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LEVEL III - LIQUID PENETRANT

1. The size of a Penetrant indication depends on:


a. The size of the discontinuity.
b. The flaw entrapment efficiency.
c. The method of Penetrant testing.
d. All of the above.
e. Only a and c above.

2. What type of small indication is the easiest to see?


a. A fine, short indication
b. A wide, short indication
c. A fine, long indication
d. A shallow, short indication.

3. Capillary action is fastest in which of the following?


a. A wide, long crack
b. A long, dirt-filled crack
c. A fine, clean crack
d. A wide, shallow crack.

4. Which of the following is an advantage of background


fluorescence?
a. Background reduces the contrast of an indication.
b. Background indicates that the part was not over-washed.
c. Background reveals an excessive emulsification time.
d. Background is hard to remove when a high sensitive
Penetrant is applied to rough or porous surfaces.

5. Which sensitivity test specimen is the most practical for


comparing in-service Penetrant with a sample of fresh
unused Penetrant?
a. Cracked aluminum block
b. Cracked chrome plate specimens
c. A part with a known crack
d. A meniscus iens.

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6. A visible dye Penetrant is not as sensitive as most
fluorescent dye penetrants. Why?
a. A red visible dye needs a thicker threshold film.
b. A visible dye does not emit light to attract the eye.
c. A thick developer coat to provide a good white
background can mask an indication
d. All of the above.
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

7. The property that controls the rate of penetration of the


penetrant into a discontinuity is the:
a. Viscosity of the Penetrant
b. Surface tension of the penetrant.
c. Volatility of the penetrant.
d. Wetting action of the penetrant.
e. All of the above.

8. The ability of the penetrant to penetrate a flaw is


controlled by its:
a. Surface tension.
b. Contact angle.
c. Viscosity
d. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

9. A penetrant must be lighter than water so that water


contamination will always sink to the bottom of the tank.
This property is related to the:
a. Viscosity.
b. Surface tension
c. Volatility
d. Specific gravity

10. It is often recommended that chloride content be limited


to what percent of the penetrant?
a. 0.01 %
b. 0.1 %
c. 1.0 %
d. 1.1 %

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11. It is often recommended that sulp0hur content by limited
to what percent of the penetrant?
a. 0.01 %
b. 0.1 %
c. 1.0 %
d. 1.1 %

12. Activity, viscosity, and water tolerance are the three


properties of:
a. Lipophilic emulsifiers.
b. Post-emulsified penetrants.
c. Hydrophilic emulsifiers
d. Wet developers.

13. Lipophilic emulsifiers are used full-strength as received.


The recommended emulsifier dwell time for a medium
sensitivity (Group[ V) penetrant, depending on the
surface roughness, is:
a. ½ to 3 minutes.
b. 1 to 3 minutes.
c. 2 to 5 minutes.
d. 5 to 20 minutes.

14. What test best indicates the overall performance of an


emulsifier?
a. Penetrant tolerance test
b. Water tolerance test
c. Water Wash ability test
d. Viscosity and activity balance.

15. Which of the following is not recommended in the use of


removers in the solvent-removed method:
a. Wipe with a clean, lint-free cloth.
b. Wipe with a clean, solvent-dampened cloth.
c. Flush with a water spray.
d. Flush the surface with a solvent spray.

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16. The primary requirement of a developer is to form an
indication. Essential developer action is to:
a. Draw a sufficient amount of penetrant from a flaw to form
an indication.
b. Expand the width to the indication to make it detectable
by the eye.
c. Decrease the brightness of the dye above bulk
brightness.
d. All of the above.
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above.

17. For dip tank applications, which developer requires the


least maintenance and quality test?
a. Dry
b. Water-suspended
c. Solvent-suspended
d. Water-soluble.

18. Which of the following surface conditions is not


classified as a soil?
a. Residues from previous penetrant inspections
b. Smeared metal from machining or polishing
c. Lubricating oil
d. Scale.
e. All the above are classified as soils

19. Which of the following cleaning methods should be


used to remove smeared metal?
a. Etching
b. Abrasive cleaning
c. Salt bath descaling
d. Ultrasonic degreasting

20. What cleaning method is recommended to remove paint


and varnish before penetrant testing?
a. Shot blasting
b. Solvent
c. Acid etching
d. Vapor degreasing.

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21. Which application method provides the greatest
sensitivity?
a. Keep the part continuously submerged in the penetrant
during the dwell time.
b. Dip the part into the penetrant; remove and drain for the
remainder of the dwell time.
c. Apply the penetrant with a brush; continue applying
penetrant to keep the surface fluid.
d. All of the above provide equal sensitivities.

