Nakar, Sean Guiller G.

PARA LAB

ME7-0

1. Which fluke is associated with bladder cancer?

A. Paragonimus westermaniB. Metagonimus yokogawaiC. Schistosoma haematobiumD.

Schistosoma mansoni infection

2. Heterophyes heterophyes is more commonly seen in

A. Oriental or Chinese liver flukeB. Human intestinal flukeC. Schistosoma mansoni infectionD.
Dogs, cats, and other fish eating mammal

3. Schistosoma haematobium is commonly known as

A. Blood flukeB. Swamp fever C. Water plants D. In urine

4. Flukes that are unisexual are called

A. HermaphroditicB. SchistosomaC. Schistosoma mansoniD. Acetabula

5. The second intermediate host for Clonorchis sinesis is

A. Inside freshwater fishB. On the outside of fishC. inside crab or crayfishD. outside fish

6. The diagnostic stage of Fasciolopsis buski is

A. Outside fishB. Contaminated waterC. Swamp feverD. Eggs in feces

7. The larval stage that leaves the snail is called

A. CercariaB. MetacercariaC. MiracidiaD. Acetabula

8. Schistosoma mansoni is commonly known as

A. Eggs in fecesB. outside fishC. Blood flukeD. In urine

9. Characteristic difference for Paragonimus westermani egg is

A. On the outside of fishB. Metagonimus yokogawai

C. Eggs in feces D. Terminal shell thickening

10. When schistosoma cercaria penetrates skin losing its tail

A. A schistosomule is B. Schistosoma mansoni eggC. Flukes that are unisexual are calledD.
Fasciolopsis buski

Panes, Jelieka
ME7

1. Lid-like structure that flips open to release its contents for further development
A. Operculum
B. Suckers
C. Spines
D. Abopercular thickening

2. All trematodes are hermaphroditic except?

A. Liver flukes
B. Blood flukes
C. Intestinal flukes
D. Lung flukes

3. Eggs of this trematodes are embryonated when passed out in stool and hatched in water
under suitable condition
A. Schistosome spp.
B. Faciola gigantica
C. Faciolopsis buski
D. Heterophyes heterophyes

4. Katayama fever is due to infestation of what trematode?

A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Schistosoma mekongi

5. Largest trematode that can infect man?

A. Faciola hepatica
B. Faciola gigantica
C. Faciolopsis buski
D. Metagonimus yokogawai

6. Miracidium is infective to?

A. Snail
B. Crustacean
C. Dog
D. Man

7. What kind of snail is the 1st intermediate host of Clonorchis sinensis?

A. Sundathelphusa philippina
B. Gyraulus convexciusculus
C. Bulinus fuchsiana
D. Antemelania asperata

8. What is the smallest and deadliest trematode that infects man?

A. Clonoschis sinensis
B. Faciolopsis buski
C. Metagonimus yokogawai
D. Heterophyes heyerophyes
 9. This trematode produce adult worms that measures 20-75mm in length and 8-20mm in
width
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Faciola hepatica
C. Clonorchis cinensis
D. Echinostoma ilocanum

10. Also known as Garison’s fluke

A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Faciola hepatica
C. Clonorchis cinensis
D. Echinostoma ilocanum

BAREN, FRESHA JOYCE B. PARA LAB

BSMT3 ME 7-O GROUP 1

1. The following specie is a member of Class Trematoda except:

A. Metagonimus yokogawai
B. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Schistosoma haematobium

2. The miracidium of Schistosoma haematobium penetrates what snail intermediate host?

A. Bulinus snail
B. Oncomelania snail
C. Bulinus snail
D. Planorbis snail

3. Bloodflukes ova with pale yellow color and minute lateral spine.
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Schistosoma haematobium
C. Schistosoma intercalatum
D. Schistosoma japonicum

4. A parasite of sheep and goats causing a disease known as Liver rot in humans.
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Gardia lamblia

