b . k̂ ) = a . b
(A) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True ; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False
(D) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is True
(E) Both Statement are false.
x2
43. Let a < 0, b > 2 be such that eb a2 = ea b2 and f(x) = .
ex
STATEMENT-1 : There are two points of extrema of f(x).
and
STATEMENT-2 : f(x) satisfies conditions in Roll's theorem on [a, b].
(A) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True ; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False
(D) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is True
(E) Both Statement are false.
x
44. Let f : R R be given defined by f(x) = 2 sin2 t dt
0
STATEMENT-1 : f(x) is many one.
and
STATEMENT-2 : f(x) = 1 – cos 2x f(x) 0 x R.
(A) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True ; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for Statement -1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False
(D) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is True
(E) Both Statement are false.
RESONANCE P1MT1XII020111C0-14
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 multiple choice questions.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1
x 2e x
45. dx equals
x 1
0
1 2
x x
46. e dx equals
0
x 1
e e e e
(A) A – (B) +1–A (C) –A (D) A – 1 +
2 2 2 2
1
x3
47. ( x 1) 3
ex dx equals
0
e A e A 9e A e
(A) – 2 +A (B) 2 – – (C) 3 – – (D) 1 – –
2 2 8 2 8 2 8
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Paragraph for Question Nos. 48 to 50
1 1
3 sin x , 1 x 2
1 1
1
f(x) = y = sin–1 (3x – 4x3) = 3 sin x , x
2 2
3 sin 1 x , 1
x 1
2
49. If [.] represents greatest integer function, then lim [sin–1 (3x – 4x3)] ,
3
x
2
(A) is equal to –1 (B) is equal to 0 (C) is equal to 1 (D) does not exist
3 1 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 4 6
RESONANCE P1MT1XII020111C0-16
PART - III
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
51. A metal rod of length , moving with an angular velocity and velocity of its centre is
v. Find potential difference between points A and B at the instant shown in figure. A
uniform magnetic field of strength B exist perpendicular to plane of paper :
1
(A) Bv (B) Bv + B2
2
2
1
(C) B – B2 (D) Bv + B
2 2
52. A small particle of mass m, moves in such a way that the potential energy U = ar3, where a is positive
constant and r is the distance of the particle from the origin. Assuming Rutherford's model of circular orbits,
then relation between K.E. and P.E. of the particle is :
3 U
(A) K.E. = U (B) K.E. = U (C) K.E. = 3U (D) K.E. =
2 2
53. A hot black body losses heat at the rate of 30 Jm–2s–1 and its most intense radiation correspond to 15,000 Å.
When the temperature of this body is further increased then its most intense radiation corresponds to 7500
Å, then find then the rate of loss of heat in Jm–2s–1. (Surrounding temperature is half of the initial temperature
of black body) :
30
(A) 480 (B) (C) 510 (D) 495
17
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54. A uniform rod of length L is charged uniformly with charge q and is rotating
about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to rod. Magnetic
moment of the rod is :
qL2 qL2 qL2 qL2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 12 24 36
1 1
55. An inductor L H , a capacitor C F and a resistance
100 500
(3) is connected in series with an AC voltage source as shown in the
figure. The voltage of the AC source is given as V = 10 cos(100 t) volt.
What will be the potential difference between A and B ?
(A) 8 cos(100 t – 127º) volt
(B) 8 cos(100 t – 53º) volt
(C) 8 cos(100 t – 37º) volt
(D) 8 cos(100 t + 37º) volt
56. A thin glass prism of refractive index 1.5 produces a deviation of 4° of a ray incident at a small angle.
The minimum deviation of the same incident ray by the same prism if it is immersed in water of
refractive index 4/3 :
(A) 1º (B) 1.5º (C) 2 (D) 2.5º
57. A ray hits the y-axis making an angle with y-axis as shown in the figure. The
x 1
variation of refractive index with x-coordinate is = 0 1 – for 0 x d 1 –
d 0
and = 0 for x < 0, where d is a positive constant. The maximum x-coordinate of
the path traced by the ray is :
(A) d(1 – sin ) (B) d (1 – cos )
(C) d sin (D) d cos
RESONANCE P1P020111C0 - 18
58. An isosceles trapezium of refracting material of refractive index
2 and dimension
of sides being 5cm, 5cm, 10cm and 5cm. The angle of minimum deviation by this
when light is incident from air and emerges in air is :
1
(A) 22 (B) 45° (C) 30° (D) 60°
2
59. The side of the cube is '' and point charges are kept at each corner as
shown in diagram. Interaction electrostatic potential energy of all the
charges is :
4kq2 3 kq2
(A) (B)
3
2kq2 kq 2
(C) (D)
3 3
60. In the figure a part of electric circuit is given. The value of each resistance is R and current in some parts is
shown in the diagram. Then current in AB branch is :
RESONANCE P1P020111C0 - 19
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Answer Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
62. A positive charge q is placed inside a neutral hollow conducting sphere of radius R,
as shown in figure. Whole system is placed in uniform external vertical electric field
pointing downward (line PCQ is also vertical) then select the correct statement(s)
about electric field at point P. Point P is a point of the material inside the conductor.