22. A penetrant that has a higher viscosity than one


previously used requires what adjustment in the dwell
time?
a. Viscosity doesn’t influence dwell time.
b. Higher viscosity requires an increase in dwell time.
c. Higher viscosity requires a decrease in dwell time
d. None of the above.

23. Which of the following is not a good method to apply


emulsifier to remove surface penetrant?
a. Spraying
b. Brushing
c. Dipping
d. Flowing

24. Hydrophilic and Lipophilic are types of:


a. Penetrants.
b. Emulsifiers.
c. Developers.
d. Removers.

25. Which is the proper procedure to remove the excess


solvent removable penetrant:
a. Wipe off the surplus with toweling; remove the
background with toweling dampened with remover.
b. Wipe off the surplus with toweling; remove the
background with toweling saturated with remover.
c. Flush the penetrant off the surface by spraying.
d. Wash the surface with a rag saturated with remover.

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26. What is the usual emulsifier dwell time range for a
Group VI penetrant in a lipophilic emulsifier?
a. ½ to 3 minutes
b. 1 to 5 minutes
c. 2 to 10 minutes
d. 3 to 20 minutes

27. Which of the following developers is capable of


producing the greatest system sensitivity?
a. Dry
b. Water-soluble
c. Water-suspended
d. Nonaqueous

28. Which of the following developers is the easiest to


remove?
a. Solvent-suspended
b. Water-suspended
c. Dry powder
d. Water-soluble

29. By which method should non-aqueous developer be


applied?
a. Dipping
b. Spraying
c. Fogging
d. Brushing

30. The first step in preparing a penetrant procedure is to


determine:
a. How fine a discontinuity a method can detect.
b. What sizes of discontinuities are in the part.
c. What size and type of discont9inuities it is necessary to
detect.
d. The cost of the inspection.

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31. Post cleaning would be very important in situations
where any residue of penetrant or developer might
combine with other materials while the part is in service
as it might produce:
a. A contrasting background
b. False penetrant indications
c. A fatigue crack
d. Corrosive action

32. Lipophilic and hydrophilic emulsifiers should be applied


by which of the following methods?
a. Dipping
b. Spraying
c. Flowing on
d. Any of the above.

33. Which of the materials listed is not usually included in a


portable penetrant kit?
a. Penetrant
b. Emulsifier
c. Solvent-suspended developer
d. Solvent remover.

34. What type of light is used in a 100 watt black light?


a. Incandescent
b. Fluorescent
c. Sodium vapor
d. High pressure mercury vapor.

35. The wash nozzle should provide what type of spray for
water –washable penetrant?
a. A very fine soft spray
b. A coarse soft spray
c. A coarse brisk spray
d. A hard scrubbing spray.

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36. Which of the following fluorescent indications would
most likely represent a tight or contaminated crack?
a. A line of bright fluorescent sports
b. A wide bright line
c. One small spot
d. A cluster of spots.

37. A heat treatment crack would most likely show which


type of fluorescent indication?
a. A fine, blue-white indication
b. An intermittent fine line of indications
c. A bright yellow-green indication
d. A line of bright dots

38. Forgings laps can be partially welded along their length.


They can be full of scale in some instances sometimes
they are deep and light. Which of the following
indications is probably not from a forging lap?
a. A wavy, intermittent line of bright dots
b. A short, sharp, fine indication
c. A curved, bright line
d. An intermitted line, somewhat fuzzy and dull

39. A round group of dot-type indications is detected in a


casting. Which of the following discontinuities is
suspect?
a. Quench crack
b. Mis-run
c. Hot tear
d. Gas porosity

40. Stress corrosion can show as very fine, sharp, jagged


indications. It is also characteristic that a number of
small, sharp parallel indications are found. Which of the
following developers would be best to use if stress
corrosion was suspected?
a. Dry powder
b. Water-suspended
c. Solvent-suspended
d. Water soluble

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41. In the Inspection of turbine blade4s the Inspector wiped
the indications off the leading edge and reapplied the
developer. Some of the small indications did not return;
some of the larger indications reappeared. What is the
proper evaluation?
a. Irrelevant indications
b. False indications
c. Fine, shallow, tight cracks which held a very small amount
of penetrant the indication will not redevelop
d. The wrong developer was used

42. A very fine visible indication was detected as the


inspector set the part aside for later inspection. Several
hours later, the indication could not be found Why?
a. The inspector did not really see an indication initially
b. The indication was irrelevant.
c. The indication had bled out laterally into the coat of
developer and had disappeared.
d. Any of the above was likely

43. Which of the following conditions influence(s) the


persistence of an indication?
a. Pre-cleaning
b. Type of penetrant and its dye system
c. Processing procedure
d. Developer type
e. All of the above

44. An indication may be which of the following?


a. Discontinuity
b. Non-relevant
c. Defect
d. All of the above.

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45. Which of the following characteristics of a fluorescent
penetrant indication can be used to evaluate the type
and cause of the discontinuity?
a. Brightness
b. Size and shape
c. Location
d. Persistence
e. All of the above

46. Which of the following is not an irrelevant indication?


a. Bleeding from a press fit
b. Bleeding from faying surfaces
c. Porosity indications seen in a casting during service
maintenance inspection
d. Streaks and background from poorly washed parts

47. Recording penetrant indications for documentation and


illustration is important. Which of the following
recording methods can provide the most information?
a. Photography
b. Sketching
c. Replication
d. Lifting the indication with tape

48. Which of the following is not a fabrication process for


metals?
a. Casting
b. Heat treating
c. Forging
d. Welding

49. Which of the following is not a casting discontinuity/


a. Stringer
b. Shrinkage
c. Porosity
d. Cold shut

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50. Which of the following discontinuities in a raw sand
casting can be detected with penetrants?
a. Hot tears
b. Cold shuts
c. Porosity
d. All of the above

51. Which type of penetrant test was developed primarily for


castings?
a. Solvent-removed fluorescent penetrant
b. Water-washable fluorescent penetrant
c. Post-emulsification visible penetrant
d. Post-emulsification fluorescent penetrant

52. Which of the following penetrant methods is


recommended for production inspection of forgings?
a. Solvent-removed fluorescent penetrant
b. Water-washable fluorescent penetrant
c. Post-emulsification visible penetrant
d. Post-emulsification fluorescent penetrant

53. Welds at contruction sites are usually tested with which


of the following
a. Visible dye penetrant, solvent-removed
b. Post-emulsified penetrant, solvent-suspended developer
c. Water-washable visible ~ enetrant, dry developer
d. Fluorescent penetrant, solvent-removed.

54. Penetrant testing used for maintenance inspection of


aircraft must have the highest sensitivity. Which of the
following penetrant techniques would have the highest
sensitivity?
a. Visible solvent removed penetrant with nonaqueous
developer
b. Fluorescent solvent removed penetrant with nonaqueous
developer
c. Visible water washable penetrant with nonaqueous wet
developer
d. Fluorescent post emulsifiable penetrant with dry
developer

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55. Which of the following are likely to be found in a weld?
a. Mis-run
b. Crater cracks
c. Laps
d. Shrinkage porosity

56. Which of the following is not a welding discontinuity?


a. Slag inclusion
b. Lack of root penetration
c. Cold shut
d. longitudinal crack

57. Which of the following methods would not require the


removal of slag and oxides prior to testing?
a. FCAW
b. SMAW
c. SAW
d. All of the above require cleaning.

58. Which of the following is not a method for working


wrought metals?
a. Extruding
b. Rolling
c. Drawing
d. Electro-forming

59. Which of the following is not found in forged metal?


a. Inclusions
b. Die tears
c. Laps
d. Chevrons
e. Lack of fusion.

60. Penetrants may not show which of the following in a


forging unless it is pickled?
a. Inclusions
b. Laminations
c. Bursts
d. Quench cracks

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61. The first step in evaluating the use of penetrant on a
plastic material is to:
a. Degrease the part.
b. Check the penetrant test materials compatibility with the
plastic.
c. Apply a water-washable fluorescent penetrant.
d. Remove oxidation from the surface.

62. What is the minimum dwell time frequently


recommended for Group VII penetrant for detecting
stress corrosion cracking?
a. 30 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 240 minutes

63. Penetrant quality control tests are comparison tests in


most cases. How is the comparison standard obtained?
a. A sample is retained from an unused batch of penetrant
or emulsifier.
b. A sample is obtained from a centralized qualifying
agency.
c. A composite running sample is maintained from new
material over a time span.
d. Standard samples are obtained from the National Bureau
of Standards

64. Quality control tests of in-service penetrant materials


are necessary to determine?
a. Gif the in-use penetrant materials are as effective as new
penetrant materials.
b. If the method of penetrant removal provides minimum
background without over-removal.
c. If the penetrant materials are as effective as the
specification requires.
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘b’ above

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65. How does recracking the aluminum test block at 800º F
(427º C) affect its sensitivity?
a. Decreases sensitivity because cracks are enlarged
b. Increases sensitivity because existing cracks contract and
become tighter
c. does not affect sensitivity
d. None of the above, since recracking cannot be
accomplished effectively

66. Which of the following combinations of physical


properties of a liquid has the most effect on its
penetrating properties?
a. Wetability and surface tension
b. Surface tension and contact angle
c. Capillarity, wetability, and surface tension
d. Specific gravity and viscosity

67. Scratches on a surface will cause a drop of penetrant to


spread:
a. Faster
b. Slower
c. To the nearest scratch and then stop spreading.
d. Move slowly if the penetrant is of high viscosity.

68. What effect does viscosity have on the penetranting


properties of penetrant?
a. It has no effect.
b. It influences the rate of penetration.
c. It influences the brightness of a fluorescent penetrant
d. It produces variations in the dye concentration in a visible
dye penetrant.

69. Which of the following properties of a fluorescent dye


penetrant is the least important?
a. Viscosity
b. Capillarity
c. Fluorescent brightness
d. Contamination resistance

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70. The spot caused by contaminated penetrant in a
meniscus lens test should compare in which way with
the standard penetrant?
a. It should be smaller than the standard
b. It should be larger than the standard
c. It should be the same as the
d. Its size is irrelevant, brightness is what is measured in a
meniscus lens test.

71. A fluorescent penetrant dye changes to a blue-white


color during a brightness or fading test. Why?
a. The booster dye is fading
b. The color forming dye is fading
c. The black light has shifted in wavelength.
d. This condition is not possible

72. Accurate water content in a penetrant or emulsifier can


be determined by:
a. The ASTM D-95 xylene test.
b. The water-break test.
c. The water tolerance test.
d. An antifreeze hydrometer.

73. Flaw entrapment efficiency refers to;


a. The ability7 of a penetrant to penetrate into and be
trapped by a discontinuity
b. The ability of a penetrant to produce an indication that is
large enough to be seen
c. The rate at which a penetrant enters a discontinuity
d. A above plus the ability to be drawn from the discontinuity
back to the surface

74. Which of the following developers is purchased as a dry


powder?
a. Dry
b. Water-suspended
c. Water-soluble
d. All of the above

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75. What property of a liquid is measured by a hydrometer?
a. Temperature
b. Density
c. Specific gravity
d. Viscosity

76. Which of the following test object factors


influence(s)penetrant testing?
a. Rough surface
b. complex configurations
c. Objects with smooth machined areas and rough cast
areas
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

77. What is the best procedure for controlling the overall


quality of penetrant inspection processes?
a. Process control
b. Careful personnel selection and supervision
c. Application technique development
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

78. As sensitivity requirements increase, how should the


process control and audit procedures be changed?
a. The process control period should be shortened.
b. The audit period should be shortened.
c. Process requirements should be more specific.
d. All of the above
e. Only ‘a’ and ‘c’ above

79. In addition to personnel qualifications, control of


penetrant materials, and process audits, what else is
needed to assure that the penetrant process is in
control?
a. Calibration of instruments and gauges
b. Checking of intensity of inspection lights
c. Cleanliness of the area
d. Maintenance of all equipment
e. All of the above

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80. A reliable penetrant inspection requires that:
a. All schedules are met.
b. The procedures meet government requirements.
c. The penetrant tests are reproducible.
d. 100% of all discontinuities in the parts be detected.

The following questions are based on Liquid Penetrant


Sample Specification PT-001 which may be used in answering
these questions;. Do not make any markson the examination
or on the specification. Mark all your answers on the answer
sheet provided.

81. A lot of small parts must be penetrant inspected. The


parts are very oily. The precleaning of these parts could
best be accomplished by:
a. A soapy, hot water wash
b. Using a vapor degreaser
c. Using acetone and hand wiping the parts
d. Any of the above methods would be acceptable

82. Penetrant inspection of a 7/8” thick forging reveals one


indication that measures 3/16” x ½”. This would be
interpreted as:
a. An acceptable linear indication
b. An unacceptable linear indication
c. An acceptable rounded indication
d. An unacceptable rounded indication

83. The penetrant would be applied:


a. As soon as possible after the precleaning operation
b. After a five minute wait after the precleaning operation
c. After a two to ten minute wait after the precleaning
operation
d. Either ‘b’ or ‘c’ would be acceptable

84. The actual Liquid Penetrant operation must be


performed only by a Level II or III.
a. True
b. False

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85. For weld inspection you must:
a. Preclean and cover with penetrant the weld area and
base metal for one inch on each side of the weld
b. Preclean and cover with penetrant the weld area and
base metal for one half inch on each side of the weld
c. Preclean two inches of base metal on either side of the
weld
d. Preclean the weld and one inch of base metal on each
side of the weld

86. The best method of removing the excess penetrant from


small threaded parts is to first wipe off most of the
penetrant and then quickly dip the parts in the penetrant
remover and wipe with a clean dry paper towel.
a. True
b. False

87. After removal of the excess penetrant the developer


would be applied:
a. Immediately after removal of penetrant
b. By dipping after a 5 minute wait
c. By spraying after a 5-10 minute wait
d. None of the above

88. A Level I may perform the Liquid Penetrant operation


but the evaluation of indications must be performed by a
certified Level III.
a. True
b. False

89. The purpose of waiting 7 minutes after application of the


developer before performing the inspection is to:
a. Allow the developer to dry sufficiently
b. Allow sufficient time so a very large party or area can be
covered
c. Allow sufficient time for the indications to form
d. Allow sufficient time for the Level I to find the Level III to
perform the inspection

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90. To inspect a seven foot long longitudinal seam weld you
would use Turbo Solvent Removable Penetrant
materials or some equivalent brand provided they are
certified materials.
a. True
b. False

91. Liquid Penetrant Inspection of a piping weld reveals six


randomly distributed rounded indications each
measuring 1/8” in diameter and twelve rounded
indications each measuring 1/16” in diameter. All
indications are within a 6 square inch area. This
condition would be:
a. Acceptable
b. Unacceptable

92. Inspection of a valve body reveals numerous small


rounded indications all less than 1/16” diameter all
within a 6 square inch area. This would be interpreted
as:
a. Spongy type shrink
b. Gas porosity
c. Micro-porosity
d. Non-relevant indications

93. In order to liquid penetrant inspect a seven foot long


seam weld it would be necessary to:
a. Use a water washable penetrant
b. Work very fast, using only the minimum times
c. Inspect only a small section at a time
d. Apply penetrant to the entire weld but only remove the
excess penetrant from a small area at a time so you don’t
exceed the developing time.

94. The final inspection report must be:


a. Stamped by the person performing the liquid penetrant
test
b. Signed by the Level III
c. Signed by the person evaluating the indications
d. None of the above

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95. The liquid developer may be applied by:
a. Dipping
b. Spraying
c. Brushing
d. Spraying with compressed air apparatus provided a filter
is placed in the air line

96. When a part is found to be unacceptable, before it is


repaired a sketch or map of the part shall be prepared
which shows the location, size, and distribution of all
indications.
a. True
b. False

97. Figure 1 (found on the next page) represents the


penetrant indications found on an area of a seamless
pipe with a ½” wall. Evaluate the indications
a. Accept
b. Reject

98. Figure II (found on the nest page) represents the


penetrant indications found on a 2-1/2” thick area of a
valve body casting. Evaluate the indications.
a. Accept
b. Reject

99. Figure III (found on the next page)( represents the


penetrant indications found on a n area of a weldment
for an ASME Section III Class I Valve. Evaluate the
indications.
a. Accept
b. Reject

100. Figure IV (found on the next page) represents the


penetrant indications found on a hard faced area.
Evaluate the indications.
a. Accept
b. Reject

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LEVEL III - LIQUID PENETRANT
ANSWERS
Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS Q.NO. ANS
1 D 31 D 61 B 91 B
2 B 32 D 62 D 92 D
3 C 33 B 63 A 93 C
4 B 34 D 64 D 94 C
5 A 35 C 65 A 95 B
6 E 36 A 66 C 96 A
7 A 37 C 67 A 97 B 4 mm
8 D 38 B 68 B 98 B 4 mm
9 D 39 D 69 A
B less than 1mm gap
10 C 40 C 70 D
99 & more than 10
11 C 41 C 71 B defects in 6 sq in
12 A 42 C 72 A
13 A 43 E 73 A 100 A
14 C 44 D 74 D
15 D 45 E 75 B
16 E 46 C 76 E
17 A 47 A 77 D
18 B 48 D 78 D
19 A 49 A 79 E
20 B 50 D 80 C
21 B 51 B 81 C
22 B 52 D 82 B
23 B 53 A 83 C
24 B 54 B 84 B
25 A 55 B 85 D
26 A 56 C 86 B
27 D 57 D 87 C
28 C 58 D 88 A
29 B 59 C 89 C
30 C 60 A 90 B

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