5. Which of the following is the correct second intermediate host of Clonorchis sinensis?
A. Segmentina spp.
B. Alocinma spp.
C. Parafossarulus spp.
D. B and C
6. Parasite that infect human lungs resembles a coffee bean shaped appearance
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Echinostoma ilocanum
D. Strongyloides stercoralis

7. Closely resembles Heterophyes heterophyes but slightly larger and with no genital sucker
A. Hymenolepis nana
B. Dipylidium caninum
C. Metagonimus yokogawai
D. Fasciola hepatica

8. A straw colored operculated ovoid eggs same with Fasciola hepatica

A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Taenia solium
D. Echinostoma ilocanum

9. All is correct except:

A. P. westermani – with spiny tegument
B. M. yokogawai – with genital sucker
C. F. buski – no cephalic cone
D. None of the above

10. Class Trematodes is belonging to what Phylum?

A. Phylum Nemathelminthes
B. Phylum Ciliophoran
C. Phylum Apicomplexa
D. Phylum Platyhelminthes

Nachor, Clarice Faye H.

ME 7

1. Infection from this Intestinal fluke is self-terminating in two months.

A. Echinostoma ilocanum
B. Heterophyes heterophyes
C.Fasciolopsis buski
D. Clonorchis sinensis

2. Fluke usually acquired by eating infested watercress.

A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Opisthorchis felineus

3. Blood fluke with the most number of testes.

A. Vesical Blood Fluke
B. Oriental Blood Fluke
C. Manson's Blood Fluke
D. NOTA

4. Intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica

A. Lymnea philippinensis
B. Aloncima spp.
C. Segmentina spp.
D. Gyraulus convexiusculus

5. Only Fluke with snails as both its Intermediate host.

A. Von siebold fluke
B. Giant intestinal fluke
C. Chinese liver fluke
D. Garrison's fluke

6. Blood fluke with an non-operculated egg with a lateral spine

A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma haematobium
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. NOTA

7. A Fluke with Fresh Mountain Crab as its 2nd Intermediate Fluke.

A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Paragonimus westermani

8. What larval stage that happens inside a snail?

A. Redia
B. Sporocyst
C. Miracidium
D. AOTA

9. Classified as the deadliest trematode.

A. Dwarf fluke
B. Garrison's fluke
C. Oriental lung fluke
D. Chinese liver fluke

10. Has Salmonoid fishes as its second intermediate host?

A. Cat liver fluke
B. Sheep liver fluke
C. Busk's fluke
D. Yokogawa's fluke
GROUP 2 CESTODES
AVERION, JOANNAH MARIE D. ME 7

GROUP2-CESTODES

1.Which of the following is not a usual site for Echinococcus granulosus infection in

humans?

a.Brain

b.Liver

c.Lung

d.Genitalia

2.Wha tis the common name of Hymenolepis diminuta?

a.Rat tapeworm

b.Dwarf tapeworm

c.Beef tapeworm

d.Pork tapeworm

3.Free-swimminglarvaof D.latum

a.Strobila

b.Coracidium

c.Sparaganosis

d.Oncosphere

4.Head of a tapeworm

a.Scolex

b.Strobila

c.Sparaganosis

d.Oncosphere

5.Which of the following procedures would not be appropriate for diagnosing an

Infection with Echinococcus granulosus?

a.Serologic procedure ,such as ELISA

b.O & P examination of stool specimen

c.CT scan of suspect organ

d. Biopsy of cyst

6.The egg of D.latum is unique among cestodes in that it contains which of the

following?

a.An operculum and terminal knob

b.Radial striations and oncosphere

c.An operculum and latera lspine

d.A ciliated rhabditiform larva

7.Which is preferred drug for treating intestinal infection by Taeniaspp.?

a.Praziquantel

b.Penicillin

c.Nicolasamide

d.Pentamidine

8.The cestode morphologic form characterized by a segmented appearance that

Houses male and female reproductive structures is referred to as a/an:

a.Scolex

b.Proglottid

c.Egg

d.Cyst

9.Characteristics of the cestodes include all of the following except:

a.They are hermaphroditic

b.They generally require intermediate host

c.Their laboratory diagnosis consists of finding larvae infeces

d.Their anatomic regions include the scolex, neck and strobila

10.Develops from a procercoid larva:

a.Sparaganosis

b.Scolex

c.Coracidium

d.Broodcapsule

Balangitan, Michelle H.

ME-7

GROUP 2 CESTODES

1. What is the common name of Taenia saginata? C

A. Pork tapeworm
B. Rat tapeworm
C. Beef tapeworm
D. Rat tapeworm

2. What is the size range of a Taenia Species Egg? A

A. 28-40 µm by 18-30 µm
B. 55 by 85 µm
C. Average size 45 by 38 µm
D. 30-60 µm

3. What are the sucking grooves on a D latum? A

A. Bothria
B. Tissue tapeworm
C. Egg in the cyclops
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
4. What is the common name of Hymenolepis nana? B
A. Rat tapeworm
B. Dwarf tapeworm
C. Dog or cat tapeworm
D. Broad fish tapeworm

5. In humans, Echinococcus granulosus infection results in which of the following? C

A. Eggs similar to those of H. nana
B. A nutritional deficiency
C. A hydatid cyst
D. Filariform larva

6. Most cestodes have a _ lifecycle. A

A. 2-Host
B. 1-host
C. 3-host
D. 4-host

7. What kind of body shape do cestodes have? A

A. Tape-like and segmented
B. Tale-like and unsegmented
C. Leaf-like and segmented
D. Leaf-life and unsegmented

8. What is the smallest tapeworm to infect humans? B

A. Embryonated eggs

B. Hydatid cyst disease

C. Hymenolepis nana

D. Coracidium

9. Echinococcus granulosus causes what type of disease? D

A. Diarrhoea

B. Alveolar echinococcus
 C. B12 deficiency

D. Hydatid disease

10. Not feeding dogs the uncooked offal of sheep is a preventative measure for which
cestode infection.
B

A. Taenia

B. Echinococcus

C. Hymenolepis nana

D. Diphyllobothrium

Salvador, Demi Ross C.

ME-7
Group 2 CESTODES
1. Which worms belong to the Taenidae family.
A. Taenia solium and saginata B. Hymenolepis C. Echinococcus D. Diphyllobothrium
Answer: A

2. Cestodes have male and female worms.

A. True B. False
Answer: A

3. Coracidia are free swimming embryos from pseudophyllidea.

A. True B. False
Answer: A

4. Diphyllobothrium is also known as

A. The dog tapeworm B. The pork tapeworm C. The beef tapeworm D. The fish tapeworm
Answer: D

5. Humans are accidental hosts of Taenia.

A. True B. False
Answer: A

6. Humans are not the only definitive hosts of Taenia solium and saginata
A. True B. False
Answer: B

7. This egg measures 30 - 45 um. It could be:

A. Diphyllobothrium B. Echinococcus C. T.saginata & T.solium D. hymenolepis
Answer: C

8. Foxes are the definitive hosts for E.granulosis.

A. True B. False
Answer: B

9. Diphyllobothrium is known to be able to cause a B12 deficiency.

A. True B. False
Answer: A

10. T.saginata can cause human cysticercosis.

A. True B. False
Answer: B

SABAL, Monica Louise C.

1. gets passively transported via blood or lymphatics to the liver, lungs, or other internal
organs where they develop into hydatid cysts.
A. Diphyllobothrium
B. B. Echinococcus
C. C. T.saginata & T.solium
D. D. hymenolepis
2. adults usually have 1,000 to 2,000 proglottids
A. Diphyllobothrium
B. B. Echinococcus
C. C. T.saginata
D. D. hymenolepis
3. immediately infective when passed with the stool and cannot survive more than 10 days
in the external environment
A. Taenia solium and saginata
B. Hymenolepis
C. Echinococcus
D. Diphyllobothrium
4. measuring up to 60 cm in length and 3 mm in width

a. Rat tapeworm
b. Dwarf tapeworm
c. Dog or cat tapeworm
d. Broad fish tapeworm
5. most often larval stages of the dog or cat flea Ctenocephalides spp.
a. 2-Host
b. 1-host
c. 3-host
d. 4-host
6. The cysticercoid remains in the flea as it matures from a larva into an adult 

A. TRUE
B. B. FALSE
7. T. solium adults have an average of 1,000 proglottids
A. TRUE
B. B. FALSE
8. In the animal’s intestine, the oncospheres hatch, invade the intestinal wall, and migrate to
the striated muscles, where they develop into hyatid cyst.

A. TRUE
B. B. FALSE
9. The adult tapeworms attach to the small intestine by their scolex 
a.Scolex
b.Proglottid
 c.Egg
d.Cyst
10. Diphyllobothrium is also known as
A. The dog tapeworm
B. The pork tapeworm
C. The beef tapeworm
D. The fish tapeworm

ANSWER QUESTIONS

B 1. Motility of this amoeba is sluggish, nonprogressive, with blunt

pseudopods.

A.Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite B.Entamoeba coli trophozoite

C.Entamoeba hartmanni trophozoite D.Entamoeba polecki trophozoite
B 2. What is the reservoir host of Balantidium coli?
A.Fish B..Pig C.Rat D.Cow
B 3. What is the large bean-shaped used for vegetation of Balantidium coli
trophozoite?
A.Micronucleus B.Macronucleus C.Cytostome D.Vestiulum
C 4. What is the route of transmission of Naegleria fowleri?
A.Eye B.Mouth C.Nasal D.Skin
C 5. The only one pathogenic intestinal ciliate.
A.Enteromonas hominis B.Retortamonas intestinalis
C.Balantidium coli D. none of the above
D 6. Motility of its trophozoite is progressive with hyaline and finger-like
pseudopods.
A.Entamoeba coli B.Entamoeba polecki
C.Entamoeba hartmanni D.Entamoeba histolytica
C 7. What is the diagnostic stage of Balantidium coli?
A.Trophozoite only B.Cyst only
C.Trophozoite and Cyst D. none of the above
B 8. Vegetative and Feeding stage of Amoeba
A.Cyst B.Trophozoite C.Adult D.Fertelized egg
D 9. All are Nonpathogenic/commensal Amoeba, except;
A.Entamoeba gingivalis B.Endolimax nana
C.Dientamoeba fragilis D.None of the above
D 10. Non-pathogenic Amoeba that commonly found inhabiting the buccal
cavity/gingival tissues.
 A.Entamoeba hystolitica B.Endolimax nana
C.Dientamoeba fragilis D.Entamoeba gingivalis
A 11. Free living amoeba that usually fatal and inhabitant of water

A. Acanthamoeba B. Entamoeba hystolitica

C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. none of the above
B 12. This is due to to conjunctival inoculation

A. Naegleria disease B. Acanthamoeba keratitis

C. Amoebic meningoencephalitis D. None of the above
C 13. A free-living amoeba that has a motile trophozoite with acanthopodia

A. Naegleria B. Balanditium coli C. Acanthamoeba

D. None of the above
B 14. Granulomatous Amebic encephalitis target

A. Spleen B. Brain C. Bone D. None of the above

B 15. What parasite that has a trophozoite with oval or spherical shape and
large macronucleus?

A. Retortamonas intestinalis B. Balantidium coli

C. Trichomonas hominis D. Enteromonas hominis
A 16. Balantidium size of cyst

A. 45-65um B. 75-80um C. 25-35um D. 105-110um

A 17. What intestinal ciliate is the largest intesitinal protozoan?

A. Balantidium coli B. Enteromonas hominis

C. Trichomonas vaginalis D. none of the above
D 18. What parasite that can acquire infection by fecal-oral or ingestion?

A. Trypanosoma B. Plasmodium
C. Leishmania D. None of the above
C 19. Habitat of Balantidium coli

A. Small intesitine B. Large intestine

C. Colon D. None of the above
A 20. What parasite that causes gastroenteritis in man?

A. Balantidium coli B. Enteromonas hominis

C. Giardia lamblia D. None of the above
A 21. Cytoplasm of Entamoeba histolytica

A.Finely granular B.Coarse C.Granulated D.None of the above

C 22. The trophozoite exhibits rapid, unidirectional, progressive movement,
achieved with the help of finger-like hyaline pseudopods.

A.Entamoeba coli B. Naegleria fowleri

C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Endolimax nana
B 23. Common associated disease or condition name of this parasite is Primary
 amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM).

A.Entamoeba gingivalis B. Naegleria fowleri

C. Entamoeba coli D.Entamoeba hartmanni
A 24. Group wherein parasites move by means of hair-like cytoplasmic
extensions

A.Ciliates B. Sporozoa C. Protozoa D. Amoeba

D 25. Considered as the largest protozoan known to humans

A.Toxoplasma gondii B. Blastocystis hominis

C. Cryptosporidium parvum D.Balantidium coli
B 26. Number of nuclei of Balantidium coli

A.One B. Two C. Three D. Four

A 27. Motility of Entamoeba hartmanni

A.Nonprogressive, finger-like pseudopods

B. Progressive, finger-like pseudopodia
C. Nonprogressive, blunt pseudopods
D. Sluggish, nonprogressive
D 28. Cytoplasmic inclusion of Endolimax nana trophozoite.

A.Epithelial cells B. Ingested red blood cells

C. Yeast cells D. Bacteria
A 29. Size range of Entamoeba coli cyst

A.8-35 µm B. 10-20 µm C. 4-12 µm D. 5-22 µm

C 30. Common associated disease or condition names of this parasite is

Granulomatous amebic encephalitis (GAE).

A.Entamoeba coli B. Endolimax nana

C. Acanthamoeba spp. D. Entamoeba coli

B 31. In Amoeba, excretion occurs through

A.Contractile vacuole B. Plasmalemma

C. Parapodia D. Nucleus
C 32. Entamoeba differs from amoeba in not having

A. Pseudopodia B. Nucleus C. Contractile vacuole D. Ectoplasm

A 33. In Amoeba, nutrition is

A. Holozoic B. Parasitic C. Saprobic D. Holophytic

C 34. Living amoeba is

A. Light green B. Pale blue C.Translucent D. Transparent

B 35. Posterior end of Amoeba is characterized by
 A. Amphid B. Lack of food vacuoles C. Uropygium D. Plasmid
C 36. Paramecium belongs to which group

A. Pseudopods B. Flagalletes C. Ciliates D. Sporozoans

B 37. This controls the function of a ciliate’s cell
A. Heterotroph B. Macronucleus C. micronucleus D. Trophonts
A 38. This controls reproduction and chromosomes.

A. Micronuclei B.Pseudopods C. Plasmodium D. Macronucleus

B 39. The numbers of nuclear divisions involved in a ciliate undergoing binary
fission is

A. Greater than conjugation

B. Lesser than conjugation
C. Equal to conjugation
D. None of these
C 40. How do ciliates reproduce?

A. Asexual B.Sexual C.Both asexual and sexual reproduce

D. None of these above

GROUP 3:

Anilao, Sherwin

Bustillo, Warren Paul

Flores, Antonette Nicole

Uy, Ashley

GROUP 4: FLAGELLATES AND SPOROZOA

Leader:

Carlos, Delailah I.

Members:

Abellera, Mel CLeo R.

Brito, Viviana Lexi

Sarenas, Jaimelyn O.

CARLOS, DELAILAH I.
_____B____1.) __________ is an organism that has an undulating membrane that extends for
half of the length of the organism.

A. T. hominis B. T. vaginalis C. T. tenax D. AOTA

_____A____2.) __________ is bilaterally symmetrical with a pointed anterior end and a

rounded posterior end, a parallel pair of axonemes, and a parabasal body.

A. G. lamblia B. T. vaginalis C. C. mesnili D. NOTA

_____C____3.) __________ has a prominent curved, cytostomal fibril borders the cytostome,
resembling a shepherd’s crook.

A. T. hominis B. G. lamblia C. C. mesnili D. T. vaginalis

_____D____4.) __________, although classified as flagellate, the flagella are rarely, if ever
visible.

A. T. vaginalis B. C. mesnili C. G. lamblia D. D. fragilis

_____A____5.) __________ are organisms that have a sexual cycle of reproduction known as
sporogony.

A. Plasmodium spp. B. Trichomonas spp. C. NOTA D. AOTA

_____C____6.-7.) __________ and __________, are malarial parasites that infect younger red
blood cells.

A. P. falcifarum, P. vivax B. P. ovale. P. falcifarum C. P. vivax, P. ovale D. NOTA

_____B____8.) __________ is the cycle that does not occur within the erythrocytes of humans /
host.

A. Intraerythrocytic B. Exoerythrocytic C. Endoerythrocytic D. All of the above

_____A____9.-10.) The flagellate or __________ are motile through long extensions of

cytoplasm known as __________.

A. Mastogiphora, flagella. B. Epimastigophora, cilia C. Trypomastigophora, pseudopods

D. Amastigophora, flagella

ABELLERA, MEL CLEO R.

_____B____1.-2.) Give the diagnostic and infective stage of G.lamblia

A. Eggs,larva B. Cyst and troph, cyst C. Cyst,troph D. Troph,cyst
_____D____3.) This parasite has elongated nucleus, cytostome is less distinct, parabasal body
is large, undulating membrane is short
A. T. Hominis B. Haemoflagellates C.T.cruzi D.T. Vaginalis
_____A____4.) These parasites are group of flagellates which habitually live in the blood or
tissues of man and other vertebrates.
A. Haemoflagellates B. Plasmodium spp. C. Trypanosoma spp. D. Leishmania spp.
_____D____5.) Causative agent of schizotrypanosomiasis or chagas disease?
A. T. vaginalis B. T. hominis C. T. gambiense D. T.cruzi
_____A____6.) Causative agent of west african trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness?
A. T. gambiense B. G. lamblia C. P. falcifarum D. T.cruzi
_____A____7.) Resides in human skin and is the causative agent of cutaneous leishmaniasis or
oriental boil.
A. L. donovani B.L. tropica C. L. brazilliensis D.T. gambiense
_____C____8.) Resides in the cutaneous and mucocutaneous parts of human body and is the
causative agent of espundia-a serious disease of buccal and nasal cavities.
A. L. donovani B. L. tropica C. L. brazilliensis D. T. gambiense
_____C____9.) What is the MOT for E. histolytica?
A. Skin penetration B. Skin inoculation C. Feco-oral route D. NOTA
_____C____10.) What causative agent of malaria in humans and animals?
A. Trypanosoma spp. B. Leishmania spp. C. Plasmodium spp. D. AOTA
 BRITO , VIVIANA LEXI

_____B____1.) Flagellates which are found in the gut of termite and digest dry wood called

A.Dichonymphus B.Trichonymphas C.Teranymphas D.Quadronymphus

_____B____2.) Flagellates which sessile nmarine and their single flagellum covered by a colar
is called.

A. Tetrad B. Choanoflegllatas C. Flagellates D. biflagellate

_____A____3.) Flagellates relyon dead or decomposing organic matter to obtain its

A. Food B. Air C. Water D.transport

_____B____4.) The cells of dinoflagellates are covered with shells of interlocking cellulose
plates, which sre impregnated with :

A. Calcium B. Silicates C. Phosphorus D. Sulfates

_____C____5.) Which of the following is a sporozoan?

A. Eimeria B. Monocystis C. Plasmodium D. AOTA

_____C____6.) The sporozoa are all internal________that typically have an infective cyst stage in their
life cycle. An example of sporozoa is the genus________which causes malaria.
A. ciliates ,plasmodium B. flagellates , plasmodium C. parasites,plasmodium

D. parasites,trypanosoma

_____A___7.) This flagellates Usually considered algae.mostly marine plankton, but they also

are common in freshwater habitats.

A. Dinoflagellates B. Choanoflaglellata C. Neither D. Either

_____B____8.) flagellate eukaryotes considered to be the closest living relatives of the animals.

And are collared flagellates having a funnel shaped collar of interconnected microvilli at the
base of a flagellum.

A. Dinoflagellates B. Choanoflaglellata C. Neither D. Either

_____A____9.) Sporozoa also know as :

A. Apicomplexa B. Schizogony C. Sporozoan D. NOTA

_____D____10.) Many sporozoans are parasitic and pathogenic species, except :

 A. Plasmodium B. Toxoplasma gondii C. Pneumocysts carinii D. chromista

SARENAS JAIMELYN O.
_____C____1.) Not classified under Atrial and Luminal Flagellates.
A. Genus Giardia B. Genus Chilomastix C. Genus Leishmania D.Genus Retortamonas
_____A____2.) With obliquely situated axoneme, with a pair of parabasal body with a remnants
of flagella.
A. Giardia lamblia B.Trichomonas tenax C.Retortamonas intestinalis
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
_____D____3.) Considered as effective but not conventional way of examining giardiasis.
A. Xray B. ELISA C.DFS D.Enteroest
_____B____4.) Laboratory Diagnosis of detecting Light infection of Giardia lamblia
A. X-ray B.Concentration Technique C.CT Scan D.Stool Exam
_____B____5.) Mode of transmission is by ingestion of trophozoite from faecally contaminated
food and water
A. Trichomonas tenax Trichomonas hominis C. Giardia lamblia D.Chilomastix mesnili
_____A____6.) Specimen collection is by Oral Scrappings
A. Trichomonas tenax B. Enteromonas hominis C. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Trichomonas hominis
_____C____7.) Lemon cyst / Nipple cyst shaped parasite.
A. Giardia lamblia B. Enteromonas hominis C. Chilomastix mesnili D. Leishmania donovani
_____D____8.) Organ of Locomotion.
A. Siderophil Granules B. Costa C.Axostyle D.Undulating membrane
_____A____9.) Plasmodium that is most common in the Philippines and is known as the most
severe.
A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium vivax C.Plasmodium ovale
D.Plasmodium malariae
_____D____10.) Infects mature/ older RBCs
A. Plasmodium falciparum B.Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale
D.Plasmodium malariae

Group 5 Parasitology Laboratory (Me7-O)

Miscellaneous Protozoa

RACELA
1. What are the characteristics of a Balantidium coli nuclei?
a. It has 2 nuclei.
b. It has a kidney-shaped macronucleus.
c. It has a small spherical micronucleus.
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
2. What are other features of a Balantidium coli trophozoite?
a. It has one or two contractile vacuoles.
b. Cytoplasm may contain food vacuoles and/or bacteria.
c. Small cytostome present.
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
3. B. coli infections are transmitted by:
a. Ingesting contaminated food and water.
b. Oral-fecal.
c. Transmission through person to person.
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
4. B. coli life cycle is similar to that of Entamoeba histolytica.
a. True
b. False
c. Both
d. Neither
5. Specimen of choice for the recovery of Isospora belli oocyst are:
a. Fresh feces
b. Duodenal contents
c. Both A&B
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
6. Morphologic form within the oocyst is known as a:
a. Sporoblast
b. Sporocyst
c. Both A&B
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
7. What is the intermediate host for I. belli?
a. Pigs
b. Cattles
c. Both A&B
d. NONE OF THE ABOVE
8. What are the commonly noted clinical symptoms when infected with I. belli?
a. Chronic diarrhea
b. Abdominal pain
c. Anorexia
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
9. How many sporocyst does a mature oocyst of Sarcocystis spp. have?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
d. 5
10. Sarcocystis spp. mature oocyst cell wall appearance
a. Clear
b. Colorless
c. Double layered
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Delos Santos

1. Animals that are routinely infected with a protozoan or parasite are termed as
a. Definitive host
b. Intermediate host
c. Reservoir host
d. Parasitic host
2. For the malaria protozoa, mosquitoes are the definitive host.
a. True
b. False
3. Laboratory diagnosis of Entamoeba histolytica depends on identification in the.
a. Blood
b. Urine
c. Saliva
d. Stool
4. African sleeping sickness is caused by which of the following protozoa?
a. Entamoeba histolytica
b. Trypanosoma gambiense
c. Leishmania donovani
d. Plasmodium vivax
5. Most commonly Plasmodium ovale and Plasmodium malariae causes malaria in
humans.
a. True
b. False
6. After how many days of infection by mosquitoes do the symptoms for malaria occur?
a. 1-2
b. 3-5
c. 10-16
d. 20-30
7. The schizonts enter which body part?
a. bloodstream
b. spleen
c. Mouth
d. Liver
8. How much time does it take for rupture of infected erythrocytes with P. vivax?
a. 24h
b. 48h
c. 72h
d. 96h
9. The disease espundia is caused by which of the following protozoa?
a. Leishmania brasiliensis
b. Leishmania donovani
c. Leishmania tropica
d. Phlebotomu spp.
10. Leishmania organism are transmitted to humans by ______________
a. Sandflies
b. Tsetse flies
c. Mosquitoes
 d. Bugs

REPRADO

1. A common parasite of the pig and a tissue invader.

A. Balantidium coli
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Dientamoeba fragilis
D. Entamoeba histolytica
2. Infective stage of Toxoplasma gondii.
A. Encysted larva
B. Sporocyst
C. Oocyst
D. Cyst
3. A miscellaneous protozoa that believes has two forms of oocyst.
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Balantidium coli
C. Microsporidia
D. Cryptosporidium parvum
4. Has centrally located vacuole.
A. Cryptosporidium parvum
B. Blastocystis hominis
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Isospora belli
5. Has 2 – 4 nuclei located in the cytoplasm.
A. Blastocycstis hominis
B. Balantidium coli
C. Microsporidia
D. Cryptosporidium parvum
6. A miscellaneous protozoa that injects ‘sporoplasm’ in the host cell
A. Microsporidia
B. Balantidium coli
C. Blastocycstis hominis
D. Isospora belli
7. A transplacental miscellaneous protozoa
A. Microsporidia
B. Cryptosporidium hominis
C. Sarcocystis specie
D. Toxoplasma gondii
8. Formerly classified as yeast protozoa
A. Blastocystis hominis
B. Microsporidia
 C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Balantidium coli
9. Its vacuole forms Signet Ring
A. Blastocystis hominis
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Balatandium coli
D. Microsporidia
10. Toxoplasma gondii definitive host
A. Dog
B. Mouse
C. Toxocara
D. Cat

Melgar

1. What is the diagnostic stage of Cryptosporidium parvum?

a. Oocyst b. Trophozoite c. Sporocyst d. NOTA

2. How many sporozoites does oocyst of C. hominis have?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

3. Crescent shape, often more rounded on one end.

a. B. coli b. C. parvum c. T. gondii d. NOTA

4. Which protozoa is acquired by ingestion of food contaminated with cat feces?

a. T. gondii b. C. hominis c. B. coli d. B. hominis

5. What kind of motility does B. coli exhibit?

a. Rotary and boring b. Tumbling c. Slow and unidirectional d. NOTA

6. What is the intermediate host of Isospora belli?

a. Pig b. Dog c. Cat d. NOTA

7. Which of the following is not a possible MOT of T. gondii?

a. Contact with infected feces b. Transplacental c. Blood transfusion D. AOTA

8. What protozoa causes Isosporiasis

a. I. belli b. T. gondii c. B. coli d. C. parvum
9. Large intestinal infection which causes mild colitis and diarrhea to full blown clinical
dysentery
a. Isosporiasis b. Balantidiasis c. toxoplasmosis d. Pneumocystosis

10. Which protozoa causes Sarcocystitis?

a. S. hominis b. S. suihominis c. S. lindemanni d. AOTA