(A) Electric field due to outer surface of sphere at point P is zero
q
(B) Magnitude of electric field due to inner surface of sphere at point P is
9 0 R 2
(D) Direction of resultant electric field at point P due to charge q and hollow sphere is vertically upward
RESONANCE P1P020111C0 - 20
63. A cubical box is used to keep drinks cold in a bus. Surface area of each face is 0.80 m 2 and each wall
has thickness 2.00 cm. It is filled with ice and water which remains at 0ºC. Temperature of outside
each wall is 30ºC then : (Thermal conductivity of material of box = 1 × 10–2 w/m–k) (Latent heat of
fusion of ice = 3.2 × 105 J/kg)
(A) Total heat current in the box is 60 J/s (B) Total heat current in the box is 72 J/s
(C) Mass of ice melted in 1 hour is 810 gm (D) Mass of ice melted in 1 hour is 690 gm
64. If the two slits of double slit experiment were moved symmetrically apart with small relative velocity v and the
distance between screen and mid–point of slits is fixed and equal to D. Consider a point P on the screen at
a distance x from central maxima then :
(A) Rate of change of number of fringes between central maxima and point P changes with respect to
xv
time is
D
(B) number of fringes contained between central maxima and point P increases with time
(C) fringe width decreases as time passes
(D) fringe width increases as time passes
65. A convex lens forms an image of a fixed object on a fixed screen. The
height of a sharp image on screen in this case is 9 cm. The lens is now
displaced along line PQ until a sharp image is again obtained on the screen.
The height of this image on the screen is 4 cm. The distance between the
object and the screen is 90 cm.
(A) The distance between the two position of the lens is 30 cm.
(B) The distance of the object from the lens in its first position is 36 cm.
(C) The height of the object is 6 cm.
(D) The focal length of the lens is 21.6 cm.
SECTION - III
Reasoning Type
This section contains 4 reasoning type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
RESONANCE P1P020111C0 - 21
66. STATEMENT–1: In coolige tube when high energy electrons strikes the target then x–rays are produced.
STATEMENT–2: Photons emitted due to transition between two atomic energy levels inside the atom is the
only reason of production of x–rays.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(E) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is False
67. STATEMENT–1: For a planet revolving around the sun in elliptical orbit, if the mass of planet is doubled for
the same orbit then areal velocity will be halved.
STATEMENT–2: Areal velocity of a planet is the ratio of its angular momentum about the sun to double of the
dA J
mass i.e. = , and J remains constant for a planet rotating in the orbit.
dt 2m
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(E) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is False
68. STATEMENT–1: The frequency and intensity of a light source are both doubled then saturation photocurrent
changes significantly.
STATEMENT–2: When frequency and intensity of a light source both are doubled then kinetic energy of
emitted electrons is doubled.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(E) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is False
RESONANCE P1P020111C0 - 22
69. STATEMENT–1: When a dielectric slab of mass m is
released between the fixed and horizontal plates of capacitor,
it falls freely (symbols have their usual meanings).
STATEMENT–2: Slab has no net charge so in uniform electric
field it will not experience any net electric force.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
(E) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is False
SECTION - IV
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 multiple choice questions.
Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
RESONANCE P1P020111C0 - 23
70. Calculate maximum velocity of the particle with which it should enter so that it complete a half–circle in
magnetic region :
(A) 2 m/s (B) 2.5 m/s (C) 3 m/s (D) 4 m/s
71. In previous question, if particle enters perpendicularly with velocity 48 m/s in magnetic region. Then, how
much time will it spend in magnetic region :
11 7 13 17
(A) sec. (B) sec. (C) sec. (D) sec.
360 360 360 360
72. In the previous question find the change in angular momentum of particle w.r.t. centre of its circular path
during its motion in magnetic field :
(A) 1152 kg.m2/s (B) 576 kg.m2/s (C) 2304 kg.m2/s (D) zero
73. Charge on plate 1, when separation between (1) and (2) becomes 3 is :
q q q q
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 6 2
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
74. Current in wire when separation between plates (1) and (2) becomes 4 is :
qv qv qv qv
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 16 4 32
RESONANCE P1P020111C0 - 24
Name of the Candidate Roll Number
I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information
shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.
-------------------------------- --------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator